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1/1876

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1876 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham test?
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia
defective degranulation
What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit
blood viscosity
If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli
is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?
What transports iron in the blood?
Transferrin
What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia
epiphyseal enlargements
A Japanese man has weight loss
anorexia
What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia
can impair motor activity
What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?
Transient ischemic attack
What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?
Krukenberg tumor
What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?
Tay-Sachs disease
Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the anterior cerebral artery?
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity
occurs in women more than men
What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly
ascites
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery vasospasm
symptom occurrence at rest
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery luminal narrowing
symptom occurrence during exertion
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency
duration
What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small
oval
What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal proliferation of cell size
shape
What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees
elbows
What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?
Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice
pruritus
What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?
Macrophages
True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.
True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.
What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea
flushing
What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in children?
Teratoma
What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough
shortness of breath
What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e.
What is characterized by an intense inflammatory reaction
an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?
What thyroiditis presents as a tender
enlarged
What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?
Graves disease
What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive
mental retardation
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?
Gastrinoma
What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?
Duodenal ulcer
What disease arises from the adrenal medulla
displaces and crosses the midline
What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis
diplopia
What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane
commonly seen in uremia?
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Beta-hCG
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-125
Ovarian cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-19.9 and CEA
Pancreatic cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • alpha-Fetoprotein
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Calcitonin
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
Prostate cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Placental alkaline phosphatase
Seminoma
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CEA
Cancer of the lung
What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young men
involves the sacroiliac joints
What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count
prolonged PT and PTT
What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors
bone pain
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)
Pompe's disease
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Muscle phosphorylase
McArdle's syndrome
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Glucose-6-phosphatase
von Gierke's disease
What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?
Serocystadenocarcinoma
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
Hydatidiform mole
In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?
Pyelonephritis
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • Overall?
Staphylococcus aureus
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In neonates?
Streptococcus agalactiae
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In patients with sickle cell disease?
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In drug addicts?
Pseudomonas
What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur
pelvis
What lymphoma is characterized by CD19
CD20
What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?
C5b-C9
True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.
What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome?
Preductal (infantile)
True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is a marker for increased bone formation.
True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with increased bone formation.
What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?
Toxoplasmosis
What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function
resulting in thick
True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion
leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.
What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Brushfield spots
What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?
Pott disease
What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?
Liver
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
pheochromocytoma
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
pheochromocytoma
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Parathyroid
pancreatic
What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation
self-mutilation
What disorder is associated with spider angiomas
palmar erythema
What is your diagnosis of a young
thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?
What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV-positive individual?
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to another?
Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)
What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill use?
Hepatic adenomas
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or AR?
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 0-10 WBCs (monocytes); glucose 45 to 85
protein 15 to 45
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels
Brain abscess
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17
Viral meningitis
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90% lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100
TB meningitis
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
Bacterial meningitis
True or false? Removal of the ileum results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.
True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is absorbed.
What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200
protein level 2.5
What is the term for thickened
hyperpigmented skin in the axillae
How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
>3.5 g/day of protein
What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?
Heroin
What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor
a secondary cause of HTN
What is the term for flattened nose
low-set ears
What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?
Primary intention
What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?
CMV retinitis and HSV-2
What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone
What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?
gp120
What is the term for RBC fragments?
Schistocytes
What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?
Albinism
What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs
What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?
Helicobacter pylori
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Alkylating agents
Leukemias and lymphomas
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Aromatic amines and azo dyes
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Arsenic
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Asbestos
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Naphthylamine
Bladder cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Benzenes
Leukemias
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Vinyl chloride
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Chromium and nickel
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Nitrosamines
Gastric cancer
What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia
sweating
What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?
Ristocetin
What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene
has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness
What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps
most commonly affects the colorectal area
What is the term for osteophyte formation at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?
Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.
What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus?
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic cord?
Varicocele
What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin
platelets
What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?
Osteosarcoma
What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?
Pneumocystis carinii
What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow aspirations
splenomegaly
What disease that involves mental retardation
flat face
What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens
positive direct Coombs test
What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?
5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)
What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?
LC4
What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7
causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
What law states that an enlarged
palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?
