Year 4 Emq

Front 1

Outbreak: Affected people had diarrhoea, abdo pain & vomiting. Some cases, mainly children, had haemolytic uremic syndrome. Traced to undercooked minced meat.

A. Salmonella

B. Mycobacterium bovis (TB)

C. Brucellosis

D. Norovirus

E. Staph aureus

F. Yersinia Enterocolitica

G. Listeria monocytogenes

H. Hepatitis A virus

I. Campylobacter

J. E. coli O157

Back 1

J. E Coli 0157

Front 2

Outbreak: An outbreak of gastroenteritis associated with the consumption of oysters in restaurants in UK.

A. Campylobacter

B. Brucella (Brucellosis)

C. Listeria monocytogenes

D. Mycobacterium bovis (TB)

E. Yersinia Enterocolitica

F. Staphylococcus aureus

G. Hepatitis A virus

H. E. coli O157

I. Norovirus

J. Salmonella

Back 2

I. Norovirus

Front 3

Outbreak: Outbreaks in which soft cheese made from unpasteurized milk was found to be the common source. An enterotoxin was found in the cheese.

A. Listeria monocytogenes

B. Salmonella

C. Staph aureus

D. Norovirus

E. Campylobacter

F. Yersinia Enterocolitica

G. Hepatitis A virus

H. Mycobacterium bovis (TB)

I. Brucella (Brucellosis)

J. E. coli O157

Back 3

C. Staph Aureus

Front 4

Outbreak: An outbreak of GIT illness linked to the consumption of raw egg dishes including mayonnaise and homemade ice cream.

A. E. coli O157

B. Listeria monocytogenes

C. Campylobacter

D. Yersinia Enterocolitica

E. Staph aureus

F. Salmonella

G. Mycobacterium bovis (TB)

H. Hepatitis A virus

I. Brucella (Brucellosis)

J. Norovirus

Back 4

f. Salmonella

Front 5

Outbreak: A nationwide outbreak that has already caused several deaths. The authorities blame the prolonged incubation period for the difficulty of identifying the source of the outbreak, which at this stage of the investigation is believed to be pâté.

A. Brucella

B. Hepatitis A virus

C. Mycobacterium bovis (TB)

D. Salmonella

E. Listeria monocytogenes

F. Yersinia Enterocolitica

G. Campylobacter

H. Staph aureus

I. Norovirus

J. E. coli O157

Back 5

E. Listeria

Front 6

A rabbit requiring a spot on for prevention of fleas.
Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 6

J. Advantage

Front 7

A stray JRT to be castrated this afternoon - however he is riddled with fleas.
​Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 7

i. Capstar (works in 15 minutes, 95% effect in 6 hours)

Front 8

A Boxer that cannot have spot on products due to a chronic skin condition, but the owner only wants to tablet him as little as she can as he hates it. Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 8

d. Bravecto (requires tablet once every 3 months)

Front 9

A Labrodor presenting with sarcoptic mange and flea infestation
​
Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 9

E. Stronghold - very good for sarcoptic mange

Front 10

A GSD with Demodecosis.
​
Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 10

f. Promeris Duo - very good for Demodex.

Front 11

A DSH travelling to Australia in 2 months, where she will be at high risk of heartworm and mange.
​Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 11

C. Advocate (Stronghold has some Dirofilaria effect but no cat mange - Notoedres Cati)

Front 12

A ferret that needs protection from heartworm.
​Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 12

C. Advocate

Front 13

A border collie that needs long term flea protection and lives with another cat, who mutually groom each other.
​Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 13

A = 10% vomit, but GOOD!

B = toxic to cats C = toxic to collies
D = Dog only E = toxic to collies
F = Dog only G = toxic to cats
H = Dog only I = Daily dose needed
J = Licking leads to neuro signs

Front 14

A border collie that requires protection from sandflies, moquitos and stableflies on a 2 week holiday to New Zealand.
​Which treatment/product would be most appropriate?

a) Spinosad (Comfortis)
b) Indoxacarb and Permethrin (Activyl)
c) Imidacloprid and Moxidectin (Advocate)
d) Fluralaner (Bravecto)
e) Selamectin (Stronghold)
f) Amitraz (Promeris Duo)

g) Imidacloprid and Permethrin (Advantix)

h) Fipronil, Methoprene and Amitraz (Certifect)

i) Nitenpyram (Capstar)
j) Imidacloprid (Advantage)

Back 14

G. The only one to protect against all of these parasites, for 2-4 weeks.

Front 15

Which of the following parasitic diseases is NOT pruritic?

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 15

C. Demodex infestations are rarely pruritic in any species.

Front 16

A biting louse that causes severe pruritis, noticeably along the tail base and shoulders. It should be treated with MLs in the autumn when numbers are low.

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 16

H. in cows.

Front 17

A louse that declines rapidly with UV exposure. Treatment can sometimes lead to lameness due to 2ndry Rhusopathiae.

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 17

J. In Sheep. OP-dip can lead to lameness.

Front 18

A mite that causes EXTREME pruritis and pustules. It is difficult to treat due to its latency over summer and survival in the environment for up to 15 days.

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 18

F. These signs are more in sheep (SCAB MITE) but can also occur in cattle.

Front 19

A condition commonly seen in the cow that is mildly pruritic (mainly on the tail, hindlimbs, udder and perineum) and seen more in housed animals.

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 19

G. Very common in cows - mite.

Front 20

The louse responsible for this condition is very large and can transmit a fatal pox disease.

