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901 Cards in this Set
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- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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What did Levine and Campbell state?
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They stated that ethnocentrism is truly a universal phenomenon in which the ethnic group tries to prove they are superior.
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Is ethnocentrism universal?
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Yes, it is universal.
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What is ethnocentrism?
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A universal phenomenon that can promote a sense of patriotism and national sovereignty, and can promote stability and pride, yet danger in the nuclear age.
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What is Modal Personality?
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Derived from the statistical concept of the mode, it refers to a composite personality which is the most typical profile of a given group of people. It is the personality which is characteristic of the group in question.
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What is Social Exchange Theory?
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It postulates that a relationship will ensue if the rewards are greater than the costs. It assumes that rewards are things or factors we like, while costs are things we dislike. The theory assumes that a positive relationship is characterized by "profit" and reward - cost = profit.
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What is the Complementarity Theory?
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It states that a relationship becomes stronger as two people's personality needs mesh. Indicates that one personality can make up for what is lacking or missing in the other personality.
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What is Balance Theory?
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It postulates that moving from cognitive inconsistency to consistency and a tendency to achieve a balanced cognitive state.
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What is dissonance?
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Inconsistent thoughts. Most counselors agree that it is a distasteful state of mind which the individual will attempt to change.
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What are the best predictors of retirement adjustment?
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Financial security and health.
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What is Terminal Drop?
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It postulates that a decrease in intellectual functioning does occur, but even according to this theory, it only occurs during the final five years of life.
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What is the "cultural approach to normality"?
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It suggests that the behaviors of the majority of the people defines what is considered "normal."
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What does E. Fuller Torrey explain in his book?
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He explains that in other cultures, it might not be the norm to see a stranger and receive pay for providing help. In some cultures, therapists cannot accept a fee unless the treatment is successful.
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What theories is Leon Festinger known for?
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He described cognitive dissonance theory and the theory of social comparison.
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Who is credited with Cognitive Dissonance Theory?
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Leon Festinger
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What is the principle of altruism as it relates to bystanders assisting a victim?
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The number of people who will help a victim in distress decreases, and the time it will take to intervene increases, as the number of bystanders increases.
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What are ego defense mechanisms?
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Unconscious processes which serve to minimize anxiety and protect the self from the severe id or superego demands. They are unconscious strategies, which distort reality and are based on self-deception to protect our self-image.
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What are ways to reduce dissonance?
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Denial, Consistent Cognitions
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What is Cognitive Dissonance Theory?
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It postulates that individuals will look for things which are consistent with his or her behavior. The discrepancies or inconsistencies that create tension are caused by cognitions and attitudes. Also: Consistency is considered a desirable personality trait in most cultures.
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What do upper and middle class citizens in the US want a counselor to do?
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They want a counselor who will help them work it out on their own. These citizens tend to value independence and would not want to be dependent on a therapist, their parents, etc.
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What do members of a traditional culture which places a high premium on authority figures expect from a counselor?
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They would expect to receive advice, to be assigned homework and teaching, and would not accept counselor passivity. In other words, an active-directive model.
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What is Person-Centered Therapy?
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It is considered nonjudgmental and thus is considered a superb modality for multicultural/multiracial usage (unless that culture expects structure and/or authority from a helper). This method is often used more than other models to help promote understanding between cultures and races.
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What is "therapeutic surrender"?
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It is when the client psychologically surrenders themselves to a counselor from a different culture and becomes open with feelings and thoughts. It occurs when a client is able to trust the counselor and self-discloses. It is a term used frequently in intercultural counseling. Language barriers, on the part of the client or the counselor, intensify its difficulty.
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Which gender is more likely to have difficulty expressing feelings?
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Males.
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What is Assimilation-Contrast Theory?
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It postulates that a client will perceive a counselor's statement that is somewhat like his or her own as even more similar (i.e., an assimilation error). He or she would perceive dissimilar attitudes as even more dissimilar (i.e., contrast error). In any case, if a counselor is highly regarded and trustworthy, his or her statements will be better accepted than if the helper has poor credibility.
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What is an assimilation error?
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When a client perceives a counselor's statement that is somewhat like his or her own as even more similar.
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What is a contrast error?
