Vm 160 Final Exam Info

Front 1

Define Intracellular Fluid (ICF)

Back 1

Fluid that is directly in the vessels.

Front 2

Define Extracellular Fluid (ECF)

Back 2

Fluid that is outside the vessels in the subcutaneous . Should be equal to the isotonic fluid.

Front 3

What are the 2 types of Extracellular Fluid, define them

Back 3

Intravascular - this is blood
Interstitial - fluid that is in the tissue. It surrounds the cells of multicellular animals

Front 4

Define Isotonic

Back 4

These fluids have osmotic pressure approximately equal to that of extracellular fluid. Most physiologically normal IV solution
Examples : 0.9 % NaCl, LRS, Norm-R

Front 5

Define Hypertonic

Back 5

Small amount rapidly expands vascular volume (helpful in large patients). Often used with colloids. Must dilute before giving. It shinks the RBC because it has lots of particles more than what is in the RBC.
Examples : 23.4 % NaCl

Front 6

Define Hypotonic Fluid

Back 6

The fluid has less particles than the normal fluid in the body. Good for pateints with sodium retention (heart failure)
Example : D5W, 0.45% NaCl

Front 7

What are colloids?

Back 7

Fluid that contains large macromolecules that cannot cross the cell membrane.
The quickly expand intravascular volume by drawing the water from the tissues into the vessels and vasodilating them.
Example : Hetastarch, Dextrans

Front 8

What are Cyrstalloids?

Back 8

This fluids major particle is Na. It is good for animals with dehydration because it is able to move across then cell membrane easily.

Front 9

What is the rate of administration for maintenance?
Shock?
Dehydration?
Anesthesia?

Back 9

Maintenance - 1mL/lb/hr
Shock - 90mL/kg (dog) 60mL/kg (cat)
Start with 1/4 dose over 15 minutes
Dehydration - mL = % dehydration X BW (kg) X 10
Anesthesia - 5mL/lb/hr

Front 10

What is contained in 0.9% NaCl?

Back 10

Only contains sodium and chloride.
No pH buffer
No potassium
No calcium

Front 11

What is contained in Lactated Ringers Solution (LRS)?

Back 11

Contains sodium and chloride
Small amounts of potassium and calcium
Contains a pH buffer (lactate)
Lactate is metabolized by liver

Front 12

What is contained in Normosol-R (Norm-R)?

Back 12

Contains sodium and chloride
Small amount of potassium and magnesium
Contains a pH buffer (acetate)
Acetate is not metabolized by the liver

Front 13

What is a microdrip set?

Back 13

The drops in the microdrip are small
The drop set is 60 gtt/min

Front 14

What is a macrodrip set?

Back 14

The drops are large
The drop set is 15 gtt/min

Front 15

Define Adnexa

Back 15

Orbit, orbital contents, lids, lacrimal system, conjunctiva, 3rd eyelid

Front 16

Define Anterior chamber

Back 16

An aqueous filled space formed anteriorly by the cornea and posteriorly by the iris and lens

Front 17

Define Aqueous humor

Back 17

Clear, watery fluid which fills the anterior and posterior chambers

Front 18

Define Blepharo

Back 18

Eyelid

Front 19

Define Canthus

Back 19

The angle at either end of the eye, specified as medial and lateral

Front 20

Define Meibomian gland

Back 20

Sebaceous gland in the tarsal plate contribute the oil layer of the tear film

Front 21

Define Choroid

Back 21

Lies close to the retina and provides nourishment and support. Blood vessels are the main substance

Front 22

Define Cilia

Back 22

Eyelashes

Front 23

Define Ciliary body

Back 23

Supports the lens, production of aqueous fluid and outflow of the fluid

Front 24

Define Conjunctiva

Back 24

Mucous membrane lining the posterior aspect of the eyelids and covering the anterior sclera

Front 25

Define Cornea

Back 25

Transparent outer most layer of the eye

Front 26

Define Limbus

Back 26

The area where the cornea touches the sclera

Front 27

Define the layers of the corner

Back 27

Descemet's membrane
Elastic basement membrane of the corneal endothelium.
Lies posterior to the stroma and anterior to the endothelium
Endothelium
The most posterior layer of the cornea
Epithelium
The most anterior layer of the cornea
Stroma
Located between the epithelium and descemet's membrane
Comprises 90% of the cornea