What is the term for air in the pleural space?
Pneumothorax
What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick
weak bones and is associated with high-output cardiac failure?
What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?
Hypertrophy
What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?
Meningioma
True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.
TRUE
What are the five components of portal HTN?
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids
What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome
What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?
Craniopharyngioma
What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy
OCP use
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM
Goodpasture disease
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Granular deposits of IgG
IgM
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?
GP IIb/IIIa
What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell lymphomas?
HHV-8
What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old age group
peaks when the person is 35 years of age
What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to anus
has noncaseating granulomas
Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a patient is HIV-positive?
ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.
What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?
Proud flesh
What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
Cytochrome c
How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden cardiac death?
More than 75% of the vessel
Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6-PD deficiency?
Heinz bodies
What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in HTN
hypokalemia
What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?
EBV
What normochromic
normocytic AD anemia has splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?
What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?
Gigantism
What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
Homogentisic oxidase
What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty
masculinization
Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.
DM
Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities
lax joints
What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN
RVH
Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?
G-6-PD deficiency
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a deficiency in factor VIII?
Hemophilia A
What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever
fatigue
What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
Deficiency in surfactant
What are the three components of amyloid?
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans
What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?
Myasthenia gravis
What are the three left-to-right shunts?
1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA
What protein causes fibrinolysis?
Plasmin
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea
hypokalemia
True or false? Obesity
DM
What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?
Lisch nodules
What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign
an increase in the number of bloody stools
What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?
Candida
True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.
True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis of an asthmatic.
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium
PGI2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
PGD2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Pain and fever
PGE2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by platelets
TXA2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Chemotactic for neutrophils
LTB4
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
bronchospasm
Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?
HBeAb
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Miners
metal grinders
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Aerospace industry
nuclear reactors
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Shipyards
brake linings
What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?
Porcelain gallbladder
What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization
Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19
CD20
What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur
humerus
What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma
Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
What carcinoma produces hematuria
flank pain
Name at least three causes of metastatic calcification.
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P
What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is most commonly seen in females?
Nodular sclerosis
What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the United States?
Smoking
What prion-associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus
involuntary movements
What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting
fissuring
What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
Paget disease of the breast
Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from what cell in the bone marrow?
Megaloblasts
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Sunburn
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Uremic pericarditis
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Parasitic infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Diphtheria infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Meningococcal infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Rickettsial infection
What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium
What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention
bloating
What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?
HHV 8
What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
Kayser-Fleischer rings
Name the six vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
Factors II
What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?
Cystadenocarcinoma
A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list
What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.
N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?
Simon focus
What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?
Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever
What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt
along with Heinz body formation?
What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?
Target cell
True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no underlying pathology.
False. The disease has no associated pathology; the phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying disease.
What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?
Intraductal papilloma
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a deficiency in factor IX?
Hemophilia B
What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung
What disease has multiple schwannomas
café-au-lait spots on the skin
What syndrome is due to Abs directed to calcium channels and causes muscle weakness that improves with repeated use?
Eaton-Lambert syndrome
In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational exposure to asbestos?
Malignant mesothelioma
What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs
seen in lead poisoning?
What is the triad of fat embolism?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g.
Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe
what form of arthritis do you diagnose?
What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands
submaxillary gland
What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity
hirsutism
What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+
involves keratin pearls
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?
PKU
True or false? Being a white male increases your risk factor for testicular cancer.
Oddly enough
Can an acute MI be diagnosed only by looking at an ECG?
No. Remember
What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis
corneal ulcers
True or false? Sickle cell anemia
Caisson disease
What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?
p-53
Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Ulcerative colitis
What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?
ELISA test
How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?
At least six
What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
Metastatic calcification
What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?
Volvulus
What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almond-scented breath?
Cyanide
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or localized.
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent or ADCC.
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by sensitized T-cells
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)
What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with pseudorosettes?
Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e.
What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?
Goodpasture syndrome
What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli
tubules
What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?
Schwannoma
True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in diagnosing CREST syndrome.
True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse scleroderma.
What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia
loss of deep tendon reflexes
What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
TXA2
Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?
Transtentorial (uncal)
What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?
Syphilitic
What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?
