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1876 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What form of anemia is diagnosed with sucrose lysis test and Ham test?
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Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
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In what rare AR disorder do you see neutropenia
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defective degranulation
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What myeloid disorder is characterized by increased hematocrit
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blood viscosity
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If you order a V/Q scan for suspected pulmonary emboli
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is the filling defect seen on the ventilation or perfusion side?
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What transports iron in the blood?
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Transferrin
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What hematological malignancy is particularly likely to affect patients with Down syndrome?
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ALL (nearly 15-20 times the normal risk)
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What childhood pathology involves anterior bowing of the tibia
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epiphyseal enlargements
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A Japanese man has weight loss
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anorexia
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What drug causes a sixfold increase in schizophrenia
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can impair motor activity
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What is the term for neurologic signs consistent with a cerebrovascular accident but lasting 24 hours with full recovery?
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Transient ischemic attack
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What is the name of the tumor when gastric carcinoma spreads to the ovaries?
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Krukenberg tumor
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What condition results from a deficiency in the enzyme hexosaminidase A?
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Tay-Sachs disease
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Which cerebral herniation results in compression of the anterior cerebral artery?
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Cingulate gyrus herniation (subfalcine)
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What pathology involves excessive fibrosis throughout the body via increased fibroblast activity
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occurs in women more than men
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What is the term for the syndrome consisting of hepatomegaly
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ascites
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What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery vasospasm
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symptom occurrence at rest
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What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery luminal narrowing
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symptom occurrence during exertion
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What form of angina is characterized by • Coronary artery nonocclusive thrombus; symptom occurrence with increasing frequency
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duration
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What skin condition is a localized proliferation of melanocytes presenting as small
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oval
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What is the term for nonneoplastic abnormal proliferation of cell size
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shape
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What diagnosis ensues from finding well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales on the knees
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elbows
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What renal disease in diabetic patients is seen as a halo of capillaries around the mesangial nodules?
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Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease
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What autoimmune liver disease is characterized by affecting a middle-aged woman with jaundice
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pruritus
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What cell in chronic inflammation is derived from blood monocytes?
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Macrophages
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True or false? Pancreatic insufficiency results in vitamin B12 malabsorption.
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True. Pancreatic enzymes begin the breakdown of vitamin B12-R complex in the duodenum.
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What neuroendocrine tumor produces excess serotonin; is associated with diarrhea
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flushing
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What tumor constitutes 40% of testicular tumors in children?
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Teratoma
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What urinary metabolite is elevated in pheochromocytoma?
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Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)
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A 25-year-old black woman presents with nonproductive cough
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shortness of breath
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What are the four reasons for hypochromic microcytic anemia with a low MCV?
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1. Sideroblastic anemias (i.e.
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What is characterized by an intense inflammatory reaction
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an increase in the amounts of granulation tissue and wound contraction by myofibroblasts?
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What thyroiditis presents as a tender
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enlarged
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What disorder leads to IgG autoantibodies to the TSH receptor?
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Graves disease
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What intrauterine deficiency leads to failure to thrive
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mental retardation
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What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with MEN I syndrome?
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Gastrinoma
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What type of PUD is classically described by the onset of burning epigastric pain 1 to 3 hours after eating that is relieved by food?
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Duodenal ulcer
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What disease arises from the adrenal medulla
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displaces and crosses the midline
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What AD disease associated with chromosome 19 involves a defect in the LDL receptors that leads to skin and tendon xanthomas?
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Familial hypercholesterolemia
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A 20-year-old woman goes to the ER with ptosis
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diplopia
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What is the term for RBCs with smooth undulations on the surface of their membrane
|
commonly seen in uremia?
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Beta-hCG
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Choriocarcinomas and trophoblastic tumors
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-125
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Ovarian cancer
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CA-19.9 and CEA
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Pancreatic cancer
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • alpha-Fetoprotein
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Hepatoma and nonseminomatous testicular germ cell tumors
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Calcitonin
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Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • PSA and prostatic acid phosphatase
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Prostate cancer
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Placental alkaline phosphatase
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Seminoma
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Name the cancer associated with the following tumor markers. (Some may have more than one answer.) • CEA
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Cancer of the lung
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What seronegative spondyloarthropathy is seen in HLA-B27-positive young men
|
involves the sacroiliac joints
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What disorder is associated with decreased platelet count
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prolonged PT and PTT
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What spirochete is responsible for Lyme disease?
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Borrelia burgdorferi
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What very aggressive lung cancer metastasizes early and is associated with smoking and paraneoplastic syndromes?
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Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)
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What bone disorder is characterized by brown tumors
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bone pain
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What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Lysosomal glucosidase (acid maltase)
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Pompe's disease
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What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Muscle phosphorylase
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McArdle's syndrome
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What glycogen storage disease is due to the following enzyme deficiencies? • Glucose-6-phosphatase
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von Gierke's disease
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What ovarian disease involves psammoma bodies?
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Serocystadenocarcinoma
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What cystic swelling of the chorionic villi is the most common precursor of choriocarcinoma?
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Hydatidiform mole
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In what condition do you see dimpling on the kidney's surface?
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Pyelonephritis
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What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • Overall?
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Staphylococcus aureus
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What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In neonates?
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Streptococcus agalactiae
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What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In patients with sickle cell disease?
|
Staphylococcus aureus (but they are more prone to salmonella infections)
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What are the most common causes of osteomyelitis • In drug addicts?
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Pseudomonas
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What malignant neoplasm of the bone is associated with Homer-Wright pseudorosettes; onion skinning of the periosteum on radiographs of the femur
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pelvis
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What lymphoma is characterized by CD19
|
CD20
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What components of the complement cascade form the MAC?
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C5b-C9
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True or false? HPV infection increases the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma of the penis.
|
True. HPV serotypes 16 and 18 are risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma.
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What form of coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner syndrome?
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Preductal (infantile)
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True or false? An elevated serum osteocalcin level is a marker for increased bone formation.
|
True. Increased alkaline phosphatase levels also are associated with increased bone formation.
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What is the most common opportunistic infection of the CNS in HIV?
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Toxoplasmosis
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What hereditary bone disorder is due to decreased osteoclast function
|
resulting in thick
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|
True or false? Pancreatic delta-cell tumors inhibit CCK secretion
|
leading to gallstones and steatorrhea.
|
|
What is the term for the speckled appearance of the iris in patients with Down syndrome?
|
Brushfield spots
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What is the term for the collapse of the vertebral body due to TB?
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Pott disease
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What organ must metastasize for carcinoid heart disease to occur?
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Liver
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Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
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pheochromocytoma
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Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
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pheochromocytoma
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Which subset of MEN syndrome is associated with the following? • Parathyroid
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pancreatic
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What X-linked recessive disease involves mental retardation
|
self-mutilation
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What disorder is associated with spider angiomas
|
palmar erythema
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What is your diagnosis of a young
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thin asymptomatic female with a midsystolic click on cardiac auscultation?
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What infection is associated with ring-enhancing lesions seen on computed tomography (CT) of the brain in an HIV-positive individual?
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Toxoplasmosis (although you should rule out cerebral abscess due to other organisms)
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What is the term for a reversible change in one cell type to another?
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Metaplasia (usually to a more protective cell type)
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What liver tumor is associated with oral contraceptive pill use?
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Hepatic adenomas
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What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with downward displacement of the cerebellar vermis and medulla compressing the fourth ventricle and leading to obstructive hydrocephalus?
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Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
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What disease involves a lack of both T cell-mediated and humoral immune responses that can be either X-linked or AR?
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Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
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What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 70 to 180 mm H2O; 0-10 WBCs (monocytes); glucose 45 to 85
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protein 15 to 45
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What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 450 mm H2O; 5 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose and protein levels
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Brain abscess
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What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 100 mm H2O; 120 WBCs (90% lymphocytes); normal glucose levels; protein 17
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Viral meningitis
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What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 250 mm H2O; WBCs 250 (90% lymphocytes); glucose 35; protein 100
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TB meningitis
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What condition results in the following CSF results? • Opening pressure 400 mm H2O; WBCs 8500 (90% PMNs); glucose 15; protein 120
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Bacterial meningitis
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True or false? Removal of the ileum results in vitamin B12 deficiencies.
|
True. The ileum is the site where vitamin B12 is absorbed.
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What is the term for edema that has LDH below 200
|
protein level 2.5
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What is the term for thickened
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hyperpigmented skin in the axillae
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How many grams of protein must be excreted in 24 hours to produce the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome?
|
>3.5 g/day of protein
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What illicit drug can cause amyloidosis and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in the kidney?
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Heroin
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What catecholamine-hypersecreting tumor
|
a secondary cause of HTN
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|
What is the term for flattened nose
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low-set ears
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What type of healing occurs in a clean surgical incision?
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Primary intention
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What are the two most common viral infections in HIV?
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CMV retinitis and HSV-2
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What disorder is defined by inability of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax with swallowing and a bird beak barium swallow result?
|
Achalasia. (Think Chagas disease if it presents in a person from Central or South America.)
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Does Cushing syndrome or Cushing disease have elevated ACTH levels and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone?
|
Cushing's disease (pituitary) has elevated ACTH and cortisol suppression with dexamethasone
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|
What CD4 T-cell receptor does the HIV virus bind to?
|
gp120
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What is the term for RBC fragments?
|
Schistocytes
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What disorder is due to a deficiency in tyrosinase?
|
Albinism
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What two Abs are used to diagnose Hashimoto's thyroiditis?
|
Antithyroglobulin and antimicrosomal Abs
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What urease-producing gram-negative curved rod is associated with PUD and chronic gastritis?
|
Helicobacter pylori
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Alkylating agents
|
Leukemias and lymphomas
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Aromatic amines and azo dyes
|
Hepatocellular carcinoma
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Arsenic
|
Squamous cell carcinoma (skin
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Asbestos
|
Mesothelioma and bronchogenic carcinoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Naphthylamine
|
Bladder cancer
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Benzenes
|
Leukemias
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Vinyl chloride
|
Angiosarcoma of the liver
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Chromium and nickel
|
Bronchogenic carcinoma
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|
Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
|
Bronchogenic carcinoma
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Name the cancer associated with the following chemical agents. (Some may have more than one answer.) • Nitrosamines
|
Gastric cancer
|
|
What are the five conditions associated with normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and an elevated reticulocyte count?
|
1. Autoimmune hypersplenism 2. Trauma 3. Anemia 4. Spherocytosis 5. Sickle cell anemia
|
|
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with hypoglycemia
|
sweating
|
|
What substance is used to test platelets' response in patients with von Willebrand disease?
|
Ristocetin
|
|
What X-linked recessive disorder that is due to an abnormality in the dystrophin gene
|
has onset by age 5 with progressive proximal muscle weakness
|
|
What subset of adenocarcinoma arises from the terminal bronchioles and/or alveolar walls?
|
Bronchioloalveolar carcinoma
|
|
What estrogen-producing tumor of the female genital tract is characterized by Call-Exner bodies?
|
Granulosa cell tumor of the ovary
|
|
What AD syndrome involves 1000 or more edematous polyps
|
most commonly affects the colorectal area
|
|
What is the term for osteophyte formation at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints in osteoarthritis? In the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints?
|
Bouchard nodes in the PIP joints; Heberden nodes in the DIP joints.
|
|
What prostaglandin is associated with maintaining patency of the ductus arteriosus?
|
PGE (along with low oxygen tension)
|
|
What is the term for dilated veins within the spermatic cord?
|
Varicocele
|
|
What type of hemostasis in an intravascular space consists of fibrin
|
platelets
|
|
What is the most common primary malignant tumor in bone?
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
What is the most common infectious agent in HIV?
|
Pneumocystis carinii
|
|
What myeloid disorder is characterized by dry bone marrow aspirations
|
splenomegaly
|
|
What disease that involves mental retardation
|
flat face
|
|
What form of anemia is associated with IgG Abs against Rh antigens
|
positive direct Coombs test
|
|
What urinary metabolite is increased in patients with carcinoid syndrome?
|
5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)
|
|
What chronic liver disease has a beaded appearance of the bile ducts on cholangiogram?
|
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
|
|
What three LTs are associated with bronchospasms and an increase in vessel permeability and vasoconstriction?
|
LC4
|
|
What are the three Bs of adult polycystic kidneys?
|
1. Big 2. Bilateral 3. Berry aneurysm
|
|
What AR disease involves a defect in AA 508 on chromosome 7
|
causing a defect in Cl- transportation that leads to recurrent pulmonary infections and an increase in viscid mucoid secretions along with pancreatic insufficiencies?
|
|
What law states that an enlarged
|
palpable gallbladder is more likely due to cancer than stone obstruction?
|
|
What is the term for air in the pleural space?
|
Pneumothorax
|
|
What disorder of bone remodeling results in thick
|
weak bones and is associated with high-output cardiac failure?
|
|
What is the term to describe the increase in organ size due to the increase in cell size and function?
|
Hypertrophy
|
|
What slow-growing primary CNS tumor that affects mostly females is associated with psammoma bodies?
|
Meningioma
|
|
True or false? Ethyl alcohol induces the cytochrome P-450 enzymes.
|
TRUE
|
|
What are the five components of portal HTN?
|
1. Caput medusae 2. Esophageal varices 3. Ascites 4. Splenomegaly 5. Hemorrhoids
|
|
What syndrome results when there is a deletion to paternal chromosome 15? Maternal?
|
Prader-Willi syndrome and Angelman syndrome
|
|
What CNS tumor arises from Rathke's pouch?
|
Craniopharyngioma
|
|
What is the triad of Reiter syndrome?
|
1. Conjunctivitis 2. Nongonococcal urethritis 3. Peripheral arthritis Can't see
|
|
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholesterol gallstones: pregnancy
|
OCP use
|
|
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Mesangial deposits of IgA and C3
|
IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
|
|
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Smooth and linear pattern of IgG and C3 in the GBM
|
Goodpasture disease
|
|
Name the nephritic disease based on the immunofluorescent staining. • Granular deposits of IgG
|
IgM
|
|
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to each other through the use of fibrinogen?
|
GP IIb/IIIa
|
|
What virus is associated with body cavity large B-cell lymphomas?
|
HHV-8
|
|
What germ cell tumor is seen in the 15-to 35-year-old age group
|
peaks when the person is 35 years of age
|
|
What transmural inflammatory bowel disease can be found from the mouth to anus
|
has noncaseating granulomas
|
|
Does ELISA or Western blot confirm whether a patient is HIV-positive?
|
ELISA screens and Western blot confirms the diagnosis.
|
|
What GN is highly associated with hepatitis B and C infections?
|
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)
|
|
What is the term for squamous to columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus secondary to chronic inflammation?
|
Barrett esophagus has an increased risk of developing adenocarcinoma of the esophagus.
|
|
What is the term for excessive amounts of granulation tissue that can block re-epithelialization and wound healing?
|
Proud flesh
|
|
What is released from the mitochondria to trigger apoptosis?
|
Cytochrome c
|
|
How much of a vessel must be stenosed to cause sudden cardiac death?
|
More than 75% of the vessel
|
|
Oxidation of Hgb forms what bodies in patients with G-6-PD deficiency?
|
Heinz bodies
|
|
What syndrome that is due to an adrenal gland adenoma produces excess aldosterone resulting in HTN
|
hypokalemia
|
|
What virus is associated with both nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Burkitt lymphoma?
|
EBV
|
|
What normochromic
|
normocytic AD anemia has splenomegaly and increased osmotic fragility?
|
|
What does prepubertal hypersecretion of growth hormone lead to?
|
Gigantism
|
|
What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
|
Homogentisic oxidase
|
|
What sex cell tumor causes precocious puberty
|
masculinization
|
|
Name four major risk factors for atherosclerosis.
|
DM
|
|
Name the AD disease associated with chromosome 15 in which the patient has long extremities
|
lax joints
|
|
What is the term for a large VSD that leads to pulmonary HTN
|
RVH
|
|
Eating fava beans can produce the Mediterranean type of what deficiency?
|
G-6-PD deficiency
|
|
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and due to a deficiency in factor VIII?
|
Hemophilia A
|
|
What leukemia affects a 4-year-old child with 3 months of fever
|
fatigue
|
|
What protein deficiency results in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
|
Deficiency in surfactant
|
|
What are the three components of amyloid?
|
1. Fibrillary protein 2. Amyloid protein 3. Glycosaminoglycans
|
|
What autoimmune disorder is due to Abs directed to ACh receptors at the NMJ?
|
Myasthenia gravis
|
|
What are the three left-to-right shunts?
|
1. VSD 2. ASD 3. PDA
|
|
What protein causes fibrinolysis?
|
Plasmin
|
|
What pancreatic islet cell tumor is associated with watery diarrhea
|
hypokalemia
|
|
True or false? Obesity
|
DM
|
|
What is the term for pigmented iris hamartomas seen in patients with neurofibromatosis type 1?
|
Lisch nodules
|
|
What GI pathology is associated with a positive string sign
|
an increase in the number of bloody stools
|
|
What is the most common fungal infection in HIV?
|
Candida
|
|
True or false? GERD is a cause of asthma.
|
True. Don't forget this in your differential diagnosis of an asthmatic.
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation produced by vascular endothelium
|
PGI2
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
|
PGD2
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Pain and fever
|
PGE2
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation produced by platelets
|
TXA2
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Chemotactic for neutrophils
|
LTB4
|
|
Name the product or products of arachidonic acid: • Vasodilation
|
bronchospasm
|
|
Which hepatitis B Ab indicates low transmissibility?
|
HBeAb
|
|
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Miners
|
metal grinders
|
|
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Aerospace industry
|
nuclear reactors
|
|
What pneumoconiosis is associated with exposure to the following occupations or materials? • Shipyards
|
brake linings
|
|
What is the term for calcification of the gallbladder seen on radiograph due to chronic cholecystitis or adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder?
|
Porcelain gallbladder
|
|
What is the term to describe a decrease in the cell size and function usually associated with disuse?
|
Atrophy. Disuse can also be due to immobilization
|
|
Which B-cell neoplasm has the following cell surface markers: CD19
|
CD20
|
|
What disease caused by decompression sickness leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis that affect the head of the femur
|
humerus
|
|
What are the four DNA oncogenic viruses?
|
1. HPV 2. EBV 3. Hepatitis B 4. Kaposi sarcoma
|
|
Is the AD or AR form of osteopetrosis malignant?
|
The AR form is malignant and AD is benign.
|
|
What carcinoma produces hematuria
|
flank pain
|
|
Name at least three causes of metastatic calcification.
|
Remember the mnemonic PAM SMIDT P
|
|
What is the only subtype of Hodgkin's lymphoma that is most commonly seen in females?
|
Nodular sclerosis
|
|
What is the leading cause of preventable premature death and illness in the United States?
|
Smoking
|
|
What prion-associated CNS pathology produces rapidly progressive dementia with myoclonus
|
involuntary movements
|
|
What breast malignancy has tumor cells with a halo surrounding the nucleus and is an ulceration of the nipple and areola with crusting
|
fissuring
|
|
What breast pathology involves malignant cells with halos invading the epidermis of the skin?
|
Paget disease of the breast
|
|
Macro-ovalocytes in the peripheral blood smear are formed from what cell in the bone marrow?
|
Megaloblasts
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Sunburn
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Uremic pericarditis
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Parasitic infection
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Diphtheria infection
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Meningococcal infection
|
|
Name the type of exudate
|
given the following examples. • Rickettsial infection
|
|
What parasite is associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder?
|
Schistosoma haematobium
|
|
What malabsorption syndrome produces abdominal distention
|
bloating
|
|
What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?
|
HHV 8
|
|
What is the term for the copper corneal deposits found in Wilson's disease?
|
Kayser-Fleischer rings
|
|
Name the six vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors.
|
Factors II
|
|
What ovarian carcinoma is characterized by psammoma bodies?
|
Cystadenocarcinoma
|
|
A marfanoid patient presents with tearing retrosternal chest pain radiating to her back. What is your first diagnosis?
|
Dissecting aortic aneurysm. MI is also high on the list
|
|
What malignant neoplasm of the skin is associated with keratin pearls?
