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1876 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham test?
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia
defective degranulation
What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit
blood viscosity
If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli
is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?
What transports iron in the blood?
Transferrin
What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia
epiphyseal enlargements
A Japanese man has weight loss
anorexia
What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia
can impair motor activity
What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?
Transient ischemic attack
What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?
Krukenberg tumor
What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?
Tay-Sachs disease
Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the anterior cerebral artery?
Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity
occurs in women more than men
What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly
ascites
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery vasospasm
symptom occurrence at rest
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery luminal narrowing
symptom occurrence during exertion
What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency
duration
What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small
oval
What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal proliferation of cell size
shape
What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees
elbows
What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?
Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice
pruritus
What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?
Macrophages
True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.
True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.
What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea
flushing
What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in children?
Teratoma
What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?
Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough
shortness of breath
What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e.
What is characterized by an intense inflammatory reaction
an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?
What thyroiditis presents as a tender
enlarged
What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?
Graves disease
What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive
mental retardation
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?
Gastrinoma
What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?
Duodenal ulcer
What disease arises from the adrenal medulla
displaces and crosses the midline
What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
Familial hypercholesterolemia
A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis
diplopia
What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane
commonly seen in uremia?
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Beta-hCG
Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-125
Ovarian cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-19.9 and CEA
Pancreatic cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • alpha-Fetoprotein
Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Calcitonin
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
Prostate cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Placental alkaline phosphatase
Seminoma
Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CEA
Cancer of the lung
What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young men
involves the sacroiliac joints
What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count
prolonged PT and PTT
What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi
What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?
Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors
bone pain
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)
Pompe's disease
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Muscle phosphorylase
McArdle's syndrome
What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Glucose-6-phosphatase
von Gierke's disease
What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?
Serocystadenocarcinoma
What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
Hydatidiform mole
In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?
Pyelonephritis
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • Overall?
Staphylococcus aureus
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In neonates?
Streptococcus agalactiae
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In patients with sickle cell disease?
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In drug addicts?
Pseudomonas
What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur
pelvis
What lymphoma is characterized by CD19
CD20
What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?
C5b-C9
True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.
What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome?
Preductal (infantile)
True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is a marker for increased bone formation.
True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with increased bone formation.
What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?
Toxoplasmosis
What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function
resulting in thick
True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion
leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.
What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?
Brushfield spots
What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?
Pott disease
What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?
Liver
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
pheochromocytoma
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
pheochromocytoma
Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Parathyroid
pancreatic
What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation
self-mutilation
What disorder is associated with spider angiomas
palmar erythema
What is your diagnosis of a young
thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?
What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV-positive individual?
Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to another?
Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)
What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill use?
Hepatic adenomas
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or AR?
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 0-10 WBCs (monocytes); glucose 45 to 85
protein 15 to 45
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels
Brain abscess
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17
Viral meningitis
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90% lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100
TB meningitis
What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
Bacterial meningitis
True or false? Removal of the ileum results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.
True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is absorbed.
What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200
protein level 2.5
What is the term for thickened
hyperpigmented skin in the axillae
How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
>3.5 g/day of protein
What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?
Heroin
What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor
a secondary cause of HTN
What is the term for flattened nose
low-set ears
What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?
Primary intention
What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?
CMV retinitis and HSV-2
What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone
What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?
gp120
What is the term for RBC fragments?
Schistocytes
What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?
Albinism
What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs
What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?
Helicobacter pylori
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Alkylating agents
Leukemias and lymphomas
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Aromatic amines and azo dyes
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Arsenic
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Asbestos
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Naphthylamine
Bladder cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Benzenes
Leukemias
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Vinyl chloride
Angiosarcoma of the liver
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Chromium and nickel
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
Bronchogenic carcinoma
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Nitrosamines
Gastric cancer
What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia
sweating
What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?
Ristocetin
What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene
has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness
What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps
most commonly affects the colorectal area
What is the term for osteophyte formation at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?
Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.
What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus?
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic cord?
Varicocele
What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin
platelets
What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?
Osteosarcoma
What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?
Pneumocystis carinii
What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow aspirations
splenomegaly
What disease that involves mental retardation
flat face
What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens
positive direct Coombs test
What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?
5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)
What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?
LC4
What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7
causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
What law states that an enlarged
palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?
What is the term for air in the pleural space?
Pneumothorax
What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick
weak bones and is associated with high-output cardiac failure?
What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?
Hypertrophy
What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?
Meningioma
True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.
TRUE
What are the five components of portal HTN?
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids
What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome
What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?
Craniopharyngioma
What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy
OCP use
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM
Goodpasture disease
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Granular deposits of IgG
IgM
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?
GP IIb/IIIa
What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell lymphomas?
HHV-8
What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old age group
peaks when the person is 35 years of age
What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to anus
has noncaseating granulomas
Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a patient is HIV-positive?
ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.
What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?
Proud flesh
What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
Cytochrome c
How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden cardiac death?
More than 75% of the vessel
Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6-PD deficiency?
Heinz bodies
What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in HTN
hypokalemia
What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?
EBV
What normochromic
normocytic AD anemia has splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?
What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?
Gigantism
What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
Homogentisic oxidase
What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty
masculinization
Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.
DM
Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities
lax joints
What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN
RVH
Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?
G-6-PD deficiency
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a deficiency in factor VIII?
Hemophilia A
What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever
fatigue
What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
Deficiency in surfactant
What are the three components of amyloid?
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans
What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?
Myasthenia gravis
What are the three left-to-right shunts?
1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA
What protein causes fibrinolysis?
Plasmin
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea
hypokalemia
True or false? Obesity
DM
What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?
Lisch nodules
What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign
an increase in the number of bloody stools
What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?
Candida
True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.
True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis of an asthmatic.
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium
PGI2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
PGD2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Pain and fever
PGE2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by platelets
TXA2
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Chemotactic for neutrophils
LTB4
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
bronchospasm
Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?
HBeAb
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Miners
metal grinders
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Aerospace industry
nuclear reactors
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Shipyards
brake linings
What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?
Porcelain gallbladder
What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization
Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19
CD20
What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur
humerus
What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma
Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
What carcinoma produces hematuria
flank pain
Name at least three causes of metastatic calcification.
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P
What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is most commonly seen in females?
Nodular sclerosis
What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the United States?
Smoking
What prion-associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus
involuntary movements
What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting
fissuring
What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
Paget disease of the breast
Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from what cell in the bone marrow?
Megaloblasts
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Sunburn
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Uremic pericarditis
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Parasitic infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Diphtheria infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Meningococcal infection
Name the type of exudate
given the following examples. • Rickettsial infection
What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
Schistosoma haematobium
What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention
bloating
What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?
HHV 8
What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
Kayser-Fleischer rings
Name the six vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
Factors II
What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?
Cystadenocarcinoma
A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list
What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
Squamous cell carcinoma
Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.
N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?
Simon focus
What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?
Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever
What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt
along with Heinz body formation?
What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?
Target cell
True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no underlying pathology.
False. The disease has no associated pathology; the phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying disease.
What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?
Intraductal papilloma
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a deficiency in factor IX?
Hemophilia B
What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung
What disease has multiple schwannomas
café-au-lait spots on the skin
What syndrome is due to Abs directed to calcium channels and causes muscle weakness that improves with repeated use?
Eaton-Lambert syndrome
In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational exposure to asbestos?
Malignant mesothelioma
What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs
seen in lead poisoning?
What is the triad of fat embolism?
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g.
Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe
what form of arthritis do you diagnose?
What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands
submaxillary gland
What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity
hirsutism
What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+
involves keratin pearls
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?
PKU
True or false? Being a white male increases your risk factor for testicular cancer.
Oddly enough
Can an acute MI be diagnosed only by looking at an ECG?
No. Remember
What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis
corneal ulcers
True or false? Sickle cell anemia
Caisson disease
What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?
p-53
Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
Ulcerative colitis
What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?
ELISA test
How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?
At least six
What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
Metastatic calcification
What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?
Volvulus
What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almond-scented breath?
Cyanide
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or localized.
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent or ADCC.
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by sensitized T-cells
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)
What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with pseudorosettes?
Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e.
What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?
Goodpasture syndrome
What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli
tubules
What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?
Schwannoma
True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in diagnosing CREST syndrome.
True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse scleroderma.
What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia
loss of deep tendon reflexes
What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
TXA2
Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?
Transtentorial (uncal)
What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?
Syphilitic
What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?
T lymphocyte
What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP use and pregnancy?
Melasma
What is the classic triad of TB?
Fever
True or false? Blood clots lack platelets.
True. A thrombus has platelets
What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?
Histiocytosis X
What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)
What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?
Scrotal cancer
What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of the skin?
Bulla
What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?
EBV
With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?
GH-producing adenoma
What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
Name the four right-to-left congenital cardiac shunts.
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with neuromuscular irritability indicate?
Hypoparathyroidism
Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT
What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
Adult T-cell leukemia
What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?
Schatzki ring
With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries
What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
<2
What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes
muscle weakness
What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly encounter?
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?
Melanosis coli
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Fever
Minor
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Migratory polyarthritis
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Subcutaneous nodules
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Elevated acute phase reactants (e.g.
ESR)
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Arthralgias
Minor
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Erythema marginatum
Major
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Sydenham chorea
Major
What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?
Bcl-2
Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?
Hepatitis D
What are the three main components of amyloid?
Fibrillary protein
What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100
00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue
What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle
In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys
rockerbottom feet
What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
Clonorchis sinensis
What disorder is associated with loss of polarity
anaplasia
What is the term for telescoping of the proximal bowel into the distal segment presenting as abdominal pain
currant jelly stools
What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?
Amanita phalloides
What type of erythema do you see in • Ulcerative colitis?
Erythema nodosum
What type of erythema do you see in • Rheumatic fever?
Erythema marginatum
What type of erythema do you see in • Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Erythema multiforme
What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner syndrome?
Osteoma
What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting bacteria?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures
headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity
What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?
Mercury
What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?
Oligodendroglioma
Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of collagen?
Type IV collagen
If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes
reticulocytes
After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean
an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do you immediately diagnose?
What cell type involves humoral immunity?
B lymphocyte
What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?
Hypersegmented neutrophils
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)
What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?
Marfan syndrome
What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy
chorea
What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
Neutropenia
What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?
Chemotaxis
What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined well-circumscribed borders?
Benign nevus (mole)
What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?
Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?
Salpingitis
What disease with familial mental retardation produces large
everted ears and macro-orchidism?
What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sun-exposed sites has a low level of metastasis?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
VSD
What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?
Bronchiectasis
What is an elevated
fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?
What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?
Sheehan syndrome
What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70 antibodies?
Scleroderma
What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal
endodermal
What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
What are the three causes of transudate?
CHF
A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness
a sore
What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic anemia?
Vitamin B6
What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?
Scrofula
Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?
Massive influx of calcium
What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+
cardiac arrhythmias
What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation
somnolence
What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?
Caplan syndrome
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies
early age of intercourse
What is the term for precipitation of calcium phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?
Dystrophic calcification
What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?
Meckel diverticulum
What type of crystals are associated with gout?
Monosodium urate crystals
What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?
Mees lines
What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?
Klatskin tumor
IgE-mediated mast cell release
C3a and C5a
What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group
is more prevalent in women than men
What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion
crepitus
What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype
testes present
What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?
Howell-Jolly bodies
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with increased intracranial pressure?
Cushing's ulcers
What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium
What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum
brainstem
How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?
At least 5 lobes
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
labile
What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?
Astrocytoma
True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels are associated with poststreptococcal GN.
False. ASO titers are elevated
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von Willebrand factor?
GP Ib
What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g.
GI
Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?
Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte function- associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?
Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subdural hemorrhage
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Epidural hemorrhage
Middle meningeal artery
True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.
TRUE
What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ɑ-synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
Lewy bodies
In which form of emphysema
panacinar or centriacinar
What syndrome results if the enzyme ɑ-1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase deficiency?
Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome
What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow
What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?
CHF
What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have no Barr bodies.
True. Remember
What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?
Auspitz sign
What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
Hgb F
What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female having visual field deficits
dizziness
A 20-year-old college student has fever
grey-white membranes over the tonsils
What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?
Eosinophil
What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?
Pseudogout
What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis
MI
What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell anemia?
Valine
What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
Melanin
What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?
Placental alkaline phosphatase
What type of GN
associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis
What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus
dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles
What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?
X-linked recessive
What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase
dihydrotestosterone
Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?
Myeloperoxidase
What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
Cholesterolosis
What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?
Arsenic
What is the term for programmed cell death?
Apoptosis (Remember
What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given aspirin during a viral illness?
Reye syndrome
What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling?
Lead poisoning
What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous
with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps
What is the pentad of TTP?
Neurologic symptoms Renal failure Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern
Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?
HBeAg
What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?
Job syndrome
What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
Endometriosis
What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?
45XO
What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)
What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?
Type III
The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)
What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis
tubules
How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
It causes a buildup of dATP
Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with life?
Type II
With what is cherry red intoxication associated?
Acute CO poisoning
What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
What are the four signs of acute inflammation?
Rubor (red)
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Increased iron
decreased TIBC
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
TIBC
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
percent saturation
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Normal iron
TIBC
Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
Panacinar
An 80-year-old woman presents to you with right-sided temporal headache
facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side
What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
Type 2
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
Gaucher disease
What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
Boutonnière deformities
True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of a lung.
False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.
What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?
Parvovirus B 19
What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?
Klinefelter syndrome
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?
Onion skinning
A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer
What disease is X-linked recessive
is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections
Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?
Nodular melanoma
Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection from what type of organisms?
Encapsulated bacteria
How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
Two major or one major and two minor
What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)
What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?
Hemosiderin
What is a palpable
elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?
True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.
TRUE
What pathology is associated with podagra
tophi in the ear
What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium difficile
ischemia
What do the risk factors late menopause
early menarche
What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure
psammoma bodies
Name three opsonins.
Fc portion of IgG
What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
Beryllium
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
HBcAb IgM
Name the type of necrosis. • The most common form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the cytoplasm
Coagulative necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
Gangrenous necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive necrosis?
Liquefaction necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance
Fat necrosis
Name the type of necrosis. • Soft
friable
Name the type of necrosis. • Histologically resembles fibrin
Fibrinoid necrosis
Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived free radicals.
Superoxide dismutase
What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?
2% of population
What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic kidney disease?
Berry aneurysm
A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain
fever
True or false? Excess lead deposits in the oral cavity.
True. It deposits at the gingivodental line
What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in micronodular cirrhosis
CHF
What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa
resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?
What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middle-aged males
resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?
What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities
red cell aplasia
Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?
Female pseudohermaphrodite
Two weeks after her son has a throat infection
a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever
What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections
severe thrombocytopenia
What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?
Pseudogout
What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?
Hypertrophic scar
What is the term for inflamed
thickened skin on the breast with dimpling associated with cancer?
What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose
sinuses
What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?
HTLV-1
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac myopathies
calf pseudohypertrophy
What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without immune complex deposition?
Minimal change disease
What is the term for tissue-based basophils?
Mast cells
What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?
Osteosarcoma
Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver
What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
Prostatic carcinoma
What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?
Leydig cell tumor
What pulmonary disease
most commonly associated with smoking
What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive
symmetric arthritis affecting the hands
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Retinal emboli
Roth spots
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes
Osler nodes
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painless hyperemic lesions on the palms and soles
Janeway lesions
What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg cells stain positive for?
CD15 and CD30
What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red spots on the retina?
Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases
True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.
False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps differentiate benign conditions from CML
What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?
Turcot syndrome
What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?
Embolic
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average volume of a RBC
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma acuminatum?
HPV serotypes 6 and 11
Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?
Lentigo maligna melanoma
What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?
Hyperplasia
A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture)
hypercalcemia
What is the term for pus in the pleural space?
Empyema
What is flat
circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Liver macrophages
Kupffer cells
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Bone macrophages
Osteoclasts
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Brain macrophages
Microglia
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Lung macrophages
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Connective tissue macrophages
Histiocytes
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Epidermal macrophages
Langerhans cells
What is the term for a large
immature RBC that is spherical
What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?
Yolk sac tumor
Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
Burkitt lymphoma
In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?
Lower lobe
For what disease are SS-A(Ro)
SS-B(La)
What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?
HPV serotypes 16
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nuclei
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nucleoli
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Collagen
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • RBCs
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Calcium
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Bacteria
Hematoxylin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin
Eosin
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Thyroid colloid
Eosin
What commonly encountered overdose produces headache
tinnitus
What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib
resulting in a defect in platelet adhesion?
What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses
flank pain
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
Based on the following information
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
Type I (makes sense
What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness
conjunctivitis
What disease has IgG autoantibodies
occurs in women more than men
What condition is defined by both testicular and ovarian tissues in one individual?
True hermaphrodism
A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?
Pyloric stenosis
What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma
granulomas
What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
Laminin
What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly
produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations
What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue and Henoch- Schönlein purpura?
IgA nephropathy
What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia
tetany
What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?
Phototherapy
How many months in how many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
Eosinophils
What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin-platelet plug to stop bleeding?
Hemostasis
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer: early menses
late menopause
Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?
Right-sided
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope
Hepatitis D
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped RNA flavivirus
Hepatitis C
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA calicivirus
Hepatitis E
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus
Hepatitis B
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
Hepatitis A
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase
massive organomegaly
What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?
Mural infarct
What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
Marrow failure
Notching of the ribs
seen on chest radiograph in patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta
What is the physiologic storage form of iron?
Ferritin
What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due to an intravascular mass that has been carried downstream?
Embolism
What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser- Fleischer rings
decreased ceruloplasmin levels
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • c-myc
Burkitt lymphoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • L-myc
Small cell cancer of the lung
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1 and int-2
Melanoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • et
MEN II and III syndromes
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras
Pancreas and colon
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • cyclin D
Mantle cell lymphoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • N-myc
Neuroblastoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • CDK4
Melanoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • abl
CML and ALL
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1
int-2
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • sis
Astrocytoma
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras and erb-2
Lung cancer
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • erb-1
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps
osteomas
What disease involves microcephaly
mental retardation
What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex-mediated; and is seen as lumpy-bumpy subepithelial deposits?
Postinfectious GN
What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart embolisms to metastasize?
Brain
With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
Asbestosis and silicosis
What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull and short
thick extremities?
True or false? Hyperkalemia increases the effect of digoxin.
False. hyperkalemia decreases digoxin's activity
Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene
Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate
that of benzodiazepines or barbiturates?
What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-induced Parkinson's disease?
Amantadine
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Edema
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Gastric acid secretion
H 2
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • SA nodal activity
H 2
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Pain and pruritus
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Bronchial smooth muscle activity
H 1
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Inotropic action and automaticity
H 2
True or false? The lack of dopamine production in the substantia nigra leads to the extrapyramidal dysfunction
characteristically seen in patients with Parkinson's disease.
Which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus and is used in the treatment of primary pulmonary HTN?
PGI 2
Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are excitatory? Inhibitory?
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in the management of an acute asthmatic attack.
True. They are useful in the early-phase response to an asthmatic attack.
Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or inactivated sodium channels?
Inactivated
What is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
Pimozide
What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?
Anopheles mosquito
What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid antagonist?
Spironolactone
What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
Fentanyl
What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections?
Spectinomycin
What is the DOC for treating torsade de pointes?
Magnesium
Is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy?
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy
What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?
Griseofulvin
Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
Carbamazepine
What are the three Beta-lactamase inhibitors?
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam
Which anticonvulsant used in the treatment of bipolar disorder is refractory to lithium?
Carbamazepine
Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis
acute mountain sicknesses
What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?
Raloxifene
Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
Demeclocycline
How is the eye affected by use of opioids?
With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint (miosis) because of increased cholinergic activity.
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Grey baby syndrome
Chloramphenicol
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)
Aminoglycosides
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Teratogenicity
Metronidazole
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cholestatic hepatitis
Erythromycin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Hemolytic anemia
Nitrofurantoin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Dental staining in children
Tetracycline
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Altered folate metabolism
Trimethoprim
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Auditory toxicity
Vancomycin
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cartilage abnormalities
Quinolones
What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
Constipation and miosis
Which anticonvulsant is also used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and for migraine headaches?
Valproic acid
What antitubercular agent causes loss of red-green visual discrimination?
Ethambutol
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
8 to 16 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
0.5 to 3 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
8 to 12 hours; duration
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
0.3 to 2 hours; duration
Is digoxin or digitoxin renally eliminated?
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced osteoporosis?
Alendronate
What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
Nystagmus and ataxia
How are lipid solubility and potency related for inhaled anesthetics? How do they affect onset and recovery?
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency (directly related)
What α1-agonist
not inactivated by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
Which laxative is used in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy ?
Lactulose
Are hydrolysis
oxidation
What β-blocker is also an α-blocker?
Labetalol
What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?
Diphenhydramine
True or false? Anaerobes are resistant to the effects of aminoglycosides.
True. Aminoglycosides use O 2-dependent uptake and therefore are ineffective for treatment of anaerobic infections.
What two β-blockers decrease serum lipids?
Acebutolol and Pindolol
If a drug is ionized
is it water or lipid soluble? Can it cross a biomembrane?
What are the longest-acting and shortest-acting benzodiazepines?
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix
Mucor
What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine and guanethidine?
NE
Which two cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier?
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
What agent
in combination with a MAOI inhibitor
True or false? Cocaine-induced coronary ischemia should not be treated with β-blockers.
True. β-Blockade would result in unopposed-adrenergic stimulation and worsen the patient's symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are the way to go.
What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?
Ipratropium
What two forms of insulin
if mixed together
What androgen receptor blocker is used in the treatment of prostatic cancer?
Flutamide
What are the first signs of phenobarbital overdose?
Nystagmus and ataxia
Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
RSV
Which medication used in the treatment of bipolar disorder decreases the release of T 4 from the thyroid gland?
Lithium
Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers?
Class III
Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
M 2
What antiepileptic agent has SIADH as a side effect?
Carbamazepine
What is the only anesthetic that causes cardiovascular stimulation?
Ketamine
Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid synthesis?
Dapsone
What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient?
Bactericidal
Which direct-acting vasodilator is associated with SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
Hydralazine
What class of heparin is active against factor Xa and has no effect on PT or PTT?
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
Fluconazole
What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
Which form of alcohol toxicity results in ocular damage?
Methanol
What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine?
Azathioprine
Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are more sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing rates are most sensitive to local blockade
What enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim?
Dihydrofolate reductase
What are the two absolute requirements for the cytochrome P450 enzyme system?
NADPH and molecular O 2
What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
PGE 1
A depressive patient who is taking paroxetine goes to the ER with pain and is given meperidine. Shortly afterward she develops diaphoresis
myoclonus
What class of drugs is used in the treatment of demineralization of the bone?
Bisphosphonates
What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the short-term treatment of glaucoma and of acute mountain sickness?
Acetazolamide
True or false? All aluminum-containing antacids can cause hypophosphatemia.
True. Aluminum reacts with PO4
What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in children?
Desipramine
What two β2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?
Metaproterenol and albuterol
What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial pressure
increased intraocular pressure
What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
They prevent mast cell degranulation.
What two β2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
Ritodrine and terbutaline
Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opioid receptors?