T lymphocyte
What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP use and pregnancy?
Melasma
What is the classic triad of TB?
Fever
True or false? Blood clots lack platelets.
True. A thrombus has platelets
What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?
Histiocytosis X
What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)
What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?
Scrotal cancer
What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of the skin?
Bulla
What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?
EBV
With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?
GH-producing adenoma
What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
Name the four right-to-left congenital cardiac shunts.
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with neuromuscular irritability indicate?
Hypoparathyroidism
Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT
What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
Adult T-cell leukemia
What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?
Schatzki ring
With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries
What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
<2
What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes
muscle weakness
What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly encounter?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?
Melanosis coli
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Fever
Minor
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Migratory polyarthritis
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Subcutaneous nodules
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Elevated acute phase reactants (e.g.
ESR)
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Arthralgias
Minor
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Erythema marginatum
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Sydenham chorea
Major
What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?
Bcl-2
Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?
Hepatitis D
What are the three main components of amyloid?
Fibrillary protein
What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100
00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue
What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle
In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys
rockerbottom feet
What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis
What disorder is associated with loss of polarity
anaplasia
What is the term for telescoping of the proximal bowel into the distal segment presenting as abdominal pain
currant jelly stools
What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?
Amanita phalloides
What type of erythema do you see in • Ulcerative colitis?
Erythema nodosum
What type of erythema do you see in • Rheumatic fever?
Erythema marginatum
What type of erythema do you see in • Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Erythema multiforme
What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner syndrome?
Osteoma
What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting bacteria?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures
headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity
What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?
Mercury
What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?
Oligodendroglioma
Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of collagen?
Type IV collagen
If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes
reticulocytes
After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean
an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do you immediately diagnose?
What cell type involves humoral immunity?
B lymphocyte
What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?
Hypersegmented neutrophils
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)
What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?
Marfan syndrome
What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy
chorea
What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
Neutropenia
What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?
Chemotaxis
What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined well-circumscribed borders?
Benign nevus (mole)
What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?
Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?
Salpingitis
What disease with familial mental retardation produces large
everted ears and macro-orchidism?
What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sun-exposed sites has a low level of metastasis?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
VSD
What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?
Bronchiectasis
What is an elevated
fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?
What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?
Sheehan syndrome
What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70 antibodies?
Scleroderma
What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal
endodermal
What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
What are the three causes of transudate?
CHF
A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness
a sore
What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic anemia?
Vitamin B6
What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?
Scrofula
Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?
Massive influx of calcium
What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+
cardiac arrhythmias
What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation
somnolence
What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?
Caplan syndrome
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies
early age of intercourse
What is the term for precipitation of calcium phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?
Dystrophic calcification
What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?
Meckel diverticulum
What type of crystals are associated with gout?
Monosodium urate crystals
What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?
Mees lines
What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?
Klatskin tumor
IgE-mediated mast cell release
C3a and C5a
What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group
is more prevalent in women than men
What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion
crepitus
What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype
testes present
What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?
Howell-Jolly bodies
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with increased intracranial pressure?
Cushing's ulcers
What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium
What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum
brainstem
How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?
At least 5 lobes
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?
Astrocytoma
True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels are associated with poststreptococcal GN.
False. ASO titers are elevated
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von Willebrand factor?
GP Ib
What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g.
GI
Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?
Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte function- associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?
Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subdural hemorrhage
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Epidural hemorrhage
Middle meningeal artery
True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.
TRUE
What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ɑ-synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
Lewy bodies
In which form of emphysema
panacinar or centriacinar
What syndrome results if the enzyme ɑ-1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase deficiency?
Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome
What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow
What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?
CHF
What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have no Barr bodies.
True. Remember
What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?
Auspitz sign
What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
Hgb F
What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female having visual field deficits
dizziness
A 20-year-old college student has fever
grey-white membranes over the tonsils
What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?
Eosinophil
What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?
Pseudogout
What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis
MI
What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell anemia?
Valine
What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
Melanin
What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?
Placental alkaline phosphatase
What type of GN
associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis
What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus
dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles
What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?
X-linked recessive
What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase
dihydrotestosterone
Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?
Myeloperoxidase
What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
Cholesterolosis
What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?