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
Name four chemotactic factors for neutrophils.
|
N-formyl-methionine LTB4 C5a IL-8
|
|
What is the term for granuloma at the lung apex in TB?
|
Simon focus
|
|
What are the three platelet aggregating factors?
|
1. ADP 2. PG 3. TXA2
|
|
What syndrome is due to a Neisseria sp. infection in a child resulting in bilateral hemorrhagic infarcts of the adrenal glands?
|
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
|
|
What foci of fibrinoid necrosis are surrounded by lymphocytes and macrophages throughout all the layers of the heart?
|
Aschoff bodies of rheumatic fever
|
|
What is the leading cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
|
Chief cell adenoma (80%)
|
|
In what X-linked recessive disease is there a decrease in the HMP shunt
|
along with Heinz body formation?
|
|
What is the term for a RBC that has a peripheral rim of Hgb with a dark central Hgb-containing area?
|
Target cell
|
|
True or false? Raynaud's phenomenon has no underlying pathology.
|
False. The disease has no associated pathology; the phenomenon is arterial insufficiency due to an underlying disease.
|
|
What benign solitary papillary growth within the lactiferous ducts of the breast commonly produces bloody nipple discharge?
|
Intraductal papilloma
|
|
What form of hemophilia is X-linked recessive and is due to a deficiency in factor IX?
|
Hemophilia B
|
|
What are the two reasons for megaloblastic anemia with elevated MCV?
|
Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency
|
|
Is cigarette smoking associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
|
Yes. It is also a cause of cancers of the lung
|
|
What disease has multiple schwannomas
|
café-au-lait spots on the skin
|
|
What syndrome is due to Abs directed to calcium channels and causes muscle weakness that improves with repeated use?
|
Eaton-Lambert syndrome
|
|
In what rare lung malignancy have 90% of patients had an occupational exposure to asbestos?
|
Malignant mesothelioma
|
|
What is the term for cytoplasmic remnants of RNA in RBCs
|
seen in lead poisoning?
|
|
What is the triad of fat embolism?
|
1. Petechiae 2. Hyperactive mental status 3. Occurrence within 24 to 48 hours of the initial insult (e.g.
|
|
Upon seeing negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals from a joint aspiration of the great toe
|
what form of arthritis do you diagnose?
|
|
What condition is manifested by bilateral sarcoidosis of the parotid glands
|
submaxillary gland
|
|
What female genital tract disorder is characterized by obesity
|
hirsutism
|
|
What bronchogenic carcinoma is associated with an elevated level of Ca2+
|
involves keratin pearls
|
|
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase?
|
PKU
|
|
True or false? Being a white male increases your risk factor for testicular cancer.
|
Oddly enough
|
|
Can an acute MI be diagnosed only by looking at an ECG?
|
No. Remember
|
|
What autoimmune syndrome is characterized by keratoconjunctivitis
|
corneal ulcers
|
|
True or false? Sickle cell anemia
|
Caisson disease
|
|
What gene stimulates apoptosis when DNA repair is unable to be done?
|
p-53
|
|
Is ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease more commonly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
|
Ulcerative colitis
|
|
What test uses p24 protein when diagnosing HIV?
|
ELISA test
|
|
How many café-au-lait spots are necessary for the diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1?
|
At least six
|
|
What is the term for severe and protracted vomiting resulting in linear lacerations at the gastroesophageal junction?
|
Mallory-Weiss syndrome
|
|
What is the term for hypercalcemia resulting in precipitation of calcium phosphate in normal tissue?
|
Metastatic calcification
|
|
What is the term for a twisting of the bowel around its vascular axis resulting in intestinal obstruction?
|
Volvulus
|
|
What form of poisoning is associated with bitter almond-scented breath?
|
Cyanide
|
|
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Circulating Ab-Ag immune complexes deposited in the tissue result in neutrophil attraction and the release of lysosomal enzymes.
|
Type III hypersensitivity (immune complex)
|
|
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgE-mediated release of chemical mediators from basophils and mast cells; need prior exposure to Ag in the past; eosinophils amplify and continue reaction; can be system or localized.
|
Type I hypersensitivity (anaphylactic)
|
|
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • IgG or IgM Abs against a specific target cell or tissue; complement-dependent or ADCC.
|
Type II hypersensitivity (cytotoxic)
|
|
Name the type of hypersensitivity reaction based on the following properties. • Reaction-mediated by sensitized T-cells
|
Type IV hypersensitivity (cell-mediated)
|
|
What highly undifferentiated aggressive CNS tumor of primordial neuroglial origin develops in children and is associated with pseudorosettes?
|
Primitive neuroectodermal tumors (i.e.
|
|
What syndrome is due to anti-GBM Abs directed against the lung and kidneys?
|
Goodpasture syndrome
|
|
What pathway of the coagulation cascade is activated when it is in contact with foreign surfaces?
|
Intrinsic. The extrinsic pathway is activated by the release of tissue factors.
|
|
What tumor is seen in the 2-to 4-year-old age group; does not cross the midline; has immature glomeruli
|
tubules
|
|
What CNS tumor commonly produces tinnitus and hearing loss?
|
Schwannoma
|
|
True or false? Anticentromere Abs are used in diagnosing CREST syndrome.
|
True. Scl-70 Abs are used in diagnosing diffuse scleroderma.
|
|
What AR CNS disorder presents early in childhood with gait ataxia
|
loss of deep tendon reflexes
|
|
What potent platelet aggregator and vasoconstrictor is synthesized by platelets?
|
TXA2
|
|
Which type of cerebral herniation is associated with CN III palsy?
|
Transtentorial (uncal)
|
|
What form of vasculitis involves the ascending arch and causes obliterative endarteritis of the vasa vasorum?
|
Syphilitic
|
|
What is the main type of cell involved in cellular immunity?
|
T lymphocyte
|
|
What skin condition has irregular blotchy patches of hyperpigmentation on the face commonly associated with OCP use and pregnancy?
|
Melasma
|
|
What is the classic triad of TB?
|
Fever
|
|
True or false? Blood clots lack platelets.
|
True. A thrombus has platelets
|
|
What malignant tumor of the skin is associated with Birbeck granules?
|
Histiocytosis X
|
|
What type of anemia is the result of a deficiency in intrinsic factor?
|
Pernicious anemia (secondary to a lack of vitamin B12 absorption)
|
|
What cancer is particularly likely to affect English chimney sweeps?
|
Scrotal cancer
|
|
What is the term for a raised fluid-filled cavity greater than 0.5 cm that lies between the layers of the skin?
|
Bulla
|
|
What virus is associated with the endemic form of Burkitt lymphoma?
|
EBV
|
|
With which pituitary adenoma is an elevated somatomedin C level associated?
|
GH-producing adenoma
|
|
What three criteria allow you to differentiate an ulcer from an erosion or carcinoma?
|
1. Less than 3 cm 2. Clean base 3. Level with the surrounding mucosa
|
|
Name the four right-to-left congenital cardiac shunts.
|
Truncus (1) arteriosus Transposition of the (2) great vessels Tri(3)cuspid atresia Tetra(4)logy of Fallot They all begin with T
|
|
What do low levels of Ca2+ and PO4- along with neuromuscular irritability indicate?
|
Hypoparathyroidism
|
|
Does PT or PTT test the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
|
PT for extrinsic and PTT for intrinsic (remember: wPeT and hPiTT
|
|
What leukemia is associated with four-leaf-clover lymphocytes on peripheral blood smear?
|
Adult T-cell leukemia
|
|
What ring is a weblike narrowing of the gastroesophageal junction?
|
Schatzki ring
|
|
With what disease do you see IgA deposits in small vessels of the skin and the kidneys?
|
Henoch-Schönlein purpura
|
|
What rapidly progressive and aggressive T-cell lymphoma affects young males with a mediastinal mass (thymic)?
|
Lymphoblastic lymphoma
|
|
What is the term for the appearance of the kidney in malignant hypertension (it has petechiae on its surface)?
|
Flea-bitten kidney (can also be seen in pyelonephritis)
|
|
True or false? Psammoma bodies are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.
|
False. Elevated calcitonin levels are seen in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid. Psammoma bodies are seen in papillary carcinoma of the thyroid and ovaries
|
|
What is the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio in respiratory distress syndrome of newborns?
|
<2
|
|
What syndrome has loss of deep tendon reflexes
|
muscle weakness
|
|
What form of endocarditis do patients with SLE commonly encounter?
|
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
|
|
What is the term for black pigmentation of the colon associated with laxative abuse?
|
Melanosis coli
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Fever
|
Minor
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Migratory polyarthritis
|
Major
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Subcutaneous nodules
|
Major
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Elevated acute phase reactants (e.g.
|
ESR)
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Arthralgias
|
Minor
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Pericarditis
|
Major
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Erythema marginatum
|
Major
|
|
Are the following major or minor Jones criteria of rheumatic fever? • Sydenham chorea
|
Major
|
|
What gene inhibits apoptosis by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria?
|
Bcl-2
|
|
Which hepatitis strain is a defective virus that can replicate only inside HBV-infected cells?
|
Hepatitis D
|
|
What are the three main components of amyloid?
|
Fibrillary protein
|
|
What leukemia is characterized by Philadelphia chromosomal translocation (9;22); massive splenomegaly; peripheral leukocytosis (commonly > 100
|
00); decreased LAP levels; and nonspecific symptoms of fatigue
|
|
What is the difference between a Ghon focus and a Ghon complex?
|
A Ghon focus is a TB tubercle
|
|
In what disease do you see horseshoe kidneys
|
rockerbottom feet
|
|
What parasitic infection is associated with cholangiocarcinoma?
|
Clonorchis sinensis
|
|
What disorder is associated with loss of polarity
|
anaplasia
|
|
What is the term for telescoping of the proximal bowel into the distal segment presenting as abdominal pain
|
currant jelly stools
|
|
What mushroom poisoning is associated with fulminant hepatitis with extensive liver necrosis?
|
Amanita phalloides
|
|
What type of erythema do you see in • Ulcerative colitis?
|
Erythema nodosum
|
|
What type of erythema do you see in • Rheumatic fever?
|
Erythema marginatum
|
|
What type of erythema do you see in • Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
|
Erythema multiforme
|
|
What benign bone tumor is associated with Gardner syndrome?
|
Osteoma
|
|
What renal calculus is associated with urea-splitting bacteria?
|
Magnesium ammonium phosphate (struvite)
|
|
What lymphoma is associated with bleeding and cryoglobulin precipitation at low temperatures
|
headache and confusion due to hyperviscosity
|
|
What type of acute metal poisoning involves stomach and colon erosion and acute tubular necrosis?
|
Mercury
|
|
What slow-growing CNS tumor in 30-to 50-year-old patients with a long history of seizures has fried egg cellular appearance in a network of chicken wire?
|
Oligodendroglioma
|
|
Goodpasture Ag is a component of what type of collagen?
|
Type IV collagen
|
|
If a peripheral blood smear shows schistocytes
|
reticulocytes
|
|
After traveling in a plane across the Atlantic Ocean
|
an obese male goes to the ER with swollen right leg and sudden onset of shortness of breath. What do you immediately diagnose?
|
|
What cell type involves humoral immunity?
|
B lymphocyte
|
|
What is the first sign of megaloblastic anemia on a peripheral blood smear?
|
Hypersegmented neutrophils
|
|
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with severely burned or traumatic patients?
|
Curling ulcers (think curling iron = burn)
|
|
What syndrome arises from mutation in the fibrillin gene (FBN1) on chromosome 15q21?
|
Marfan syndrome
|
|
What AD disorder is characterized by degeneration of GABA neurons in the caudate nucleus resulting in atrophy
|
chorea
|
|
What atypical pneumonia can be diagnosed with elevated cold agglutinin titers?
|
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
|
|
What is the triad of Felty syndrome?
|
Neutropenia
|
|
What is the term for the unidirectional attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator released during inflammation?
|
Chemotaxis
|
|
What is the term for a benign melanocytic tumor associated with sun exposure that presents as tan-to-brown colored and has sharply defined well-circumscribed borders?
|
Benign nevus (mole)
|
|
What small- to medium- sized vasculitis is seen in a 35-year-old man who is a heavy smoker presenting with claudication symptoms in the upper and lower extremities?
|
Buerger disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)
|
|
What is the term for pelvic inflammatory disease of the fallopian tubes?
|
Salpingitis
|
|
What disease with familial mental retardation produces large
|
everted ears and macro-orchidism?
|
|
What type of skin carcinoma occurring on sun-exposed sites has a low level of metastasis?
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the tetrad of tetralogy of Fallot?
|
VSD
|
|
What is the term for chronic necrotizing pulmonary infections resulting in permanent airway dilation and associated with Kartagener syndrome?
|
Bronchiectasis
|
|
What is an elevated
|
fluid-filled cavity between skin layers up to 0.5 cm?
|
|
What is the term for panhypopituitarism secondary to ischemic necrosis and hypotension postpartum?
|
Sheehan syndrome
|
|
What disease is diagnosed by findings of ANAs and anti-SCL-70 antibodies?
|
Scleroderma
|
|
What is the name of the ovarian cyst containing ectodermal
|
endodermal
|
|
What syndrome is seen in iron-deficient middle-aged women with esophageal webs?
|
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
|
|
What are the three causes of transudate?
|
CHF
|
|
A chronic alcohol abuser goes to the ER with weakness
|
a sore
|
|
What form of GN is characteristically associated with crescent formation?
|
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)
|
|
What vitamin deficiency may result in sideroblastic anemia?
|
Vitamin B6
|
|
What is the term for TB with the cervical lymph node involved?
|
Scrofula
|
|
Influx of what ion is associated with irreversible cell injury?
|
Massive influx of calcium
|
|
What pathology is associated with elevated levels of Ca2+
|
cardiac arrhythmias
|
|
What type of metal poisoning causes mental retardation
|
somnolence
|
|
What syndrome is rheumatoid arthritis with pneumoconiosis?
|
Caplan syndrome
|
|
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for cervical cancer: multiple pregnancies
|
early age of intercourse
|
|
What is the term for precipitation of calcium phosphate in dying or necrotic tissue?
|
Dystrophic calcification
|
|
What congenital small bowel outpouching is a remnant of the vitelline duct?
|
Meckel diverticulum
|
|
What type of crystals are associated with gout?
|
Monosodium urate crystals
|
|
What is the term for transverse bands on the fingernails seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?
|
Mees lines
|
|
What is the tumor at the bifurcation of the right and left hepatic ducts?
|
Klatskin tumor
|
|
IgE-mediated mast cell release
|
C3a and C5a
|
|
What disease is seen in the 20-to 40-year-old age group
|
is more prevalent in women than men
|
|
What disorder causes joint stiffness that worsens with repetitive motion
|
crepitus
|
|
What condition is characterized by a 46XY karyotype
|
testes present
|
|
What is the term for RBC remnants of nuclear chromatin in asplenic patients?
|
Howell-Jolly bodies
|
|
What is the term for gastric ulcers associated with increased intracranial pressure?
|
Cushing's ulcers
|
|
What platelet disorder is characteristically seen in children following a bout of gastroenteritis with bloody diarrhea?
|
Hemolytic uremic syndrome
|
|
Are elevated alkaline phosphatase and decreased phosphorus and calcium levels more consistent with osteoporosis or osteomalacia?
|
Osteomalacia. Osteoporosis has normal levels of calcium
|
|
What vascular tumor associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome involves the cerebellum
|
brainstem
|
|
How many segments in a neutrophilic nucleus are necessary for it to be called hypersegmented?
|
At least 5 lobes
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
Name the type of regeneration (i.e.
|
labile
|
|
What CNS tumor cells stain positive for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)?
|
Astrocytoma
|
|
True or false? Elevated ASO titers and serum complement levels are associated with poststreptococcal GN.
|
False. ASO titers are elevated
|
|
What glycoprotein allows platelets to adhere to von Willebrand factor?
|
GP Ib
|
|
What encephalitis is associated with the JC virus?
|
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
|
|
Hereditary angioneurotic edema (AD) produces local edema in organs (e.g.
|
GI
|
|
Is an anti-HAV IgG Ab associated with immunization or recent infection?
|
Anti-HAV IgG Abs are associated with immunization or a prior infection. Anti-HAV IgM is associated with acute or recent infection.
|
|
Which integrin mediates adhesion by binding to lymphocyte function- associated Ag 1 (LFA-1) and MAC-1 leukocyte receptors?
|
Intercellular adhesion molecule (ICAM) 1
|
|
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subarachnoid hemorrhage
|
Berry aneurysm in the circle of Willis
|
|
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Subdural hemorrhage
|
Bridging veins draining into the sagittal sinus
|
|
Name the cerebral vessel associated with the following vascular pathologies. • Epidural hemorrhage
|
Middle meningeal artery
|
|
True or false? Live vaccines are contraindicated in patients with SCID.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the term for the round intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions containing ɑ-synuclein found in the dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra?
|
Lewy bodies
|
|
In which form of emphysema
|
panacinar or centriacinar
|
|
What syndrome results if the enzyme ɑ-1-iduronidase is deficient? L-iduronate sulfatase deficiency?
|
Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome
|
|
What percentage of the bone marrow must be composed of blast for leukemia to be considered?
|
At least 30% blast in the bone marrow
|
|
What is the term for the heart's inability to maintain perfusion and meet the metabolic demands of tissues and organs?
|
CHF
|
|
What syndrome occurs when pelvic inflammatory disease ascends to surround the liver capsule in violin string adhesions?
|
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
|
|
True or false? Patients with Turner syndrome have no Barr bodies.
|
True. Remember
|
|
What is the term for the sign revealed when a psoriatic scale is removed and pinpoint bleeding occurs?
|
Auspitz sign
|
|
What type of Hgb is increased in patients with sickle cell anemia who take hydroxyurea?
|
Hgb F
|
|
What vasculitis affects a 30-year-old Asian female having visual field deficits
|
dizziness
|
|
A 20-year-old college student has fever
|
grey-white membranes over the tonsils
|
|
What cell type is commonly elevated in asthma?
|
Eosinophil
|
|
What pathology is associated with deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in patients older than 50 years?
|
Pseudogout
|
|
What thyroid carcinoma secretes calcitonin and arises from the parafollicular C cells?
|
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
|
|
What illegal drug can cause rhabdomyolysis
|
MI
|
|
What AA is substituted for glutamic acid at position 6 on the Beta-chain in patients with sickle cell anemia?
|
Valine
|
|
What endogenous pigment found in the substantia nigra and melanocytes is formed by the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine?
|
Melanin
|
|
What tumor marker is associated with seminomas?
|
Placental alkaline phosphatase
|
|
What type of GN
|
associated with celiac disease and dermatitis herpetiformis
|
|
What AD disease is associated with chromosome 4p; does not present until the person is in his or her 30s; and involves atrophy of the caudate nucleus
|
dilatation of the lateral and third ventricles
|
|
What pattern of inheritance is G-6-PD deficiency?
|
X-linked recessive
|
|
What adenocarcinoma presents with elevated levels of acid phosphatase
|
dihydrotestosterone
|
|
Is Dubin-Johnson or Rotor syndrome associated with black pigmentation of the liver?
|
Both are AR with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
|
|
What oxygen-dependent killing enzyme requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-) to produce hypochlorous acid?
|
Myeloperoxidase
|
|
What condition results in a strawberry gallbladder?
|
Cholesterolosis
|
|
What three chemical agents are associated with angiosarcomas of the liver?
|
Arsenic
|
|
What is the term for programmed cell death?
|
Apoptosis (Remember
|
|
What potentially fatal disease occurs in children who are given aspirin during a viral illness?
|
Reye syndrome
|
|
What metal poisoning produces microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling?
|
Lead poisoning
|
|
What inflammatory bowel disorder is continuous
|
with extensive ulcerations and pseudopolyps
|
|
What is the pentad of TTP?
|
Neurologic symptoms Renal failure Thrombocytopenia Fever Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Don't forget it. When I was an intern
|
|
Which hepatitis B Ag correlates with infectivity and viral proliferation?
|
HBeAg
|
|
What disease involves cold skin abscesses due to a defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and a serum IgE level higher than 2000?
|
Job syndrome
|
|
What female pathology is associated with endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus commonly affecting the ovaries as chocolate cysts?
|
Endometriosis
|
|
What is the karyotype in Turner syndrome?
|
45XO
|
|
What is the term for a congenital absence of the ganglionic cells of the Auerbach and Meissner plexus in the rectum and sigmoid colon?
|
Hirschsprung disease (aganglionic megacolon)
|
|
What syndrome is associated with gastrin-producing islet cell tumor resulting in multiple intractable peptic ulcers?
|
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
|
|
What type of collagen is associated with keloid formation?
|
Type III
|
|
The "tea-and-toast" diet is classically associated with what cause of megaloblastic anemia?
|
Folate deficiency (very common in the elderly)
|
|
What is the term for ascending bacterial infection of the renal pelvis
|
tubules
|
|
How can a deficiency in adenosine deaminase be a bone marrow suppressor?
|
It causes a buildup of dATP
|
|
Which phenotype of osteogenesis imperfecta is incompatible with life?
|
Type II
|
|
With what is cherry red intoxication associated?
|
Acute CO poisoning
|
|
What are the four most common causes of femoral head necrosis?
|
1. Steroids 2. Alcohol 3. Scuba diving 4. Sickle cell anemia
|
|
What are the four signs of acute inflammation?
|
Rubor (red)
|
|
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Increased iron
|
decreased TIBC
|
|
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
|
TIBC
|
|
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Decreased iron
|
percent saturation
|
|
Name the hypochromic microcytic anemia based on the following laboratory values. • Normal iron
|
TIBC
|
|
Which form of emphysema is associated with an alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency?
|
Panacinar
|
|
An 80-year-old woman presents to you with right-sided temporal headache
|
facial pain and blurred vision on the affected side
|
|
What type of neurofibromatosis is associated with bilateral acoustic schwannomas?
|
Type 2
|
|
What disorder is due to a deficiency in the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
|
Gaucher disease
|
|
What is the term for flexion of the PIP and extension of the DIP joints seen in rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Boutonnière deformities
|
|
True or false? Atelectasis is an irreversible collapse of a lung.
|
False. Atelectasis is a reversible collapse of a lung.
|
|
What viral infection in patients with sickle cell anemia results in aplastic crisis?
|
Parvovirus B 19
|
|
What syndrome has elevated FSH and LH levels with decreased testosterone levels and 47XXY karyotype?
|
Klinefelter syndrome
|
|
What CNS developmental abnormality is associated with 90% of syringomyelia?
|
Arnold-Chiari malformation type 2
|
|
What is the term for fibrinoid necrosis of the arterioles in the kidney secondary to malignant hypertension?
|
Onion skinning
|
|
A 30-year-old woman goes to your office with bilateral multiple breast nodules that vary with menstruation and have cyclical pain and engorgement. What is your diagnosis?
|
Fibrocystic change of the breast. This highlights the distinguishing features from breast cancer
|
|
What disease is X-linked recessive
|
is associated with eczema thrombocytopenia and an increased chance of developing recurrent infections
|
|
Which form of melanoma carries the worst prognosis?
|
Nodular melanoma
|
|
Patients with sickle cell anemia are at increased risk for infection from what type of organisms?
|
Encapsulated bacteria
|
|
How many major and/or minor Jones criteria are required for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
|
Two major or one major and two minor
|
|
What skin carcinoma is a superficial dermal infiltrate of T lymphocytes seen in males more than 40 years old and presents as scaly red patches or plaques?