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When a client perceives a counselor's statement that is dissimilar to his or her own as even more dissimilar.
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What is structuring in the context of multicultural counseling?
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It indicates that the counselor will explain the role of the helper as well as the role of the helpee. This helps ward off embarrassment and further enhances the effectiveness of the counseling process. The greater the social/cultural gap, the more important the need for this.
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What are the three major barriers to intercultural counseling?
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Culture-bound values, class-bound values, and language differences.
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Who are Atkinson, Morten, and Sue?
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Identified major boundaries for intercultural counseling.
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Who identified major boundaries for intercultural counseling?
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Atkinson, Morten, and Sue.
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What is connotative error?
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Often referred to as "semantic differential." It applies to the emotional content of a word, which is different than the true or dictionary definition.
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What is semantic differential?
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Often referred to as "connotative error." It applies to the emotional content of a word, which is different than the true or dictionary definition.
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Who is Viktor Frankl?
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The Father of Logotherapy. Experienced a concentration camp.
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What is Logotherapy?
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An existential form of treatment which stresses "healing through meaning."
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Who founded Logotherapy?
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Viktor Frankl
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Who is Fritz Perls?
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Father of Gestalt Therapy.
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What is Gestalt Therapy?
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It attempts to ameliorate a mind/body split supposedly responsible for emotional distress. It is a German word which roughly means the "whole" form, figure, or configuration.
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What is important about Brown vs. the Board of Education?
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It is the 1954 Supreme Court decision which outlawed public school segregation. Desegregation created culturally different populations for school counselors.
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What Supreme Court decision outlawed desegregation in public schools?
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Brown vs. the Board of Education (1954)
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What is eclecticism?
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A position that involves selecting treatment intervention strategies from diverse counseling models.
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Who is J. G. Draguns?
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He suggested that the emic-etic distinction in cross-cultural counseling.
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What is the emic viewpoint?
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It emphasizes that each client is an individual with individual differences. It is an anthropological term based on the word "emigration."
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What is the etic viewpoint?
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It adheres to the theory that humans are humans -- regardless of background and culture - thus, the same theories and techniques can be applied to any client the counselor helps.
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Who suggested the emic-etic distinction in cross-cultural counseling?
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J. G. Draguns.
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What is the "autoplastic" view?
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It asserts that change comes from within.
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What is the "alloplastic" view?
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The conceptualization that the client can cope best by changing or altering external factors in the environment.
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What is the opposite of "love"?
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Uncertainty.
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What is personalism with regard to multicultural counseling?
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It implies that the counselor will make the best progress if he or she sees the client primarily as a person who has learned a set of survival skills rather than a diseased patient. All people must adjust to the environmental and geological demands. Fierce environmental conditions, such as living in a desert or a poverty-stricken neighborhood, cause individuals to cooperate with each other more and stick together as a group. This, nevertheless, can cause problems for the counselor who has never lived in a ghetto or a desert and hence is seen as an outsider. The "person," who has lived in the ghetto or desert, will want to check out the counselor's authenticity as a "person," and a counselor who keeps his or her "professional distance" runs the risk of being seen as superficial.
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What is the best modality for a multicultural counselor?
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A flexible, eclectic model
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What is pluralism?
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It literally means that an individual exists in more than one category. Cultural pluralism occurs when persons of a cultural heritage retain their traditions and differences, yet cooperate in regard to social, political, and economic matters. In counseling, per se, the term suggests that certain categories of individuals (e.g., women, handicapped, older adults, etc.) often need special services.
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What is social facilitation?
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It postulates that an individual who is given the task of memorizing a list of numbers will perform better if he or she is part of a group. Developed by F. H. Allport. The presence of other persons (e.g., coworkers, athletes, etc.) improves an individual's performance even when there is no verbal interaction.
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Who is F. H. Allport?
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He created the concept of social facilitation.
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What is the sleeper effect?
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It asserts that when you are attempting to change someone's opinion the change my not occur immediately after the verbal exchange. After a period of time, one forgets the communicator but remembers the message.
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Who is William McDougal?
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He wrote Introduction to Social Psychology, which expounded on his "hormic psychology" position that individual as well as group behavior is the result of inherited tendencies to seek goals.
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Who is Ross?
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He authored Social Psychology.
