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92 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Histones are rich in what aminoacids?

Lysine and arginine

______charged DNA loops twice around _______charged histone octamer to form nucleosome bead.

Negatively, positively

What are the sources of carbon in purines?

Glycine, tetrahydrofolate, c02

What are the 5 things needed to make purines?

Glycine, aspartate, glutamine, tetrahydrofolates, C02

What are the 4 things needed to make pyramidines?

Aspartate, c02, glutamine, ATP

What enzyme helps convert glutamine + c02 into carbomyl phosphate?

Carbomyl phosphate synthetase II

What drug blocks carbomyl phosphate conversion into orotic acid?

Leflunomide

What sugar-phosphate complex is needed for pyrimidine and purine base production?

Ribose 5-P

What drug blocks ribonucleotide reductase?

Hydroxyurea

What drug blocks thymidylate synthase?

5-FU

What drug blocks dihydrofolate reductase?

MTX, TMP

What enzyme helps conversion from PRPP into IMP?

Glutamine PRPP amidotransferase

What drug blocks glutamine PRPP amidotransferase?

6-MP

What drug blocks GMP conversion by inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase?

Mycophenolate

Where is carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I and II located?

I: Mitochondria


II: Cytosol

In what pathyways do carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I and II work?

I: urea cycle


II: Pyrimidine synthesis

Where does carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I and II get its source of nitrogen?

I: ammonia


II: glutamine

Synthesis begins with making a temporary base and adding sugar and phosphate

Pyrimidine synthesis

Synthesis starts with sugar and phosphate and a base is added

Purine synthesis

Inability to convert orotic acid into UMP because of defect in UMP sunthase. Autosomal recessive.

Orotic aciduria

What is lesch nyhan syndrome?

Results in excess uric acid production and de novo purine synthesis. Due to absent HGPRT (which converts hypoxanthine to IMP and guanine to GMP).



HGPRT (Hyperuricemia, gout, pissed off, retardation, dysTonia)

What are the symptoms of lesch nyhan syndrome?

Intellectual dissability, agression, self mutilation, hyperuricemia, gout, dystonia

What is the treatment of lesch nyhan syndrome?

Allopurinol, febuxostat

What does eukaryote DNA polymerase alpha do?

Makes own primer, builds okasaki fragments on lagging strand

What does eukaryote DNA polymerase beta do?

DNA repair

What does eukaryote DNA polymerase gamma do?

Replicates mitochondrial DNA

What does eukaryote DNA polymerase delta do?

Builds leading strand

Y-shaped region along DNA template where leading and lagging strands are synthesized

Replication fork

Unwinds DNA template at replication fork

Helicase

Prevents strands from reannealing

single-stranded binding proteins

Creates a single or double stranded break in the helix to add or remove supercoils

DNA topoisomerases

Makes an RNA primer on which DNA polymerase III can initiate replication

Primase

Found in prokaryotes only, elongates leading strand by adding deoxynucleotides to the 3' end. Elongates lagging strand until it reaches primer preceding fragments.

DNA polymerase III

Prokaryotic only. Degrades RNA primer; replaces it with DNA.

DNA polymerase I

Joins okazaki fragments in prokaryotes

DNA ligase

What is a primosome?

Helicase + primase

Mutation that occurs due to nucleotide substitution that codes for same amino acid, and often a base changes in 3rd position of codon

Silent mutation

Nucletide subsitution resulting in changed amino acid

Missense

Nucleotide subsitution resulting in early stop codon

nonsence

Deletion or insertion of a number of nucleotides, resulting in misreading of all nucleotides downstream, resulting in a truncated, nonfunctional protein

Framshift

What is a classic example of a missense mutation?

Sickle cell disease

What is a classic example of frameshift mutation?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

DNA repair mechanism that is damaged in xeroderma pigmentosum

Nucleotide excision repair

DNA repair mechanism that is defective in hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

Mismatch repair

DNA repair mechanism that is defective in ataxia telangiectasia

Nonhomolous end joining

DNA repair where;


1. Endonucleases remove damaged bases


2. DNA polymerase fill gap


3. Ligase reseals gap

Nucleotide excision repair

DNA repair where;


1. Glycosylase removes altered base


2. Endonucleases cut and remove sugar


3. Polymerase-B fills gap


4. Ligase seals gap

Base excision repair

DNA repair where new strand is recognized, mismatched nucleotides are removed and gap is filled

Mismatch repair

DNA repair where 2 ends of DNA fragments are joined to repair double stranded breaks

Nonhomologous end joining

Bloom syndrome

Helicase mutation where there are problems with DNA replication and repair.