|
Mycosis fungoides (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma)
|
|
What Hgb-derived endogenous pigment is found in areas of hemorrhage or bruises?
|
Hemosiderin
|
|
What is a palpable
|
elevated solid mass up to 0.5 cm?
|
|
True or false? Monocytosis is seen in TB.
|
TRUE
|
|
What pathology is associated with podagra
|
tophi in the ear
|
|
What GI pathology can be caused by a patient taking clindamycin or lincomycin or by Clostridium difficile
|
ischemia
|
|
What do the risk factors late menopause
|
early menarche
|
|
What thyroid carcinoma is associated with radiation exposure
|
psammoma bodies
|
|
Name three opsonins.
|
Fc portion of IgG
|
|
What chemical can be dangerous if you work in the aerospace industry or in nuclear plants?
|
Beryllium
|
|
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
|
HBcAb IgM
|
|
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
|
HBcAb IgM
|
|
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
|
HBcAb IgM
|
|
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
|
HBcAb IgM
|
|
Which hepatitis B serology markers—HBcAb IgG
|
HBcAb IgM
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • The most common form of necrosis; denatured and coagulated proteins in the cytoplasm
|
Coagulative necrosis
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with coagulative necrosis
|
Gangrenous necrosis
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • Seen as dead tissue with liquefactive necrosis?
|
Liquefaction necrosis
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • Due to lipase activity and has a chalky white appearance
|
Fat necrosis
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • Soft
|
friable
|
|
Name the type of necrosis. • Histologically resembles fibrin
|
Fibrinoid necrosis
|
|
Name the three enzymes that protect the cell from oxygen-derived free radicals.
|
Superoxide dismutase
|
|
What are the rules of 2 for Meckel diverticulum?
|
2% of population
|
|
What aneurysm of the circle of Willis is associated with polycystic kidney disease?
|
Berry aneurysm
|
|
A 20-year-old black woman goes to you with nonspecific joint pain
|
fever
|
|
True or false? Excess lead deposits in the oral cavity.
|
True. It deposits at the gingivodental line
|
|
What is the term for increased iron deposition resulting in micronodular cirrhosis
|
CHF
|
|
What AR disorder is due to a deficiency in glycoprotein IIb-IIIa
|
resulting in a defect in platelet aggregation?
|
|
What protein-losing enteropathy has grossly enlarged rugal fold in the body and fundus of the stomach in middle-aged males
|
resulting in decreased acid production and an increased risk of gastric cancer?
|
|
What myopathy due to autoantibodies to ACh receptors can present with thymic abnormalities
|
red cell aplasia
|
|
Which subtype of AML is most commonly associated with Auer rods?
|
M3 (promyelocytic leukemia)
|
|
What condition results from a 46XX karyotype and female internal organs with virilized external genitalia?
|
Female pseudohermaphrodite
|
|
Two weeks after her son has a throat infection
|
a mother takes the boy to the ER because he has fever
|
|
What X-linked recessive immune disorder is characterized by recurrent infections
|
severe thrombocytopenia
|
|
What form of arthritis is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?
|
Pseudogout
|
|
What is the term for excessive production of collagen that flattens out and does not extend beyond the site of the injury?
|
Hypertrophic scar
|
|
What is the term for inflamed
|
thickened skin on the breast with dimpling associated with cancer?
|
|
What rare vasculitis has the following characteristics: males aged 40 to 60; affecting small arteries and veins; involving nose
|
sinuses
|
|
What retrovirus is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?
|
HTLV-1
|
|
What disease is seen in children younger than 5 years of age and is characterized by X-linked recessive cardiac myopathies
|
calf pseudohypertrophy
|
|
What malignant neoplasm of the bone has a soap bubble appearance on radiograph?
|
Giant cell bone tumor (osteoclastoma)
|
|
What nephrotic syndrome has effacement of the epithelial foot processes without immune complex deposition?
|
Minimal change disease
|
|
What is the term for tissue-based basophils?
|
Mast cells
|
|
What malignant bone tumor is characterized by Codman triangle (periosteal elevation) on radiograph?
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
Is splenomegaly more commonly associated with intravascular or extravascular hemolysis?
|
Extravascular hemolysis if it occurs in the spleen; if in the liver
|
|
What cancer of the male genitourinary system is associated with osteoblastic bony metastasis?
|
Prostatic carcinoma
|
|
What stromal tumor in males is characterized histologically with crystalloids of Reinke?
|
Leydig cell tumor
|
|
What pulmonary disease
|
most commonly associated with smoking
|
|
What factor gets activated in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade? Extrinsic pathway?
|
Factor XII for the intrinsic; factor VII for the extrinsic pathway
|
|
What chronic systemic inflammatory disease commonly seen in women aged 20 to 50 is a progressive
|
symmetric arthritis affecting the hands
|
|
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Retinal emboli
|
Roth spots
|
|
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painful subcutaneous nodules on fingers and toes
|
Osler nodes
|
|
Name the following descriptions associated with bacterial endocarditis: • Painless hyperemic lesions on the palms and soles
|
Janeway lesions
|
|
What two CD cell surface markers do Reed- Sternberg cells stain positive for?
|
CD15 and CD30
|
|
What two lysosomal storage diseases have cherry-red spots on the retina?
|
Niemann-Pick and Tay-Sachs diseases
|
|
True or false? Increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) is associated with CML.
|
False. Increased LAP is seen in stress reactions and helps differentiate benign conditions from CML
|
|
What syndrome has multiple adenomatous colonic polyps and CNS gliomas?
|
Turcot syndrome
|
|
What is the term for a venous embolus in the arterial system?
|
Paradoxic emboli most commonly enter the arteries through a patent septal defect in the heart.
|
|
Are hemorrhagic cerebral infarcts more commonly associated with embolic or thrombotic occlusions?
|
Embolic
|
|
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • The coefficient of variation of the RBC volume
|
Red blood cell distribution width index (RDW)
|
|
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average mass of the Hgb molecule/RBC
|
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)
|
|
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average volume of a RBC
|
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV)
|
|
What is the name for the following RBC indices? • Average Hgb concentration/given volume of packed RBCs
|
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
|
|
What cardiomyopathy is due to a ventricular outflow obstruction as a result of septal hypertrophy and leads to sudden cardiac death in young athletes?
|
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
|
|
Which HPV serotypes are associated with condyloma acuminatum?
|
HPV serotypes 6 and 11
|
|
Which form of melanoma carries the best prognosis?
|
Lentigo maligna melanoma
|
|
What is the term for an increase in the number of cells in a tissue?
|
Hyperplasia
|
|
A 60-year-old man has back pain (compression spinal fracture)
|
hypercalcemia
|
|
What is the term for pus in the pleural space?
|
Empyema
|
|
What is flat
|
circumscribed nonpalpable pigmented change up to 1 cm?
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Liver macrophages
|
Kupffer cells
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Bone macrophages
|
Osteoclasts
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Brain macrophages
|
Microglia
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Lung macrophages
|
Pulmonary alveolar macrophages
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Connective tissue macrophages
|
Histiocytes
|
|
Name the macrophage based on its location: • Epidermal macrophages
|
Langerhans cells
|
|
What is the term for a large
|
immature RBC that is spherical
|
|
What testicular tumor of infancy is characterized by elevated-fetoprotein levels and Schiller-Duval bodies?
|
Yolk sac tumor
|
|
Starry sky appearance of macrophages is pathognomonic of what lymphoma?
|
Burkitt lymphoma
|
|
In which region of the lung are 75% of the pulmonary infarcts seen?
|
Lower lobe
|
|
For what disease are SS-A(Ro)
|
SS-B(La)
|
|
What HPV serotypes are associated with increased risk of cervical cancer?
|
HPV serotypes 16
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nuclei
|
Hematoxylin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Nucleoli
|
Hematoxylin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Cytoplasm
|
Eosin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Collagen
|
Eosin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • RBCs
|
Eosin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Calcium
|
Hematoxylin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Bacteria
|
Hematoxylin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Fibrin
|
Eosin
|
|
Do the following structures pick up stain from hematoxylin or eosin? • Thyroid colloid
|
Eosin
|
|
What commonly encountered overdose produces headache
|
tinnitus
|
|
What AR syndrome is due to a deficiency of glycoprotein Ib
|
resulting in a defect in platelet adhesion?
|
|
What AD renal disorder is associated with mutations of the PKD 1 gene on chromosome 16 and berry aneurysms in the circle of Willis and presents in the fifth decade with abdominal masses
|
flank pain
|
|
Based on the following information
|
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
|
|
Based on the following information
|
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
|
|
Based on the following information
|
is the renal transplantation rejection acute
|
|
What type of collagen is abnormal in patients with osteogenesis imperfecta?
|
Type I (makes sense
|
|
What coronary artery vasculitis is seen in Japanese infants and children less than 4 years old with acute febrile illness
|
conjunctivitis
|
|
What disease has IgG autoantibodies
|
occurs in women more than men
|
|
What condition is defined by both testicular and ovarian tissues in one individual?
|
True hermaphrodism
|
|
A mother takes her 2-week-old infant to the ER because the baby regurgitates and vomits after eating and has peristaltic waves visible on the abdomen and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is your diagnosis?
|
Pyloric stenosis
|
|
What variant of polyarteritis nodosa is associated with bronchial asthma
|
granulomas
|
|
What component of the basement membrane binds to collagen type IV and heparin sulfate and is a cell surface receptor?
|
Laminin
|
|
What B-cell neoplasm is seen in males with massive splenomegaly
|
produces dry tap on bone marrow aspirations
|
|
What form of nephritic syndrome is associated with celiac sprue and Henoch- Schönlein purpura?
|
IgA nephropathy
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by embryologic failure of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches resulting in hypocalcemia
|
tetany
|
|
What is the treatment for physiologic jaundice of newborns?
|
Phototherapy
|
|
How many months in how many years must a person cough with copious sputum production for the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis to be made?
|
3 months of symptoms in 2 consecutive years
|
|
What chronic inflammatory WBC is associated with IgE-mediated allergic reactions and parasitic infections?
|
Eosinophils
|
|
What AD syndrome produces hamartomatous polyps in the small intestine and pigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa?
|
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
|
|
What is the term for formation of a stable fibrin-platelet plug to stop bleeding?
|
Hemostasis
|
|
True or false? All of the following are risk factors for breast cancer: early menses
|
late menopause
|
|
Is jugular venous distention a presentation of isolated left or right heart failure?
|
Right-sided
|
|
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Small circular RNA virus with defective envelope
|
Hepatitis D
|
|
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped RNA flavivirus
|
Hepatitis C
|
|
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA calicivirus
|
Hepatitis E
|
|
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Enveloped DNA hepadnavirus
|
Hepatitis B
|
|
Name the hepatitis virus based on the following information. • Naked capsid RNA picornavirus
|
Hepatitis A
|
|
What AR disease involves a decreased amount of sphingomyelinase
|
massive organomegaly
|
|
What is the term for hypoperfusion of an area involving only the inner layers?
|
Mural infarct
|
|
What are the three causes of normochromic normocytic anemia with a normal MCV and a low reticulocyte count?
|
Marrow failure
|
|
Notching of the ribs
|
seen on chest radiograph in patients with postductal coarctation of the aorta
|
|
What is the physiologic storage form of iron?
|
Ferritin
|
|
What is the term for occlusion of a blood vessel due to an intravascular mass that has been carried downstream?
|
Embolism
|
|
What AR disorder of copper metabolism can be characterized by Kayser- Fleischer rings
|
decreased ceruloplasmin levels
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • c-myc
|
Burkitt lymphoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • L-myc
|
Small cell cancer of the lung
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1 and int-2
|
Melanoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • et
|
MEN II and III syndromes
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras
|
Pancreas and colon
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • cyclin D
|
Mantle cell lymphoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • N-myc
|
Neuroblastoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • CDK4
|
Melanoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • abl
|
CML and ALL
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • hst-1
|
int-2
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • sis
|
Astrocytoma
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • Ki-ras and erb-2
|
Lung cancer
|
|
Name the cancer associated with the following oncogenes. (Some may have more than one answer) • erb-1
|
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
|
|
What AD GI neoplasia produces multiple adenomatous polyps
|
osteomas
|
|
What disease involves microcephaly
|
mental retardation
|
|
What type of GN occurs most commonly in children after a pharyngeal or skin infection; is immune complex-mediated; and is seen as lumpy-bumpy subepithelial deposits?
|
Postinfectious GN
|
|
What are the three most common sites for left-sided heart embolisms to metastasize?
|
Brain
|
|
With what two pathologies is a honeycomb lung associated?
|
Asbestosis and silicosis
|
|
What AD disorder due to a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 results in normal-size vertebral column and skull and short
|
thick extremities?
|
|
True or false? Hyperkalemia increases the effect of digoxin.
|
False. hyperkalemia decreases digoxin's activity
|
|
Which antispasmodic blocks the release of Ca 2+from the SR and is used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
|
Dantrolene
|
|
Which overdose carries a higher mortality rate
|
that of benzodiazepines or barbiturates?
|
|
What antiviral agent is used in the treatment of drug-induced Parkinson's disease?
|
Amantadine
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Edema
|
H 1
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Gastric acid secretion
|
H 2
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • SA nodal activity
|
H 2
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Pain and pruritus
|
H 1
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Bronchial smooth muscle activity
|
H 1
|
|
Are the following responses associated with histamines H1 or H2 receptor activation? • Inotropic action and automaticity
|
H 2
|
|
True or false? The lack of dopamine production in the substantia nigra leads to the extrapyramidal dysfunction
|
characteristically seen in patients with Parkinson's disease.
|
|
Which PG maintains patency of the ductus arteriosus and is used in the treatment of primary pulmonary HTN?
|
PGI 2
|
|
Which CNS ACh receptor or receptors are excitatory? Inhibitory?
|
M 1 and nicotinic receptors are excitatory in the CNS and M 2 receptor is inhibitory.
|
|
True or false? Beta2-Adrenergic agents are used in the management of an acute asthmatic attack.
|
True. They are useful in the early-phase response to an asthmatic attack.
|
|
Do local anesthetics bind to the activated or inactivated sodium channels?
|
Inactivated
|
|
What is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome?
|
Pimozide
|
|
What mosquito is responsible for the transmission of malaria?
|
Anopheles mosquito
|
|
What enzyme is inhibited by disulfiram?
|
Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
|
|
Which diuretic is used as an adrenal steroid antagonist?
|
Spironolactone
|
|
What drug is given transdermally for chronic pain but can cause chest wall rigidity if given IV?
|
Fentanyl
|
|
What is the drug of choice for penicillin-resistant gonococcal infections?
|
Spectinomycin
|
|
What is the DOC for treating torsade de pointes?
|
Magnesium
|
|
Is heparin contraindicated in pregnancy?
|
No. Heparin is safe in pregnancy
|
|
What oral antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by disrupting microtubule structure and depositing keratin?
|
Griseofulvin
|
|
Which anticonvulsant can cause teratogenic craniofacial abnormalities and spina bifida?
|
Carbamazepine
|
|
What are the three Beta-lactamase inhibitors?
|
1. Clavulanic acid 2. Sulbactam 3. Tazobactam
|
|
Which anticonvulsant used in the treatment of bipolar disorder is refractory to lithium?
|
Carbamazepine
|
|
Are antineoplastic agents that work on actively proliferating cells schedule or dose dependent?
|
Schedule dependent; antineoplastic agents that work on nonproliferating cells are dose dependent
|
|
Which class of diuretics is used to treat metabolic acidosis
|
acute mountain sicknesses
|
|
What estrogen receptor agonist in bone is used in the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?
|
Raloxifene
|
|
Which tetracycline is used in the treatment of SIADH?
|
Demeclocycline
|
|
How is the eye affected by use of opioids?
|
With opioid use the pupils become pinpoint (miosis) because of increased cholinergic activity.
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Grey baby syndrome
|
Chloramphenicol
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • CN VIII damage (vestibulotoxic)
|
Aminoglycosides
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Teratogenicity
|
Metronidazole
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cholestatic hepatitis
|
Erythromycin
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Hemolytic anemia
|
Nitrofurantoin
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Dental staining in children
|
Tetracycline
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Altered folate metabolism
|
Trimethoprim
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Auditory toxicity
|
Vancomycin
|
|
Name the antimicrobial agent whose major side effect is listed. • Cartilage abnormalities
|
Quinolones
|
|
What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
|
Constipation and miosis
|
|
Which anticonvulsant is also used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and for migraine headaches?
|
Valproic acid
|
|
What antitubercular agent causes loss of red-green visual discrimination?
|
Ethambutol
|
|
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
|
8 to 16 hours; duration
|
|
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
|
0.5 to 3 hours; duration
|
|
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
|
8 to 12 hours; duration
|
|
Name the insulin preparation based on the peak effect and duration of action. • Peak
|
0.3 to 2 hours; duration
|
|
Is digoxin or digitoxin renally eliminated?
|
Digoxin is renally eliminated; digitoxin is hepatically eliminated.
|
|
What is the drug of choice for steroid-induced osteoporosis?
|
Alendronate
|
|
What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
|
Nystagmus and ataxia
|
|
How are lipid solubility and potency related for inhaled anesthetics? How do they affect onset and recovery?
|
Inhaled anesthetics with low lipid solubility have low potency (directly related)
|
|
What α1-agonist
|
not inactivated by catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT)
|
|
Which laxative is used in the treatment of hepatic encephalopathy ?
|
Lactulose
|
|
Are hydrolysis
|
oxidation
|
|
What β-blocker is also an α-blocker?
|
Labetalol
|
|
What agent is used IM to treat acute dystonias?
|
Diphenhydramine
|
|
True or false? Anaerobes are resistant to the effects of aminoglycosides.
|
True. Aminoglycosides use O 2-dependent uptake and therefore are ineffective for treatment of anaerobic infections.
|
|
What two β-blockers decrease serum lipids?
|
Acebutolol and Pindolol
|
|
If a drug is ionized
|
is it water or lipid soluble? Can it cross a biomembrane?
|
|
What are the longest-acting and shortest-acting benzodiazepines?
|
Diazepam is longest acting and midazolam is shortest acting.
|
|
What is the DOC for severe infections with Sporothrix
|
Mucor
|
|
What neurotransmitter is presynaptically inhibited by reserpine and guanethidine?
|
NE
|
|
Which two cephalosporins cross the blood-brain barrier?
|
Cefuroxime and cefaclor
|
|
What agent
|
in combination with a MAOI inhibitor
|
|
True or false? Cocaine-induced coronary ischemia should not be treated with β-blockers.
|
True. β-Blockade would result in unopposed-adrenergic stimulation and worsen the patient's symptoms. Calcium channel blockers are the way to go.
|
|
What antimuscarinic is used as an inhalant for asthma?
|
Ipratropium
|
|
What two forms of insulin
|
if mixed together
|
|
What androgen receptor blocker is used in the treatment of prostatic cancer?
|
Flutamide
|
|
What are the first signs of phenobarbital overdose?
|
Nystagmus and ataxia
|
|
Which virus is treated with the monoclonal antibody palivizumab?
|
RSV
|
|
Which medication used in the treatment of bipolar disorder decreases the release of T 4 from the thyroid gland?
|
Lithium
|
|
Which class of antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers?
|
Class III
|
|
Which muscarinic receptor uses a decrease in adenyl cyclase as its second messenger?
|
M 2
|
|
What antiepileptic agent has SIADH as a side effect?
|
Carbamazepine
|
|
What is the only anesthetic that causes cardiovascular stimulation?
|
Ketamine
|
|
Which bacteriostatic drug whose major side effect is the lepra reaction inhibits folic acid synthesis?
|
Dapsone
|
|
What form of antimicrobial therapy is best for an immunocompromised patient?
|
Bactericidal
|
|
Which direct-acting vasodilator is associated with SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
|
Hydralazine
|
|
What class of heparin is active against factor Xa and has no effect on PT or PTT?
|
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
|
|
What is the DOC for coccidioidomycosis?
|
Fluconazole
|
|
What three cephalosporins have good penetration against Bacteroides fragilis?
|
1. Cefotetan 2. Cefoxitin 3. Ceftizoxime
|
|
Which form of alcohol toxicity results in ocular damage?
|
Methanol
|
|
What immunosuppressive agent is converted to 6-mercaptopurine?
|
Azathioprine
|
|
Which size nerve fibers (small or large diameter) are more sensitive to local anesthetic blockade?
|
Nerve fibers with small diameter and high firing rates are most sensitive to local blockade
|
|
What enzyme is inhibited by trimethoprim?
|
Dihydrofolate reductase
|
|
What are the two absolute requirements for the cytochrome P450 enzyme system?
|
NADPH and molecular O 2
|
|
What three PGs are potent platelet aggregators?
|
PGE 1
|
|
A depressive patient who is taking paroxetine goes to the ER with pain and is given meperidine. Shortly afterward she develops diaphoresis
|
myoclonus
|
|
What class of drugs is used in the treatment of demineralization of the bone?
|
Bisphosphonates
|
|
What is the only class of diuretics to retain Cl- used in the short-term treatment of glaucoma and of acute mountain sickness?
|
Acetazolamide
|
|
True or false? All aluminum-containing antacids can cause hypophosphatemia.
|
True. Aluminum reacts with PO4
|
|
What TCAD causes sudden cardiac death in children?
|
Desipramine
|
|
What two β2-agonists are used to produce bronchodilation?
|
Metaproterenol and albuterol
|
|
What IV-only agent inhibits water reabsorption in the PCTs and is used to treat increased intracranial pressure
|
increased intraocular pressure
|
|
What cell type do cromolyn and nedocromil affect for prophylactic management of asthma via blockade?
|
They prevent mast cell degranulation.
|
|
What two β2-agonists cause myometrial relaxation?
|
Ritodrine and terbutaline
|
|
Where in the spinal cord are the presynaptic opioid receptors?