Arsenic
What is the term for programmed cell death?
Apoptosis (Remember
What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given aspirin during a viral illness?
Reye syndrome
What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling?
Lead poisoning
What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous
with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps
What is the pentad of TTP?
Neurologic symptoms Renal failure Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern
Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?
HBeAg
What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?
Job syndrome
What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
Endometriosis
What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?
45XO
What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)
What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?
Type III
The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)
What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis
tubules
How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
It causes a buildup of dATP
Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with life?
Type II
With what is cherry red intoxication associated?
Acute CO poisoning
What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
What are the four signs of acute inflammation?
Rubor (red)
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Increased iron
decreased TIBC
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
TIBC
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
percent saturation
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Normal iron
TIBC
Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
Panacinar
An 80-year-old woman presents to you with right-sided temporal headache
facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side
What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
Type 2
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Gaucher disease
What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
Boutonnière deformities
True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of a lung.
False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.
What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?
Parvovirus B 19
What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?
Klinefelter syndrome
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?
Onion skinning
A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer
What disease is X-linked recessive
is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections
Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?
Nodular melanoma
Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection from what type of organisms?
Encapsulated bacteria
How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
Two major or one major and two minor
What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)
What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?
Hemosiderin
What is a palpable
elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?
True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.
TRUE
What pathology is associated with podagra
tophi in the ear
What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium difficile
ischemia
What do the risk factors late menopause
early menarche
What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure
psammoma bodies
Name three opsonins.
Fc portion of IgG
What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
Beryllium
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Name the type of necrosis. • The most common form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the cytoplasm
Coagulative necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
Gangrenous necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive necrosis?
Liquefaction necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance
Fat necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Soft
friable
Name the type of necrosis. • Histologically resembles fibrin
Fibrinoid necrosis
Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived free radicals.
Superoxide dismutase
What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?
2% of population
What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic kidney disease?
Berry aneurysm
A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain
fever
True or false? Excess lead deposits in the oral cavity.
True. It deposits at the gingivodental line
What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in micronodular cirrhosis
CHF
What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa
resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?
What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middle-aged males
resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?
What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities
red cell aplasia
Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?
Female pseudohermaphrodite
Two weeks after her son has a throat infection
a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever
What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections
severe thrombocytopenia
What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?
Pseudogout
What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?
Hypertrophic scar
What is the term for inflamed
thickened skin on the breast with dimpling associated with cancer?
What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose
sinuses
What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?
HTLV-1
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac myopathies
calf pseudohypertrophy
What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without immune complex deposition?
Minimal change disease
What is the term for tissue-based basophils?
Mast cells
What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?
Osteosarcoma
Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver
What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
Prostatic carcinoma
What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?
Leydig cell tumor
What pulmonary disease
most commonly associated with smoking
What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive
symmetric arthritis affecting the hands
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Retinal emboli
Roth spots
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes
Osler nodes
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painless hyperemic lesions on the palms and soles
Janeway lesions
What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg cells stain positive for?
CD15 and CD30
What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red spots on the retina?
Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases
True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.
False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps differentiate benign conditions from CML
What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?
Turcot syndrome
What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?
Embolic
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average volume of a RBC
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma acuminatum?
HPV serotypes 6 and 11
Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?
Lentigo maligna melanoma
What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?
Hyperplasia
A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture)
hypercalcemia
What is the term for pus in the pleural space?
Empyema
What is flat
circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Liver macrophages
Kupffer cells
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Bone macrophages
Osteoclasts
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Brain macrophages
Microglia
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Lung macrophages
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Connective tissue macrophages
Histiocytes
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Epidermal macrophages
Langerhans cells
What is the term for a large
immature RBC that is spherical
What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?
Yolk sac tumor
Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
Burkitt lymphoma
In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?
Lower lobe
For what disease are SS-A(Ro)
SS-B(La)
What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?
HPV serotypes 16
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nuclei
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nucleoli
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Collagen
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • RBCs
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Calcium
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Bacteria
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Thyroid colloid
Eosin
What commonly encountered overdose produces headache
tinnitus
What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib
resulting in a defect in platelet adhesion?