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Who is Jacob Moreno?
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He pioneered psychodrama and coined the term "group therapy."
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Who coined the term "group therapy"?
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Jacob Moreno.
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Who pioneered psychodrama?
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Jacob Moreno.
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Who is Irvin Yalom?
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An existentialist who is well-known for his strides in group work.
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Who is John Holland?
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He stressed that a person's occupational environment should be congruent with his or her personality type.
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Who is Anne Roe?
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She postulated that jobs can compensate for unmet childhood needs.
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Who is T. X. Barber?
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He espoused a cognitive theory hypnotism.
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Who is Andrew Slater?
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He was a pioneer in the behavior therapy, hypnosis, and autohypnosis movements.
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Who is Stanley Milgram?
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He is associated with obedience and authority. In one of the most shocking and frightening investigations of all time, he discovered that people who were told to give others powerful electric shocks did so on command. The principle is often used to explain "obedience to authority" in social situations such as the Salem witch hunts or Nazi war crimes.
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What is dysthemia?
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Also called "neurotic depression" or "depressive neurosis" is a longstanding depressed mood which exists for at least a year and a half in children and adolescents or two years in adults.
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What is affiliation?
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The need one has to associate with others.
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Who is Stanley Schachter?
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He concluded that the need to affiliate decreases for later-born children and is highest in firstborns and only children. He set up an experiment in which subjects were informed that they were going to receive a very painful electrical shock (high anxiety) or a very weak one which would merely tingle. The subjects were told that they could wait alone for ten minutes before receiving the shock or wait with others participating in the study. Of those subjects who were told they would receive a mere "tingle" only one-third chose to wait with others, while 62% of the high-anxiety group decided to do so.
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Who is Kurt Lewin?
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He theorized three basic categories of conflict which result in frustration: approach-approach, approach-avoidance, and avoidance-avoidance.
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What is the approach-approach format of conflict?
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The individual is presented with two equally attractive options simultaneously. It is considered the easiest to help clients cope with since in most cases, the client can attempt both options: first one, then the other. They typically instill less anxiety than the two other types of conflict.
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What is the avoidance-avoidance format of conflict?
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The individual is presented with two negative alternatives. Clients in this position often daydream, flee from the situation, or regress instead of confronting the choices. The client may also vacillate when he or she comes close to making a choice.
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What is the approach-avoidance format of conflict?
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The conflict presents a positive factor with a negative factor at the same time (e.g., a gorgeous woman who is violent and chemically dependent). Most counselors would agree this is the toughest type of conflict for the client to tackle as it generates that highest level of frustration.
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Who postulated the Congruity Theory?
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Osgood and Tannenbaum.
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Who are Osgood and Tannenbaum?
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They postulated the Congruity Theory.
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What is the Congruity Theory?
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A client will accept suggestions more readily if the client likes the counselor. Similar to balance theory. The theory predicts attitudes that change the most are initially the less extreme, if you believe in something strongly, your attitude is less likely to change than if you have moderate feelings about it, and the closer your attitude is to neutral, the more it will change.
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What classic experiment was conducted by Sherif et al.?
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They conducted the "Robber's Cave experiment" at a boys' summer camp near Robber's Cave, Oklahoma. This study set up two distinct groups which were hostile toward each other. The study concluded that the most effective way to reduce hostility between groups was to give them an alternative goal which required a joint effort and could not be accomplished by a single group.
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Who conducted the Robber's Cave experiment?
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Sherif, et al.
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What was the important finding from the Robber's Cave experiment?
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It determined that a cooperative goal can bring two hostile groups together, thus reducing competition and enhancing cooperation.
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What is a prejudice?
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It means that we are negative or have a rigid inflexible attitude toward a given group of people and can often act on our unfavorable thoughts. Moreover, the prejudiced individual often "prejudges" others without substantial evidence.
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Who are Schlossberg and Pietrofesa?
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In their 1973 study, counselor trainees were instructed to help a female counselee choose between an engineering or a teaching career. All the counselor trainees tried to steer her clear of engineering, typically a masculine career.
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Who are Broverman, Broverman, Clarkson, Rosenkrantz, and Vogel?
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In their 1970 study, they found that all the therapists who filed out a questionnaire used a different standard of mental health when rating men than they used for women.