|
In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord on the primary afferent neurons
|
|
What thrombolytic agent is derived from β-hemolytic streptococci
|
is antigenic
|
|
What antifungal agent is used to treat dermatophyte infections by inhibiting squalene epoxidase?
|
Terbinafine
|
|
Which class of antihypertensives produces angioedema
|
hyperkalemia
|
|
Which medication requires an acidic gastric pH for activation to form a protective gel-like coating over ulcers and GI epithelium?
|
Sucralfate
|
|
Of what serotonin receptor is sumatriptan an agonist?
|
5HT1D
|
|
A patient with a history of epilepsy goes to the ER with sedation
|
gait ataxia
|
|
What are the five penicillinase-resistant penicillins?
|
1. Cloxacillin 2. Oxacillin 3. Nafcillin 4. Dicloxacillin 5. Methicillin (CONDM)
|
|
Which aminoglycoside is the DOC for tularemia and the bubonic plague?
|
Streptomycin
|
|
Is the following description characteristic of competitive or noncompetitive antagonists: parallel shift to the right on a dose-response curve
|
complete reversibility with increase of the dose of the agonist drug
|
|
True or false? Progestins are used in combination with estrogens to decrease the risk of endometrial cancer.
|
TRUE
|
|
What neuroleptic agent causes agranulocytosis but does not induce tardive dyskinesia?
|
Clozapine
|
|
What two factors influence low oral bioavailability?
|
First-pass metabolism and acid lability
|
|
What is the only site in the body that uses M1 receptors?
|
The stomach
|
|
What vitamin is a cofactor of aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and decreases the efficacy of L-dopa if used concomitantly?
|
Vitamin B 6 (pyridoxine)
|
|
True or false? Acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic activities but lacks anti-inflammatory effects.
|
TRUE
|
|
What happens to plasma concentration of a drug if there is a large volume of distribution?
|
The larger the volume of distribution
|
|
Why should opioid analgesics be avoided for patients with head trauma?
|
Opioids cause cerebral vasodilation and can result in increased intracerebral pressure.
|
|
What is the drug of choice in the treatment of the lepra reaction?
|
Clofazimine
|
|
What two drugs
|
when mixed
|
|
What three β-blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma?
|
1. Propranolol 2. Timolol 3. Carteolol
|
|
What is the neurotransmitter at the K-receptor?
|
Dynorphin
|
|
True or false? Succinylcholine is a nicotinic receptor agonist.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the drug of choice for hypertensive patients with a decreased renal function?
|
α-Methyldopa (Guanabenz or clonidine is also used.)
|
|
What is the volume of distribution (increased or decreased) of a drug when a large percentage is protein bound?
|
Volume of distribution is decreased when a large percentage of drug is protein bound.
|
|
What antihistamine is used in the treatment of serotonergic crisis?
|
Cyproheptadine
|
|
What is the drug of choice for early Parkinson's disease?
|
Selegiline
|
|
What is the site of action of the following? • Osmotic diuretics
|
The entire tubule barring the thick ascending limb
|
|
What is the site of action of the following? • Loop diuretics
|
Ascending limb
|
|
What is the site of action of the following? • Thiazide diuretics
|
Early distal tubule
|
|
What is the site of action of the following? • K+-sparing diuretics
|
Early collecting duct
|
|
What is the site of action of the following? • Aldosterone antagonists
|
Distal convoluted tubules
|
|
What hematologic malignancy is treated with the monoclonal antibody rituximab?
|
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
|
|
Which sodium channel blocker is used to treat lithium-induced diabetes insipidus?
|
Amiloride
|
|
Which two antipsychotic drugs create a high risk for developing extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) side effects?
|
Haloperidol and fluphenazine (but use of any high-potency phenothiazine runs the risk of EPS)
|
|
Could an overdose with either zolpidem or zaleplon be reversed with flumazenil?
|
Yes
|
|
What drug blocks intragranular uptake of NE?
|
Reserpine
|
|
True or false? Antimicrobial agents that slow bacterial growth are bactericidal.
|
False. Bacteriocidals kill; bacteriostatics slow growth.
|
|
Which antihyperlipidemic agent would you not prescribe for a patient with a history of gout or PUD?
|
Nicotinic acid
|
|
What inhibitor of microtubule synthesis is the drug of choice for whipworm and pinworm?
|
Mebendazole
|
|
What antiviral agents inhibit neuraminidases of influenza A and B?
|
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
|
|
What three cephalosporins inhibit vitamin K-dependent factors?
|
Cefamandole
|
|
Which direct-acting vasodilator is used clinically to treat hypertensive emergencies
|
insulinomas
|
|
Which leukotriene—LTA4
|
LTB4
|
|
What neuroleptic agent causes retinal deposits
|
hypotension
|
|
What oral hypoglycemic agent inhibits α-glucosidase in the brush border of the small intestine?
|
Acarbose
|
|
What enzyme is inhibited by sulfonamides?
|
Dihydropteroate synthetase
|
|
What is the most important determinant of drug potency?
|
The affinity of the drug for its receptor
|
|
True or false? Estrogen use increases the risk of developing ovarian cancer.
|
False. Risk of breast and endometrial cancer but not ovarian cancer increases with the use of estrogen.
|
|
Which sedative-hypnotic is contraindicated for patients taking warfarin?
|
Chloral hydrate
|
|
What mixed α-antagonists are used for patients with pheochromocytoma?
|
Phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine
|
|
What are the four types of signaling mechanisms?
|
1. Intracellular receptors 2. Membrane receptors 3. Enzymes 4. Intracellular effectors
|
|
The dose of which second-generation sulfonylurea agent must be decreased for patients with hepatic dysfunction?
|
The dose of glipizide must be decreased in hepatic dysfunction. Glyburide's dose must be decreased in renal dysfunction.
|
|
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist causes hypotension and is associated with malignant hyperthermia?
|
d-Tubocurarine
|
|
What transient deficiency may result in a hypercoagulable state if warfarin is given alone?
|
Transient protein C deficiency
|
|
What component of the vascular system is most sensitive to the effects of calcium channel blockers?
|
Arterioles
|
|
What drug blocks glucose uptake
|
leading to decreased formation of ATP and resulting in immobilization of the parasite?
|
|
What is the site of action for carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
|
Proximal tubule
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Bleomycin
|
G2 phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cytarabine
|
S phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vinblastine
|
Mitosis
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Alkylating agents
|
G0 phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Paclitaxel
|
Mitosis
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Vincristine
|
Mitosis
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Thioguanine
|
S phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • 6-Mercaptopurine
|
S phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Dacarbazine
|
G0 phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Hydroxyurea
|
S phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Cisplatin
|
G0 phase
|
|
What phase of the cell cycle are the following antineoplastic agents specific for? • Nitrosoureas
|
G0 phase
|
|
Inhibition of peripheral COMT
|
allowing increased CNS availability of L-dopa
|
|
What medication is a PGE1 analog that results in increased secretions of mucus and HCO3-in the GI tract?
|
Misoprostol
|
|
Is there a difference between mathematical and clinical steady states? If so
|
what are their values (half-lives)?
|
|
True or false? At high doses aspirin has uricosuric properties.
|
True. At high doses ASA decreases uric acid reabsorption in the renal tubules
|
|
What antiviral agent is used to treat RSV
|
influenza A and B
|
|
Which aminoglycoside is used only topically because it is too toxic for systemic use?
|
Neomycin
|
|
Which class of antiarrhythmics blocks sodium channels?
|
Class 1 (1A
|
|
What form of penicillin is used in the treatment of life-threatening illnesses?
|
Penicillin G (benzylpenicillin)
|
|
What is the DOC for esophageal candidiasis?
|
Fluconazole
|
|
True or false? Flumazenil is used in the treatment of barbiturate overdose.
|
False. Flumazenil is unable to block the effects of barbiturates.
|
|
Which three aminoglycosides have vestibular toxicity?
|
1. Streptomycin 2. Gentamicin 3. Tobramycin
|
|
What is the term for the amount of a drug that is needed to produce the desired effect?
|
Potency
|
|
What agent used in the treatment of BPH and baldness is a 5-α-reductase inhibitor?
|
Finasteride
|
|
What β-blocker is also a membrane stabilizer?
|
Propranolol
|
|
Name one of the ADP receptor antagonists used in patients who are post-MI
|
have had TIAs
|
|
What is the treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
|
Amiloride
|
|
Which calcium channel blocker is used to treat subarachnoid hemorrhages by preventing posthemorrhagic vasospasms?
|
Nimodipine
|
|
What two drugs inhibit the release of neurotransmitters from storage granules?
|
Guanethidine and bretylium
|
|
What is the DOC for hyperprolactinemia?
|
Pergolide
|
|
True or false? The faster the rate of absorption
|
the smaller the time of maximum concentration (Tmax) and the maximum concentration (Cmax).
|
|
What tetracycline is associated with hepatotoxicity?
|
Chlortetracycline
|
|
What is the term for how well a drug produces its desired response?
|
Efficacy
|
|
What drug
|
if given during pregnancy
|
|
Is allopurinol used in the acute treatment of gout?
|
No
|
|
What three cephalosporins can produce disulfiram-like reactions?
|
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Moxalactam
|
|
What is the physiologic basis for the actions of birth control pills?
|
They block the midcycle surge of LH.
|
|
When a drug is administered orally and enters into portal circulation
|
it undergoes hepatic metabolism. What is the name of this effect?
|
|
Which thrombolytic agent
|
activated in the presence of fibrin
|
|
Which benzodiazepine is most commonly used IV in conscious sedation protocols?
|
Midazolam
|
|
What is the drug of choice for threadworm
|
trichinosis
|
|
Can you tell which drug is more toxic based on therapeutic indices alone?
|
No
|
|
What blood disorder is a side effect of metformin?
|
Megaloblastic anemia (decreased absorption of vitamin B12 and folic acid)
|
|
A schizophrenic patient who is taking haloperidol is brought to your ER with muscle rigidity
|
a temperature of 104° F
|
|
Which α-blocking agent is used to treat refractory hypertension and baldness?
|
Minoxidil (orally and topically
|
|
What components of the coagulation cascade are affected by estrogen?
|
Estrogen can result in a hypercoagulable state because of the decrease in AT III and increase in factors II
|
|
What class of antimicrobial agents should be avoided in patients with a history of GPDH deficiency?
|
Sulfonamides
|
|
What enzyme of cholesterol synthesis is inhibited by the statins?
|
HMG-CoA reductase
|
|
What bactericidal agents are resistant to β-lactamases and are used to treat in-hospital life-threatening infections?
|
Imipenem and meropenem
|
|
What adrenergic receptors use inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) for their second messenger system?
|
α1-Receptors
|
|
True or false? Dopamine antagonists at the D2A receptor have the capacity to induce pseudoparkinsonism.
|
TRUE
|
|
What two PGs are used to induce labor?
|
PGE2 and PGF2α
|
|
How are drugs that are excreted via the biliary system resorbed by the GI tract?
|
Enterohepatic cycling
|
|
Which drugs bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and interfere with the initiation complex
|
causing a misreading of mRNA?
|
|
What antiviral agent blocks the attachment and penetration of influenza A virus?
|
Amantadine
|
|
What is the antidote for organophosphate ingestion?
|
Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime)
|
|
Which antihypertensive class is used to help stop the progression of microalbuminuria?
|
ACE inhibitors (-pril)
|
|
What class of drugs are the DOCs for peptic ulcer disease
|
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
|
|
What bacteriostatic agent's side effect profile includes grey baby syndrome and aplastic anemia?
|
Chloramphenicol
|
|
Inhibition of peripheral aromatic amino acid decarboxylase and increased CNS availability of L-dopa are results of what drug used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
|
Carbidopa and benserazide
|
|
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination independent of plasma concentration; constant amount eliminated per unit time; no fixed half-life
|
Zero-order elimination
|
|
What type of drug elimination is characterized by the following? • Elimination directly proportional to plasma level; constant fraction eliminated per unit time; fixed half-life
|
First-order elimination
|
|
True or false? NSAIDs have analgesic
|
antipyretic
|
|
True or false? Tetracyclines are bactericidal.
|
False. They are bacteriostatic.
|
|
What class 1A antiarrhythmic agent has SLE-like syndrome side effect in slow acetylators?
|
Procainamide
|
|
What is the major pulmonary side effect of µ-activators?
|
Respiratory depression
|
|
What neuroleptic agent is also considered to be an antihistamine?
|
Risperidone
|
|
What form of penicillin is stable in acid environments?
|
Penicillin V
|
|
What is the term for the proportion of a drug that reaches systemic circulation?
|
Bioavailability
|
|
What two drugs block dopa-decarboxylase in the periphery to decrease the conversion of L-dopa to dopamine?
|
Carbidopa and benserazide
|
|
What is the DOC for bipolar disorder?
|
Lithium
|
|
True or false? If a mother delivers a Rho-positive baby
|
she should receive Rho-immunoglobulin.
|
|
True or false? Both GABA and glutamic acid are excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
|
False. Glutamic acid is excitatory
|
|
What is the drug of choice for asymptomatic meningitis carriers?
|
Rifampin
|
|
What drug is used to differentiate a cholinergic crisis from myasthenia gravis?
|
Edrophonium
|
|
What class of antianginal activates the NO pathway to produce endothelial vasodilation?
|
Nitrates
|
|
What selective Cox-2 inhibitor should be avoided in patients with a history of sulfonamide allergy?
|
Celecoxib
|
|
What is the DOC for blastomycoses and sporotrichoses?
|
Itraconazole
|
|
What are the two most important features in the diagnosis of malaria?
|
Splenomegaly and anemia (with a high index of suspicion)
|
|
Name the three benzodiazepines that are not metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system.
|
Oxazepam
|
|
What drug is an M1-specific antispasmodic?
|
Pirenzepine
|
|
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is safe for use in renal dysfunction and in HTN during pregnancy?
|
Methyldopa
|
|
What is the monoamine oxidase B (MAOB) inhibitor?
|
Selegiline
|
|
What antitubercular agent causes a red-orange tinge to tears and urine?
|
Rifampin
|
|
What two classes of drugs can cause schizoid behavior?
|
Glucocorticoids and amphetamines
|
|
What tetracycline is associated with vestibular toxicity?
|
Minocycline
|
|
What is the most potent NMJ blocker and also has no cardiovascular side effects?
|
Doxacurium
|
|
What two receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone lead to vomiting when stimulated?
|
D2 and 5HT3 receptors
|
|
Which group of antihypertensive agents best decreases left ventricular hypertrophy?
|
Thiazide diuretics
|
|
What area of the brain is linked to emotion and movement?
|
Mesolimbic system
|
|
Why are clozapine and olanzapine unlikely to result in EPS effects?
|
Because they do not block D2A receptors
|
|
What class of pharmaceuticals are inactive until they are metabolized to their active products?
|
Prodrugs
|
|
True or false? You would not prescribe probenecid for a patient with gout who is an overexcretor of uric acid.
|
True. Probenecid can precipitate uric acid crystals in the kidney if the patient is an overexcretor of urate.
|
|
True or false? Dopamine antagonists are antiemetic.
|
True. They block the dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone.
|
|
What bactericidal agent is the DOC for MRSA
|
enterococci
|
|
True or false? β-Blockers are contraindicated in patients who present to the hospital with CHF.
|
True. β-Blockers are a component of CHF regimen for stable patients
|
|
True or false? Fluoroquinolones are bactericidal.
|
True. They inhibit DNA gyrase (topo II).
|
|
What antiviral agent for ganciclovir-resistant infections has limited utility because of its nephrotoxic side effect?
|
Foscarnet
|
|
What oral hypoglycemic agent stimulates pancreatic β-cell release of insulin and is given just prior to meals because of its short half-life?
|
Repaglinide
|
|
True or false? There is no absorption of an IV-administered drug.
|
True. No loss of drug and no absorption if a drug is given IV.
|
|
What hypothesis states that an antineoplastic agent kills a fixed percentage of tumor cells
|
not a fixed number?
|
|
What is the only local anesthetic to produce vasoconstriction?
|
Cocaine
|
|
Which agent used in the treatment of asthma is a selective inhibitor of the lipoxygenase pathway?
|
Zileuton
|
|
What is the only diuretic that works on the blood side of the nephron?
|
Spironolactone (binds to aldosterone receptors)
|
|
Do you monitor heparin's therapeutic levels by PT or PTT?
|
Heparin
|
|
What is the only neuroleptic that does not cause an increase in weight or appetite?
|
Molindone
|
|
What α1-agonist is used to treat paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with hypotension?
|
Metaraminol (α1
|
|
What antiarrhythmic agent is the DOC for treating and diagnosing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) and AV nodal arrhythmias?
|
Adenosine (it is an excellent agent to use in emergencies because its half-life is 30 seconds)
|
|
What phosphodiesterase inhibitor is used IV in the management of status asthmaticus ?
|
Aminophylline
|
|
Which nicotinic receptor antagonist is inactivated to laudanosine?
|
Atracurium
|
|
What α2-antagonist is used to treat impotence and postural hypotension?
|
Yohimbine
|
|
What drug of choice for ascaris causes neuromuscular blockade of the worm?
|
Pyrantel pamoate
|
|
Testing of a drug in a small group of volunteers without the disease is a component of which phase of clinical drug testing?
|
Phase 1
|
|
Which antimicrobial class may cause tooth enamel dysplasia and decreased bone growth in children?
|
Tetracycline
|
|
What antifungal agent is used in the treatment of androgen receptor-positive cancers?
|
Ketoconazole
|
|
What MAOI does not cause a hypertensive crisis?
|
Selegiline
|
|
Which penicillin can cause interstitial nephritis?
|
Methicillin
|
|
Is hirsutism a side effect of estrogen or progestin therapy?
|
Progestin
|
|
Which potassium-sparing drug is an aldosterone receptor antagonist ?
|
Spironolactone
|
|
What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
|
1. Pinpoint pupils 2. Decreased respiratory rate 3. Coma
|
|
Which anticonvulsant is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain?
|
Gabapentin
|
|
True or false? Metformin is contraindicated in obese patients because of weight gain as its side effect.
|
False. Metformin does not have weight gain as a potential side effect (unlike sulfonylureas).
|
|
What is the DOC for the treatment of the late phase response in an asthmatic attack?
|
Corticosteroid
|
|
If you double the infusion rate of a drug
|
how long will it take to reach steady state?
|
|
What is the neurotransmitter at the µ-receptor?
|
β-Endorphin
|
|
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Amebiasis
|
Metronidazole
|
|
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Leishmaniasis
|
Stibogluconate
|
|
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
|
Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX)
|
|
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Giardiasis
|
Metronidazole
|
|
What is the DOC for the following protozoal infections? • Trichomoniasis
|
Metronidazole
|
|
What hematologic agent is used in the treatment of intermittent claudication because it decreases blood viscosity and increases RBC membrane flexibility and stability?
|
Pentoxifylline
|
|
What enzyme system is the most common form of phase II biotransformation?
|
Glucuronidation
|
|
In what three areas of the body are sympathetics the predominant tone?
|
1. Sweat glands 2. Arterioles 3. Veins
|
|
What is the only antifungal agent to penetrate CSF?
|
Fluconazole
|
|
Which class of antiarrhythmics are β-blockers?
|
Class II
|
|
What three cephalosporins are eliminated via biliary mechanisms?
|
1. Cefamandole 2. Cefoperazone 3. Ceftriaxone
|
|
Which centrally acting α2-adrenergic agonist is used in the treatment protocol of opioid withdrawal?
|
Clonidine
|
|
What is the name of the monoclonal antibody used in the treatment of Crohn disease and rheumatoid arthritis?
|
Infliximab
|
|
Which macrolide is used in the treatment of gastroparesis?
|
Erythromycin
|
|
What syndrome is characterized by the triad of renal tubular acidosis
|
nephrosis
|
|
In what area of the brain can an excess of dopamine lead to psychotic symptoms?
|
Mesocortical area
|
|
Name five causes for zero-order metabolism.
|
1. Sustained release 2. IV drip 3. Phenytoin 4. Alcohol 5. Aspirin toxicity
|
|
What antitubercular agent requires vitamin B6 supplementation?
|
Isoniazid
|
|
Which antihistamine is one of the DOCs for treatment of vertigo?
|
Meclizine
|
|
What is the DOC for treating Entamoeba histolytica
|
Giardia
|
|
Which class of antihypertensives is used in the treatment of BPH?
|
α-Blockers (-zosins)
|
|
Which macrolide is given as 1200 mg/week for the prophylaxis of Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex?
|
Azithromycin
|
|
What is the drug of choice
|
which inhibits oxidative phosphorylation in cestodes
|
|
Which class of antihyperlipidemics would you avoid for a patient with elevated triglyceride levels?
|
Bile acid sequestrants (cholestyramine and colestipol) increase VLDL and triglyceride levels; therefore
|
|
True or false? Ergotamines
|
because of their vasodilation action
|
|
Is DM a contraindication to use of a β-blocker in a patient who is having an MI?
|
Absolutely not. Diabetics who are given a β-blocker for an acute chest syndrome have significantly better outcomes than those who do not.
|
|
What β2-agonist is used as a prophylactic agent in the treatment of asthma?
|
Salmeterol
|
|
What hormone can be affected by dopamine release in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
|
In the tuberoinfundibular pathway
|
|
What determines the plasma level at steady state?
|
The rate of infusion
|
|
What enzyme is inhibited by propylthiouracil (PTU)?
|
5' deiodinase
|
|
What is the DOC for CMV retinitis?
|
Ganciclovir
|
|
What agent antagonizes the effects of heparin?
|
Protamine sulfate
|
|
What antihypertensive agent produces cyanide and thiocyanate as byproducts?
|
Nitroprusside
|
|
What is the DOC for β-blocker-induced bronchospasms?