What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses
flank pain
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Type I (makes sense
What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness
conjunctivitis
What disease has IgG autoantibodies
occurs in women more than men
What condition is defined by both testicular and ovarian tissues in one individual?
True hermaphrodism
A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?
Pyloric stenosis
What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma
granulomas
What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Laminin
What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly
produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations
What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue and Henoch- Schönlein purpura?
IgA nephropathy
What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia
tetany
What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?
Phototherapy
How many months in how many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin-platelet plug to stop bleeding?
Hemostasis
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer: early menses
late menopause
Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?
Right-sided
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope
Hepatitis D
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped RNA flavivirus
Hepatitis C
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA calicivirus
Hepatitis E
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus
Hepatitis B
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
Hepatitis A
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase
massive organomegaly
What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?
Mural infarct
What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
Marrow failure
Notching of the ribs
seen on chest radiograph in patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta
What is the physiologic storage form of iron?
Ferritin
What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due to an intravascular mass that has been carried downstream?
Embolism
What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser- Fleischer rings
decreased ceruloplasmin levels
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • c-myc
Burkitt lymphoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • L-myc
Small cell cancer of the lung
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1 and int-2
Melanoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • et
MEN II and III syndromes
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras
Pancreas and colon
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • cyclin D
Mantle cell lymphoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • N-myc
Neuroblastoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • CDK4
Melanoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • abl
CML and ALL
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1
int-2
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • sis
Astrocytoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras and erb-2
Lung cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • erb-1
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps
osteomas
What disease involves microcephaly
mental retardation
What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex-mediated; and is seen as lumpy-bumpy subepithelial deposits?
Postinfectious GN
What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart embolisms to metastasize?
Brain
With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
Asbestosis and silicosis
What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull and short
thick extremities?
True or false? Hyperkalemia increases the effect of digoxin.
False. hyperkalemia decreases digoxin's activity
Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate
that of benzodiazepines or barbiturates?
What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-induced Parkinson's disease?
Amantadine
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Edema
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Gastric acid secretion
H 2
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • SA nodal activity
H 2
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Pain and pruritus
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Bronchial smooth muscle activity
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Inotropic action and automaticity
H 2
True or false? The lack of dopamine production in the substantia nigra leads to the extrapyramidal dysfunction
characteristically seen in patients with Parkinson's disease.
Which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus and is used in the treatment of primary pulmonary HTN?
PGI 2
Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are excitatory? Inhibitory?
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in the management of an acute asthmatic attack.
True. They are useful in the early-phase response to an asthmatic attack.
Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or inactivated sodium channels?
Inactivated
What is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Pimozide
What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid antagonist?
Spironolactone
What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Fentanyl
What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections?
Spectinomycin
What is the DOC for treating torsade de pointes?
Magnesium
Is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy?
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy
What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?
Griseofulvin
Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
Carbamazepine
What are the three Beta-lactamase inhibitors?
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam
Which anticonvulsant used in the treatment of bipolar disorder is refractory to lithium?
Carbamazepine
Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis
acute mountain sicknesses
What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?
Raloxifene
Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
Demeclocycline
How is the eye affected by use of opioids?
With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint (miosis) because of increased cholinergic activity.
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Grey baby syndrome
Chloramphenicol
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)
Aminoglycosides
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Teratogenicity
Metronidazole
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cholestatic hepatitis
Erythromycin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Hemolytic anemia
Nitrofurantoin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Dental staining in children
Tetracycline
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Altered folate metabolism
Trimethoprim
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Auditory toxicity
Vancomycin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cartilage abnormalities
Quinolones
What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
Constipation and miosis
Which anticonvulsant is also used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and for migraine headaches?
Valproic acid
What antitubercular agent causes loss of red-green visual discrimination?
Ethambutol
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
8 to 16 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
0.5 to 3 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
8 to 12 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
0.3 to 2 hours; duration
Is digoxin or digitoxin renally eliminated?
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced osteoporosis?
Alendronate
What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
Nystagmus and ataxia
How are lipid solubility and potency related for inhaled anesthetics? How do they affect onset and recovery?
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency (directly related)
What α1-agonist
not inactivated by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
Which laxative is used in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy ?