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What is a caste system?
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It implies that there are fixed levels of superiority and inferiority which you are born into and thus cannot escape.
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What is codependency?
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It mainly refers to an individual who is emotionally involved with a chemically dependent person (perhaps even members of his or her own family) and/or is addicted to a relationship with another person or drugs.
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What is racism?
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It occurs when an assumption is made that some races are better than others. Hence, the race that feels superior can deny the other race rights and respect.
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What is sexism?
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An analogous term where one sex assumes that the other is inherently inferior.
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When are people more likely to want to affiliate?
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People will do so to attempt to lower fear. When people are miserable, the prefer miserable company.
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What did Sarnoff and Zimbardo discover?
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In a 1961 study, they discovered that males placed in extremely embarrassing situations in which they would need to act like infants were much less willing to affiliate with others going through the same thing. One interpretation would be that individuals are more comfortable sharing real fear than anxiety which could result in embarrassment or shame.
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Who postulated the Theory of Social Comparison?
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Leon Festinger
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What is the Theory of Social Comparison?
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It postulates that people have a need to compare themselves with others to assess their own abilities and options. It further asserts that we will compare ourselves to others who are basically similar to us.
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Why are people often critical of psychosocial experiments?
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Experimental situations are often artificial and the studies lack external validity.
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What is external validity?
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The ability to help understand behavior outside the experimental setting.
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What experiments were done by Solomon Asch and Muzafer Sherif?
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Their experiments predicted that the final person in a group would most likely "sell out" and agree with the rest of the group. In one study, Asch discovered that approximately 35% of persons tested in a perceptual activity gave an answer which was clearly incorrect in order to conform. People will conform to an obviously incorrect unanimous decision one third of the time.
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Who conforms the most?
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Individuals who are authoritarian and thus are heavily influenced by authority figures, people who are external approval seekers, and persons who feel that outside external factors control them.
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What affects one's level of introspection?
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Clients in higher social classes have more time to "look within themselves" (introspect) since they need not dwell as much on external survival needs.
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Who were Sue and Sue?
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They suggested that Asian Americans respond best to brief therapy that is directive and structured with specific problem-solving goals.
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Who is the father of psychoanalysis?
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Sigmund Freud.
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What is psychoanalysis?
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It is both a form of treatment and a very comprehensive personality theory developed by Sigmund Freud.
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Who created individual psychology?
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Alfred Adler.
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Who created analytic psychology?
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Carl Jung.
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What is Freud the father of?
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Psychoanalysis.
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What is Adler credited with creating?
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Individual psychology.
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What is Jung credited with creating?
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Analytic psychology.
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Who was Joseph Breuer?
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A Viennese neurologist who taught Freud the value of the talking cure, which is also termed catharsis.
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What is catharsis?
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The "talking cure."
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Who is A. A. Brill?
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He is usually associated with the impact that Freudian theory has on career choice.
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Who was Rollo May?
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He was a prime mover in the existential counseling movement.
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Who was Eric Berne?
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He is credited with creating Transactional Analysis.
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Who was credited with creating Transactional Analysis?
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Eric Berne.
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What three ego states are posited in Transactional Analysis?
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The Child, the Adult, and the Parent.
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What do the three ego states in Transactional Analysis correspond to in Freud's structural theory?
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The id, ego, and superego.
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What are Freud's three ego states in his structural theory?
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The id, ego, and superego.
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How does Freud explain the topographic notion regarding the mind's depth?
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The unconscious, preconscious, and conscious (iceberg analogy)
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What is the Parent ego state?
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It has been likened to Freud's superego. If a child has nurturing caretakers, he or she is said to develop "nurturing parent" qualities such as being nonjudgmental and sympathetic to others. It may also be filled with prejudicial and critical messages. Persons who fall into this category will tend to be intimidating, bossy, or know-it-alls.
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According to Freud, what leads to the development of the superego?
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The successful resolution of the Oedipus Complex.
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What is the Oedipus Complex?
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The child's libido or sex energy is directed toward the parent of the opposite sex. The child, nevertheless, realizes that retaliation would result if he or she would act on these impulses. The child thus strives for identification with the parent of the same sex to achieve vicarious sexual satisfaction.