Front 28

Define Fundus

Back 28

The posterior portion of the interior of the eye

Front 29

Define the Optic disc

Back 29

The circular area in the retina where the fibers from the ganglion cells of the retina to form the optic nerve

Front 30

Define Tapetum

Back 30

The fluorescent layer in the choroid responsible for the shinning of animals eyes in the dark

Front 31

Define Irido-corneal angle

Back 31

Area between the iris and the cornea, aqueous fluid flows and drains out of the eye

Front 32

Define Lens

Back 32

It is a biconvex structure that i transparent and provides an important refractive function

Front 33

Define Sclera

Back 33

The white part of the eye, with the cornea comprises the connective tissue tunic of the eye

Front 34

Define Uveal Tract

Back 34

The pigmented, vascular layer of the eye comprising the iris, ciliary body and choroid

Front 35

Define Vitreous

Back 35

Transparent, colorless mass of soft, gelatinous material filling the eyeball behind the lens

Front 36

Define Zonule fibers (Suspensory Ligaments)

Back 36

Many fine strands which stretch from the ciliary body to the lens equator and holds the lens in place

Front 37

What is Buphthalmos

Back 37

Enlargement of the globe

Front 38

What is Enophthalmos

Back 38

Abnormal recession of the eye within the orbit

Front 39

What is Enucleation

Back 39

Removal of the eye

Front 40

What is Exophthalmos

Back 40

Abnormal Protrusion of the globe

Front 41

What is nystagmus

Back 41

Rhythmical oscillation of the eyeball either horizontally, rotary or vertically

Front 42

What is Proptosis

Back 42

Forward displacement of the globe

Front 43

What is Strabismus

Back 43

Deviation of the visual axis of the eye

Front 44

What is Blepharitis

Back 44

Inflammation of the lids

Front 45

What is Blepharospasm

Back 45

Spasms of the eyelids (squinting)

Front 46

What is Distichiasis

Back 46

An extra row of lashes at the lid margin

Front 47

What is Ectropion

Back 47

Outward rolling of the eyelids

Front 48

What is Entropion

Back 48

Inward rolling of the eyelids

Front 49

What is Epiphora

Back 49

Overflow of tears

Front 50

What is Lacrimation

Back 50

Production of tears

Front 51

What is Chemosis

Back 51

Edema of the conjunctiva

Front 52

What is Hyperemia

Back 52

Increased redness of the conjunctiva

Front 53

What is Descemetocele

Back 53

Herniation of the basement membrane of the corneal epithelium

Front 54

What is Keratitis

Back 54

Inflammation of the cornea

Front 55

What is Keratoconjunctivitis Sicca (KCS)

Back 55

Inflammation of the cornea and conjunctiva associated with inadequate tear production

Front 56

What is Sicca

Back 56

Dry

Front 57

What is Hyphemia

Back 57

Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye in front of the iris

Front 58

What is Hypopyon

Back 58

Pus in the anterior chamber

Front 59

What is Anisicoria

Back 59

The pupils of the 2 eyes are of unequal size

Front 60

What is Consensual pupillary light reflex

Back 60

Constriction of the pupil of the contralateral eye when the retina is stimulated by light

Front 61

What is Dyscoria

Back 61

Abnormally shaped pupil

Front 62

What is Miosis

Back 62

Constriction of the pupil

Front 63

What is Mydriasis

Back 63

Dilation of the pupil

Front 64

What is a Cataract

Back 64

Any opacity of the lens or lens capsule

Front 65

What is Luxation

Back 65

Complete displacement of the lens

Front 66

What is involved with a "No-touch" examination

Back 66

Must be from at least an arms length away, evaluate for bilateral symmetry
Orbit-globe relationship
Eyelids
Brow
Lateral canthus

Front 67

What is a Menace Reflex

Back 67

This is a blink reflex that is stimulated with a sudden movement towards the eye

Front 68

What happens with Visual placing

Back 68

With patient under one arm move towards the table and watch for placement of the feet

Front 69

What is involved with Visual Tracking

Back 69

You can toss a cotton ball across the line of sight

Front 70

What happens in the Obstacle Course Navigation (Maze Test)

Back 70

Should be performed in both light and dark conditions
Place cones and have the animal walk through the cones
If they hit the cones then there is a problem

Front 71

What is involved with a Pupillary Light Reflex

Back 71

This reflex checks the CN 2 and 3, along with normal iris function
Putting light in one eye (direct) and checking to see if the other pupil will contrict (consensual or indirect)