Lactulose
Are hydrolysis
oxidation
What β-blocker is also an α-blocker?
Labetalol
What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?
Diphenhydramine
True or false? Anaerobes are resistant to the effects of aminoglycosides.
True. Aminoglycosides use O 2-dependent uptake and therefore are ineffective for treatment of anaerobic infections.
What two β-blockers decrease serum lipids?
Acebutolol and Pindolol
If a drug is ionized
is it water or lipid soluble? Can it cross a biomembrane?
What are the longest-acting and shortest-acting benzodiazepines?
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix
Mucor
What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine and guanethidine?
NE
Which two cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier?
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
What agent
in combination with a MAOI inhibitor
True or false? Cocaine-induced coronary ischemia should not be treated with β-blockers.
True. β-Blockade would result in unopposed-adrenergic stimulation and worsen the patient's symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are the way to go.
What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?
Ipratropium
What two forms of insulin
if mixed together
What androgen receptor blocker is used in the treatment of prostatic cancer?
Flutamide
What are the first signs of phenobarbital overdose?
Nystagmus and ataxia
Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
RSV
Which medication used in the treatment of bipolar disorder decreases the release of T 4 from the thyroid gland?
Lithium
Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers?
Class III
Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M 2
What antiepileptic agent has SIADH as a side effect?
Carbamazepine
What is the only anesthetic that causes cardiovascular stimulation?
Ketamine
Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid synthesis?
Dapsone
What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient?
Bactericidal
Which direct-acting vasodilator is associated with SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
Hydralazine
What class of heparin is active against factor Xa and has no effect on PT or PTT?
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
Fluconazole
What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
Which form of alcohol toxicity results in ocular damage?
Methanol
What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine?
Azathioprine
Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are more sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing rates are most sensitive to local blockade
What enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim?
Dihydrofolate reductase
What are the two absolute requirements for the cytochrome P450 enzyme system?
NADPH and molecular O 2
What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
PGE 1
A depressive patient who is taking paroxetine goes to the ER with pain and is given meperidine. Shortly afterward she develops diaphoresis
myoclonus
What class of drugs is used in the treatment of demineralization of the bone?
Bisphosphonates
What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the short-term treatment of glaucoma and of acute mountain sickness?
Acetazolamide
True or false? All aluminum-containing antacids can cause hypophosphatemia.
True. Aluminum reacts with PO4
What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in children?
Desipramine
What two β2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?
Metaproterenol and albuterol
What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial pressure
increased intraocular pressure
What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
They prevent mast cell degranulation.
What two β2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
Ritodrine and terbutaline
Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opioid receptors?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
What thrombolytic agent is derived from β-hemolytic streptococci
is antigenic
What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
Terbinafine
Which class of antihypertensives produces angioedema
hyperkalemia
Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel-like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?
Sucralfate
Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an agonist?
5HT1D
A patient with a history of epilepsy goes to the ER with sedation
gait ataxia
What are the five penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and the bubonic plague?
Streptomycin
Is the following description characteristic of competitive or noncompetitive antagonists: parallel shift to the right on a dose-response curve
complete reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist drug
True or false? Progestins are used in combination with estrogens to decrease the risk of endometrial cancer.
TRUE
What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does not induce tardive dyskinesia?
Clozapine
What two factors influence low oral bioavailability?
First-pass metabolism and acid lability
What is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors?
The stomach
What vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and decreases the efficacy of L-dopa if used concomitantly?
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
True or false? Acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti-inflammatory effects.
TRUE
What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if there is a large volume of distribution?
The larger the volume of distribution
Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients with head trauma?
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra reaction?
Clofazimine
What two drugs
when mixed
What three β-blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma?
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
What is the neurotransmitter at the K-receptor?
Dynorphin
True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor agonist.
TRUE
What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal function?
α-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is also used.)
What is the volume of distribution (increased or decreased) of a drug when a large percentage is protein bound?
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.
What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?
Cyproheptadine
What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?
Selegiline
What is the site of action of the following? • Osmotic diuretics
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
What is the site of action of the following? • Loop diuretics
Ascending limb
What is the site of action of the following? • Thiazide diuretics
Early distal tubule
What is the site of action of the following? • K+-sparing diuretics
Early collecting duct
What is the site of action of the following? • Aldosterone antagonists
Distal convoluted tubules
What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal antibody rituximab?