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
What thrombolytic agent is derived from β-hemolytic streptococci
is antigenic
What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
Terbinafine
Which class of antihypertensives produces angioedema
hyperkalemia
Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel-like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?
Sucralfate
Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an agonist?
5HT1D
A patient with a history of epilepsy goes to the ER with sedation
gait ataxia
What are the five penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
Which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and the bubonic plague?
Streptomycin
Is the following description characteristic of competitive or noncompetitive antagonists: parallel shift to the right on a dose-response curve
complete reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist drug
True or false? Progestins are used in combination with estrogens to decrease the risk of endometrial cancer.
TRUE
What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does not induce tardive dyskinesia?
Clozapine
What two factors influence low oral bioavailability?
First-pass metabolism and acid lability
What is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors?
The stomach
What vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and decreases the efficacy of L-dopa if used concomitantly?
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
True or false? Acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti-inflammatory effects.
TRUE
What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if there is a large volume of distribution?
The larger the volume of distribution
Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients with head trauma?
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra reaction?
Clofazimine
What two drugs
when mixed
What three β-blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma?
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
What is the neurotransmitter at the K-receptor?
Dynorphin
True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor agonist.
TRUE
What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal function?
α-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is also used.)
What is the volume of distribution (increased or decreased) of a drug when a large percentage is protein bound?
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.
What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?
Cyproheptadine
What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?
Selegiline
What is the site of action of the following? • Osmotic diuretics
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
What is the site of action of the following? • Loop diuretics
Ascending limb
What is the site of action of the following? • Thiazide diuretics
Early distal tubule
What is the site of action of the following? • K+-sparing diuretics
Early collecting duct
What is the site of action of the following? • Aldosterone antagonists
Distal convoluted tubules
What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal antibody rituximab?
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat lithium-induced diabetes insipidus?
Amiloride
Which two antipsychotic drugs create a high risk for developing extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) side effects?
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high-potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
Could an overdose with either zolpidem or zaleplon be reversed with flumazenil?
Yes
What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
Reserpine
True or false? Antimicrobial agents that slow bacterial growth are bactericidal.
False. Bacteriocidals kill; bacteriostatics slow growth.
Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
Nicotinic acid
What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
Mebendazole
What antiviral agents inhibit neuraminidases of influenza A and B?
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K-dependent factors?
Cefamandole
Which direct-acting vasodilator is used clinically to treat hypertensive emergencies
insulinomas
Which leukotriene—LTA4
LTB4
What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits
hypotension
What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits α-glucosidase in the brush border of the small intestine?
Acarbose
What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
Dihydropteroate synthetase
What is the most important determinant of drug potency?
The affinity of the drug for its receptor
True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.
False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but not ovarian cancer increases with the use of estrogen.
Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking warfarin?
Chloral hydrate
What mixed α-antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors
The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension and is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
d-Tubocurarine
What transient deficiency may result in a hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone?
Transient protein C deficiency
What component of the vascular system is most sensitive to the effects of calcium channel blockers?
Arterioles
What drug blocks glucose uptake
leading to decreased formation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of the parasite?
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
Proximal tubule
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Bleomycin
G2 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cytarabine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vinblastine
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Alkylating agents
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Paclitaxel
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vincristine
Mitosis
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Thioguanine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Mercaptopurine
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Dacarbazine
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Hydroxyurea
S phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cisplatin
G0 phase
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Nitrosoureas
G0 phase
Inhibition of peripheral COMT
allowing increased CNS availability of L-dopa
What medication is a PGE1 analog that results in increased secretions of mucus and HCO3-in the GI tract?
Misoprostol
Is there a difference between mathematical and clinical steady states? If so
what are their values (half-lives)?
True or false? At high doses aspirin has uricosuric properties.
True. At high doses ASA decreases uric acid reabsorption in the renal tubules
What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV
influenza A and B
Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because it is too toxic for systemic use?
Neomycin
Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks sodium channels?
Class 1 (1A
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of life-threatening illnesses?
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin)
What is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?
Fluconazole
True or false? Flumazenil is used in the treatment of barbiturate overdose.
False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of barbiturates.
Which three aminoglycosides have vestibular toxicity?
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce the desired effect?
Potency
What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor?
Finasteride
What β-blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
Propranolol
Name one of the ADP receptor antagonists used in patients who are post-MI
have had TIAs
What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Amiloride
Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
Nimodipine
What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from storage granules?
Guanethidine and bretylium
What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
Pergolide
True or false? The faster the rate of absorption
the smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax) and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
What tetracycline is associated with hepatotoxicity?
Chlortetracycline
What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
Efficacy
What drug
if given during pregnancy
Is allopurinol used in the acute treatment of gout?
No
What three cephalosporins can produce disulfiram-like reactions?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth control pills?
They block the midcycle surge of LH.
When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation
it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
Which thrombolytic agent
activated in the presence of fibrin
Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in conscious sedation protocols?
Midazolam
What is the drug of choice for threadworm
trichinosis
Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on therapeutic indices alone?
No
What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is brought to your ER with muscle rigidity
a temperature of 104° F
Which α-blocking agent is used to treat refractory hypertension and baldness?
Minoxidil (orally and topically
What components of the coagulation cascade are affected by estrogen?
Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state because of the decrease in AT III and increase in factors II
What class of antimicrobial agents should be avoided in patients with a history of GPDH deficiency?
Sulfonamides
What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by the statins?
HMG-CoA reductase
What bactericidal agents are resistant to β-lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital life-threatening infections?
Imipenem and meropenem
What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
α1-Receptors
True or false? Dopamine antagonists at the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
TRUE
What two PGs are used to induce labor?
PGE2 and PGF2α
How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system resorbed by the GI tract?
Enterohepatic cycling
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with the initiation complex
causing a misreading of mRNA?
What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of influenza A virus?
Amantadine
What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
Which antihypertensive class is used to help stop the progression of microalbuminuria?
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer disease
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
Chloramphenicol
Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and increased CNS availability of L-dopa are results of what drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
Carbidopa and benserazide
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination independent of plasma concentration; constant amount eliminated per unit time; no fixed half-life
Zero-order elimination
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination directly proportional to plasma level; constant fraction eliminated per unit time; fixed half-life
First-order elimination
True or false? NSAIDs have analgesic
antipyretic
True or false? Tetracyclines are bactericidal.
False. They are bacteriostatic.
What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE-like syndrome side effect in slow acetylators?
Procainamide
What is the major pulmonary side effect of µ-activators?
Respiratory depression
What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?
Risperidone
What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?
Penicillin V
What is the term for the proportion of a drug that reaches systemic circulation?
Bioavailability
What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine?
Carbidopa and benserazide
What is the DOC for bipolar disorder?
Lithium
True or false? If a mother delivers a Rho-positive baby
she should receive Rho-immunoglobulin.
True or false? Both GABA and glutamic acid are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
False. Glutamic acid is excitatory
What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis carriers?
Rifampin
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
Edrophonium
What class of antianginal activates the NO pathway to produce endothelial vasodilation?
Nitrates
What selective Cox-2 inhibitor should be avoided in patients with a history of sulfonamide allergy?
Celecoxib
What is the DOC for blastomycoses and sporotrichoses?
Itraconazole
What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
Name the three benzodiazepines that are not metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
Oxazepam
What drug is an M1-specific antispasmodic?
Pirenzepine
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is safe for use in renal dysfunction and in HTN during pregnancy?
Methyldopa
What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?
Selegiline
What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge to tears and urine?
Rifampin
What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
What tetracycline is associated with vestibular toxicity?
Minocycline
What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no cardiovascular side effects?
Doxacurium
What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
D2 and 5HT3 receptors
Which group of antihypertensive agents best decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
Thiazide diuretics
What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?
Mesolimbic system
Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result in EPS effects?
Because they do not block D2A receptors
What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they are metabolized to their active products?
Prodrugs
True or false? You would not prescribe probenecid for a patient with gout who is an overexcretor of uric acid.
True. Probenecid can precipitate uric acid crystals in the kidney if the patient is an overexcretor of urate.
True or false? Dopamine antagonists are antiemetic.
True. They block the dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
What bactericidal agent is the DOC for MRSA
enterococci
True or false? β-Blockers are contraindicated in patients who present to the hospital with CHF.
True. β-Blockers are a component of CHF regimen for stable patients
True or false? Fluoroquinolones are bactericidal.
True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo II).
What antiviral agent for ganciclovir-resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
Foscarnet
What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates pancreatic β-cell release of insulin and is given just prior to meals because of its short half-life?
Repaglinide
True or false? There is no absorption of an IV-administered drug.
True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is given IV.
What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent kills a fixed percentage of tumor cells
not a fixed number?
What is the only local anesthetic to produce vasoconstriction?
Cocaine
Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a selective inhibitor of the lipoxygenase pathway?
Zileuton
What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron?
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or PTT?
Heparin
What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase in weight or appetite?
Molindone
What α1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with hypotension?
Metaraminol (α1
What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal arrhythmias?
Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in emergencies because its half-life is 30 seconds)
What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management of status asthmaticus ?
Aminophylline
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to laudanosine?
Atracurium
What α2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and postural hypotension?
Yohimbine
What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
Pyrantel pamoate
Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers without the disease is a component of which phase of clinical drug testing?
Phase 1
Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
Tetracycline
What antifungal agent is used in the treatment of androgen receptor-positive cancers?
Ketoconazole
What MAOI does not cause a hypertensive crisis?
Selegiline
Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?
Methicillin
Is hirsutism a side effect of estrogen or progestin therapy?
Progestin
Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone receptor antagonist ?
Spironolactone
What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin
True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in obese patients because of weight gain as its side effect.
False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas).
What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase response in an asthmatic attack?
Corticosteroid
If you double the infusion rate of a drug
how long will it take to reach steady state?
What is the neurotransmitter at the µ-receptor?
β-Endorphin
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Amebiasis
Metronidazole
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Leishmaniasis
Stibogluconate
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Giardiasis
Metronidazole
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Trichomoniasis
Metronidazole
What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of intermittent claudication because it decreases blood viscosity and increases RBC membrane flexibility and stability?
Pentoxifylline
What enzyme system is the most common form of phase II biotransformation?
Glucuronidation
In what three areas of the body are sympathetics the predominant tone?
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
What is the only antifungal agent to penetrate CSF?
Fluconazole
Which class of antiarrhythmics are β-blockers?
Class II
What three cephalosporins are eliminated via biliary mechanisms?
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is used in the treatment protocol of opioid withdrawal?
Clonidine
What is the name of the monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of Crohn disease and rheumatoid arthritis?
Infliximab
Which macrolide is used in the treatment of gastroparesis?
Erythromycin
What syndrome is characterized by the triad of renal tubular acidosis
nephrosis
In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
Mesocortical area
Name five causes for zero-order metabolism.
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
What antitubercular agent requires vitamin B6 supplementation?
Isoniazid
Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for treatment of vertigo?
Meclizine
What is the DOC for treating Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia
Which class of antihypertensives is used in the treatment of BPH?
α-Blockers (-zosins)
Which macrolide is given as 1200 mg/week for the prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex?
Azithromycin
What is the drug of choice
which inhibits oxidative phosphorylation in cestodes
Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you avoid for a patient with elevated triglyceride levels?
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore
True or false? Ergotamines
because of their vasodilation action
Is DM a contraindication to use of a β-blocker in a patient who is having an MI?
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a β-blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
What β2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the treatment of asthma?
Salmeterol
What hormone can be affected by dopamine release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway
What determines the plasma level at steady state?
The rate of infusion
What enzyme is inhibited by propylthiouracil (PTU)?
5' deiodinase
What is the DOC for CMV retinitis?
Ganciclovir
What agent antagonizes the effects of heparin?