|
Ipratropium
|
|
What is the only neuroleptic agent that does not cause hyperprolactinemia?
|
Clozapine
|
|
True or false? Gynecomastia is a side effect of cimetidine.
|
True. Cimetidine can decrease androgen production and lead to gynecomastia.
|
|
What three drugs are associated with SLE-like syndrome in slow acetylators?
|
Hydralazine
|
|
What is the drug of choice for filariasis and onchocerciasis?
|
Diethylcarbamazine
|
|
What aminoglycoside causes disruption of CN I?
|
Streptomycin
|
|
Which anticonvulsant causes gingival hyperplasia?
|
Phenytoin (cyclosporine and nifedipine also result in gingival hyperplasia)
|
|
What is the only NSAID that causes irreversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase pathway?
|
ASA
|
|
What antifungal agent is activated by fungal cytosine deaminase to form 5-FU?
|
Flucytosine
|
|
Irreversible ototoxicity is associated with which loop diuretic?
|
Ethacrynic acid
|
|
What competitive estrogen receptor antagonist is used in the treatment of breast cancer?
|
Tamoxifen
|
|
Which tetracycline is used to treat prostatitis because it concentrates strongly in prostatic fluid?
|
Doxycycline
|
|
True or false? Dopamine is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
|
False. Dopamine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
|
|
What oral hypoglycemic agent should be used with caution in patients with CHF because it causes lactic acidosis?
|
Metformin
|
|
Which phase of clinical drug testing includes postmarket reporting of adverse reactions?
|
Phase 4
|
|
Which prophylactic asthmatic agent is an antagonist of LTD4?
|
Zafirlukast
|
|
What are the three C's of a TCAD overdose?
|
Coma
|
|
What is the neurotransmitter at the δ-receptor?
|
Enkephalin
|
|
What body fluid preferentially breaks down esters?
|
Blood
|
|
What are the two broad-spectrum penicillins?
|
Ampicillin and amoxicillin
|
|
What are the three components to the asthma triad?
|
Nasal polyps
|
|
Which class of antiarrhythmics are calcium channel blockers?
|
Class IV
|
|
What are the glycoprotein receptors that platelets and fibrinogen cross-link to when forming a thrombus?
|
GP IIb and IIIa receptors
|
|
Which IV agent has the lowest incidence of postoperative emesis and has the fastest rate of recovery?
|
Propofol
|
|
Are two different receptors with two different agonists characteristic of pharmacologic or physiologic antagonism?
|
Physiologic antagonism
|
|
What GnRH analog is used as a repository form of treatment in prostatic cancer?
|
Leuprolide
|
|
Which antimicrobial agent is used with pyrimethamine to treat toxoplasmosis?
|
Clindamycin
|
|
What is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia?
|
Carbamazepine
|
|
What drug that penetrates the blood-brain barrier is found in asthma preparations and used as a nasal decongestant?
|
Ephedrine
|
|
What is the term for drug removal per unit of time in a given volume of blood?
|
Clearance
|
|
Which two tetracyclines have the highest plasma binding?
|
Doxycycline and minocycline
|
|
What do the following values indicate? • ED50
|
Effective dose for 50% of drug takers (median effective dose)
|
|
What do the following values indicate? • TD50
|
Toxic dose for 50% of drug takers (median toxic dose)
|
|
What do the following values indicate? • LD50
|
Lethal dose for 50% of drug takers (median lethal dose)
|
|
Do agents used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease that decrease ACh function have little effect on reducing tremors and rigidity?
|
Agents that decrease ACh function reduce tremors and rigidity
|
|
A patient goes to the ER with signs and symptoms of biliary colic. Which opioid analgesic do you choose?
|
Spasms of the uterus
|
|
What form of oxidation takes place with the addition of a water molecule and breakage of bonds?
|
Hydrolysis
|
|
In a ventricular pacemaker cell
|
what phase of the action potential is affected by NE?
|
|
Anatomical and alveolar dead spaces together constitute what space?
|
Physiologic dead space is the total dead space of the respiratory system.
|
|
What three organs are necessary for the production of vitamin D3(cholecalciferol)?
|
Skin
|
|
What is the effect of LH on the production of adrenal androgens?
|
LH has no effect on the production of adrenal androgens; ACTH stimulates adrenal androgen production.
|
|
What four conditions result in secondary hyperaldosteronism?
|
1. CHF 2. Vena caval obstruction or constriction 3. Hepatic cirrhosis 4. Renal artery stenosis
|
|
What are the five hormones produced by Sertoli cells?
|
1. Inhibin 2. Estradiol (E2) 3. Androgen-binding protein 4. Meiosis inhibiting factor (in fetal tissue) 5. Antimüullerian hormone
|
|
What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential moving toward threshold?
|
Depolarization (i.e.
|
|
Does the left or right vagus nerve innervate the SA node?
|
Right vagus innervates the SA node and the left vagus innervates the AV node
|
|
How does ventricular repolarization take place
|
base to apex or vice versa?
|
|
What is the term for any region of the respiratory system that is incapable of gas exchange?
|
Anatomical dead space
|
|
What four factors shift the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve to the right? What is the consequence of this shift?
|
Increased CO2
|
|
What two factors result in the apex of the lung being hypoperfused?
|
Decreased pulmonary arterial pressure (low perfusion) and less-distensible vessels (high resistance) result in decreased blood flow at the apex.
|
|
What is the ratio of pulmonary to systemic blood flow?
|
1:1. Remember
|
|
To differentiate central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
|
after an injection of ADH
|
|
In what area of the GI tract are water-soluble vitamins absorbed?
|
Duodenum
|
|
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The rise in right atrial pressure secondary to blood filling and terminating when the tricuspid valves opens
|
V wave
|
|
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium
|
C wave
|
|
What wave is the cause of the following venous pulse deflections? • The contraction of the right atrium
|
A wave
|
|
What are the four functions of saliva?
|
1. Provide antibacterial action 2. Lubricate 3. Begin CHO digestion 4. Begin fat digestion
|
|
When a person goes from supine to standing
|
what happens to the following? • Dependent venous pressure
|
|
When a person goes from supine to standing
|
what happens to the following? • Dependent venous blood volume
|
|
When a person goes from supine to standing
|
what happens to the following? • Cardiac output
|
|
When a person goes from supine to standing
|
what happens to the following? • BP
|
|
When does the hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule play a role in opposing filtration?
|
It normally does not play a role in filtration but becomes important when there is an obstruction downstream.
|
|
What happens to intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm is ontracted during inspiration?
|
Intrapleural pressure decreases (becomes more negative).
|
|
What is used as an index of cortisol secretion?
|
Urinary 17-OH steroids
|
|
If the pH is low with increased CO2 levels and decreased HCO3- levels
|
what is the acid-base disturbance?
|
|
What is the term that refers to the number of channels open in a cell membrane?
|
Membrane conductance (think conductance = channels open)
|
|
What are the five tissues in which glucose uptake is insulin independent?
|
1. CNS 2. Renal tubules 3. Beta Islet cells of the pancreas 4. RBCs 5. GI mucosa
|
|
Place in order from fastest to slowest the rate of gastric emptying for CHO
|
fat
|
|
Is most of the coronary artery blood flow during systole or diastole?
|
Diastole. During systole the left ventricle contracts
|
|
What modified smooth muscle cells of the kidney monitor BP in the afferent arteriole?
|
The JG cells
|
|
What are the three functions of surfactant?
|
1. Increase compliance 2. Decrease surface tension 3. Decrease probability of pulmonary edema formation
|
|
Name the hormone—glucagon
|
insulin
|
|
Name the hormone—glucagon
|
insulin
|
|
Name the hormone—glucagon
|
insulin
|
|
Is the hydrophobic or hydrophilic end of the phospholipids of the cell membrane facing the aqueous environment?
|
Hydrophobic (water-insoluble) end faces the aqueous environment and the hydrophilic (water-soluble) end faces the interior of the cell.
|
|
What type of muscle is characterized by no myoglobin
|
anaerobic glycolysis
|
|
What percentage of CO2 is carried in the plasma as HCO3- ?
|
90% as HCO3-
|
|
What is the most potent male sex hormone?
|
Dihydrotestosterone
|
|
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
|
what happens to • Stroke volume?
|
|
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
|
what happens to • TPR?
|
|
With a decrease in arterial diastolic pressure
|
what happens to • Heart rate?
|
|
What linkage of complex CHOs does pancreatic amylase hydrolyze? What three complexes are formed?
|
Amylase hydrolyzes alpha-1
|
|
Does the heart rate determine the diastolic or systolic interval?
|
Heart rate determines the diastolic interval
|
|
On a graphical representation of filtration
|
reabsorption
|
|
What is the relationship between preload and the passive tension in a muscle?
|
They are directly related; the greater the preload
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step in the synthetic pathway of NE at the adrenergic nerve terminal?
|
The conversion of tyrosine to dopamine in the cytoplasm
|
|
How many days prior to ovulation does LH surge occur in the menstrual cycle?
|
1 day prior to ovulation
|
|
How are flow through the loop of Henle and concentration of urine related?
|
As flow increases
|
|
What is the PO2 of aortic blood in fetal circulation?
|
60%
|
|
How do elevated blood glucose levels decrease GH secretion? (Hint: what inhibitory hypothalamic hormone is stimulated by IGF-1?)
|
Somatotrophins are stimulated by IGF-1
|
|
What segment of the nephron has the highest concentration of inulin? Lowest concentration of inulin?
|
Terminal collecting duct has the highest concentration and Bowman's capsule has the lowest concentration of inulin.
|
|
What type of resistance system
|
high or low
|
|
What hormones
|
secreted in proportion to the size of the placenta
|
|
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by an increase in alveolar ventilation (decreasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the left and decreasing both H+ and HCO3- levels?
|
Respiratory alkalosis (summary: low CO2
|
|
What respiratory center in the caudal pons is the center for rhythm promoting prolonged inspirations?
|
Apneustic center (deep breathing place)
|
|
What area of the GI tract has the highest activity of brush border enzymes?
|
Jejunum (upper)
|
|
What is the term to describe the increased rate of secretion of adrenal androgens at the onset of puberty?
|
Adrenarche
|
|
What period is described when a larger-than-normal stimulus is needed to produce an action potential?
|
Relative refractory period
|
|
Does T3 or T4 have a greater affinity for its nuclear receptor?
|
T3 has a greater affinity for the nuclear receptor and therefore is considered the active form.
|
|
What are the three main functions of surfactant?
|
1. Lowers surface tension
|
|
What is the only important physiological signal regulating the release of PTH?
|
Low interstitial free Ca2+ concentrations
|
|
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
|
Ca2+
|
|
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
|
Ca2+
|
|
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
|
Ca2+
|
|
What endocrine abnormality is characterized by the following changes in PTH
|
Ca2+
|
|
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • ECF
|
14 L
|
|
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Interstitial fluid
|
9.3 L
|
|
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • ICF
|
28 L
|
|
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Vascular fluid
|
4.7 L
|
|
What is the amount in liters and percent body weight for the following compartments? • Total body water
|
42 L
|
|
What hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy
|
stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy
|
|
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
|
TSH decreased
|
|
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH increased
|
TSH decreased
|
|
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
|
TSH decreased
|
|
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH increased
|
TSH increased
|
|
What thyroid abnormality has the following? • TRH decreased
|
TSH decreased
|
|
What two stress hormones are under the permissive action of cortisol?
|
Glucagon and epinephrine
|
|
If the radius of a vessel doubles
|
what happens to resistance?
|
|
What prevents the down-regulation of the receptors on the gonadotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland?
|
The pulsatile release of GnRH
|
|
True or false? Epinephrine has proteolytic metabolic effects.
|
False. It has glycogenolytic and lipolytic actions but not proteolytic.
|
|
What is the only 17-hydroxysteroid with hormonal activity?
|
Cortisol
|
|
Does the oncotic pressure of plasma promote filtration or reabsorption?
|
The oncotic pressure of plasma promotes reabsorption and is directly proportional to the filtration fraction.
|
|
Why is the base of the lung hyperventilated when a person is standing upright?
|
The alveoli at the base are small and very compliant
|
|
By removing Na+ from the renal tubule and pumping it back into the ECF compartment
|
what does aldosterone do to the body's acid-base stores?
|
|
What hormone causes contractions of smooth muscle
|
regulates interdigestive motility
|
|
What two vessels in fetal circulation have the highest PO2 levels?
|
Umbilical vein and ductus venosus (80%)
|
|
How many days prior to ovulation does estradiol peak in the menstrual cycle?
|
2 days prior to ovulation
|
|
What serves as a marker of endogenous insulin secretion?
|
C-peptide levels
|
|
What is the term for the total volume of air moved in and out of the respiratory system per minute?
|
Total ventilation (minute ventilation or minute volume)
|
|
What is the renal compensation mechanism for alkalosis?
|
Increase in urinary excretion of HCO3-
|
|
What is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?
|
Excess estradiol in the blood
|
|
In the systemic circulation
|
what blood vessels have the largest pressure drop? Smallest pressure drop?
|
|
What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts?
|
IGF-1
|
|
What are two causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs?
|
Decrease in surface area and increase in membrane thickness (Palv O2 > PaO2)
|
|
What are the four effects of suckling on the mother?
|
1. Increased synthesis and secretion of oxytocin 2. Increased release of PIF by the hypothalamus 3. Inhibition of GnRH (suppressing FSH/LH) 4. Milk secretion
|
|
A migrating myoelectric complex is a propulsive movement of undigested material of undigested material from the stomach to the small intestine to the colon. During a fast
|
what is the time interval of its repeats?
|
|
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
|
what happens to • Stroke volume?
|
|
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
|
what happens to • Vessel compliance?
|
|
With an increase in arterial systolic pressure
|
what happens to • Heart rate?
|
|
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Trypsinogen to trypsin
|
Enterokinase
|
|
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
|
Trypsin
|
|
What enzyme is needed to activate the following reactions? • Procarboxypeptidase to carboxypeptidase
|
Trypsin
|
|
In a ventricular pacemaker cell
|
what phase of the action potential is affected by ACh?
|
|
What is the most potent stimulus for glucagon secretion? Inhibition?
|
Hypoglycemia for secretion and hyperglycemia for inhibition
|
|
What is the term for the summation of mechanical stimuli due to the skeletal muscle contractile unit becoming saturated with calcium?
|
Tetany
|
|
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by low back leaks
|
high affinity of a substance
|
|
In an adrenergic nerve terminal
|
where is dopamine converted to NE? By what enzyme?
|
|
Is the clearance for a substance greater than or less than for inulin if it is freely filtered and secreted? If it is freely filtered and reabsorbed?
|
Filtered and secreted: Cx > Cin (i.e.
|
|
What is the term for the load on a muscle in the relaxed state?
|
Preload. It is the load on a muscle Prior to contraction.
|
|
The surge of what hormone induces ovulation?
|
LH
|
|
What are the two best indices of left ventricular preload?
|
LVEDV and LVEDP (left ventricular end-diastolic volume and end-diastolic pressure
|
|
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH pulsatile amplitude and levels increase
|
with increased testosterone production.
|
|
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • Both LH and testosterone levels drop and remain low.
|
Childhood
|
|
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • LH secretion drives testosterone production
|
with both levels paralleling each other.
|
|
What stage of male development is characterized by the following LH and testosterone levels? • Decreased testosterone production is accompanied by an increase in LH production.
|
Aged adult
|
|
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a loss in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the right
|
thereby increasing HCO3- levels?
|
|
When referring to a series circuit
|
what happens to resistance when a resistor is added?
|
|
Why is there an increase in prolactin if the hypothalamic-pituitary axis was severed?
|
Because the chronic inhibition of dopamine (PIF) on the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland is removed
|
|
Why is the clearance of creatinine always slightly greater than the clearance of inulin and GFR?
|
Because creatinine is filtered and a small amount is secreted
|
|
What acid form of H+ in the urine cannot be titrated?
|
NH4+(ammonium)
|
|
Regarding the venous system
|
what happens to blood volume if there is a small change in pressure?
|
|
In what stage of sleep is GH secreted?
|
Stages 3 and 4 (NREM)
|
|
Where does the conversion of CO2 into HCO3- take place?
|
In the RBC; remember
|
|
From the fourth month of fetal life to term
|
what secretes the progesterone and estrogen to maintains the uterus?
|
|
What two factors are required for effective exocytosis?
|
Calcium and ATP are required for packaged macromolecules to be extruded from the cell.
|
|
What is the best measure of total body vitamin D if you suspect a deficiency?
|
Serum 25-hydroxy-vitamin D (25-OH-D)
|
|
What hormone is required for 1
|
25-dihydroxy-vitamin D (1
|
|
Is bone deposition or resorption due to increased interstitial Ca2+concentrations?
|
Bone deposition increases with increased Ca2+ or PO 4- concentrations
|
|
The opening of what valve indicates the termination of isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?
|
Opening of the mitral valve indicates the termination of the isovolumetric relaxation phase and the beginning of the ventricular filling phase.
|
|
Why is there a decrease in the production in epinephrine when the anterior pituitary gland is removed?
|
The enzyme phenyl ethanolamine N-methyltransferase (PNMT)
|
|
Name the period described by the following statement: no matter how strong a stimulus is
|
no further action potentials can be stimulated.
|
|
How many carbons do estrogens have?
|
Estrogens are 18-carbon steroids. (Removal of one carbon from an androgen produces an estrogen.)
|
|
True or false? The alveolar PO2 and PCO2 levels match the pulmonary end capillary blood levels.
|
True. Because of intrapulmonary shunting
|
|
In high altitudes
|
what is the main drive for ventilation?
|
|
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
|
ICF volume
|
|
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
|
ICF volume
|
|
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
|
ICF volume
|
|
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
|
ICF volume
|
|
Describe what type of fluid is either gained or lost with the following changes in body hydration for the ECF volume
|
ICF volume
|
|
What hormone excess produces adrenal hyperplasia?
|
ACTH
|
|
Is there more circulating T3 or T4 in plasma?
|
T4; because of the greater affinity for the binding protein
|
|
Why is the cell's resting membrane potential negative?
|
The resting membrane potential of the cell is -90 mV because of the intracellular proteins.
|
|
True or false? Thyroid size is a measure of its function.
|
False. Thyroid size is a measure of TSH levels (which are goitrogenic).
|
|
If the radius of a vessel is decreased by half
|
what happens to the resistance?
|
|
What neurotransmitter is essential for maintaining a normal BP when an individual is standing?
|
NE
|
|
What form of diabetes insipidus is due to an insufficient amount of ADH for the renal collecting ducts?
|
Central/neurogenic diabetes insipidus; in the nephrogenic form there is sufficient ADH available
|
|
Name the three methods of vasodilation via the sympathetic nervous system.
|
1. Decrease alpha-1 activity 2. Increase Beta-2 activity 3. Increase ACh levels
|
|
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption
|
phosphate excretion
|
|
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium excretion
|
phosphate excretion
|
|
What hormone is characterized by the following renal effects? • Calcium reabsorption
|
phosphate reabsorption
|
|
True or false? Progesterone has thermogenic activities.
|
True. Elevated plasma levels of progesterone can raise the body temperature 0.5° to 1.0°F.
|
|
How long is the transit time through the small intestine?
|
2 to 4 hours
|
|
Where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?
|
Terminal bronchioles. (No gas exchange occurs here.)
|
|
True or false? Cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in skeletal muscle.
|
True; cortisol inhibits glucose uptake in most tissue
|
|
What percentage of cardiac output flows through the pulmonary circuit?
|
100%; the percentage of blood flow through the pulmonary and systemic circulations are equal.
|
|
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Least affinity for O2; requires the highest PO 2 levels for attachment (approx. 100 mm Hg)
|
Site 4
|
|
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Greatest affinity of the three remaining sites for attachment; requires PO2 levels of 26 mm Hg to remain attached
|
Site 2
|
|
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Remains attached under most physiologic conditions
|
Site 1
|
|
Name the Hgb-O2 binding site based on the following information: • Requires a PO2 level of 40 mm Hg to remain attached
|
Site 3
|
|
Which three factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
|
1. Exercise 2. Emergencies (stress) 3. Exposure to cold (The three Es)
|
|
How many ATPs are hydrolyzed every time a skeletal muscle cross-bridge completes a single cycle?
|
One
|
|
Why would a puncture to a vein above the heart have the potential to introduce air into the vascular system?
|
Venous pressure above the heart is subatmospheric
|
|
What type of saliva is produced under parasympathetic stimulation?
|
High volume
|
|
In what area of the GI tract does iron get absorbed?
|
Duodenum
|
|
Why is the apex of the lung hypoventilated when a person is standing upright?
|
The alveoli at the apex are almost completely inflated prior to inflation
|
|
What pancreatic islet cell secretes glucagons?
|
alpha-Cells; glucagon has stimulatory effects on -cells and inhibitory effects on -cells.
|
|
What are the four characteristics of all protein-mediated transportation?
|
1. Competition for carrier with similar chemical substances 2. Chemical specificity needed for transportation 3. Zero-order saturation kinetics (Transportation is maximal when all transporters are saturated.) 4. Rate of transportation faster than if by simple diffusion
|
|
What is secretin's pancreatic action?
|
Secretin stimulates the pancreas to secrete a HCO3--rich solution to neutralize the acidity of the chyme entering the duodenum.
|
|
Why is there an increase in FF if the GFR is decreased under sympathetic stimulation?
|
Because RPF is markedly decreased
|
|
What triggers phase 3 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
|
Rapid efflux of potassium
|
|
What is the primary target for the action of glucagon?
|
Liver (hepatocytes)
|
|
What is the renal compensation mechanism for acidosis?
|
Production of HCO3-
|
|
What enzyme found in a cholinergic synapse breaks down ACh? What are the byproducts?