Front 72

What does the Palpebral reflex do

Back 72

Touching the medial and lateral canthus will stimulate a blinking reflex
Checks CN V and VII

Front 73

What happens in the Dazzle Reflex

Back 73

This test requires retinal function and CN II and VII
The normal response is blinking or squinting

Front 74

What does the Schirmer Tear Test do

Back 74

This test measures the relfex of tearing
Always done 1st!!
Place a "notched" end in the lower fornix for 60 seconds and read immediately. The number is the amount of tears the eye produced

Front 75

What does the Fluorescein Dye Test test for

Back 75

It detects a defect in the corneal epithelium and for assessing the nasolacrimal system
Moistening the strip with the dye on it with sterile eye wash. Then touching the bulbar conjuctiva.
Then looking at the eye with a fluorescence like to see if there is any abnormalities

Front 76

What is the Jones test

Back 76

Must do the Fluorescein Dye Test first
Applying sterile eye drops to the eye and waiting for 5 to 10 minutes. A positive result will show bright green stain coming from the nostrils

Front 77

Tonometry tests for what

Back 77

Measurement of intraocular pressure

Front 78

Fundus Examination contains what

Back 78

Best when the animals eyes are dilated
Direct or indirect ophthalmoscopy is used
This shows the fundus at the back of the eye. You should see the optic disc and blood vessels going to the optic disc

Front 79

What is the first heart sound (S1) and what is it composed of

Back 79

S1 is the "lub" sound
Composed of the closing AV valves

Front 80

What is the second heart sound (S2) and what is it composed of

Back 80

S2 is the "dub" sound
Composed of the closing Pulmonic/Aortic valves

Front 81

What is a murmur

Back 81

Swishing sound that is either Systolic or Diastolic (on later slide)
Either composed by a turbulant blood flow or abnormal heart sound

Front 82

What is a Systolic Murmur

Back 82

The murmur happens inbetween the S1 and S2
Systolic sound happens when the AV valves are closed and Pulmonic/Aortic valves are open
So the murmur is because of leaky AV valves or narrow (stenosis) Pulmonic/Aortic valves

Front 83

What is a Diastolic Murmur

Back 83

The murmur happens after S2 or before S1
Diastolic sound happens when the AV valves are open and Pulmonic/Aortic valves are closed
So the murmur is because there is a leaky Pulmonic/Aortic valves or narrow (stenosis) or the AV valves

Front 84

Where on the body can you hear the valves

Back 84

On the left side of the chest
M (Mitral/ Left AV valve) - 5th intercostal space
A (Aortic valve)- 4th intercostal space
P (Pulmonic valve)- 3rd intercostal space

Right side of the chest you hear
T (Tricuspid/ right AV valve) - 4th intercostal space

Front 85

What is a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)

Back 85

This will cause a Continuous murmur throught out the whole LUB/DUB
The PDA is a connection of the Aortic artery and the Pulmonic artery, which causes a mixture of the blood.
Because the Aorta has more pressure more oxygenated blood goes back to the lungs and causes there to be less oxygenated blood to the body

Front 86

What does the electrocardiography tell you

Back 86

This the the machine that tells the infomation

Front 87

What does the electrocardiogram (ECG) do

Back 87

This the the infomation that is collected. It senses the electric impulse that is sent from the heart

Front 88

What is an arrhythmia

Back 88

It is an abnormal heart rhythum

Front 89

What is a bigeminy

Back 89

It is a normal heart followed by a VPC(preventricular contraction)

Front 90

What does a normal baseline look like?

Back 90

The baseline should be centered, stable and free of distortions or undulations

Front 91

What does a normal P wave look like and what happens during it?

Back 91

The P wave should be positive, smooth, rounded. All P waves should be the same hight and distance from the QRS complex.
It happens when the Atrials depolarize

Front 92

What makes the QRS complex normal? What is happening during this?

Back 92

The QRS complex is the largest wave form generated, it should follow the P wave, and have a T wave following it.
It happens when the ventricles depolarize and when the atrials repolarize

Front 93

What makes a T wave normal? What is happening at this time?

Back 93

The T wave could be positive or negative deflection, but it should not change polarity when being monitored.
It happens when the ventricles are repolarizing

Front 94

What is important about the P-R interval? What makes it normal?