Protamine sulfate
What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and thiocyanate as byproducts?
Nitroprusside
What is the DOC for β-blocker-induced bronchospasms?
Ipratropium
What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause hyperprolactinemia?
Clozapine
True or false? Gynecomastia is a side effect of cimetidine.
True. Cimetidine can decrease androgen production and lead to gynecomastia.
What three drugs are associated with SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
Hydralazine
What is the drug of choice for filariasis and onchocerciasis?
Diethylcarbamazine
What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?
Streptomycin
Which anticonvulsant causes gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?
ASA
What antifungal agent is activated by fungal cytosine deaminase to form 5-FU?
Flucytosine
Irreversible ototoxicity is associated with which loop diuretic?
Ethacrynic acid
What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is used in the treatment of breast cancer?
Tamoxifen
Which tetracycline is used to treat prostatitis because it concentrates strongly in prostatic fluid?
Doxycycline
True or false? Dopamine is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
False. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
What oral hypoglycemic agent should be used with caution in patients with CHF because it causes lactic acidosis?
Metformin
Which phase of clinical drug testing includes postmarket reporting of adverse reactions?
Phase 4
Which prophylactic asthmatic agent is an antagonist of LTD4?
Zafirlukast
What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?
Coma
What is the neurotransmitter at the δ-receptor?
Enkephalin
What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?
Blood
What are the two broad-spectrum penicillins?
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
What are the three components to the asthma triad?
Nasal polyps
Which class of antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers?
Class IV
What are the glycoprotein receptors that platelets and fibrinogen cross-link to when forming a thrombus?
GP IIb and IIIa receptors
Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?
Propofol
Are two different receptors with two different agonists characteristic of pharmacologic or physiologic antagonism?
Physiologic antagonism
What GnRH analog is used as a repository form of treatment in prostatic cancer?
Leuprolide
Which antimicrobial agent is used with pyrimethamine to treat toxoplasmosis?
Clindamycin
What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine
What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?
Ephedrine
What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in a given volume of blood?
Clearance
Which two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?
Doxycycline and minocycline
What do the following values indicate? • ED50
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)
What do the following values indicate? • TD50
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)
What do the following values indicate? • LD50
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose)
Do agents used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease that decrease ACh function have little effect on reducing tremors and rigidity?
Agents that decrease ACh function reduce tremors and rigidity
A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?
Spasms of the uterus
What form of oxidation takes place with the addition of a water molecule and breakage of bonds?
Hydrolysis
In a ventricular pacemaker cell
what phase of the action potential is affected by NE?
Anatomical and alveolar dead spaces together constitute what space?
Physiologic dead space is the total dead space of the respiratory system.
What three organs are necessary for the production of vitamin D3(cholecalciferol)?
Skin
What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal androgens?
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
What four conditions result in secondary hyperaldosteronism?
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
What are the five hormones produced by Sertoli cells?
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen-binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antimüullerian hormone
What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential moving toward threshold?
Depolarization (i.e.
Does the left or right vagus nerve innervate the SA node?
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left vagus innervates the AV node
How does ventricular repolarization take place
base to apex or vice versa?
What is the term for any region of the respiratory system that is incapable of gas exchange?
Anatomical dead space
What four factors shift the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve to the right? What is the consequence of this shift?
Increased CO2
What two factors result in the apex of the lung being hypoperfused?
Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure (low perfusion) and less-distensible vessels (high resistance) result in decreased blood flow at the apex.
What is the ratio of pulmonary to systemic blood flow?
1:1. Remember
To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
after an injection of ADH
In what area of the GI tract are water-soluble vitamins absorbed?
Duodenum
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The rise in right atrial pressure secondary to blood filling and terminating when the tricuspid valves opens
V wave
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
C wave
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The contraction of the right atrium
A wave
What are the four functions of saliva?
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion
When a person goes from supine to standing
what happens to the following? • Dependent venous pressure
When a person goes from supine to standing
what happens to the following? • Dependent venous blood volume
When a person goes from supine to standing
what happens to the following? • Cardiac output
When a person goes from supine to standing
what happens to the following? • BP
When does the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule play a role in opposing filtration?
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
What happens to intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm is ontracted during inspiration?
Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more negative).
What is used as an index of cortisol secretion?
Urinary 17-OH steroids
If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and decreased HCO3- levels
what is the acid-base disturbance?
What is the term that refers to the number of channels open in a cell membrane?
Membrane conductance (think conductance = channels open)
What are the five tissues in which glucose uptake is insulin independent?
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa
Place in order from fastest to slowest the rate of gastric emptying for CHO
fat
Is most of the coronary artery blood flow during systole or diastole?
Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts
What modified smooth muscle cells of the kidney monitor BP in the afferent arteriole?
The JG cells
What are the three functions of surfactant?
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
Name the hormone—glucagon
insulin
Name the hormone—glucagon
insulin
Name the hormone—glucagon
insulin
Is the hydrophobic or hydrophilic end of the phospholipids of the cell membrane facing the aqueous environment?
Hydrophobic (water-insoluble) end faces the aqueous environment and the hydrophilic (water-soluble) end faces the interior of the cell.
What type of muscle is characterized by no myoglobin
anaerobic glycolysis
What percentage of CO2 is carried in the plasma as HCO3- ?
90% as HCO3-
What is the most potent male sex hormone?
Dihydrotestosterone
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
what happens to • Stroke volume?
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
what happens to • TPR?
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
what happens to • Heart rate?
What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreatic amylase hydrolyze? What three complexes are formed?
Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1
Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic interval?
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval
On a graphical representation of filtration
reabsorption
What is the relationship between preload and the passive tension in a muscle?
They are directly related; the greater the preload
What is the rate-limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
How many days prior to ovulation does LH surge occur in the menstrual cycle?
1 day prior to ovulation
How are flow through the loop of Henle and concentration of urine related?
As flow increases
What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetal circulation?
60%
How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1
What segment of the nephron has the highest concentration of inulin? Lowest concentration of inulin?
Terminal collecting duct has the highest concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin.
What type of resistance system
high or low
What hormones
secreted in proportion to the size of the placenta
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by an increase in alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the left and decreasing both H+ and HCO3- levels?
Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2
What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the center for rhythm promoting prolonged inspirations?
Apneustic center (deep breathing place)
What area of the GI tract has the highest activity of brush border enzymes?
Jejunum (upper)
What is the term to describe the increased rate of secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of puberty?
Adrenarche
What period is described when a larger-than-normal stimulus is needed to produce an action potential?
Relative refractory period
Does T3 or T4 have a greater affinity for its nuclear receptor?
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
What are the three main functions of surfactant?
1. Lowers surface tension
What is the only important physiological signal regulating the release of PTH?
Low interstitial free Ca2+ concentrations
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
Ca2+
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
Ca2+
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
Ca2+
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
Ca2+
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • ECF
14 L
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Interstitial fluid
9.3 L
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • ICF
28 L
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Vascular fluid
4.7 L
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Total body water
42 L
What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy
stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
TSH decreased
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH increased
TSH decreased
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
TSH decreased
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH increased
TSH increased
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
TSH decreased
What two stress hormones are under the permissive action of cortisol?
Glucagon and epinephrine
If the radius of a vessel doubles
what happens to resistance?
What prevents the down-regulation of the receptors on the gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland?
The pulsatile release of GnRH
True or false? Epinephrine has proteolytic metabolic effects.
False. It has glycogenolytic and lipolytic actions but not proteolytic.
What is the only 17-hydroxysteroid with hormonal activity?
Cortisol
Does the oncotic pressure of plasma promote filtration or reabsorption?
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes reabsorption and is directly proportional to the filtration fraction.
Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated when a person is standing upright?
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant
By removing Na+ from the renal tubule and pumping it back into the ECF compartment
what does aldosterone do to the body's acid-base stores?
What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle
regulates interdigestive motility
What two vessels in fetal circulation have the highest PO2 levels?
Umbilical vein and ductus venosus (80%)
How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol peak in the menstrual cycle?
2 days prior to ovulation
What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin secretion?
C-peptide levels
What is the term for the total volume of air moved in and out of the respiratory system per minute?
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
What is the renal compensation mechanism for alkalosis?
Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3-
What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?
Excess estradiol in the blood
In the systemic circulation
what blood vessels have the largest pressure drop? Smallest pressure drop?
What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts?
IGF-1
What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs?
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2)
What are the four effects of suckling on the mother?
1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF by the hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk secretion
A migrating myoelectric complex is a propulsive movement of undigested material of undigested material from the stomach to the small intestine to the colon. During a fast
what is the time interval of its repeats?
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
what happens to • Stroke volume?
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
what happens to • Vessel compliance?
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
what happens to • Heart rate?
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Trypsinogen to trypsin
Enterokinase
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
Trypsin
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase
Trypsin
In a ventricular pacemaker cell
what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? Inhibition?
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
What is the term for the summation of mechanical stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit becoming saturated with calcium?
Tetany
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by low back leaks
high affinity of a substance
In an adrenergic nerve terminal
where is dopamine converted to NE? By what enzyme?
Is the clearance for a substance greater than or less than for inulin if it is freely filtered and secreted? If it is freely filtered and reabsorbed?
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e.
What is the term for the load on a muscle in the relaxed state?
Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to contraction.
The surge of what hormone induces ovulation?
LH
What are the two best indices of left ventricular preload?
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end-diastolic volume and end-diastolic pressure
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH pulsatile amplitude and levels increase
with increased testosterone production.
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • Both LH and testosterone levels drop and remain low.
Childhood
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH secretion drives testosterone production
with both levels paralleling each other.
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • Decreased testosterone production is accompanied by an increase in LH production.
Aged adult
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the right
thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
When referring to a series circuit
what happens to resistance when a resistor is added?
Why is there an increase in prolactin if the hypothalamic-pituitary axis was severed?
Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed
Why is the clearance of creatinine always slightly greater than the clearance of inulin and GFR?
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
NH4+(ammonium)
Regarding the venous system
what happens to blood volume if there is a small change in pressure?
In what stage of sleep is GH secreted?
Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)
Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3- take place?
In the RBC; remember
From the fourth month of fetal life to term
what secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?
What two factors are required for effective exocytosis?
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
What is the best measure of total body vitamin D if you suspect a deficiency?
Serum 25-hydroxy-vitamin D (25-OH-D)
What hormone is required for 1
25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (1
Is bone deposition or resorption due to increased interstitial Ca2+concentrations?
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations
The opening of what valve indicates the termination of isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
Why is there a decrease in the production in epinephrine when the anterior pituitary gland is removed?
The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
Name the period described by the following statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is
no further action potentials can be stimulated.
How many carbons do estrogens have?
Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
True or false? The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels match the pulmonary end capillary blood levels.
True. Because of intrapulmonary shunting
In high altitudes
what is the main drive for ventilation?
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
ICF volume
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
ICF volume
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
ICF volume
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
ICF volume
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
ICF volume
What hormone excess produces adrenal hyperplasia?
ACTH
Is there more circulating T3 or T4 in plasma?
T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding protein
Why is the cell's resting membrane potential negative?
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV because of the intracellular proteins.
True or false? Thyroid size is a measure of its function.
False. Thyroid size is a measure of TSH levels (which are goitrogenic).
If the radius of a vessel is decreased by half
what happens to the resistance?
What neurotransmitter is essential for maintaining a normal BP when an individual is standing?
NE
What form of diabetes insipidus is due to an insufficient amount of ADH for the renal collecting ducts?
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available
Name the three methods of vasodilation via the sympathetic nervous system.
1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption
phosphate excretion
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium excretion
phosphate excretion
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption
phosphate reabsorption
True or false? Progesterone has thermogenic activities.
True. Elevated plasma levels of progesterone can raise the body temperature 0.5° to 1.0°F.
How long is the transit time through the small intestine?