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat lithium-induced diabetes insipidus?
Amiloride
Which two antipsychotic drugs create a high risk for developing extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) side effects?
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high-potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
Could an overdose with either zolpidem or zaleplon be reversed with flumazenil?
Yes
What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
Reserpine
True or false? Antimicrobial agents that slow bacterial growth are bactericidal.
False. Bacteriocidals kill; bacteriostatics slow growth.
Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
Nicotinic acid
What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
Mebendazole
What antiviral agents inhibit neuraminidases of influenza A and B?
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K-dependent factors?
Cefamandole
Which direct-acting vasodilator is used clinically to treat hypertensive emergencies
insulinomas
Which leukotriene—LTA4
LTB4
What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits
hypotension
What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits α-glucosidase in the brush border of the small intestine?
Acarbose
What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
Dihydropteroate synthetase
What is the most important determinant of drug potency?
The affinity of the drug for its receptor
True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.
False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but not ovarian cancer increases with the use of estrogen.
Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking warfarin?
Chloral hydrate
What mixed α-antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors
The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension and is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
d-Tubocurarine
What transient deficiency may result in a hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone?
Transient protein C deficiency
What component of the vascular system is most sensitive to the effects of calcium channel blockers?
Arterioles
What drug blocks glucose uptake
leading to decreased formation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of the parasite?
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Proximal tubule
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Bleomycin
G2 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cytarabine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vinblastine
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Alkylating agents
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Paclitaxel
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vincristine
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Thioguanine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Mercaptopurine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Dacarbazine
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Hydroxyurea
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cisplatin
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Nitrosoureas
G0 phase
Inhibition of peripheral COMT
allowing increased CNS availability of L-dopa
What medication is a PGE1 analog that results in increased secretions of mucus and HCO3-in the GI tract?
Misoprostol
Is there a difference between mathematical and clinical steady states? If so
what are their values (half-lives)?
True or false? At high doses aspirin has uricosuric properties.
True. At high doses ASA decreases uric acid reabsorption in the renal tubules
What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV
influenza A and B
Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because it is too toxic for systemic use?
Neomycin
Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks sodium channels?
Class 1 (1A
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of life-threatening illnesses?
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin)
What is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?
Fluconazole
True or false? Flumazenil is used in the treatment of barbiturate overdose.
False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of barbiturates.
Which three aminoglycosides have vestibular toxicity?
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce the desired effect?
Potency
What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor?
Finasteride
What β-blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
Propranolol
Name one of the ADP receptor antagonists used in patients who are post-MI
have had TIAs
What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Amiloride
Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
Nimodipine
What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from storage granules?
Guanethidine and bretylium
What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
Pergolide
True or false? The faster the rate of absorption
the smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax) and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
What tetracycline is associated with hepatotoxicity?
Chlortetracycline
What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
Efficacy
What drug
if given during pregnancy
Is allopurinol used in the acute treatment of gout?
No
What three cephalosporins can produce disulfiram-like reactions?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth control pills?
They block the midcycle surge of LH.
When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation
it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
Which thrombolytic agent
activated in the presence of fibrin
Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in conscious sedation protocols?
Midazolam
What is the drug of choice for threadworm
trichinosis
Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on therapeutic indices alone?
No
What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is brought to your ER with muscle rigidity
a temperature of 104° F
Which α-blocking agent is used to treat refractory hypertension and baldness?
Minoxidil (orally and topically
What components of the coagulation cascade are affected by estrogen?
Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state because of the decrease in AT III and increase in factors II
What class of antimicrobial agents should be avoided in patients with a history of GPDH deficiency?
Sulfonamides
What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by the statins?
HMG-CoA reductase
What bactericidal agents are resistant to β-lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital life-threatening infections?
Imipenem and meropenem
What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
α1-Receptors
True or false? Dopamine antagonists at the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
TRUE
What two PGs are used to induce labor?
PGE2 and PGF2α
How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system resorbed by the GI tract?
Enterohepatic cycling
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with the initiation complex
causing a misreading of mRNA?
What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of influenza A virus?