|
Acetylcholinesterase breaks ACh into acetate and choline (which gets resorbed by the presynaptic nerve terminal).
|
|
What hormone
|
produced by Sertoli cells
|
|
What happens to the lung if the intrapleural pressure exceeds lung recoil?
|
The lung will expand; also the opposite is true.
|
|
What two factors determine the clearance of a substance?
|
Plasma concentration and excretion rate
|
|
What type of muscle contraction occurs when the muscle shortens and lifts the load placed on it?
|
Isotonic contraction
|
|
What type of potential is characterized as being an all-or-none response
|
propagated and not summated?
|
|
What primary acid-base disturbance is caused by a gain in fixed acid forcing the reaction to shift to the left
|
decreasing HCO3- and slightly increasing CO2?
|
|
What two pituitary hormones are produced by acidophils?
|
GH and prolactin are produced by acidophils; all others are by basophils.
|
|
What organ of the body has the smallest AV oxygen difference?
|
The renal circulation has the smallest AV O2 (high venous PO2) difference in the body because of the overperfusion of the kidneys resulting from filtration.
|
|
What is the titratable acid form of H+ in the urine?
|
H2PO4- (dihydrogen phosphate)
|
|
What hypothalamic hormone is synthesized in the preoptic nucleus?
|
GnRH
|
|
What five factors promote turbulent flow?
|
1. Increased tube radius 2. Increased velocity 3. Decreased viscosity 4. Increased number of branches 5. Narrowing of an orifice
|
|
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona glomerulosa
|
Aldosterone Remember
|
|
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona fasciculata
|
Cortisol Remember
|
|
What is the major hormone produced in the following areas of the adrenal cortex? • Zona reticularis
|
DHEA (androgens) Remember
|
|
Where is most of the body's Ca2+ stored?
|
In bone; nearly 99% of Ca2+ is stored in the bone as hydroxyapatite.
|
|
What is the relationship between ventilation and PCO2 levels?
|
They are inversely related. If ventilation increases
|
|
Is T3 or T4 responsible for the negative feedback loop on to the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland?
|
T4
|
|
What is the signal to open the voltage-gated transmembrane potassium channels?
|
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these slow channels
|
|
Increased urinary excretion of what substance is used to detect excess bone demineralization?
|
Hydroxyproline
|
|
What is the term to describe how easily a vessel stretches?
|
Compliance (think of it as distensibility)
|
|
What is the ratio of T4:T3 secretion from the thyroid gland?
|
20:1T4T3. There is an increase in the production of T3 when iodine becomes deficient.
|
|
Do the PO2 peripheral chemoreceptors of the carotid body contribute to the normal drive for ventilation?
|
Under normal resting conditions no
|
|
What determines the overall force generated by the ventricular muscle during systole?
|
The number of cross-bridges cycling during contraction: the greater the number
|
|
Where does most circulating plasma epinephrine originate?
|
From the adrenal medulla; NE is mainly derived from the postsynaptic sympathetic neurons.
|
|
What causes a skeletal muscle contraction to terminate?
|
When calcium is removed from troponin and pumped back into the SR
|
|
What happens to intracellular volume when there is an increase in osmolarity?
|
ICF volume decreases when there is an increase in osmolarity and vice versa.
|
|
Which CHO is independently absorbed from the small intestine?
|
Fructose; both glucose and galactose are actively absorbed via secondary active transport.
|
|
When is the surface tension the greatest in the respiratory cycle?
|
Surface tension
|
|
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in hypertension
|
hypernatremia
|
|
In reference to membrane potential (Em) and equilibrium potential (Ex)
|
which way do ions diffuse?
|
|
Under normal conditions
|
what is the main factor that determines GFR?
|
|
The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle?
|
Closure of the aortic valve indicates the termination of the ejection phase and the beginning of the isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
|
|
What vessels in the systemic circulation have the greatest and slowest velocity?
|
The aorta has the greatest velocity and the capillaries have the slowest velocity.
|
|
Thin extremities
|
fat collection on the upper back and abdomen
|
|
What enzyme is essential for the conversion of CO2 to HCO3-?
|
Carbonic anhydrase
|
|
True or false? The parasympathetic nervous system has very little effect on arteriolar dilation or constriction.
|
TRUE
|
|
What three lung measurements must be calculated because they cannot be measured by simple spirometry?
|
TLC
|
|
What is the venous and arterial stretch receptors' function regarding the secretion of ADH?
|
They chronically inhibit ADH secretion; when there is a decrease in the blood volume
|
|
What cell converts androgens to estrogens?
|
Granulosa cell
|
|
What hormone acts on Granulosa cells?
|
FSH
|
|
How long is the transit time through the large intestine?
|
3 to 4 days
|
|
Does subatmospheric pressure act to expand or collapse the lung?
|
Subatmospheric pressure acts to expand the lung; positive pressure acts to collapse the lung.
|
|
What hormone constricts afferent and efferent arterioles (efferent more so) in an effort to preserve glomerular capillary pressure as the renal blood flow decreases?
|
AT II
|
|
Why is there a minimal change in BP during exercise if there is a large drop in TPR?
|
Because the large drop in TPR is accompanied by a large increase in cardiac output
|
|
What is the effect of insulin on protein storage?
|
Insulin increases total body stores of protein
|
|
What is the term for an inhibitory interneuron?
|
Renshaw neuron
|
|
What triggers phase 0 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
|
Calcium influx secondary to slow channel opening
|
|
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of original filtered volume left in the lumen
|
At the end of the PCT 25% of the original volume is left
|
|
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Percentage of Na+
|
Cl-
|
|
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Osmolarity
|
300 mOsm/L
|
|
What are the following changes seen in the luminal fluid by the time it leaves the PCT of the nephron? • Concentration of CHO
|
AA
|
|
True or false? Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme.
|
False. It is an enzyme secreted by the lining of the small intestine.
|
|
Where does the synthesis of ACh occur?
|
In the cytoplasm of the presynaptic nerve terminal; it is catalyzed by choline acetyltransferase.
|
|
What pancreatic islet cell secretes somatostatin?
|
delta-Cells; somatostatin has an inhibitory effect on alpha- and Beta-islet cells.
|
|
Why is O2 content depressed in anemic patients?
|
Anemic patients have a depressed O2 content because of the reduced concentration of Hgb in the blood. As for polycythemic patients
|
|
What term describes the volume of plasma from which a substance is removed over time?
|
Clearance
|
|
If capillary hydrostatic pressure is greater than oncotic pressure
|
is filtration or reabsorption promoted?
|
|
What cells of the parathyroid gland are simulated in response to hypocalcemia?
|
The chief cells of the parathyroid gland release PTH in response to hypocalcemia.
|
|
At the base of the lung
|
what is the baseline intrapleural pressure
|
|
What hormone is necessary for normal GH secretion?
|
Normal thyroid hormones levels in the plasma are necessary for proper secretion of GH. Hypothyroid patients have decreased GH secretions.
|
|
What is the signal to open the voltage-gated transmembrane sodium channels?
|
Membrane depolarization is the stimulus to open these channels
|
|
What hormones are produced in the median eminence region of the hypothalamus and the posterior pituitary gland?
|
None; they are the storage sites for ADH and oxytocin.
|
|
What is the most energy-demanding phase of the cardiac cycle?
|
Isovolumetric contraction
|
|
What presynaptic receptor does NE use to terminate further neurotransmitter release?
|
alpha2-Receptors
|
|
Are salivary secretions hypertonic
|
hypotonic
|
|
What is the effect of T3 on heart rate and cardiac output?
|
T3 increases both heart rate and cardiac output by increasing the number of Beta-receptors and their sensitivity to catecholamines.
|
|
Why will turbulence first appear in the aorta in patients with anemia?
|
Because it is the largest vessel and has the highest velocity in systemic circulation
|
|
What is the origin of the polyuria if a patient is dehydrated and electrolyte depleted?
|
If the polyuria begins before the collecting ducts
|
|
What is the physiologically active form of Ca2+?
|
Free ionized Ca2+
|
|
What are the two factors that affect alveolar PCO2 levels?
|
Metabolic rate and alveolar ventilation (main factor)
|
|
Why is spermatogenesis decreased with anabolic steroid therapy?
|
Exogenous steroids suppress LH release and result in Leydig cell atrophy. Testosterone
|
|
What type of membrane is characterized as being permeable to water only?
|
Semipermeable membrane; a selectively permeable membrane allows both water and small solutes to pass through its membrane.
|
|
What thyroid enzyme is needed for oxidation of I- to I'?
|
Peroxidase
|
|
What is the most important stimulus for the secretion of insulin?
|
An increase in serum glucose levels
|
|
What term is described as the prestretch on the ventricular muscle at the end of diastole?
|
Preload (the load on the muscle in the relaxed state)
|
|
What peripheral chemoreceptor receives the most blood per gram of weight in the body?
|
The carotid body
|
|
What adrenal enzyme deficiency results in hypertension
|
hypernatremia
|
|
What is the term for diffusion of water across a semipermeable or selectively permeable membrane?
|
Osmosis; water will diffuse from higher to lower water concentrations.
|
|
When do hCG concentrations peak in pregnancy?
|
In the first 3 months
|
|
How many milliliters of O2 per milliliter of blood?
|
0.2
|
|
What type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
|
Osteocyte
|
|
What two forces affect movement of ions across a membrane?
|
Concentration force and electrical force
|
|
What happens to the resistance of the system when a resistor is added in a series?
|
Resistance of the system increases. (Remember
|
|
What is the greatest component of lung recoil?
|
Surface tension; in the alveoli
|
|
Where is ADH synthesized?
|
In the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; it is stored in the posterior pituitary gland.
|
|
How is velocity related to the total cross-sectional area of a blood vessel?
|
Velocity is inversely related to cross-sectional area.
|
|
True or false? Aldosterone has a sodium-conserving action in the distal colon.
|
True. In the distal colon
|
|
What form of hormone is described as having membrane-bound receptors that are stored in vesicles
|
using second messengers
|
|
What forms of fatty acids are absorbed from the small intestine mucosa by simple diffusion?
|
Short-chain fatty acids
|
|
What is the term for the day after the LH surge in the female cycle?
|
Ovulation
|
|
The opening of what valve indicates the beginning of the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle?
|
Opening of the aortic valve terminates the isovolumetric phase and begins the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle.
|
|
What is the region of an axon where no myelin is found?
|
Nodes of Ranvier
|
|
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by • Increased total body sodium
|
ECF volume
|
|
What disorder of aldosterone secretion is characterized by • Decreased total body sodium
|
ECF volume
|
|
What four factors affect diffusion rate?
|
1. Concentration (greater concentration gradient
|
|
How long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
|
8 to 25 hours
|
|
What is the name of the force that develops in the wall of the lungs as they expand?
|
Lung recoil
|
|
What day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take place?
|
Day 14
|
|
How does sympathetic stimulation to the skin result in decreased blood flow and decreased blood volume? (Hint: what vessels are stimulated
|
and how?)
|
|
What two compensatory mechanisms occur to reverse hypoxia at high altitudes?
|
Increase in erythropoietin and increase in 2
|
|
What female follicular cell is under LH stimulation and produces androgens from cholesterol?
|
Theca cell
|
|
What is the main factor determining FF?
|
Renal plasma flow (decrease flow
|
|
Where is the action potential generated on a neuron?
|
Axon hillock
|
|
If free water clearance (CH2O) is positive
|
what type of urine is formed? And if it is negative?
|
|
What cell in the heart has the highest rate of automaticity?
|
SA node; it is the reason it is the primary pacemaker of the heart.
|
|
What is pumped from the lumen of the ascending loop of Henle to decrease the osmolarity?
|
NaCl is removed from the lumen to dilute the fluid leaving the loop of Henle.
|
|
True or false? In skeletal muscle relaxation is an active event.
|
True. Sarcoplasmic calcium-dependent ATPase supplies the energy to terminate contraction
|
|
What three factors increase simple diffusion?
|
1. Increased solubility 2. Increased concentration gradient 3. Decreased thickness of the membrane
|
|
What is the pancreatic action of CCK?
|
CCK stimulates the pancreas to release amylase
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step in a conduction of a NMJ?
|
The time it takes ACh to diffuse to the postjunctional membrane
|
|
Is excretion greater than or less than filtration for net secretion to occur?
|
Excretion is greater than filtration for net secretion to occur.
|
|
What acid-base disturbance is produced from vomiting?
|
Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis occurs from vomiting because of the loss of H+
|
|
What phase of the menstrual cycle is dominated by estrogen? Progesterone?
|
Follicular phase is estrogen-dependent with increased FSH levels
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • The amount of air that enters or leaves the lung system in a single breath
|
Tidal volume (VT)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • The maximal volume inspired from FRC
|
Inspiratory capacity
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Additional volume that can be expired after normal expiration
|
Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Maximal volume that can be expired after maximal inspiration
|
Vital capacity (VC)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration
|
Functional residual capacity (FRC)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Additional air that can be taken in after normal inspiration
|
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after maximal expiration
|
Residual volume (RV)
|
|
Name the lung measurement based on the following descriptions: • Amount of air in the lungs after maximal inspiration
|
Total lung capacity (TLC)
|
|
What growth factors are chondrogenic
|
working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
|
|
What determines the Vmax of skeletal muscle?
|
The muscle's ATPase activity
|
|
True or false? All of the hormones in the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland are water soluble.
|
TRUE
|
|
What is the effect of T3 on the glucose absorption in the small intestine?
|
Thyroid hormones increase serum glucose levels by increasing the absorption of glucose from the small intestine.
|
|
Is the bound form or free form of a lipid-soluble hormone responsible for the negative feedback activity?
|
Free form determines hormone activity and is responsible for the negative feedback loop.
|
|
What region or regions of the adrenal cortex are stimulated by ACTH?
|
Zona fasciculata and zona reticularis
|
|
Are the following parameters associated with an obstructive or restrictive lung disorder: decreased FEV1
|
FVC
|
|
What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic alkalosis?
|
Hypoventilation
|
|
During puberty
|
what is the main drive for the increased GH secretion?
|
|
What type of potential is characterized as graded
|
decremental
|
|
What three organs are responsible for peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
|
Liver
|
|
The closure of what valve indicates the beginning of isovolumetric contraction?
|
Mitral valve closure indicates the termination of the ventricular filling phase and beginning of isovolumetric contraction.
|
|
How many carbons do androgens have?
|
Androgens are 19-carbon steroids.
|
|
At the apex of the lung
|
what is the baseline intrapleural pressure
|
|
True or false? Renin secretion is increased in 21-β-hydroxylase deficiency.
|
True. Increased renin and AT II levels occur as a result of the decreased production of aldosterone.
|
|
What are the four ways to increase TPR?
|
1. Decrease the radius of the vessel 2. Increase the length of the vessel 3. Increase the viscosity 4. Decrease the number of parallel channels
|
|
What form of estrogen is of placental origin?
|
Estriol
|
|
What term is an index of the effort needed to expand the lungs (i.e.
|
overcomes recoil)?
|
|
At which three sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?
|
1. Liver 2. Kidney 3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase enzyme)
|
|
Using Laplace's relationship regarding wall tension
|
why is the wall tension in an aneurysm greater than in the surrounding normal blood vessel's wall?
|
|
What percentage of nephrons is cortical?
|
Seven-eighths of nephrons are cortical
|
|
To what is the diffusion rate indirectly proportional?
|
Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to membrane thickness and is directly proportional to membranes surface area.
|
|
ADH is secreted in response to what two stimuli?
|
ADH is secreted in response to increased plasma osmolarity and decreased blood volume.
|
|
What vessels have the largest total cross-sectional area in systemic circulation?
|
Capillaries
|
|
How many days before the first day of menstrual bleeding is ovulation?
|
14 days in most women (Remember
|
|
What is the major muscle used in the relaxed state of expiration?
|
Under resting conditions expiration is considered a passive process; therefore
|
|
What subunit of hCG is used to detect whether a patient is pregnant?
|
The β-subunit; remember
|
|
What happens to capillary oncotic pressure with dehydration?
|
Oncotic pressure increases because of the removal of water.
|
|
What cells of the kidney are extravascular chemoreceptors for decreased Na+
|
Cl-
|
|
What is the effect of insulin on intracellular K+ stores?
|
Insulin increases intracellular K+ stores while decreasing serum K+ levels.
|
|
What triggers phase 4 of the action potential in a ventricular pacemaker cell?
|
Decreasing potassium conductance
|
|
What is it called when levels of sex steroids increase
|
LH increases
|
|
What parasympathetic neurotransmitter of the GI tract stimulates the release of gastrin?
|
Gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP) stimulates G cells to release Gastrin. (All G's)
|
|
What reflex increases TPR in an attempt to maintain BP during a hemorrhage?
|
The carotid sinus reflex
|
|
What is the name of the regulatory protein that covers the attachment site on actin in resting skeletal muscle?
|
Tropomyosin
|
|
Which way does the Hgb-O2 dissociation curve shift in patients with CO poisoning?
|
The pathologic problem with CO poisoning is that CO has 240 times as much affinity for Hgb molecule as does O2
|
|
What is the main factor determining GFR?
|
Glomerular capillary pressure (increased glomerular capillary pressure
|
|
What is the effect of hypoventilation on cerebral blood flow?
|
Hypoventilation results in an increase in PCO2 levels and therefore an increase in blood flow.
|
|
What cells of the thyroid gland are stimulated in response to hypercalcemia?
|
The parafollicular cells of the thyroid (C cells) release calcitonin in response to hypercalcemia.
|
|
What is the term for the amount of blood in the ventricle after maximal contraction?
|
Residual volume
|
|
What does failure of PaO2 to increase with supplemental O2 indicate?
|
Pulmonary shunt (i.e.
|
|
What two substances stimulate Sertoli cells?
|
FSH and testosterone
|
|
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of renal plasma flow?
|
Para-aminohippurate (PAH)
|
|
What bile pigment is formed by the metabolism of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria
|
giving stool its brown color?
|
|
Is ACh associated with bronchoconstriction or bronchodilation?
|
Bronchoconstriction is associated with parasympathetic stimulation (ACh)
|
|
What are the growth factors released from the liver called?
|
Somatomedins
|
|
Regarding skeletal muscle mechanics
|
what is the relationship between velocity and afterload?
|
|
What happens to extracellular volume with a net gain in body fluid?
|
The ECF compartment always enlarges when there is a net gain in total body water and decreases when there is a loss of total body water. Hydration status is named in terms of the ECF compartment.
|
|
What are the six substances that promote the secretion of insulin?
|
1. Glucose 2. Amino acid (arginine) 3. Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP) 4. Glucagon 5. β-Agonists 6. ACh
|
|
Does O2 or CO2 have a higher driving force across the alveolar membrane?
|
O2 has a higher driving force but is only one-twenty-fourth as soluble as CO2. CO 2 has a very small partial pressure difference across the alveolar membrane (47-40 = 7 mmHg)
|
|
What is used as an index for both adrenal and testicular androgens?
|
Urinary 17-ketosteroids
|
|
How are resistance and length related regarding flow?
|
Resistance and vessel length are proportionally related. The greater the length of the vessel
|
|
Is filtration greater than or less than excretion for net reabsorption to occur?
|
Filtration is greater than excretion for net reabsorption to occur.
|
|
What hormone
|
stimulated by epinephrine
|
|
True or false? Miniature end-plate potentials (MEPPs) generate action potentials.
|
FALSE
|
|
Is GH considered a gluconeogenic hormone?
|
Yes
|
|
True or false? Somatic motor neurons innervate the striated muscle of the bulbospongiosus and ischiocavernous muscles and result in ejaculation of semen.
|
TRUE
|
|
What happens to intraventricular pressure and volume during isovolumetric contraction?
|
As the name indicates
|
|
Do high levels of estrogen and progesterone block milk synthesis?
|
Yes
|
|
What two factors lead to the development of the bends (caisson disease)?
|
Breathing high-pressure nitrogen over a long time and sudden decompression result in the bends.
|
|
In what type of circuit is the total resistance always less than that of the individual resistors?
|
Parallel circuit
|
|
What is the term for days 15 to 28 in the female cycle?
|
Luteal phase
|
|
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with • Increased rate of breathing?
|
With an increased rate of breathing the total ventilation is greater than the alveolar ventilation. Rapid
|
|
What happens to total and alveolar ventilation with • Increased depth of breathing?
|
With an increased depth of breathing both the total and alveolar ventilation increase. This concept is always tested on the boards
|
|
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol decreased
|
ACTH increased
|
|
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol increased
|
ACTH increased
|
|
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol increased
|
ACTH decreased
|
|
What pathophysiologic disorder is characterized by the following changes in cortisol and ACTH? • Cortisol decreased
|
ACTH decreased
|
|
What happens to flow and pressure in capillaries with arteriolar dilation? Arteriolar constriction?
|
Capillary flow and pressure increase with arteriolar dilation and decrease with arteriolar constriction.
|
|
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
|
RPF
|
|
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
|
RPF
|
|
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
|
RPF
|
|
What has occurred to the renal arterioles based on the following changes in the GFR
|
RPF
|
|
Which direction is air flowing when the intra-alveolar pressure is zero?
|
When the intra-alveolar pressure equals zero
|
|
What phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1 to 15?
|
Follicular phase
|
|
What determines the effective osmolarity of the ICF and the ECF compartments?
|
The concentration of plasma proteins determines effective osmolarity because capillary membranes are freely permeable to all substances except proteins.
|
|
What region of the brain houses the central chemoreceptors responsible for control of ventilation?
|
The surface of the medulla
|
|
What is the site of action of cholera toxin?