2 to 4 hours
Where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)
True or false? Cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in skeletal muscle.
True; cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in most tissue
What percentage of cardiac output flows through the pulmonary circuit?
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal.
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Least affinity for O2; requires the highest PO 2 levels for attachment (approx. 100 mm Hg)
Site 4
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Greatest affinity of the three remaining sites for attachment; requires PO2 levels of 26 mm Hg to remain attached
Site 2
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Remains attached under most physiologic conditions
Site 1
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Requires a PO2 level of 40 mm Hg to remain attached
Site 3
Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
How many ATPs are hydrolyzed every time a skeletal muscle cross-bridge completes a single cycle?
One
Why would a puncture to a vein above the heart have the potential to introduce air into the vascular system?
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric
What type of saliva is produced under parasympathetic stimulation?
High volume
In what area of the GI tract does iron get absorbed?
Duodenum
Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilated when a person is standing upright?
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation
What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?
alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on -cells and inhibitory effects on -cells.
What are the four characteristics of all protein-mediated transportation?
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics (Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than if by simple diffusion
What is secretin's pancreatic action?
Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a HCO3--rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the chyme entering the duodenum.
Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
Because RPF is markedly decreased
What triggers phase 3 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Rapid efflux of potassium
What is the primary target for the action of glucagon?
Liver (hepatocytes)
What is the renal compensation mechanism for acidosis?
Production of HCO3-
What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapse breaks down ACh? What are the byproducts?
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
What hormone
produced by Sertoli cells
What happens to the lung if the intrapleural pressure exceeds lung recoil?
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.
What two factors determine the clearance of a substance?
Plasma concentration and excretion rate
What type of muscle contraction occurs when the muscle shortens and lifts the load placed on it?
Isotonic contraction
What type of potential is characterized as being an all-or-none response
propagated and not summated?
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a gain in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the left
decreasing HCO3- and slightly increasing CO2?
What two pituitary hormones are produced by acidophils?
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all others are by basophils.
What organ of the body has the smallest AV oxygen difference?
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.
What is the titratable acid form of H+ in the urine?
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in the preoptic nucleus?
GnRH
What five factors promote turbulent flow?
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona glomerulosa
Aldosterone Remember
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona fasciculata
Cortisol Remember
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona reticularis
DHEA (androgens) Remember
Where is most of the body's Ca2+ stored?
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as hydroxyapatite.
What is the relationship between ventilation and PCO2 levels?
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases
Is T3 or T4 responsible for the negative feedback loop on to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland?
T4
What is the signal to open the voltage-gated transmembrane potassium channels?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels
Increased urinary excretion of what substance is used to detect excess bone demineralization?
Hydroxyproline
What is the term to describe how easily a vessel stretches?
Compliance (think of it as distensibility)
What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroid gland?
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
Do the PO2 peripheral chemoreceptors of the carotid body contribute to the normal drive for ventilation?
Under normal resting conditions no
What determines the overall force generated by the ventricular muscle during systole?
The number of cross-bridges cycling during contraction: the greater the number
Where does most circulating plasma epinephrine originate?
From the adrenal medulla; NE is mainly derived from the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons.
What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR
What happens to intracellular volume when there is an increase in osmolarity?
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in osmolarity and vice versa.
Which CHO is independently absorbed from the small intestine?
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.
When is the surface tension the greatest in the respiratory cycle?
Surface tension
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in hypertension
hypernatremia
In reference to membrane potential (Em) and equilibrium potential (Ex)
which way do ions diffuse?
Under normal conditions
what is the main factor that determines GFR?
The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination of the ejection phase and the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowest velocity?
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries have the slowest velocity.
Thin extremities
fat collection on the upper back and abdomen
What enzyme is essential for the conversion of CO2 to HCO3-?
Carbonic anhydrase
True or false? The parasympathetic nervous system has very little effect on arteriolar dilation or constriction.
TRUE
What three lung measurements must be calculated because they cannot be measured by simple spirometry?
TLC
What is the venous and arterial stretch receptors' function regarding the secretion of ADH?
They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there is a decrease in the blood volume
What cell converts androgens to estrogens?
Granulosa cell
What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?
FSH
How long is the transit time through the large intestine?
3 to 4 days
Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or collapse the lung?
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; positive pressure acts to collapse the lung.
What hormone constricts afferent and efferent arterioles (efferent more so) in an effort to preserve glomerular capillary pressure as the renal blood flow decreases?
AT II
Why is there a minimal change in BP during exercise if there is a large drop in TPR?
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output
What is the effect of insulin on protein storage?
Insulin increases total body stores of protein
What is the term for an inhibitory interneuron?
Renshaw neuron
What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of original filtered volume left in the lumen
At the end of the PCT 25% of the original volume is left
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of Na+
Cl-
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Osmolarity
300 mOsm/L
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Concentration of CHO
AA
True or false? Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme.
False. It is an enzyme secreted by the lining of the small intestine.
Where does the synthesis of ACh occur?
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
What pancreatic islet cell secretes somatostatin?
delta-Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on alpha- and Beta-islet cells.
Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients
What term describes the volume of plasma from which a substance is removed over time?
Clearance
If capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than oncotic pressure
is filtration or reabsorption promoted?
What cells of the parathyroid gland are simulated in response to hypocalcemia?
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.
At the base of the lung
what is the baseline intrapleural pressure
What hormone is necessary for normal GH secretion?
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid patients have decreased GH secretions.
What is the signal to open the voltage-gated transmembrane sodium channels?
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these channels
What hormones are produced in the median eminence region of the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland?
None; they are the storage sites for ADH and oxytocin.
What is the most energy-demanding phase of the cardiac cycle?
Isovolumetric contraction
What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate further neurotransmitter release?
alpha2-Receptors
Are salivary secretions hypertonic
hypotonic
What is the effect of T3 on heart rate and cardiac output?
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta-receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
Why will turbulence first appear in the aorta in patients with anemia?
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation
What is the origin of the polyuria if a patient is dehydrated and electrolyte depleted?
If the polyuria begins before the collecting ducts
What is the physiologically active form of Ca2+?
Free ionized Ca2+
What are the two factors that affect alveolar PCO2 levels?
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)
Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic steroid therapy?
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone
What type of membrane is characterized as being permeable to water only?
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I- to I&#039;?
Peroxidase
What is the most important stimulus for the secretion of insulin?
An increase in serum glucose levels
What term is described as the prestretch on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed state)
What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most blood per gram of weight in the body?
The carotid body
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in hypertension
hypernatremia
What is the term for diffusion of water across a semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane?
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
When do hCG concentrations peak in pregnancy?
In the first 3 months
How many milliliters of O2 per milliliter of blood?
0.2
What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
Osteocyte
What two forces affect movement of ions across a membrane?
Concentration force and electrical force
What happens to the resistance of the system when a resistor is added in a series?
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember
What is the greatest component of lung recoil?
Surface tension; in the alveoli
Where is ADH synthesized?
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
How is velocity related to the total cross-sectional area of a blood vessel?
Velocity is inversely related to cross-sectional area.
True or false? Aldosterone has a sodium-conserving action in the distal colon.
True. In the distal colon
What form of hormone is described as having membrane-bound receptors that are stored in vesicles
using second messengers
What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the small intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?
Short-chain fatty acids
What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the female cycle?
Ovulation
The opening of what valve indicates the beginning of the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?
Nodes of Ranvier
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by • Increased total body sodium
ECF volume
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by • Decreased total body sodium
ECF volume
What four factors affect diffusion rate?
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient
How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
8 to 25 hours
What is the name of the force that develops in the wall of the lungs as they expand?
Lung recoil
What day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?
Day 14
How does sympathetic stimulation to the skin result in decreased blood flow and decreased blood volume? (Hint: what vessels are stimulated
and how?)
What two compensatory mechanisms occur to reverse hypoxia at high altitudes?
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2
What female follicular cell is under LH stimulation and produces androgens from cholesterol?
Theca cell
What is the main factor determining FF?
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow
Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?
Axon hillock
If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive
what type of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
What cell in the heart has the highest rate of automaticity?
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker of the heart.
What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending loop of Henle to decrease the osmolarity?
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid leaving the loop of Henle.
True or false? In skeletal muscle relaxation is an active event.
True. Sarcoplasmic calcium-dependent ATPase supplies the energy to terminate contraction
What three factors increase simple diffusion?
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
What is the pancreatic action of CCK?
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase
What is the rate-limiting step in a conduction of a NMJ?
The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the postjunctional membrane
Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net secretion to occur?
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
What acid-base disturbance is produced from vomiting?
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from vomiting because of the loss of H+
What phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by estrogen? Progesterone?
Follicular phase is estrogen-dependent with increased FSH levels
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • The amount of air that enters or leaves the lung system in a single breath
Tidal volume (VT)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • The maximal volume inspired from FRC
Inspiratory capacity
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Additional volume that can be expired after normal expiration
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Maximal volume that can be expired after maximal inspiration
Vital capacity (VC)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after maximal expiration
Residual volume (RV)
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after maximal inspiration
Total lung capacity (TLC)
What growth factors are chondrogenic
working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
What determines the Vmax of skeletal muscle?
The muscle's ATPase activity
True or false? All of the hormones in the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are water soluble.
TRUE
What is the effect of T3 on the glucose absorption in the small intestine?
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by increasing the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.
Is the bound form or free form of a lipid-soluble hormone responsible for the negative feedback activity?
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
What region or regions of the adrenal cortex are stimulated by ACTH?
Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
Are the following parameters associated with an obstructive or restrictive lung disorder: decreased FEV1
FVC
What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic alkalosis?
Hypoventilation
During puberty
what is the main drive for the increased GH secretion?
What type of potential is characterized as graded
decremental
What three organs are responsible for peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
Liver
The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of isovolumetric contraction?
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
How many carbons do androgens have?
Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.
At the apex of the lung
what is the baseline intrapleural pressure
True or false? Renin secretion is increased in 21-β-hydroxylase deficiency.
True. Increased renin and AT II levels occur as a result of the decreased production of aldosterone.
What are the four ways to increase TPR?
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels
What form of estrogen is of placental origin?
Estriol
What term is an index of the effort needed to expand the lungs (i.e.
overcomes recoil)?
At which three sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase enzyme)
Using Laplace's relationship regarding wall tension
why is the wall tension in an aneurysm greater than in the surrounding normal blood vessel's wall?
What percentage of nephrons is cortical?
Seven-eighths of nephrons are cortical
To what is the diffusion rate indirectly proportional?
Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to membrane thickness and is directly proportional to membranes surface area.
ADH is secreted in response to what two stimuli?
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
What vessels have the largest total cross-sectional area in systemic circulation?
Capillaries
How many days before the first day of menstrual bleeding is ovulation?
14 days in most women (Remember
What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of expiration?
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore
What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a patient is pregnant?
The β-subunit; remember
What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with dehydration?
Oncotic pressure increases because of the removal of water.
What cells of the kidney are extravascular chemoreceptors for decreased Na+
Cl-
What is the effect of insulin on intracellular K+ stores?
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.
What triggers phase 4 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
Decreasing potassium conductance
What is it called when levels of sex steroids increase
LH increases
What parasympathetic neurotransmitter of the GI tract stimulates the release of gastrin?
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a hemorrhage?
The carotid sinus reflex
What is the name of the regulatory protein that covers the attachment site on actin in resting skeletal muscle?
Tropomyosin
Which way does the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve shift in patients with CO poisoning?
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2
What is the main factor determining GFR?
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure
What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral blood flow?
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in response to hypercalcemia?
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.
What is the term for the amount of blood in the ventricle after maximal contraction?
Residual volume
What does failure of PaO2 to increase with supplemental O2 indicate?
Pulmonary shunt (i.e.
What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?