Amantadine
What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
Which antihypertensive class is used to help stop the progression of microalbuminuria?
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer disease
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol
Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and increased CNS availability of L-dopa are results of what drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
Carbidopa and benserazide
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination independent of plasma concentration; constant amount eliminated per unit time; no fixed half-life
Zero-order elimination
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination directly proportional to plasma level; constant fraction eliminated per unit time; fixed half-life
First-order elimination
True or false? NSAIDs have analgesic
antipyretic
True or false? Tetracyclines are bactericidal.
False. They are bacteriostatic.
What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE-like syndrome side effect in slow acetylators?
Procainamide
What is the major pulmonary side effect of µ-activators?
Respiratory depression
What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?
Risperidone
What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?
Penicillin V
What is the term for the proportion of a drug that reaches systemic circulation?
Bioavailability
What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine?
Carbidopa and benserazide
What is the DOC for bipolar disorder?
Lithium
True or false? If a mother delivers a Rho-positive baby
she should receive Rho-immunoglobulin.
True or false? Both GABA and glutamic acid are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
False. Glutamic acid is excitatory
What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis carriers?
Rifampin
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
What class of antianginal activates the NO pathway to produce endothelial vasodilation?
Nitrates
What selective Cox-2 inhibitor should be avoided in patients with a history of sulfonamide allergy?
Celecoxib
What is the DOC for blastomycoses and sporotrichoses?
Itraconazole
What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
Name the three benzodiazepines that are not metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
Oxazepam
What drug is an M1-specific antispasmodic?
Pirenzepine
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is safe for use in renal dysfunction and in HTN during pregnancy?
Methyldopa
What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?
Selegiline
What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge to tears and urine?
Rifampin
What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
What tetracycline is associated with vestibular toxicity?
Minocycline
What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no cardiovascular side effects?
Doxacurium
What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
D2 and 5HT3 receptors
Which group of antihypertensive agents best decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
Thiazide diuretics
What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?
Mesolimbic system
Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result in EPS effects?
Because they do not block D2A receptors
What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they are metabolized to their active products?
Prodrugs
True or false? You would not prescribe probenecid for a patient with gout who is an overexcretor of uric acid.
True. Probenecid can precipitate uric acid crystals in the kidney if the patient is an overexcretor of urate.
True or false? Dopamine antagonists are antiemetic.
True. They block the dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
What bactericidal agent is the DOC for MRSA
enterococci
True or false? β-Blockers are contraindicated in patients who present to the hospital with CHF.
True. β-Blockers are a component of CHF regimen for stable patients
True or false? Fluoroquinolones are bactericidal.
True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo II).
What antiviral agent for ganciclovir-resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
Foscarnet
What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates pancreatic β-cell release of insulin and is given just prior to meals because of its short half-life?
Repaglinide
True or false? There is no absorption of an IV-administered drug.
True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is given IV.
What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent kills a fixed percentage of tumor cells
not a fixed number?
What is the only local anesthetic to produce vasoconstriction?
Cocaine
Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a selective inhibitor of the lipoxygenase pathway?
Zileuton
What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron?
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or PTT?
Heparin
What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase in weight or appetite?
Molindone
What α1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with hypotension?
Metaraminol (α1
What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal arrhythmias?
Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in emergencies because its half-life is 30 seconds)
What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management of status asthmaticus ?
Aminophylline
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to laudanosine?
Atracurium
What α2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and postural hypotension?
Yohimbine
What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Pyrantel pamoate
Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers without the disease is a component of which phase of clinical drug testing?
Phase 1
Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
Tetracycline
What antifungal agent is used in the treatment of androgen receptor-positive cancers?
Ketoconazole
What MAOI does not cause a hypertensive crisis?
Selegiline
Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?
Methicillin
Is hirsutism a side effect of estrogen or progestin therapy?
Progestin
Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone receptor antagonist ?
Spironolactone
What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin
True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in obese patients because of weight gain as its side effect.
False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas).
What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase response in an asthmatic attack?
Corticosteroid
If you double the infusion rate of a drug
how long will it take to reach steady state?
What is the neurotransmitter at the µ-receptor?
β-Endorphin
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Amebiasis
Metronidazole
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Leishmaniasis
Stibogluconate