Back 94

It should be a consistant length throughout the monitoring

Front 95

What is involved in the S-T interval?

Back 95

It is a distinct, stable, baseline that follows the S wave.

Front 96

What is bradycardia?

Back 96

Slower than normal heart beat

Front 97

What is tachycardia?

Back 97

Faster than normal heart beat

Front 98

What is a sinus rhythm?

Back 98

This is the normal beating of the heart by the ECG.

Front 99

What is a sinus arrhythmia?

Back 99

A sinus arrhythmia happens when the animal breathes. The rate will increase when breathing in, and decrease when breathing out

Front 100

What is asystole? How can this happen?

Back 100

Asystole can be artifact or pathological. It is when there is no electrical current happening and means the patient is in cardiac arrest.

Front 101

What happens in Electromechanical dissociation (EMD)? How do you know this is what it is?

Back 101

The electroconductivity or the heart doesnt match the feeling of the pulse.
Really the heart is not pumping but the electricity is sending the signal.
You know it is EMD if you cant feel a pulse but you can see the ECG doing something

Front 102

What does a Capnography do? Why is it used?

Back 102

The Capnography measures the amount of carbon dioxide that is inhaled and exhaled by the patient.
Used also to obtain respiratory rate
You can also use to ensure proper endotracheal tube placement

Front 103

What is a pulse oximetry?

Back 103

Measures the percent of oxygen saturated hemoglobin, and also measures the pulse rate.
It measures the percent of oxygen saturated hemoglobin by using a light that shines through the blood vessel and can tell which RBC are carrying oxygen.

Front 104

What is direct blood pressure? Why is it used?

Back 104

Direct blood pressure is a pressure reading straight from the artery. It reads systolic, diastolic, and mean pressures.
This is the most accurate method to read blood pressure.

Front 105

What is indirect blood pressure? What are some ways to find indirect blood pressure?

Back 105

Indirect blood pressure is found from outside of the vessel. You can use a cuff to find the systolic, diastolic, and mean numbers
1. Doppler - A crystal picks up an ultrasound echo from RBC flowing through an artery. A "swoosh" sound is made and when the cuff is inflated the sound should go away. Then when the cuff is released the sound is heard again.
The numbers should be read at each of these times.
2. Dinamap -

Front 106

What equipment do you think you will need for CPR?
(Very basic things)

Back 106

1. AMBU bag
2. Anesthetic machine
3. Rebreathing bag
4. Defibrillator

Front 107

What does Epinephrine do? What kind of drug is it? When would you use it?

Back 107

Epinephrine would speed up the heart and increase the contractions of the heart.
It is a sympathomimtic drug and a positive inotrope
It is used when a patient is in
1. Asystole
2. Electromechanical dissociation (EMD)

Front 108

What does Atropine do? What kind of drug is it? When would you use it?

Back 108

Atropine speeds up the heart to a normal beat.
It is a parasympatholytic drug
It is used when the vagus nerve has been stimulated and it slows down the heart and causes bradycardia.

Front 109

What does Dobutamine HCl do? What kind of drug is it? When would you use it?

Back 109

Dobutamine makes the heart beat harder
It is a positive intrope
You would use it with a constant rate infusion because it has a short half-life

Front 110

What does Lidocaine (w/out epi) do? What kind of drug is it? When would you use it?

Back 110

Lidocaine slows down the heart and can restart it when it is irretated or something like that.
Lidocaine is a sodium-channel blocker, which stops the heart from depolarizing.
It is used when there is somekind of irratation, when there is PVC's maybe V-tach

Front 111

What are some ways that you could administer emergency drugs? Describe them.

Back 111

1. Intravenous
- Into the vein itself.
- You would follow this by sterile saline
2. Intratracheal
- Into the trachea directly
- Usually double the dose and add chaser like sterile saline
3. Intracardiac
- Right into the heart
- This is usually done as a last resort

Front 112

What is defibrillation? Why would you use it?

Back 112

Defibrillation is a electrical current that is sent through the animal to somehow jump start their SA node. You would use it when an animal is in Ventricular fibrillation or in asystole, sometimes when the animal is in V-tach.

Front 113

What is GV-26? Why is it important to know where this is?

Back 113

GV-26 is a site in the nose that you can try to use to jump start the heart. It is a natural acupressure site) You can try this area if nothing is helping you patient with the heart rate.