FSH and testosterone
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of renal plasma flow?
Para-aminohippurate (PAH)
What bile pigment is formed by the metabolism of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria
giving stool its brown color?
Is ACh associated with bronchoconstriction or bronchodilation?
Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation (ACh)
What are the growth factors released from the liver called?
Somatomedins
Regarding skeletal muscle mechanics
what is the relationship between velocity and afterload?
What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain in body fluid?
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
What are the six substances that promote the secretion of insulin?
1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. β-Agonists 6. ACh
Does O2 or CO2 have a higher driving force across the alveolar membrane?
O2 has a higher driving force but is only one-twenty-fourth as soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very small partial pressure difference across the alveolar membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg)
What is used as an index for both adrenal and testicular androgens?
Urinary 17-ketosteroids
How are resistance and length related regarding flow?
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel
Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for net reabsorption to occur?
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
What hormone
stimulated by epinephrine
True or false? Miniature end-plate potentials (MEPPs) generate action potentials.
FALSE
Is GH considered a gluconeogenic hormone?
Yes
True or false? Somatic motor neurons innervate the striated muscle of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous muscles and result in ejaculation of semen.
TRUE
What happens to intraventricular pressure and volume during isovolumetric contraction?
As the name indicates
Do high levels of estrogen and progesterone block milk synthesis?
Yes
What two factors lead to the development of the bends (caisson disease)?
Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over a long time and sudden decompression result in the bends.
In what type of circuit is the total resistance always less than that of the individual resistors?
Parallel circuit
What is the term for days 15 to 28 in the female cycle?
Luteal phase
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with • Increased rate of breathing?
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with • Increased depth of breathing?
With an increased depth of breathing both the total and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is always tested on the boards
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol decreased
ACTH increased
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol increased
ACTH increased
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol increased
ACTH decreased
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol decreased
ACTH decreased
What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries with arteriolar dilation? Arteriolar constriction?
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
RPF
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
RPF
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
RPF
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
RPF
Which direction is air flowing when the intra-alveolar pressure is zero?
When the intra-alveolar pressure equals zero
What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to 15?
Follicular phase
What determines the effective osmolarity of the ICF and the ECF compartments?
The concentration of plasma proteins determines effective osmolarity because capillary membranes are freely permeable to all substances except proteins.
What region of the brain houses the central chemoreceptors responsible for control of ventilation?
The surface of the medulla
What is the site of action of cholera toxin?
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the cAMP-dependent chloride pumps of the small and large intestine
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slow channels open
allowing calcium influx; voltage-gated potassium channels closed; potassium efflux through ungated channels; plateau stage
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slight repolarization secondary to potassium and closure of the sodium channels
Phase 1
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Fast channels open
then quickly close
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slow channels close
voltage-gated potassium channels reopen with a large influx of potassium
Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle and the terminal regions of the collecting ducts?
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?
Water
What type of hormone is described as having intracellular receptors
being synthesized as needed
What are the three stimuli that result in the reninangiotensin-aldosterone secretion?
1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodium sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased β-1-sympathetic stimulation of the JG cells
Is there a shift in p50 values with anemia? Polycythemia?
The p50 value does not change in either anemia or polycythemia; the main change is the carrying capacity of the blood.
What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH and FSH in the female cycle?
Estradiol
True or false? Active protein transport requires a concentration gradient.
True; it requires both a concentration gradient and ATP to work.
Up to how many hours post ejaculation do sperm retain their ability to fertilize the ovum?
Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release.
What type of membrane channel opens in response to depolarization?
Voltage-gated channel
What are the five effects of insulin on fat metabolism?
1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fat cells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fat tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation
True or false? In a skeletal muscle fiber
the interior of the T-tubule is extracellular.
Under resting conditions
what is the main determinant of cerebral blood flow?
On the venous pressure curve
what do the following waves represent? • A wave?
On the venous pressure curve
what do the following waves represent? • C wave?
On the venous pressure curve
what do the following waves represent? • V wave?
What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone deposition?
Osteoblast (Remember
True or false? The blood stored in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuit are considered part of the cardiac output.
False. Cardiac output refers to circulating blood volume. The blood in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuits are storage reserves and therefore are not considered in cardiac output.
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↓
LH↓
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↑
LH↓
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↓
LH↑
What are the three characteristics of autoregulation?
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
What is the fastest-conducting fiber of the heart? Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
Purkinje cell is the fastest
What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?
Afterload
What follicular cell possesses FSH receptors and converts androgens into estradiol?
Granulosa cells
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
NE
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
Epinephrine
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Brainstem cells
Serotonin
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • The hypothalamus
Histamine
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • All motor neurons
postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Autonomic preganglionic neurons
ACh
What region of the nephron has the highest osmolarity?
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm/L)
What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.
What is the term for the amount of blood expelled from the ventricle per beat?
Stroke volume
True or false? Oxytocin initiates rhythmic contractions associated with labor.
False. It does increase uterine synthesis of prostaglandins
Why does carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung (DLCO) decrease in emphysema and fibrosis but increase during exercise?
DLCO
What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?
Aromatase
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of GFR?
Inulin
How does myelination affect conduction velocity of an action potential?
The greater the myelination
What are the three end products of amylase digestion?
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. α-Limit dextrans (α-1
Where is most of the airway resistance in the respiratory system?
In the first and second bronchi
What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
Hyperventilation
How are resistance and viscosity related regarding flow?
Viscosity and resistance are proportionally related. The greater the viscosity
T3 increases bone ossification through synergistic effect with what hormone?
GH
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open slowly
Voltage-gated calcium channel
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Always open
Ungated potassium channel
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus until cell is repolarized.
Voltage-gated sodium channel
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Open at rest; depolarization is stimulus to close; begin to reopen during the plateau phase and during repolarization
Voltage-gated potassium channels
What are the three glycogenic organs?
Liver
Is CO2 a perfusion-or diffusion-limited O2 gas?
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2
What is the term for the potential difference across a cell membrane?
Transmembrane potential (an absolute number)
What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed up as a mineralocorticoid deficiency
glucocorticoid deficiency
When the ECF osmolarity increases
what happens to cell size?
When does cortisol secretion peak?
In early-morning sleep
What is the term for ventilation of unperfused alveoli?
Alveolar dead space
What is the bioactive form of thyroid hormone?
T3
What acid-base disturbance occurs in colonic diarrhea
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and potassium into the colonic lumen.
What two AAs act as excitatory transmitters in the CNS
generating EPSPs?
What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial natriuretic peptide's diuretic and natriuretic affects?
1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferent arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in the collecting ducts
In a parallel circuit
what happens to resistance when a resistor is added in parallel
What component of the ANS is responsible for movement of semen from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts?
Sympathetic nervous system
What happens to O2 affinity with a decrease in p50?
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50
If the ratio of a substance's filtrate and plasma concentrations are equal
what is that substance's affect on the kidney?
What does a loss of afferent activity from the carotid sinus onto the medulla signal?
A loss of afferent activity indicates a decrease in BP
What are the five F's associated with gallstones?
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
True or false? Menstruation is an active process due to increased gonadal sex hormones?
False. It is a passive process due to decreased sex hormones.
What happens to the intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm relaxes?
Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the intrapleural pressure (becomes more positive).
What component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules and increases thirst drive?
AT II
What large-diameter vessel has the smallest cross-sectional area in systemic circulation?
The aorta
Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be detected by checking urine levels of what substance?
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • A band
No change in length
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • I band
Shortens
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • H zone
Shortens
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • Sarcomere
Shortens
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • Actin and myosin lengths
No change in length
What are the three effects of insulin on protein metabolism?
1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown 3. Increased protein synthesis
What is the main mechanism for exchange of nutrients and gases across a capillary membrane?
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein-mediated transport
What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
Onset of bleeding
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; uninuclear; gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding complex; T tubules and SR forming dyadic contacts; voltage-gated calcium channels
Cardiac muscle
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; multinuclear; lacks gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding; T tubules and SR forming triadic contacts; highest ATPase activity; no calcium channels
Skeletal muscle
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin not in sarcomeres; nonstriated; uninuclear; gap junctions; calmodulin:calcium binding; lacks T tubules; voltage-gated calcium channels
Smooth muscle
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Back-filling into the left atrium during systole; increased v-wave
preload
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Systolic murmur
increased preload and afterload
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Diastolic murmur
increased right ventricular pressure
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Diastolic murmur; increased preload
stroke volume
Circulating levels of what hormone cause the cervical mucus to be thin and watery
allowing sperm an easier entry into the uterus?
What hormone controls relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?
Pulse pressure
What hormone
produced by the Sertoli cells
True or false? There are no central O2 receptors.
TRUE
What cell type of the bone has PTH receptors?
Osteoblasts
What substance is secreted by parietal glands and is required for life?
Intrinsic factor (IF)
What is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation?
Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation because extraction is nearly maximal during resting conditions.
What is the term for the load a muscle is trying to move during stimulation?
Afterload
What is the term for days 1 to 7 of the female cycle?
Menses
What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle must generate to expel the blood into the aorta?
Afterload
What happens to the tonicity of the urine with increased ADH secretion?
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by high back leak
low affinity for substance
What type of circuit is described when the total resistance is always greater than the sums of the individual resistors?
Series circuit
What hormone excess brings about abnormal glucose tolerance testing
impaired cardiac function
What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
The V/Q ratio increases
What hormone has the following effects: chondrogenic in the epiphyseal end plates of bones; increases AA transport for protein synthesis; increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases chondroitin sulfate synthesis?
GH
True or false? Bile pigments and bile salts are reabsorbed in the gallbladder.
FALSE
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Conduction delay in the AV node
PR interval
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Ventricular depolarization
QRS complex
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Atrial depolarization
P wave
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Ventricular repolarization
T wave
Where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue?
Renal circulation
Near the end of pregnancy
what hormone's receptors increase in the myometrium because of elevated plasma estrogen levels?
What respiratory center in the rostral pons has an inhibitory affect on the apneustic center?
Pneumotaxic center (short
For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?
LH
What primary acid-base disturbance is cause by a decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2
What lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio indicates lung maturity?
2.0 or greater
What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential becoming more negative?
Hyperpolarization (i.e.
What type of resistance system (i.e.
high or low) is formed when resistors are added in parallel?
Why is hypothyroidism associated with night blindness?
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.
What is the FiO2 of room air?
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
Where are the lowest resting PO2 levels in a resting individual?
Coronary circulation
What is the rate-limiting step in the production of steroids?
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the enzyme desmolase
In the water deprivation test
does a patient with reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or diabetes insipidus?
True or false? There is an inverse relationship between fat content and total body water.
True; the greater the fat
What is the role of the negative charge on the filtering membrane of the glomerular capillaries?
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.
What cardiac reflex is characterized by stretch receptors in the right atrium
afferent and efferent limbs via the vagus nerve
Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of bile salts take place?
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.
What three structures increase the surface area of the GI tract?
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)
Does physiologic splitting of the first heart sound occur during inspiration or expiration? Why?
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle
How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone secretion?
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for ventilation?
CSF H+ levels
What result occurs because of the negative alveolar pressure generated during inspiration?
Air flows into the respiratory system.
Corticotropin-releasing hormone promotes the synthesis and release of what prohormone?
Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and β-lipotropin.
What happens to free hormone levels when the liver decreases production and release of binding proteins?
Free hormone levels remain constant
What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral tissues from androgens?
Estrone
What changes does more negative intrathoracic pressure cause to systemic venous return and to the pulmonary vessels?
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
Where is renin produced?
In the JG cells of the kidney
True or false? Right-sided valves close before the valves on the left side of the heart.
False. Right-sided valves are the first to open and last to close.
What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?
Alkaline phosphatase
What is the order of attachment of O2 to Hgb-binding sites in the lung? Order of release from the binding sites in the tissue?