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What is the female equivalent of the Oedipus Complex?
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The Electra Complex.
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What is transference?
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It implies that the client displaces emotion felt toward a parent onto the analyst, counselor, or therapist. It is often considered a form of projection, displacement, and repetition in which the client treats the counselor in the same manner as he or she would an authority figure from the past (e.g., a mother, a father, a caretaker, or significant other)
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What is the ego?
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It is the "executive administrator" of the personality and the reality principle since it governs or acts as a police officer to control the impulses of the id and the superego. It houses the individual's identity. It is the mediator. In a seesaw analogy, it is the fulcrum.
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What is the id?
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The pleasure principle; the seat of libido. Instincts. It is present at birth and never matures. It operates mainly out of awareness to satisfy instinctual needs according to the pleasure principle. Chaotic; has no sense of time.
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What is eros?
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The Greek god of love. Self-preservation.
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What is thanatos?
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The Greek word for death. It is used to describe a death wish or what is sometimes called the death instinct.
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What is the superego?
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The conscience; the ego ideal. It judges behaviors as right or wrong. It is more concerned with the ideal than what is real. It is composed of values, morals, and ideals of parents, caretakers, and society.
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What is free association?
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It is literally defined as instructing the client to say whatever comes to mind. The antithesis of directive approaches
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What is directive counseling?
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When the client is asked to discuss certain material.
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Who was Joseph Wolpe?
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He developed a paradigm known as "systematic desensitization."
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What is systematic desensitization?
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It is useful when trying to weaken (desensitize) a client's response to an anxiety-producing stimuli.
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According to Freud, what are dreams?
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They were the royal road to the unconscious mind. They are composed of a surface meaning (manifest content) and then a hidden meaning (latent content).
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What are manifest and latent content?
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The surface meaning and the hidden meaning (such as in a dream)
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What is insight?
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It refers to the process of making a client aware of something which was previously unknown. This increases self-knowledge. It is often described as a novel sudden understanding of a problem Equated with the work of gestalt psychologist Wolfgang Kohler.
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What is resistance?
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Psychoanalysts believe that a client who is will be reluctant to bring unconscious ideas into the conscious mind. Nonanalytic counselors generally utilize the term in a looser context and use the word to describe clients who are fighting the helping process in any manner.
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What is John Broadus Wilson credited with?
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The case of Little Albert. He pioneered American Behaviorism.
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Who were Watson and Rayner?
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Little Albert experiment.
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What was the Little Albert experiment?
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In 1920, Watson and Rayner conditioned an 11-month-old boy named Albert to be afraid of furry objects. First, Albert was exposed to a white rat. Initially, the child was not afraid of the rat; however, Watson and Rayner would strike a steel bar, which created a loud noise whenever the child would get near the animal. This created a conditioned (learned) fear in the child. This experiment has been used to demonstrate the behavioristic concept that fears are learned rather than the analytic concept that they are somehow the result of an unconscious process.
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Who was Anna O.?
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In the 1880s, she was considered the first psychoanalytic patient. She was a patient of Freud's colleague Joseph Breuer. She suffered from symptoms without an organic basis, which was termed hysteria. In hypnosis, she would remember painful events which she was unable to recall while awake. Talking about these traumatic events brought about relief and this became the talking cure, or catharsis.
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Who was Little Hans?
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It is a case often used to contrast behavior therapy with psychoanalysis. It reflects the data in Freud's 1909 paper, "An Analysis of a Phobia in a Five-Year-Old Boy" in which a child's fear of going into the streets and perhaps even having a horse bite him were explained using psychoanalytic constructs such as the Oedipus Complex and castration anxiety. He reflects psychoanalytic explanations of behavior.
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Who is Daniel Paul Schreber?
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He has been called the "most frequently quoted case in modern psychiatry." In 1903, he (after spending 9 years in a mental hospital) wrote "Memoirs of a Mental Patient." His family was rather wealthy and bought almost every copy in circulation. Nevertheless, Freud got his hands on one and in 1911 published "Psychoanalytical Notes upon an Autobiographical Account of a Case of Paranoia." His major delusion was that he would be transformed into a woman, become God's mate, and produce a healthier race. Freud felt that he might have been struggling with unconscious issues of homosexuality.