|
Cholera toxin irreversibly activates the cAMP-dependent chloride pumps of the small and large intestine
|
|
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slow channels open
|
allowing calcium influx; voltage-gated potassium channels closed; potassium efflux through ungated channels; plateau stage
|
|
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slight repolarization secondary to potassium and closure of the sodium channels
|
Phase 1
|
|
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Fast channels open
|
then quickly close
|
|
Name the phase of the ventricular muscle action potential based on the following information: • Slow channels close
|
voltage-gated potassium channels reopen with a large influx of potassium
|
|
Where in the kidney are the long loops of Henle and the terminal regions of the collecting ducts?
|
In the medulla; all the other structures are cortical.
|
|
What is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?
|
Water
|
|
What type of hormone is described as having intracellular receptors
|
being synthesized as needed
|
|
What are the three stimuli that result in the reninangiotensin-aldosterone secretion?
|
1. Low pressure in the afferent renal arteriole 2. Low sodium sensed by the macula densa 3. Increased β-1-sympathetic stimulation of the JG cells
|
|
Is there a shift in p50 values with anemia? Polycythemia?
|
The p50 value does not change in either anemia or polycythemia; the main change is the carrying capacity of the blood.
|
|
What hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH and FSH in the female cycle?
|
Estradiol
|
|
True or false? Active protein transport requires a concentration gradient.
|
True; it requires both a concentration gradient and ATP to work.
|
|
Up to how many hours post ejaculation do sperm retain their ability to fertilize the ovum?
|
Up to 72 hours; the ovum losses its ability to be fertilized 8 to 25 hours after release.
|
|
What type of membrane channel opens in response to depolarization?
|
Voltage-gated channel
|
|
What are the five effects of insulin on fat metabolism?
|
1. Increased glucose uptake by fat cells 2. Increased triglyceride uptake by fat cells 3. Increased conversion of CHOs into fat 4. Decreased lipolysis in fat tissue 5. Decreased ketone body formation
|
|
True or false? In a skeletal muscle fiber
|
the interior of the T-tubule is extracellular.
|
|
Under resting conditions
|
what is the main determinant of cerebral blood flow?
|
|
On the venous pressure curve
|
what do the following waves represent? • A wave?
|
|
On the venous pressure curve
|
what do the following waves represent? • C wave?
|
|
On the venous pressure curve
|
what do the following waves represent? • V wave?
|
|
What cell type in the bone is responsible for bone deposition?
|
Osteoblast (Remember
|
|
True or false? The blood stored in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuit are considered part of the cardiac output.
|
False. Cardiac output refers to circulating blood volume. The blood in the systemic veins and the pulmonary circuits are storage reserves and therefore are not considered in cardiac output.
|
|
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↓
|
LH↓
|
|
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↑
|
LH↓
|
|
What hormone disorder is characterized by the following abnormalities in sex steroids↓
|
LH↑
|
|
What are the three characteristics of autoregulation?
|
1. Flow independent of BP 2. Flow proportional to local metabolism 3. Flow independent of nervous reflexes
|
|
What is the fastest-conducting fiber of the heart? Slowest conduction fiber in the heart?
|
Purkinje cell is the fastest
|
|
What equals the total tension on a muscle minus the preload?
|
Afterload
|
|
What follicular cell possesses FSH receptors and converts androgens into estradiol?
|
Granulosa cells
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
|
NE
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
|
Epinephrine
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Brainstem cells
|
Serotonin
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • The hypothalamus
|
Histamine
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • All motor neurons
|
postganglionic parasympathetic neurons
|
|
What are the primary neurotransmitters at the following sites? • Autonomic preganglionic neurons
|
ACh
|
|
What region of the nephron has the highest osmolarity?
|
Tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm/L)
|
|
What pH (acidotic or alkalotic) is needed for pepsinogen to pepsin conversion?
|
Acid is needed for the activation of pepsin and therefore needed for protein digestion.
|
|
What is the term for the amount of blood expelled from the ventricle per beat?
|
Stroke volume
|
|
True or false? Oxytocin initiates rhythmic contractions associated with labor.
|
False. It does increase uterine synthesis of prostaglandins
|
|
Why does carbon monoxide diffusion in the lung (DLCO) decrease in emphysema and fibrosis but increase during exercise?
|
DLCO
|
|
What enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?
|
Aromatase
|
|
The clearance of what substance is the gold standard of GFR?
|
Inulin
|
|
How does myelination affect conduction velocity of an action potential?
|
The greater the myelination
|
|
What are the three end products of amylase digestion?
|
1. Maltose 2. Maltotetrose 3. α-Limit dextrans (α-1
|
|
Where is most of the airway resistance in the respiratory system?
|
In the first and second bronchi
|
|
What is the respiratory compensation mechanism for metabolic acidosis?
|
Hyperventilation
|
|
How are resistance and viscosity related regarding flow?
|
Viscosity and resistance are proportionally related. The greater the viscosity
|
|
T3 increases bone ossification through synergistic effect with what hormone?
|
GH
|
|
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open slowly
|
Voltage-gated calcium channel
|
|
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Always open
|
Ungated potassium channel
|
|
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Closed at rest; depolarization causes channels to open quickly; will not respond to a second stimulus until cell is repolarized.
|
Voltage-gated sodium channel
|
|
Name the ventricular muscle membrane channel: • Open at rest; depolarization is stimulus to close; begin to reopen during the plateau phase and during repolarization
|
Voltage-gated potassium channels
|
|
What are the three glycogenic organs?
|
Liver
|
|
Is CO2 a perfusion-or diffusion-limited O2 gas?
|
Since CO2 is 24 times as soluble as O2
|
|
What is the term for the potential difference across a cell membrane?
|
Transmembrane potential (an absolute number)
|
|
What adrenal enzyme deficiency can be summed up as a mineralocorticoid deficiency
|
glucocorticoid deficiency
|
|
When the ECF osmolarity increases
|
what happens to cell size?
|
|
When does cortisol secretion peak?
|
In early-morning sleep
|
|
What is the term for ventilation of unperfused alveoli?
|
Alveolar dead space
|
|
What is the bioactive form of thyroid hormone?
|
T3
|
|
What acid-base disturbance occurs in colonic diarrhea
|
Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis occurs in colonic diarrhea because of the net secretion of HCO3- and potassium into the colonic lumen.
|
|
What two AAs act as excitatory transmitters in the CNS
|
generating EPSPs?
|
|
What are the three mechanisms of action for atrial natriuretic peptide's diuretic and natriuretic affects?
|
1. Dilation of the afferent arteriole 2. Constriction of the efferent arteriole 3. Inhibition of reabsorption of sodium and water in the collecting ducts
|
|
In a parallel circuit
|
what happens to resistance when a resistor is added in parallel
|
|
What component of the ANS is responsible for movement of semen from the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts?
|
Sympathetic nervous system
|
|
What happens to O2 affinity with a decrease in p50?
|
O2 affinity increases with a decrease in the p50
|
|
If the ratio of a substance's filtrate and plasma concentrations are equal
|
what is that substance's affect on the kidney?
|
|
What does a loss of afferent activity from the carotid sinus onto the medulla signal?
|
A loss of afferent activity indicates a decrease in BP
|
|
What are the five F's associated with gallstones?
|
1. Fat 2. Forty 3. Female 4. Familial 5. Fertile
|
|
True or false? Menstruation is an active process due to increased gonadal sex hormones?
|
False. It is a passive process due to decreased sex hormones.
|
|
What happens to the intrapleural pressure when the diaphragm relaxes?
|
Relaxation of the diaphragm increases the intrapleural pressure (becomes more positive).
|
|
What component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis increases sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules and increases thirst drive?
|
AT II
|
|
What large-diameter vessel has the smallest cross-sectional area in systemic circulation?
|
The aorta
|
|
Excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be detected by checking urine levels of what substance?
|
Hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)
|
|
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • A band
|
No change in length
|
|
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • I band
|
Shortens
|
|
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • H zone
|
Shortens
|
|
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • Sarcomere
|
Shortens
|
|
What happens to the following during skeletal muscle contraction? • Actin and myosin lengths
|
No change in length
|
|
What are the three effects of insulin on protein metabolism?
|
1. Increased amino acid uptake by muscles 2. Decreased protein breakdown 3. Increased protein synthesis
|
|
What is the main mechanism for exchange of nutrients and gases across a capillary membrane?
|
Simple diffusion; it does not use protein-mediated transport
|
|
What event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
|
Onset of bleeding
|
|
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; uninuclear; gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding complex; T tubules and SR forming dyadic contacts; voltage-gated calcium channels
|
Cardiac muscle
|
|
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin in sarcomeres; striated; multinuclear; lacks gap junctions; troponin:calcium binding; T tubules and SR forming triadic contacts; highest ATPase activity; no calcium channels
|
Skeletal muscle
|
|
Name the muscle type based on the histological features: • Actin and myosin not in sarcomeres; nonstriated; uninuclear; gap junctions; calmodulin:calcium binding; lacks T tubules; voltage-gated calcium channels
|
Smooth muscle
|
|
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Back-filling into the left atrium during systole; increased v-wave
|
preload
|
|
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Systolic murmur
|
increased preload and afterload
|
|
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Diastolic murmur
|
increased right ventricular pressure
|
|
Name the valve abnormality based on the following criteria: • Diastolic murmur; increased preload
|
stroke volume
|
|
Circulating levels of what hormone cause the cervical mucus to be thin and watery
|
allowing sperm an easier entry into the uterus?
|
|
What hormone controls relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing?
|
VIP is an inhibitory parasympathetic neurotransmitter that results in relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter.
|
|
What is the term for the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures?
|
Pulse pressure
|
|
What hormone
|
produced by the Sertoli cells
|
|
True or false? There are no central O2 receptors.
|
TRUE
|
|
What cell type of the bone has PTH receptors?
|
Osteoblasts
|
|
What substance is secreted by parietal glands and is required for life?
|
Intrinsic factor (IF)
|
|
What is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation?
|
Increasing blood flow is the only way to increase O2 delivery in the coronary circulation because extraction is nearly maximal during resting conditions.
|
|
What is the term for the load a muscle is trying to move during stimulation?
|
Afterload
|
|
What is the term for days 1 to 7 of the female cycle?
|
Menses
|
|
What is the term for the force the ventricular muscle must generate to expel the blood into the aorta?
|
Afterload
|
|
What happens to the tonicity of the urine with increased ADH secretion?
|
The urine becomes hypertonic because of water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
|
|
What form of renal tubular reabsorption is characterized by high back leak
|
low affinity for substance
|
|
What type of circuit is described when the total resistance is always greater than the sums of the individual resistors?
|
Series circuit
|
|
What hormone excess brings about abnormal glucose tolerance testing
|
impaired cardiac function
|
|
What happens to V/Q ratio if a thrombus is lodged in the pulmonary artery?
|
The V/Q ratio increases
|
|
What hormone has the following effects: chondrogenic in the epiphyseal end plates of bones; increases AA transport for protein synthesis; increases hydroxyproline (collagen); and increases chondroitin sulfate synthesis?
|
GH
|
|
True or false? Bile pigments and bile salts are reabsorbed in the gallbladder.
|
FALSE
|
|
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Conduction delay in the AV node
|
PR interval
|
|
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Ventricular depolarization
|
QRS complex
|
|
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Atrial depolarization
|
P wave
|
|
What component of an ECG is associated with the following? • Ventricular repolarization
|
T wave
|
|
Where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue?
|
Renal circulation
|
|
Near the end of pregnancy
|
what hormone's receptors increase in the myometrium because of elevated plasma estrogen levels?
|
|
What respiratory center in the rostral pons has an inhibitory affect on the apneustic center?
|
Pneumotaxic center (short
|
|
For what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?
|
LH
|
|
What primary acid-base disturbance is cause by a decrease in alveolar ventilation (increasing CO2 levels) resulting in the reaction shifting to the right and increasing H+ and HCO3- levels?
|
Respiratory acidosis (summary: high CO2
|
|
What lecithin: sphingomyelin ratio indicates lung maturity?
|
2.0 or greater
|
|
What is the term for the negative resting membrane potential becoming more negative?
|
Hyperpolarization (i.e.
|
|
What type of resistance system (i.e.
|
high or low) is formed when resistors are added in parallel?
|
|
Why is hypothyroidism associated with night blindness?
|
Thyroid hormones are necessary for conversion of carotene to vitamin A.
|
|
What is the FiO2 of room air?
|
0.21; it is a fancy way of saying 21% of the air is O2.
|
|
Where are the lowest resting PO2 levels in a resting individual?
|
Coronary circulation
|
|
What is the rate-limiting step in the production of steroids?
|
The conversion of CHO to pregnenolone via the enzyme desmolase
|
|
In the water deprivation test
|
does a patient with reduced urine flow have primary polydipsia or diabetes insipidus?
|
|
True or false? There is an inverse relationship between fat content and total body water.
|
True; the greater the fat
|
|
What is the role of the negative charge on the filtering membrane of the glomerular capillaries?
|
The negative charge inhibits the filtration of protein anions.
|
|
What cardiac reflex is characterized by stretch receptors in the right atrium
|
afferent and efferent limbs via the vagus nerve
|
|
Where in the GI tract does the reabsorption of bile salts take place?
|
Bile salts are actively reabsorbed in the distal ileum.
|
|
What three structures increase the surface area of the GI tract?
|
1. Plicae circularis (3 times) 2. Villi (30 times) 3. Microvilli (600 times)
|
|
Does physiologic splitting of the first heart sound occur during inspiration or expiration? Why?
|
Splitting of the first heart sound occurs during inspiration because of the increased output of the right ventricle
|
|
How much dietary iodine is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone secretion?
|
150 mcg/day is the minimal daily intake needed. Most people ingest 500 mcg/day.
|
|
What is the central chemoreceptor's main drive for ventilation?
|
CSF H+ levels
|
|
What result occurs because of the negative alveolar pressure generated during inspiration?
|
Air flows into the respiratory system.
|
|
Corticotropin-releasing hormone promotes the synthesis and release of what prohormone?
|
Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into ACTH and β-lipotropin.
|
|
What happens to free hormone levels when the liver decreases production and release of binding proteins?
|
Free hormone levels remain constant
|
|
What type of estrogen is produced in peripheral tissues from androgens?
|
Estrone
|
|
What changes does more negative intrathoracic pressure cause to systemic venous return and to the pulmonary vessels?
|
Promotes systemic venous return into the chest and increases the caliber and volume of the pulmonary vessels
|
|
Where is renin produced?
|
In the JG cells of the kidney
|
|
True or false? Right-sided valves close before the valves on the left side of the heart.
|
False. Right-sided valves are the first to open and last to close.
|
|
What enzyme is associated with osteoblastic activity?
|
Alkaline phosphatase
|
|
What is the order of attachment of O2 to Hgb-binding sites in the lung? Order of release from the binding sites in the tissue?
|
Order of attachment is site 1
|
|
What hormone is secreted into the plasma in response to a meal rich in protein or CHO?
|
Insulin
|
|
What happens to blood flow and pressure downstream with local arteriolar constriction?
|
With arteriolar constriction both the flow and pressure downstream decrease.
|
|
What occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax during swallowing due to abnormalities of the enteric nervous plexus?
|
Achalasia
|
|
True or false? Ungated channels are always open.
|
True. They have no gates
|
|
What component of the ANS is responsible for dilation of the blood vessels in the erectile tissue of the penis
|
resulting in an erection?
|
|
What muscle type is characterized by low ATPase activity
|
aerobic metabolism
|
|
What happens to diastolic and systolic intervals with an increase in sympathetic activity?
|
Systolic interval decreases secondary to increased contractility; diastolic interval decreases secondary to an increase in heart rate.
|
|
Circulating levels of what hormone in men is responsible for the negative feedback loop to the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland regulating the release of LH?
|
Testosterone
|
|
How are pulse pressure and compliance related?
|
They are inversely proportional to each other; as pulse pressure increases
|
|
What three substances stimulate parietal cells?
|
ACh
|
|
What two factors result in the base of the lung being hyperperfused?
|
Increased pulmonary arterial pressure (high perfusion) and more distensible vessels (low resistance) result in increased blood flow at the base.
|
|
True or false? Without ADH the collecting duct would be impermeable to water.
|
True. Without ADH hypotonic urine would be formed.
|
|
How does ventricular depolarization take place
|
base to apex or vice versa?
|
|
What are effects of PTH in the kidney?
|
PTH increases Ca2+ reabsorption in the DCT of the kidney and decreases PO4- reabsorption in the PCT.
|
|
Regarding muscle mechanics
|
how is passive tension produced?
|
|
Insulin-induced hypoglycemia is the most reliable (by far not the safest) test for what hormone deficiency?
|
GH deficiency
|
|
In regards to solute concentration
|
how does water flow?
|
|
Which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCl concentrations?
|
Macula densa
|
|
If the AV difference is positive
|
is the substance extracted or produced by the organ?
|
|
What is used as an index of the number of functioning carriers for a substance in active reabsorption in the kidney?
|
Transport maximum (Tm) occurs when all function carriers are saturated and therefore is an index of the number of functioning carriers.
|
|
Why is there a transcellular shift in K+ levels in a diabetic patient who becomes acidotic?
|
The increased H+ moves intracellularly and is buffered by K+ leaving the cells
|
|
True or false? Catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) is not found in smooth muscle
|
liver
|
|
What somatomedin serves as a 24-hour marker of GH secretion?
|
IGF-1 (somatomedin C)
|
|
What receptor is in the smooth muscle cells of the small bronchi
|
is stimulated during inflation
|
|
True or false? Thyroid hormones are necessary for normal menstrual cycles.
|
True. They are also necessary for normal brain maturation.
|
|
What component of the cardiovascular system has the largest blood volume? Second largest blood volume?
|
The systemic veins have the largest blood volume
|
|
Serum concentration of what substance is used as a clinical measure of a patient's GFR?
|
Creatinine
|
|
Where does CHO digestion begin?
|
In the mouth with salivary α-amylase (ptyalin)
|
|
How does the sympathetic nervous system affect insulin secretion?
|
It decreases insulin secretion.
|
|
How does cell diameter affect the conduction velocity of an action potential?
|
The greater the cell diameter
|
|
Calf pseudohypertrophy
|
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
|
|
Kayser-Fleischer rings
|
Wilson disease
|
|
Aschoff bodies
|
Rheumatic fever
|
|
Curschmann spirals
|
Bronchial asthma (whorled mucous plugs)
|
|
Charcot-Leyden crystals
|
Bronchial asthma (eosinophil membranes)
|
|
Keratin pearls
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
Bence-Jones proteinuria
|
Multiple myeloma
|
|
Russell bodies
|
Multiple myeloma
|
|
WBCs in the urine
|
Acute cystitis
|
|
RBCs in the urine
|
Bladder carcinoma
|
|
RBC casts in the urine
|
Acute glomerulonephritis
|
|
WBC casts in the urine
|
Acute pyelonephritis
|
|
Renal epithelial casts in the urine
|
Acute toxic or viral nephrosis
|
|
Waxy casts
|
Chronic end-stage renal disease
|
|
Signet ring cells
|
Gastric carcinoma
|
|
Heinz bodies
|
G-6-PD deficiency
|
|
Mallory bodies
|
Chronic alcoholic
|
|
Auer rods
|
AML-M3
|
|
Starry sky pattern
|
Burkitt lymphoma
|
|
Birbeck granules
|
Histiocytosis X
|
|
Reed-Sternberg cells
|
Hodgkin lymphoma
|
|
Call-Exner bodies
|
Granulosa/thecal cell tumor of the ovary
|
|
Cowdry type A bodies
|
Herpesvirus
|
|
Orphan Annie cells
|
Papillary carcinoma of the ovary
|
|
Streaky ovaries
|
Turner syndrome
|
|
Blue-domed cysts
|
Fibrocystic change of the breast
|
|
Reinke crystals
|
Leydig cell tumor
|
|
Schiller-Duval bodies
|
Yolk sac tumor
|
|
Codman triangle on radiograph
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
Councilman bodies
|
Toxic or viral hepatitis
|
|
Blue sclera
|
Osteogenesis imperfecta
|
|
Soap bubble appearance on radiograph
|
Giant cell tumor of the bone
|
|
Pseudorosettes
|
Ewing sarcoma
|
|
Neurofibrillary tangles
|
Alzheimer disease
|
|
Homer-Wright rosettes
|
Neuroblastoma
|
|
Lewy bodies
|
Parkinson disease
|
|
Lucid interval
|
Epidural hematoma
|
|
Bloody tap on lumbar puncture
|
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
|
|
Pseudopalisades
|
Glioblastoma multiforme
|
|
Senile plaques
|
Alzheimer disease
|
|
Café-au-lait spot on the skin
|
Neurofibromatosis
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Blindness worldwide
|
Chlamydia trachomatis
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Blindness in the United States
|
Diabetes mellitus
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Dementia in persons aged 60 to 90 years
|
Alzheimer disease
|
|
Name the most common type. • Learning disability
|
Dyslexia
|
|
Name the most common type. • Mental retardation
|
Fetal alcohol syndrome
|
|
Name the most common type. • Phobia
|
Stage fright (discrete performance anxiety)
|
|
Name the most common type. • Psychiatric disorder in women of all ages
|
Anxiety disorders; for men it is substance abuse.
|
|
Name the most common type. • Specific phobia
|
Public speaking (Remember: stage fright)
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Chronic pancreatitis
|
Alcohol abuse
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Infectious pancreatitis
|
Mumps
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Insomnia
|
Depression
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Hospitalization in children younger than 1 year of age
|
RSV
|
|
Name the most common cause. • Croup
|
Parainfluenza virus
|
|
Name the most common cause. • A cold in the winter and summer
|
Coronavirus
|
|
Name the most common cause. • A cold in the spring and fall
|
Rhinovirus
|
|
Which virus is the MCC of a cold in the summer and fall? Winter and spring?
|
Rhinoviruses for summer and fall; coronaviruses for winter and spring
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Restrictive cardiomyopathy
|
Amyloidosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Death in the United States
|
Ischemic heart disease (MIs)
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Sudden cardiac death
|
Ventricular fibrillation (V fib)
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Right heart failure
|
Left heart failure
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Childhood heart disease in the United States
|
Congenital heart disease
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Cyanotic heart disease
|
Tetralogy of Fallot
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Subacute bacterial endocarditis
|
Streptococcus viridans
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute bacterial endocarditis
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Viral pneumonia leading to death
|
RSV
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Infection in a patient on a ventilator
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Bronchiolitis in children
|
RSV
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Pulmonary HTN in children
|
VSD
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Reversible HTN in the United States
|
Alcohol abuse
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Spontaneous pneumothorax
|
Emphysematous bleb
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Nonorganic pneumoconiosis
|
Asbestosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Cellular injury
|
Hypoxia
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Hypoxia
|
Ischemia
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Lobar pneumonia
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Lung abscess
|
Aspiration
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Cirrhosis in the United States
|
Alcohol consumption
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephrotic syndrome
|
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MGN)
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephrotic syndrome in children
|
Lipoid nephrosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Liver transplantation in adults
|
Alcoholic cirrhosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • UTIs
|
Escherichia coli
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Urinary tract obstruction
|
BPH
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Painless hematuria
|
Renal cell carcinoma
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Hematuria
|
Infection
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • GN in the world
|
IgA nephropathy
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic syndrome in children
|
Minimal change disease
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Nephritic syndrome in adults
|
MGN
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute renal failure in the United States
|
Acute tubular necrosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute tubular necrosis
|
Ischemic
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Diarrhea in children
|
Rotavirus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Intestinal obstructions in adults
|
Adhesions and hernias
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal bowel obstruction
|
Hirschsprung disease
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Rectal bleeding
|
Diverticulosis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Mallory-Weiss syndrome
|
Alcoholism
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Anovulation
|
Polycystic ovaries
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Breast lump in females
|
Fibrocystic change of the breast
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Hematologic cause of papillary necrosis
|
Sickle cell disease
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Panhypopituitarism
|
Sheehan syndrome
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Cushing syndrome
|
Pituitary adenoma
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Noniatrogenic hypothyroidism in the United States
|
Hashimoto thyroiditis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Hypothyroidism in the United States
|
Iatrogenesis
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Pyogenic osteomyelitis
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Neonatal septicemia and meningitis
|
Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B Streptococcus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Sinusitis and otitis media in children
|
Pneumococcus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis in adults
|
Pneumococcus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Meningitis in renal transplantation patients
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile bacterial diarrhea
|
Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (Rotavirus is the MCC overall.)