Order of attachment is site 1
What hormone is secreted into the plasma in response to a meal rich in protein or CHO?
Insulin
What happens to blood flow and pressure downstream with local arteriolar constriction?
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and pressure downstream decrease.
What occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing due to abnormalities of the enteric nervous plexus?
Achalasia
True or false? Ungated channels are always open.
True. They have no gates
What component of the ANS is responsible for dilation of the blood vessels in the erectile tissue of the penis
resulting in an erection?
What muscle type is characterized by low ATPase activity
aerobic metabolism
What happens to diastolic and systolic intervals with an increase in sympathetic activity?
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary to an increase in heart rate.
Circulating levels of what hormone in men is responsible for the negative feedback loop to the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland regulating the release of LH?
Testosterone
How are pulse pressure and compliance related?
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases
What three substances stimulate parietal cells?
ACh
What two factors result in the base of the lung being hyperperfused?
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.
True or false? Without ADH the collecting duct would be impermeable to water.
True. Without ADH hypotonic urine would be formed.
How does ventricular depolarization take place
base to apex or vice versa?
What are effects of PTH in the kidney?
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT.
Regarding muscle mechanics
how is passive tension produced?
Insulin-induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable (by far not the safest) test for what hormone deficiency?
GH deficiency
In regards to solute concentration
how does water flow?
Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCl concentrations?
Macula densa
If the AV difference is positive
is the substance extracted or produced by the organ?
What is used as an index of the number of functioning carriers for a substance in active reabsorption in the kidney?
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
Why is there a transcellular shift in K+ levels in a diabetic patient who becomes acidotic?
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells
True or false? Catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) is not found in smooth muscle
liver
What somatomedin serves as a 24-hour marker of GH secretion?
IGF-1 (somatomedin C)
What receptor is in the smooth muscle cells of the small bronchi
is stimulated during inflation
True or false? Thyroid hormones are necessary for normal menstrual cycles.
True. They are also necessary for normal brain maturation.
What component of the cardiovascular system has the largest blood volume? Second largest blood volume?
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume
Serum concentration of what substance is used as a clinical measure of a patient's GFR?
Creatinine
Where does CHO digestion begin?
In the mouth with salivary α-amylase (ptyalin)
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect insulin secretion?
It decreases insulin secretion.
How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity of an action potential?
The greater the cell diameter
Calf pseudohypertrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Kayser-Fleischer rings
Wilson disease
Aschoff bodies
Rheumatic fever
Curschmann spirals
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
Charcot-Leyden crystals
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
Keratin pearls
Squamous cell carcinoma
Bence-Jones proteinuria
Multiple myeloma
Russell bodies
Multiple myeloma
WBCs in the urine
Acute cystitis
RBCs in the urine
Bladder carcinoma
RBC casts in the urine
Acute glomerulonephritis
WBC casts in the urine
Acute pyelonephritis
Renal epithelial casts in the urine
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
Waxy casts
Chronic end-stage renal disease
Signet ring cells
Gastric carcinoma
Heinz bodies
G-6-PD deficiency
Mallory bodies
Chronic alcoholic
Auer rods
AML-M3
Starry sky pattern
Burkitt lymphoma
Birbeck granules
Histiocytosis X
Reed-Sternberg cells
Hodgkin lymphoma
Call-Exner bodies
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
Cowdry type A bodies
Herpesvirus
Orphan Annie cells
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
Streaky ovaries
Turner syndrome
Blue-domed cysts
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Reinke crystals
Leydig cell tumor
Schiller-Duval bodies
Yolk sac tumor
Codman triangle on radiograph
Osteosarcoma
Councilman bodies
Toxic or viral hepatitis
Blue sclera
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Soap bubble appearance on radiograph
Giant cell tumor of the bone
Pseudorosettes
Ewing sarcoma
Neurofibrillary tangles
Alzheimer disease
Homer-Wright rosettes
Neuroblastoma
Lewy bodies
Parkinson disease
Lucid interval
Epidural hematoma
Bloody tap on lumbar puncture
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Pseudopalisades
Glioblastoma multiforme
Senile plaques
Alzheimer disease
Café-au-lait spot on the skin
Neurofibromatosis
Name the most common cause. • Blindness worldwide
Chlamydia trachomatis
Name the most common cause. • Blindness in the United States
Diabetes mellitus
Name the most common cause. • Dementia in persons aged 60 to 90 years
Alzheimer disease
Name the most common type. • Learning disability
Dyslexia
Name the most common type. • Mental retardation
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Name the most common type. • Phobia
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
Name the most common type. • Psychiatric disorder in women of all ages
Anxiety disorders; for men it is substance abuse.
Name the most common type. • Specific phobia
Public speaking (Remember: stage fright)
Name the most common cause. • Chronic pancreatitis
Alcohol abuse
Name the most common cause. • Infectious pancreatitis
Mumps
Name the most common cause. • Insomnia
Depression
Name the most common cause. • Hospitalization in children younger than 1 year of age
RSV
Name the most common cause. • Croup
Parainfluenza virus
Name the most common cause. • A cold in the winter and summer
Coronavirus
Name the most common cause. • A cold in the spring and fall
Rhinovirus
Which virus is the MCC of a cold in the summer and fall? Winter and spring?
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for winter and spring
Name the most common type or cause. • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Amyloidosis
Name the most common type or cause. • Death in the United States
Ischemic heart disease (MIs)
Name the most common type or cause. • Sudden cardiac death
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
Name the most common type or cause. • Right heart failure
Left heart failure
Name the most common type or cause. • Childhood heart disease in the United States
Congenital heart disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Cyanotic heart disease
Tetralogy of Fallot
Name the most common type or cause. • Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Streptococcus viridans
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute bacterial endocarditis
Staphylococcus aureus
Name the most common type or cause. • Viral pneumonia leading to death
RSV
Name the most common type or cause. • Infection in a patient on a ventilator
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Name the most common type or cause. • Bronchiolitis in children
RSV
Name the most common type or cause. • Pulmonary HTN in children
VSD
Name the most common type or cause. • Reversible HTN in the United States
Alcohol abuse
Name the most common type or cause. • Spontaneous pneumothorax
Emphysematous bleb
Name the most common type or cause. • Nonorganic pneumoconiosis
Asbestosis
Name the most common type or cause. • Cellular injury
Hypoxia
Name the most common type or cause. • Hypoxia
Ischemia
Name the most common type or cause. • Lobar pneumonia
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Name the most common type or cause. • Lung abscess
Aspiration
Name the most common type or cause. • Cirrhosis in the United States
Alcohol consumption
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephrotic syndrome
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MGN)
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephrotic syndrome in children
Lipoid nephrosis
Name the most common type or cause. • Liver transplantation in adults
Alcoholic cirrhosis
Name the most common type or cause. • UTIs
Escherichia coli
Name the most common type or cause. • Urinary tract obstruction
BPH
Name the most common type or cause. • Painless hematuria
Renal cell carcinoma
Name the most common type or cause. • Hematuria
Infection
Name the most common type or cause. • GN in the world
IgA nephropathy
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic syndrome in children
Minimal change disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic syndrome in adults
MGN
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute renal failure in the United States
Acute tubular necrosis
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute tubular necrosis
Ischemic
Name the most common type or cause. • Diarrhea in children
Rotavirus
Name the most common type or cause. • Intestinal obstructions in adults
Adhesions and hernias
Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal bowel obstruction
Hirschsprung disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Rectal bleeding
Diverticulosis
Name the most common type or cause. • Mallory-Weiss syndrome
Alcoholism
Name the most common type or cause. • Anovulation
Polycystic ovaries
Name the most common type or cause. • Breast lump in females
Fibrocystic change of the breast
Name the most common type or cause. • Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis
Sickle cell disease
Name the most common type or cause. • Panhypopituitarism
Sheehan syndrome
Name the most common type or cause. • Cushing syndrome
Pituitary adenoma
Name the most common type or cause. • Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism in the United States
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Name the most common type or cause. • Hypothyroidism in the United States
Iatrogenesis
Name the most common type or cause. • Pyogenic osteomyelitis
Staphylococcus aureus
Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal septicemia and meningitis
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus
Name the most common type or cause. • Sinusitis and otitis media in children
Pneumococcus
Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis in adults
Pneumococcus
Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis in renal transplantation patients
Listeria monocytogenes
Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile bacterial diarrhea
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (Rotavirus is the MCC overall.)
Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile diarrhea
Rotavirus
Name the most common type or cause. • Chancre
Haemophilus ducreyi
Name the most common type or cause. • Urethritis in a young
newly sexually active individual
Name the most common type or cause. • Cystitis
Escherichia coli
Name the most common type or cause. • Erysipelas
Streptococcus pyogenes
Name the most common type or cause. • Chronic metal poisoning
Lead
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute metal poisoning in the United States
Arsenic
Name the MCC of death. • In neonates
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Name the MCC of death. • In SLE
Renal failure
Name the MCC of death. • In diabetic individuals
MI
Name the MCC of death. • In patients with cystic fibrosis
Pulmonary infections
What is the MCC of death in the United States?
Heart disease
What is the second leading cause of death in the United States?
Cancer
What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
Accidents
What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
Cancer
What is the MCC of cancer mortality in males and females?
Lung cancer
What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in males? In females?
For males it's prostate cancer
What is the MCC of death in black males aged 15 to 24?
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? • Less than 35 years old
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? • More than 35 years old
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
What is the most common causative organism of acne vulgaris?
Propionibacterium acnes
What is the MCC of viral conjunctivitis?
Adenovirus
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Post dental work
Streptococcus viridans
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Following biliary infections
Enterococcus faecalis
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Non-IV drug user
Staphylococcus aureus
Name the MCC. • Epiglottitis in an unvaccinated child
Haemophilus influenzae type B
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in adults
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a neutropenic burn patient
Pseudomonas sp.