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What is classical psychoanalysis like?
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It is quite lengthy, often 3-5 sessions a week for several years. Can often be expensive. Couch to enhance the free association process.
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What is psychodynamic therapy like?
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Makes use of analytic principles (e.g., the unconscious mind) but relies on less sessions per week to make it a bit more practical. Therapists generally sit face to face.
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What is abreaction?
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Another word for catharsis.
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What is accurate empathy?
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The counselor can truly understand what the client is feeling or experiencing.
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What is the most controversial aspect of Freud's theory?
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The Oedipus/Electra complex.
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What is the most important concept in Freud's theory?
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The unconscious.
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What are SUDS?
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Subjective Units of Distress Scale. It is a concept used in forming a hierarchy to perform Wolpe's systematic desensitization. It is created via the process of introspection by rating the anxiety associated with the situation. Generally, the scale most counselors use is 0 to 100, with 100 being the most threatening situation. The counselor can ask a client to rate imagine situations on the subjective units of distress scale so that a treatment hierarchy can be formulated.
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What is parapraxis?
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Slips of the tongue which are the "psychopathology of everyday life."
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What is the preconscious mind?
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It is capable of bringing ideas, images, and thoughts into awareness with minimal difficulty. It can access information from the conscious as well as the unconscious mind.
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What is the conscious?
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It is aware of the immediate environment.
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What is the unconscious?
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It is composed of material which is normally unknown or hidden from the client.
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What are the nine ego defense mechanisms?
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Rationalization, compensation, repression, projection, reaction formation, identification, introjection, denial, and displacement.
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What is the most important ego defense mechanism?
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Repression, because this can cause problems later on in life. If the repressed memory is brought back into the conscious, it can be dealt with.
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What is reaction formation?
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It occurs when a person can't accept a given impulse and thus behaves in the opposite manner.
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What is denial?
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Similar to repression, except that it is a conscious act. For example, an individual who says, "I refuse to think about it."
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What is sublimation?
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It is present when a person acts out un unconscious impulse in a socially acceptable way. For example, a very aggressive person might pursue a career in boxing, wrestling, or football.
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What is suppression?
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It is another name for denial.
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What is rationalization?
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It is simply an intellectual excuse to minimize hurt feelings. For example, a student who says "Hey, I'm glad I didn't get good grades. Only nerds get good grades." This person will tend to interpret his thoughts and feelings in a positive or favorable manner.
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What is displacement?
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It occurs when an impulse is unleashed at a safe target. The prototype example would be when the man who is furious with his boss but is afraid to show it comes home and kicks the family dog.
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What is subliminal perception?
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It supposedly occurs when you perceive something unconsciously and thus it has an impact on your behavior. The APA has taken the position that this is not effective.
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Who is Wilson Bryan Key?
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He wrote books such as "Subliminal Seduction" and "Media Sexploitation" in which he points out how advertisers and others have relied on subliminal perception.
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What is introjection?
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It takes place when a child accepts a parent, caretaker, or significant other's values as his or her own. A sexually abused child might, for example, attempt to sexually abuse other children.
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What is identification?
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It results when a person with a cause or a successful person with the unconscious hope that he or she will be perceived as successful or worthwhile. Or, doing so to the other person might serve to lower the fear or anxiety toward that person.
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What is a Type II error?
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Also called a beta error. It means that a researcher has accepted a null hypothesis (i.e., that there is no difference between an experimental group and a group not receiving any experimental treatment) when it is false.
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What is sour grapes rationalization?
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"I didn't really want it anyway."
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What is the sweet lemon rationalization?
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The person tells you how wonderful a distasteful set of circumstances really is.
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What is rationalization?
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The person either underrates a reward (sour grapes) or overrates a reward (sweet lemon) to protect the self from a bruised ego.
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What is projection?
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This person attributes unacceptable qualities of his or her own onto others.
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What is compensation?
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It is evident when an individual attempts to develop or overdevelop a positive trait to make up for a limitation (i.e., a perceived inferiority). The person secretly hopes that others will focus on the positives rather than the negative factors.
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What is the main criticism of Freud?
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That his theories are difficult to test from a scientific standpoint.
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What is the totem?
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An object that represents a family or group.
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What is the taboo?