- Hypersensitivity to sunlight


- Increased risk of leukemia/linfoma


- Facial abnormalities, infertility

Where does aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase work?

3' end of tRNA

What antibiotics affect 50S subunit?

Chloramphenicol, linezolid, macrolides, clindamycin, lincomycin, streptogramins

What antibiotics affect 30S subunit?

Tetracyclines, aminoglycosides

Which antibiotics block initiation of protein synthesis?

Aminoglycosides: before initiation


Linezolid


Tetracyclines: during initiation

What initiates initiation of protein synthesis?

GTP hydrolysis

Antibiotics that block elongation of protein synthesis?

All the ones that block 50S except linezolid




Chloramphenicol, clindamycin, lincomycin, macrolides (azitTHROmycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin), streptogramins (quinupristin, dalfopristin)

Antibiotic that binds to 23S subunit on 50S and inhibits peptidyltransferase

Chloramphenicol

What are the stop codons?

UGA, UAA, UAG

Posttranslational modifications that include removal of N- or C-terminal propeptides from zymogen to generate mature protein

Trimming

Posttranslational modifications that include phosphorylation, glycosylation, hydroxilation

Covalent alterations

Inheritance that is often due to defects in structural genes, both female and males affected.

Autosomal dominant

Inheritance where 25% of offspring from 2 carrier parents are affected. Often due to enzyme deficiency, usually seen only in 1 generation

Autosomal recessive

Sons of heterozygous mothers have a 50% chance of being affected. No male-to-male transmission

X-linked recessive

Transmitted through both parents, Mothers transmit to 50% of daughters and sons; fathers transmit to all daughters but no sons

X-linked dominant

Transmitted only through mother. All offspring of affected demales may show signs of the disease

Mitochondrial inheritance

When both alleles contribute to the phenotype of the heterozygote, it is called...

Codominance

When one gene contributes to multiple phenotypic effects, it is called...

Pleiotropy

When there is presence of genetically distinct cell lines in the same individual, it is called....

Mosaicism

When there is mutation at different loci that can produce a similar phenotype, it is called...

Locus heterogenity

When at some loci, only one allele is active, the other is inactive (but the active one is deleted->disease)

Imprinting

Both prader willi syndrome and angelman syndrome are due to ________

Imprinting. Mutation or deletion on chromosome 15

Paternal gene is deleted/mutated.

Prader willi sx



POP


Prader, Overeating/obesity, Paternal deletion


Other sx: hypogonadism, hypotonia, short stature, intelectual disability

Maternal gene is deleted/mutated

AngelMan syndrome



MAMA


Maternal gene, Angelman, Mood(happy), Ataxia


Other sx: seizures, severe intellectual disability

Molecular biology laboratory procedure used to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Useful as a diagnostic tool.

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

What occurs during denaturation step in PCR?

dna is denatured by heating to generate 2 separate strands.

What occurs during annealing step in PCR?

During cooling, excess premade DNA primers anneal to a specific sequence on each strand to be amplified.

What occurs during elongation step in PCR?

Heat-stable DNA polymerase replicates the DNA sequence following each primer

Blotting procedure with DNA sample and DNA probe

Southern blot

Blotting procedure with RNA sample and DNA probe

Northern blot

Blotting procedure with protein sample and Ab probe

Western blot

Blotting procedure with DNA-binding protein sample and oligonucleotide probes

Southwestern blot

Used to detect the presence of either a specific antigen or a specific antibody in a patients blood sample

ELISA (indirect or direct, respectively)

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay that uses a test antigen to a specific antibody

Indirect ELISA

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay that uses a test antibody to see if a specific antigen is present in the patients blood

Direct ELISA

Fluorescent DNA or RNA probe bindds to specific gene site of interest on chromosomes

FISH

What steps are taken in cloning recombinant DNA molecules?

1. Isolate eukaryotic mRNA


2. Reverse transcriptase to produce cDNA


3. Insert cDNA fragments into bacterial plasmids


4. Transform recombinant plasmid into bacteria


5. Surviving bacteria on antibiotic medium produce cDNA

Random insertion of gene into mouse genome

Constituive insertion

Targeted insertion or deletion of gene through homologous recombination with mouse gene

Conditional insertion

Removing a gene, taking it out

Knock out

Inserting a gene

Knock in

A process in which metaphase chromosomes are stained ordered, and numbered according to morphology, size, arm-length ratio and banding pattern.

Karyotyping

What is karyotyping typically used to diagnose?

Chromosomal imbalances such as autosomal trisomies, sex chromosome disorders