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a patient with atypical bird exposure and hepatitis
Chlamydia psittaci
Name the MCC. • Walking pneumonia
seen in teens and military recruits
Name the MCC. • Aspiration pneumonia in an alcoholic
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in an HIV-positive patient with CD4 less than 200
Pneumocystis carinii
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In patients who have AIDS or are immunocompromised
Cryptococcus
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In military recruits
Neisseria meningitides
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In those 12 months to 6 years of age
Haemophilus influenzae type B
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In neonates to 3 months of age
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In adults
Streptococcus pneumoniae
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In renal transplant patients
Listeria monocytogenes
What is the most common one? • Helminthic parasite worldwide
Ascaris lumbricoides
What is the most common one? • Helminth parasitic infection in the United States
Enterobius vermicularis
What is the most common one? • Form of necrosis
Coagulative
What is the most common one? • Organism that causes pyelonephritis
Escherichia coli
What is the most common one? • Congenital cardiac anomaly
VSD
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly in children
PDA
What is the most common one? • Complication of PDA
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
What is the most common one? • Congenital heart defect in adults
ASD
What is the most common one? • Type of ASD
Ostium secundum defects
What is the most common one? • Vasculitis
Temporal arteritis
What is the most common one? • Form of vasculitis
Temporal arteritis
What is the most common one? • Cardiac tumor
Left atrial myxoma
What is the most common one? • Cardiac tumor of infancy
Rhabdomyoma
What is the most common one? • Cardiac pathology in patients with SLE
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly in Turner syndrome
Coarctation of the aorta
What is the most common one? • Valve abnormality associated with rheumatic fever
Mitral valve stenosis
What is the most common one? • Viral cause of myocarditis
Coxsackie B
What is the most common one? • Primary lung cancer
Adenocarcinoma
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the lungs
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
What is the most common one? • Neoplastic tumor in the lungs
Metastatic carcinomas
What is the most common one? • Bladder tumor
Transitional cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Renal calculus type
Calcium oxylate
What is the most common one? • Kidney stone type
Calcium oxalate
What is the most common one? • Solid tumor in children
Neuroblastoma
What is the most common one? • Renal pathology in patients with SLE
Diffuse proliferative GN
What is the most common one? • Cancer of the esophagus in the world
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in the United States
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of the esophagus
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Benign GI tumor
Leiomyoma
What is the most common one? • Site of ischemia in the GI tract
Splenic flexure
What is the most common one? • Type of PUD
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
What is the most common one? • Location of a duodenal ulcer
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
What is the most common one? • Location of a gastric ulcer
Lesser curvature of the antrum of the stomach
What is the most common one? • Site for carcinoid tumors
Appendix (second is terminal ileum)
What is the most common one? • Site for colonic diverticula
Sigmoid colon
What is the most common one? • Site of Crohn disease
Terminal ileum
What is the most common one? • Site of ulcerative colitis
Rectum
What is the most common one? • Site of pancreatic cancer
Head of the pancreas
What is the most common one? • Pancreatic islet cell tumor
Insulinoma
What is the most common one? • Stone type associated with cholecystitis
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
What is the most common one? • Liver tumor
Metastatic carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor in the liver
Hepatocellular carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Primary tumor of the liver
Hemangioma (benign)
What is the most common one? • Organism associated with liver abscesses
Entamoeba histolytica
What is the most common one? • Renal cell cancer type
Clear cell
What is the most common one? • Esophageal carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Solid tumor in the body
Nephroblastoma
What is the most common one? • Malignancy in children
ALL
What is the most common one? • Lymph node affected in non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Periaortic lymph nodes
What is the most common one? • Subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma
Nodular sclerosis
What is the most common one? • Thyroid cancer
Papillary carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Thyroid adenoma
Follicular adenoma
What is the most common one? • Malignant thyroid tumor
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
What is the most common one? • Pituitary tumor
Chromophobe adenoma
What is the most common one? • Pituitary adenoma
Prolactinoma
What is the most common one? • Tumor arising within the bone
Multiple myeloma
What is the most common one? • Tumor on sun-exposed sites
Basal cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Malignant germ cell tumor in women
Choriocarcinoma
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the ovary
Serocystadenocarcinoma
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor in women
Breast
What is the most common one? • Cancer of the vulva
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world
Cervical neoplasia
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the United States
Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
What is the most common one? • Tumor of the female genitourinary tract
Leiomyoma
What is the most common one? • Benign tumor of the ovary
Serocystadenoma
What is the most common one? • Benign tumor of the breast
Fibroadenoma
What is the most common one? • Benign breast tumor in females less than 35 years old
Fibroadenoma
What is the most common one? • Histologic variant of breast cancer
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Benign lesion that affects the breast
Fibrocystic change of the breast
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of the breast
Invasive ductal carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Female genital tract malignancy resulting in death
Ovarian cancer
What is the most common one? • Malignancy of the female genital tract
Endometrial cancer
What is the most common one? • Tumor of the female genital tract
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
What is the most common one? • Benign ovarian tumor
Cystadenoma
What is the most common one? • Malignant carcinoma of the ovaries
Cystadenocarcinoma
What is the most common one? • Stromal tumor of the ovary
Ovarian fibroma
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor of the ovary
Dysgerminoma
What is the most common one? • Tumor in men aged 15 to 35
Testicular tumors
What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in men over 50 years old
Testicular lymphoma
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor in men
Seminoma
What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in infants and children
Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor in boys
Yolk sac tumor
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers
Osteosarcoma
What is the most common one? • Intraspinal tumor
Ependymoma
What is the most common one? • Eye tumor in children
Retinoblastoma
What is the most common one? • Organ involved in amyloidosis
Kidney
What is the most common one? • Complication of nasogastric tube feeding
Aspiration pneumonia
What is the most common one? • Acquired GI emergency of infancy
Necrotizing enterocolitis
What is the most common one? • Organism associated with mastitis
Staphylococcus aureus
What is the most common one? • Tumor in individuals exposed to asbestos
Bronchogenic carcinoma
What is the most common one? • Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ
BPH
What is the most common one? • Inflammatory arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
What is the most common one? • Form of muscular dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
What is the most common one? • Joint affected in pseudogout
Knee
What is the most common one? • Route for infectious arthritis
Hematogenous
What is the most common one? • Form of arthritis
Osteoarthritis
What is the most common one? • Route of spread in pyogenic osteomyelitis
Hematogenous
What is the most common one? • Bone disorder in the United States
Osteoporosis
What is the most common one? • Primary tumor metastasis to the bone
Breast
What is the most common one? • Bone tumor
Metastatic
What is the most common one? • Neurotransmitter in the brain
GABA
What is the most common one? • Site of a cerebral infarct
Middle cerebral artery
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor in adults
Glioblastoma multiforme
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor in children
Medulla blastoma
What is the most common one? • Brain tumor
Metastatic
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor
Glioblastoma multiforme
What is the most common one? • Intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults
Ependymoma
What is the most common one? • Location of ependymomas in children
In children
What is the most common one? • Melanoma in dark-skinned persons
Acral-lentiginous melanoma
What is the most common one? • Type of melanoma
Superficial spreading melanoma
What is the most common one? • Skin tumor in the United States
Basal cell carcinoma
What is the most common one? Site of congenital diaphragmatic hernias
Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm
What is the most common one? • Type of hernia seen in males more than 50 years old
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect hernias are the most common type.
What is the most common one? • Sites for abdominal aorta aneurysm
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
What is the most common one? • Site for atherosclerotic plaques in the abdominal aorta
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
What is the most common one? • Site for an ectopic abdominal pregnancy
The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)
What is the most common site for implantation of the blastocyst?
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
Where is the most frequent site of ectopic pregnancy?
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
What is the most common diagnosis made (or missed!) resulting in a malpractice suit?
Breast cancer
What is the most common serotype of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
0157:H7
What is the most common circulation Ig in the plasma?
IgG
What is the most common cancer diagnosed in men? In women?
In men it is prostate cancer
What is the second most common cancer diagnosed in both males and females?
Lung and bronchus cancer
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related death in men?
Prostate and lung cancer
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related death in women?
Breast and lung cancer
What is the most common primary diagnosis resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
For males
What is the most common disease or infection reported to the CDC?
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember
What is the most common STD?
HPV
Name the most common reported STD. • In females
Chlamydia
Name the most common reported STD. • In males
Gonorrhea
What is the most common sexual assault?
Pedophilia
What is the most common form of elderly abuse?
Nearly 50% of all reported cases of elderly abuse are due to neglect. Physical
What is the most common complement deficiency?
C2 deficiency
What is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis?
Kidney
What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
Follicular lymphoma
In which quadrant is breast cancer most commonly found?
Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)
What is the most common cardiac tumor? In what chamber does it most commonly arise?
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near the fossa ovalis.
What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
Temporal lobes
What is the most common condition leading to an intracerebral bleed?
HTN
What carpal bone is most commonly fractured? Dislocated?
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.
What is the costliest health care problem in the United States?
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
What is the most abused drug across all age groups?
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
What are the two most common chains of the TCR?
α-and β-chains are on most T cells.
What is the most common form of inherited dwarfism?
Achondroplasia
What is the most common lethal AR disorder affecting white Americans?
Cystic fibrosis
What is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation?
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than fragile X syndrome.)
What is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL?
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal disorder
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
Name the most common one. • Heart defect in Down syndrome
Endocardial cushion defect
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal disorder involving sex chromosomes
Klinefelter syndrome
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • CML
Chromosome 9
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Ewing sarcoma
Chromosome 11
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Adult familial polyposis
Chromosome 5
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Burkitt lymphoma
Chromosome 8
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
Chromosome 15
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • M3 AML
Chromosome 15
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Follicular lymphoma
Chromosome 14
Name the associated chromosome. • Cri-du-chat
Chromosome 5p
Name the associated chromosome. • Patau syndrome
Chromosome 13
Name the associated chromosome. • Huntington disease
Chromosome 4p
Name the associated chromosome. • Familial hypercholesterolemia
Chromosome 19
Name the associated chromosome. • Gaucher disease
Chromosome 1
Name the associated chromosome. • Niemann-Pick disease
Chromosome 11p
Name the associated chromosome. • Tay-Sachs disease
Chromosome 15q
Name the associated chromosome. • Cystic fibrosis
Chromosome 7
Name the associated chromosome. • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
Chromosome 12
Name the associated chromosome. • Marfan disease
Chromosome 15
Name the associated chromosome. • Neurofibromatosis type 1
Chromosome 17
Name the associated chromosome. • Neurofibromatosis type 2
Chromosome 22q
Name the associated chromosome. • Down syndrome
Chromosome 21
Name the associated chromosome. • Edward syndrome
Chromosome 18
Name the associated chromosome. • VON Hippel-Lindau disease
Chromosome 3p
What is the most common chromosomal disorder?
Down syndrome
What is the MCC of inherited mental retardation?
Down syndrome
What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?
Gaucher disease
What chromosome is mutant in patients with cystic fibrosis?
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.
Familial hypercholesteremia is due to a mutation in the LDL receptor gene. What chromosome carries it?
Chromosome 19
What chromosome is associated with the AR form of SCID?
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
On what chromosome is the adenomatous polyposis coli gene?
Chromosome 5q21
Name the associated chromosome. • Albinism
Chromosome 11p
What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance?
Chromium (Cr)
What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?
Iodine (I)
What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
Molybdenum (Mb)
What vitamin deficiency produces angular stomatitis
glossitis
What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
Thymine (B1)
Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency?
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase?
Selenium (Se)
What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and impaired sexual development?
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
What mineral
via excessive depositions in the liver
What vitamin is needed for the production of heme?
Pyridoxine (B6)
What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?
Pantothenic acid
What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)
What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing
loose teeth
What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
Pyruvate
What vitamin requires IF for absorption?
Cyanocobalamin (B12)
What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3?
Copper
Leukopenia
neutropenia
What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics?
Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?
Copper deficiency
Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
Folic acid deficiency
What vitamin deficiency can result in high-output cardiac failure?
Thiamine
Name the antidote. • Carbon monoxide (CO)
Oxygen
Name the antidote. • Mercury
Dimercaprol
Name the antidote. • Isoniazid
Pyridoxine
Name the antidote. • Atropine
Physostigmine
Name the antidote. • Arsenic
Dimercaprol
Name the antidote. • Digoxin
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
Name the antidote. • Gold
Dimercaprol
Name the antidote. • Ethylene glycol
Ethyl alcohol
Name the antidote. • Opioids
Naloxone
Name the antidote. • Organophosphates
Atropine
Name the antidote. • Warfarin
Vitamin K
Name the antidote. • Copper
D-Penicillamine
Name the antidote. • Heparin
Protamine sulfate
Name the antidote. • Iron
Deferoxamine
Name the antidote. • Cyanide
Amyl nitrate
Name the antidote. • Methyl alcohol
Ethyl alcohol
Name the antidote. • Acetaminophen
N-Acetylcysteine
Name the antidote. • Nitrates
Methylene blue
Name the antidote. • Lead
Penicillamine
Name the antidote. • Benzodiazepines
Flumazenil
Name the antidote. • AChE inhibitors
Atropine with pralidoxime
Name the antidote. • Anticholinergics
Physostigmine
A known IV drug abuser goes to the ER with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils and in a semicomatose state. What overdose do you suspect
and what agent will you give to reverse its effects?
Cherry red intoxication is associated with what form of poisoning?
CO
What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Occupational nitrous oxide exposure
Anemia
What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Methoxyflurane
Nephrotoxicity
What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Halothane
Hepatitis
What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
Nystagmus and ataxia
What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
Pinpoint pupils
What is the major pulmonary side effect of µ-activators?
Respiratory depression
What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
Constipation and miosis