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 20

I. Swine Pox <6mm long.

Front 21

Which one of the following is a zoonotic condition that can be seen as many tiny pustules on the lower arms of a human?

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 21

A. Surface mite

Front 22

Which one of the following can go on to cause eosinophilic-granuloma complex in cats?

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 22

E. FAD.

Front 23

Which of the following is a notifyable condition if seen in horses in the UK?

a) Cheyeletiellosis

b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 23

D.

Front 24

Which of the following conditions is difficult to diagnose with just the naked eye and a microscope, due to its lack of eggs?

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 24

D. >50% cases are egg -ve, therefore look for faeces too and mainly response to treatment.

Front 25

Intermittent exposure of the causative parasite is most likely to cause which condition?

a) Cheyeletiellosis
b) Trombiculosis
c) Demodecosis
d) Sarcoptic Mange
e) FAD
f) Psoroptic Mange
g) Chorioptic Mange
h) Bovicola Bovis
i) Haematopinus Suis
j) Bovicola Ovis

Back 25

E. FAD

Front 26

Which of the following pathogens is responsible for causing "Fleece Rot" in sheep and "Mud Fever" in horses?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) > 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 26

A.

Front 27

A dog presents with non-pruritic, dermal crusts with satellite lesions. Which is the most likely cause?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 27

J. Furunculosis (Deep Pyo) always requires C&S as only 60% cases are due to Staph.

Front 28

A dog presents with pruritis disease on his ventral abdomen and trunk. He has a 'moth-eaten' appearance with epidermal collarettes. Most likely pathogen?
a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 28

i. Superficial Pyo is caused by S. Pseudo in 90% of cases

Front 29

A sheep presents in November with extreme pruritis and a matted fleece. Beneath this she is covered in pustules, as are most of the other sheep. Most likely pathogen?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 29

B. Sheep Scab mite

Front 30

A pig present with pruritis and possible signs of Swine Pox. Most likely pathogen?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 30

C. H. Suis, the Hog Louse

Front 31

A JRT presents with non-pruritic, asymmetrical alopecia with erythema on his nose and face. The owner says he often runs off of his lead and sniffs around the woods out of sight... Most likely pathogen?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) Trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 31

H. Dermatophytosis from hedgehogs, commonly seen on the face of terrier breeds that are inquisitive.

Front 32

Several cows present to you with thick grey plaques on their face and ears. Most likely pathogen?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 32

D. Dermatophytosis in cows.

Front 33

A nearby dairy farm has been having a problem with louse recently, when he suddenly calls and says his calves are looking very pale and weak.. Most likely pathogen?

a) Dermatophilosis
b) Psoroptes
c) Haematopinus
d) Trichophyton Verrucosum
e) Linognostus Vituli
f) Microsporum Canis
g) Microsporum Gypseum
h) trichophyton Erinacei
i) 90% Staph. Pseudointermedius
j) 60% = Staph.

Back 33

E. A suckling louse that causes anaemia in calves.

Front 34

A cat presents with dyspnoea and weight loss. You perform a thoracic tap and this is what is shown under cytology.
Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) Lymphadenitits

Back 34

D. Metastatic, but in the thymus, NOT LN.

Front 35

A dog presents with dysphagia and dyspnoea. X-Rays show the above. Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) None of the above

Back 35

E. Paraneoplastic signs of megao due to myaesthenia gravis are also present

Front 36

A dog presents with large LNs. Aspirate reveals the above. Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) Lymphadenitis

Back 36

F. Normal architecture. Secondary germinal centres seen, just increased number of cells.

Front 37

A dog presents with large LNs. Aspirate reveals the above. Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) Lymphadenitis

Back 37

i. Areas of necrosis and loss of architecture seen, with some normal germinal centres.

Front 38

A dog presents with large LNs. Aspirate reveals the above. Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) Lymphadenitis

Back 38

H. No normal architecture seen at all

Front 39

A dog presents with large LNs. Aspirate reveals the above. Dx?

a) Granulomatous Lymphadenitis
b) Caseous Lymphadenitis
c) Suppurative Lymphadenitis
d) Thymic Lymphoma
e) Thymoma
f) Reactive LN
g) Metastatic (Secondary) LN
h) Primary (Lyphoma) LN
i) Lymphadenitis

Back 39

G. A mast cell can be seen - this is a metastatic MCT

Front 40

Which of the following would you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 40

5. Only licensed treatment for blowfly strike.
(IGRs are also licensed but only to PREVENT, not treat)

Front 41

Which of the following would you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 41

1. This is most likely to be a viral condition (e.g. orf) where there is no treatment, or Dermatophilosis (Mud Fever) where Penicillins would be needed.

Front 42

Which TWO of the following could you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 42

5. and 6. Most likely to be body lice, therefore one OP dip or pour on SP

Front 43

Which TWO of the following could you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 43

This is most likely to be sheep scab (mites) as matted fleece and extensive loss, therefore 8. and 6. e.g. Doramectin or Ivermectin

Front 44

Which one of the following could you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 44

4. Enilconazole only licensed.

Front 45

Which one of the following could you use to treat this case?
1. ABs
2. NSAIDs
3. Ectoparasiticides
4. Antifungals
5. Pyrethroids
6. OPs
7. IGRs
8. MLs

Back 45

8. Most likely to be chorioptic mange, therefore MLs would be best (they are the best for any type of mange in cows)