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Infantile diarrhea
|
Rotavirus
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Chancre
|
Haemophilus ducreyi
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Urethritis in a young
|
newly sexually active individual
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Cystitis
|
Escherichia coli
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Erysipelas
|
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Chronic metal poisoning
|
Lead
|
|
Name the most common type or cause. • Acute metal poisoning in the United States
|
Arsenic
|
|
Name the MCC of death. • In neonates
|
Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
|
|
Name the MCC of death. • In SLE
|
Renal failure
|
|
Name the MCC of death. • In diabetic individuals
|
MI
|
|
Name the MCC of death. • In patients with cystic fibrosis
|
Pulmonary infections
|
|
What is the MCC of death in the United States?
|
Heart disease
|
|
What is the second leading cause of death in the United States?
|
Cancer
|
|
What is the MCC of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
|
Accidents
|
|
What is the second leading cause of death in children aged 1 to 14 in the United States?
|
Cancer
|
|
What is the MCC of cancer mortality in males and females?
|
Lung cancer
|
|
What is the second leading cause of cancer deaths in males? In females?
|
For males it's prostate cancer
|
|
What is the MCC of death in black males aged 15 to 24?
|
Homicide. It is also the leading cause of death in black females aged 15 to 24.
|
|
What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? • Less than 35 years old
|
Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis
|
|
What are the two MCC of acute epididymitis in males? • More than 35 years old
|
Escherichia coli and Pseudomonas sp.
|
|
What is the most common causative organism of acne vulgaris?
|
Propionibacterium acnes
|
|
What is the MCC of viral conjunctivitis?
|
Adenovirus
|
|
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Post dental work
|
Streptococcus viridans
|
|
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Following biliary infections
|
Enterococcus faecalis
|
|
What is the MCC of the following endocarditis scenarios? • Non-IV drug user
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
Name the MCC. • Epiglottitis in an unvaccinated child
|
Haemophilus influenzae type B
|
|
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in adults
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a neutropenic burn patient
|
Pseudomonas sp.
|
|
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in a patient with atypical bird exposure and hepatitis
|
Chlamydia psittaci
|
|
Name the MCC. • Walking pneumonia
|
seen in teens and military recruits
|
|
Name the MCC. • Aspiration pneumonia in an alcoholic
|
Klebsiella pneumoniae
|
|
Name the MCC. • Pneumonia in an HIV-positive patient with CD4 less than 200
|
Pneumocystis carinii
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In patients who have AIDS or are immunocompromised
|
Cryptococcus
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In military recruits
|
Neisseria meningitides
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In those 12 months to 6 years of age
|
Haemophilus influenzae type B
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In neonates to 3 months of age
|
Streptococcus agalactiae and Escherichia coli
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In adults
|
Streptococcus pneumoniae
|
|
What is the MCC of the following meningitides? • In renal transplant patients
|
Listeria monocytogenes
|
|
What is the most common one? • Helminthic parasite worldwide
|
Ascaris lumbricoides
|
|
What is the most common one? • Helminth parasitic infection in the United States
|
Enterobius vermicularis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Form of necrosis
|
Coagulative
|
|
What is the most common one? • Organism that causes pyelonephritis
|
Escherichia coli
|
|
What is the most common one? • Congenital cardiac anomaly
|
VSD
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly in children
|
PDA
|
|
What is the most common one? • Complication of PDA
|
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Congenital heart defect in adults
|
ASD
|
|
What is the most common one? • Type of ASD
|
Ostium secundum defects
|
|
What is the most common one? • Vasculitis
|
Temporal arteritis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Form of vasculitis
|
Temporal arteritis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cardiac tumor
|
Left atrial myxoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cardiac tumor of infancy
|
Rhabdomyoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cardiac pathology in patients with SLE
|
Libman-Sacks endocarditis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cardiac anomaly in Turner syndrome
|
Coarctation of the aorta
|
|
What is the most common one? • Valve abnormality associated with rheumatic fever
|
Mitral valve stenosis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Viral cause of myocarditis
|
Coxsackie B
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary lung cancer
|
Adenocarcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the lungs
|
Adenocarcinoma (30% to 35%)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Neoplastic tumor in the lungs
|
Metastatic carcinomas
|
|
What is the most common one? • Bladder tumor
|
Transitional cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Renal calculus type
|
Calcium oxylate
|
|
What is the most common one? • Kidney stone type
|
Calcium oxalate
|
|
What is the most common one? • Solid tumor in children
|
Neuroblastoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Renal pathology in patients with SLE
|
Diffuse proliferative GN
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cancer of the esophagus in the world
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? Esophageal cancer in the United States
|
Adenocarcinoma (because of Barrett esophagus)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of the esophagus
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign GI tumor
|
Leiomyoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site of ischemia in the GI tract
|
Splenic flexure
|
|
What is the most common one? • Type of PUD
|
Duodenal ulcers (4 times as common as gastric)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Location of a duodenal ulcer
|
Anterior wall of the first part of the duodenum
|
|
What is the most common one? • Location of a gastric ulcer
|
Lesser curvature of the antrum of the stomach
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site for carcinoid tumors
|
Appendix (second is terminal ileum)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site for colonic diverticula
|
Sigmoid colon
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site of Crohn disease
|
Terminal ileum
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site of ulcerative colitis
|
Rectum
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site of pancreatic cancer
|
Head of the pancreas
|
|
What is the most common one? • Pancreatic islet cell tumor
|
Insulinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Stone type associated with cholecystitis
|
Mixed (both cholesterol and calcium)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Liver tumor
|
Metastatic carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor in the liver
|
Hepatocellular carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary tumor of the liver
|
Hemangioma (benign)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Organism associated with liver abscesses
|
Entamoeba histolytica
|
|
What is the most common one? • Renal cell cancer type
|
Clear cell
|
|
What is the most common one? • Esophageal carcinoma
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Solid tumor in the body
|
Nephroblastoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignancy in children
|
ALL
|
|
What is the most common one? • Lymph node affected in non-Hodgkin lymphoma
|
Periaortic lymph nodes
|
|
What is the most common one? • Subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma
|
Nodular sclerosis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Thyroid cancer
|
Papillary carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Thyroid adenoma
|
Follicular adenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant thyroid tumor
|
Papillary carcinoma of the thyroid
|
|
What is the most common one? • Pituitary tumor
|
Chromophobe adenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Pituitary adenoma
|
Prolactinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor arising within the bone
|
Multiple myeloma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor on sun-exposed sites
|
Basal cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant germ cell tumor in women
|
Choriocarcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the ovary
|
Serocystadenocarcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor in women
|
Breast
|
|
What is the most common one? • Cancer of the vulva
|
Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the world
|
Cervical neoplasia
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary malignant tumor of the female genital tract in the United States
|
Adenocarcinoma of the cervix
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor of the female genitourinary tract
|
Leiomyoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign tumor of the ovary
|
Serocystadenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign tumor of the breast
|
Fibroadenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign breast tumor in females less than 35 years old
|
Fibroadenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Histologic variant of breast cancer
|
Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign lesion that affects the breast
|
Fibrocystic change of the breast
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor of the breast
|
Invasive ductal carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Female genital tract malignancy resulting in death
|
Ovarian cancer
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignancy of the female genital tract
|
Endometrial cancer
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor of the female genital tract
|
Leiomyoma (fibroids)
|
|
What is the most common one? • Benign ovarian tumor
|
Cystadenoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant carcinoma of the ovaries
|
Cystadenocarcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Stromal tumor of the ovary
|
Ovarian fibroma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor of the ovary
|
Dysgerminoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor in men aged 15 to 35
|
Testicular tumors
|
|
What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in men over 50 years old
|
Testicular lymphoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor in men
|
Seminoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Testicular tumor in infants and children
|
Yolk sac tumor
|
|
What is the most common one? • Germ cell tumor in boys
|
Yolk sac tumor
|
|
What is the most common one? • Malignant tumor in the bone of teenagers
|
Osteosarcoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Intraspinal tumor
|
Ependymoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Eye tumor in children
|
Retinoblastoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Organ involved in amyloidosis
|
Kidney
|
|
What is the most common one? • Complication of nasogastric tube feeding
|
Aspiration pneumonia
|
|
What is the most common one? • Acquired GI emergency of infancy
|
Necrotizing enterocolitis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Organism associated with mastitis
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
What is the most common one? • Tumor in individuals exposed to asbestos
|
Bronchogenic carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Proliferative abnormality of an internal organ
|
BPH
|
|
What is the most common one? • Inflammatory arthritis
|
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Form of muscular dystrophy
|
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
|
|
What is the most common one? • Joint affected in pseudogout
|
Knee
|
|
What is the most common one? • Route for infectious arthritis
|
Hematogenous
|
|
What is the most common one? • Form of arthritis
|
Osteoarthritis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Route of spread in pyogenic osteomyelitis
|
Hematogenous
|
|
What is the most common one? • Bone disorder in the United States
|
Osteoporosis
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary tumor metastasis to the bone
|
Breast
|
|
What is the most common one? • Bone tumor
|
Metastatic
|
|
What is the most common one? • Neurotransmitter in the brain
|
GABA
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site of a cerebral infarct
|
Middle cerebral artery
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor in adults
|
Glioblastoma multiforme
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor in children
|
Medulla blastoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Brain tumor
|
Metastatic
|
|
What is the most common one? • Primary CNS tumor
|
Glioblastoma multiforme
|
|
What is the most common one? • Intramedullary spinal cord tumor in adults
|
Ependymoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Location of ependymomas in children
|
In children
|
|
What is the most common one? • Melanoma in dark-skinned persons
|
Acral-lentiginous melanoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Type of melanoma
|
Superficial spreading melanoma
|
|
What is the most common one? • Skin tumor in the United States
|
Basal cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the most common one? Site of congenital diaphragmatic hernias
|
Left posterolateral side of the diaphragm
|
|
What is the most common one? • Type of hernia seen in males more than 50 years old
|
Direct; in males less than 50 years old indirect hernias are the most common type.
|
|
What is the most common one? • Sites for abdominal aorta aneurysm
|
Between the renal arteries and at the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site for atherosclerotic plaques in the abdominal aorta
|
The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
|
|
What is the most common one? • Site for an ectopic abdominal pregnancy
|
The rectouterine pouch (of Douglas)
|
|
What is the most common site for implantation of the blastocyst?
|
On the superior body of the posterior wall of the uterus
|
|
Where is the most frequent site of ectopic pregnancy?
|
Ampulla of the fallopian tube
|
|
What is the most common diagnosis made (or missed!) resulting in a malpractice suit?
|
Breast cancer
|
|
What is the most common serotype of enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli?
|
0157:H7
|
|
What is the most common circulation Ig in the plasma?
|
IgG
|
|
What is the most common cancer diagnosed in men? In women?
|
In men it is prostate cancer
|
|
What is the second most common cancer diagnosed in both males and females?
|
Lung and bronchus cancer
|
|
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related death in men?
|
Prostate and lung cancer
|
|
What are the two leading causes of cancer-related death in women?
|
Breast and lung cancer
|
|
What is the most common primary diagnosis resulting in an office visit for males? For females?
|
For males
|
|
What is the most common disease or infection reported to the CDC?
|
Chlamydia; gonorrhea is second (Remember
|
|
What is the most common STD?
|
HPV
|
|
Name the most common reported STD. • In females
|
Chlamydia
|
|
Name the most common reported STD. • In males
|
Gonorrhea
|
|
What is the most common sexual assault?
|
Pedophilia
|
|
What is the most common form of elderly abuse?
|
Nearly 50% of all reported cases of elderly abuse are due to neglect. Physical
|
|
What is the most common complement deficiency?
|
C2 deficiency
|
|
What is the most common organ involved in amyloidosis?
|
Kidney
|
|
What is the most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
|
Follicular lymphoma
|
|
In which quadrant is breast cancer most commonly found?
|
Upper outer quadrant (left more than right)
|
|
What is the most common cardiac tumor? In what chamber does it most commonly arise?
|
90% of benign myxomas arise within the left atrium near the fossa ovalis.
|
|
What cerebral lobes are most commonly affected in herpes encephalitis?
|
Temporal lobes
|
|
What is the most common condition leading to an intracerebral bleed?
|
HTN
|
|
What carpal bone is most commonly fractured? Dislocated?
|
The scaphoid is the most commonly fractured and the lunate is the most commonly dislocated.
|
|
What is the costliest health care problem in the United States?
|
Alcohol and its related problems cost the country approximately $100 billion a year.
|
|
What is the most abused drug across all age groups?
|
Alcohol. Nearly 10% of adults have a problem with alcohol.
|
|
What are the two most common chains of the TCR?
|
α-and β-chains are on most T cells.
|
|
What is the most common form of inherited dwarfism?
|
Achondroplasia
|
|
What is the most common lethal AR disorder affecting white Americans?
|
Cystic fibrosis
|
|
What is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation?
|
Down syndrome (it is slightly more common than fragile X syndrome.)
|
|
What is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL?
|
Trisomy 12 (nearly 50% of patients with CLL have abnormal karyotypes.)
|
|
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal disorder
|
Down syndrome (trisomy 21)
|
|
Name the most common one. • Heart defect in Down syndrome
|
Endocardial cushion defect
|
|
Name the most common one. • Chromosomal disorder involving sex chromosomes
|
Klinefelter syndrome
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • CML
|
Chromosome 9
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Ewing sarcoma
|
Chromosome 11
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Adult familial polyposis
|
Chromosome 5
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Burkitt lymphoma
|
Chromosome 8
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)
|
Chromosome 15
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • M3 AML
|
Chromosome 15
|
|
Name the associated chromosomal translocation. • Follicular lymphoma
|
Chromosome 14
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Cri-du-chat
|
Chromosome 5p
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Patau syndrome
|
Chromosome 13
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Huntington disease
|
Chromosome 4p
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Familial hypercholesterolemia
|
Chromosome 19
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Gaucher disease
|
Chromosome 1
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Niemann-Pick disease
|
Chromosome 11p
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Tay-Sachs disease
|
Chromosome 15q
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Cystic fibrosis
|
Chromosome 7
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
|
Chromosome 12
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Marfan disease
|
Chromosome 15
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Neurofibromatosis type 1
|
Chromosome 17
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Neurofibromatosis type 2
|
Chromosome 22q
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Down syndrome
|
Chromosome 21
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Edward syndrome
|
Chromosome 18
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • VON Hippel-Lindau disease
|
Chromosome 3p
|
|
What is the most common chromosomal disorder?
|
Down syndrome
|
|
What is the MCC of inherited mental retardation?
|
Down syndrome
|
|
What is the most common lysosomal storage disorder?
|
Gaucher disease
|
|
What chromosome is mutant in patients with cystic fibrosis?
|
Patients with cystic fibrosis have a mutation in the chloride channel protein in the CFTR gene on chromosome 7.
|
|
Familial hypercholesteremia is due to a mutation in the LDL receptor gene. What chromosome carries it?
|
Chromosome 19
|
|
What chromosome is associated with the AR form of SCID?
|
Chromosome 20q (deficiency in adenosine deaminase)
|
|
On what chromosome is the adenomatous polyposis coli gene?
|
Chromosome 5q21
|
|
Name the associated chromosome. • Albinism
|
Chromosome 11p
|
|
What mineral is associated with impaired glucose tolerance?
|
Chromium (Cr)
|
|
What mineral is associated with hypothyroidism?
|
Iodine (I)
|
|
What mineral is an important component of the enzyme xanthine oxidase?
|
Molybdenum (Mb)
|
|
What vitamin deficiency produces angular stomatitis
|
glossitis
|
|
What vitamin is a component of the coenzyme thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)?
|
Thymine (B1)
|
|
Avidin decreases the absorption of what vitamin?
|
Biotin. Avidin is found in raw egg whites.
|
|
What are the four Ds of niacin deficiency?
|
1. Diarrhea 2. Dermatitis 3. Dementia 4. Death
|
|
What mineral is an important component of glutathione peroxidase?
|
Selenium (Se)
|
|
What mineral deficiency in children is associated with poor growth and impaired sexual development?
|
Zinc (Zn) deficiency
|
|
What mineral
|
via excessive depositions in the liver
|
|
What vitamin is needed for the production of heme?
|
Pyridoxine (B6)
|
|
What vitamin is a component of the enzymes fatty acid synthase and acyl CoA?
|
Pantothenic acid
|
|
What vitamin deficiency produces homocystinuria and methylmalonic aciduria?
|
Cyanocobalamin (B12) deficiency (Folic acid deficiency has only homocystinuria as a sign.)
|
|
What vitamin deficiency is evidenced by poor wound healing
|
loose teeth
|
|
What are the three carboxylase enzymes that require biotin?
|
Pyruvate
|
|
What vitamin requires IF for absorption?
|
Cyanocobalamin (B12)
|
|
What mineral is a component of cytochrome a/a3?
|
Copper
|
|
Leukopenia
|
neutropenia
|
|
What vitamin deficiency causes a glove-and-stocking neuropathy seen in alcoholics?
|
Pyridoxine (B6) deficiency
|
|
What mineral deficiency involves blood vessel fragility?
|
Copper deficiency
|
|
Megaloblastic anemia and thrombocytopenia are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
|
Folic acid deficiency
|
|
What vitamin deficiency can result in high-output cardiac failure?
|
Thiamine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Carbon monoxide (CO)
|
Oxygen
|
|
Name the antidote. • Mercury
|
Dimercaprol
|
|
Name the antidote. • Isoniazid
|
Pyridoxine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Atropine
|
Physostigmine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Arsenic
|
Dimercaprol
|
|
Name the antidote. • Digoxin
|
Antidigoxin Fab fragments
|
|
Name the antidote. • Gold
|
Dimercaprol
|
|
Name the antidote. • Ethylene glycol
|
Ethyl alcohol
|
|
Name the antidote. • Opioids
|
Naloxone
|
|
Name the antidote. • Organophosphates
|
Atropine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Warfarin
|
Vitamin K
|
|
Name the antidote. • Copper
|
D-Penicillamine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Heparin
|
Protamine sulfate
|
|
Name the antidote. • Iron
|
Deferoxamine
|
|
Name the antidote. • Cyanide
|
Amyl nitrate
|
|
Name the antidote. • Methyl alcohol
|
Ethyl alcohol
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Name the antidote. • Acetaminophen
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N-Acetylcysteine
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Name the antidote. • Nitrates
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Methylene blue
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Name the antidote. • Lead
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Penicillamine
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Name the antidote. • Benzodiazepines
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Flumazenil
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Name the antidote. • AChE inhibitors
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Atropine with pralidoxime
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Name the antidote. • Anticholinergics
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Physostigmine
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A known IV drug abuser goes to the ER with respiratory depression and pinpoint pupils and in a semicomatose state. What overdose do you suspect
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and what agent will you give to reverse its effects?
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Cherry red intoxication is associated with what form of poisoning?
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CO
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What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Occupational nitrous oxide exposure
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Anemia
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What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Methoxyflurane
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Nephrotoxicity
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What toxicities are caused by the following agents? • Halothane
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Hepatitis
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What are the first signs of overdose from phenobarbitals?
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Nystagmus and ataxia
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What are the three signs of morphine overdose?
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Pinpoint pupils
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What is the major pulmonary side effect of µ-activators?
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Respiratory depression
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What are the two side effects of opioids to which the user will not develop tolerance?
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Constipation and miosis
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