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Incest. Even primitive peoples feared incestuous relationships.
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What is the purpose of interpretation?
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It makes the clients aware of their unconscious processes.
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What is individual psychology?
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It stresses the unique qualities we each possess. It is keen on analyzing organ inferiority and methods in which the individual attempts to compensate for it. Alfred Adler.
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Who was Wolfgang Kohler?
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A gestalt psychologist equated with the term "insight." He studied chimps and apes on the Canary Islands and wrote the 1925 book "The Mentality of Apes."
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What are the three types of learning?
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Reinforcement (operant conditioning), association (classical conditioning), and insight.
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What is transference neurosis?
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When a client is attached to the counselor as he or she is a substitute parent.
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What is countertransference?
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Evident when the counselor's strong feelings or attachment to the client are stron enough to hinder the treatment process.
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What is the logos principle?
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Men operate on logic, or this principle.
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What is the Eros principle?
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Women are intuitive and operate on this principle.
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What is a mandala?
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A term borrowed from Hindu writings where it was the symbol of meditation. In Jung's writings, it also stood for a magic protective circle that represents self-unification.
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What is eidetic imagery?
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The ability to remember the most minute details of a scene or a picture for an extended period of time. Often gone by the time a child reaches adolescence. Lay persons refer to it as a "photgraphic memory."
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Who emphasized the drive for superiority?
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Alfred Adler.
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What is the major drive responsible for human behavior according to Adler?
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Initially, he felt that aggressive drives were responsible for most human behavior. He then altered the theory slightly and said that the major factor was the "will to power." Finally, he concluded that it was the "striving for superiority" or a thirst for perfection that motivated behavior. It did not imply that the person wanted to dominate others or become a political figure or one of the ruling class.
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What did Adler say regarding sibling relationships?
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He felt that sibling interaction might have more impact than the parent/child intereaction.
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What are some of the criticisms of Freud?
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His child development theories were not based on extensive research or observations of children's behavior.
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Who are some key Neo-Freudians?
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Alfred Adler, Karen Horney, Erik Erikson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Erich Fromm
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What did Neo-Freudians emphasize?
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They stressed the importance of cultural (social) issues and interpersonal (social) relations.
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What is a baseline?
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It indicates the frequency that a behavior is manifested prior to or in the absence of treatment.
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What is unconditional positive regard?
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Popularized by Carl Rogers, he felt that the counselor must care for the client even when the counselor is uncomfortable or disagrees with the client's position. In essence, the counselor accepts the client just the way he or she is without any stipulations.
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What is introversion?
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It meant a turning in of the libido. This type of individual would be his or her own primary source of pleasure. They would shy away from social situations, if possible. Jungian term.
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What is extroversion?
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It is the tendency to find satisfaction and pleasure in other people. These individuals seek external rewards.
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With whom are the terms "introversion" and "extroversion" associated with?
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Carl Jung.
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The personality types of the Myers-Briggs Type Inventory are associated with whom?
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Carl Jung.
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What is the MBTI?
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It is said to be the most widely used measure of personality preferences and dispositions. This measure can be used to assess upper elementary children, aged 12 and over, all the way through adulthood and yields a four-letter cods, or "type," based on four bi-polar scales.
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What are the four bi-polar scales of the MBTI?
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Introversion/Extroversion, Intuition/Sensing (i.e., current perception), Thinking/Feeling (i.e., future abstractions and possibilities), Judging/Perceiving (i.e., observing events)
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None
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What is social connectedness?
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It suggests that we need one another and emphasizes that people wish to belong. It is a term coined by Adler.
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What is the collective unconscious?
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A term coined by C. G. Jung, it implies that all humans have "collected" universal inherited unconscious neural patterns.
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What are paradoxical techniques?
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They are associated with the work of Victor Frankl. These strategies often seem to defy logic as he client is instructed to intensify or purposely engage in maladaptive behavior. These interventions are often the direct antithesis of common sense directives. They have been very with family therapists due to the work of Jay Haley and Milton H. Erickson. Currently, this technique is popular with family therapists who believe it reduces a family's resistance to change.
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What is anima?
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A Jungian term to describe how he felt that society caused men to deny their feminine side.
(ma = feminine) |
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What is animus?
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A Jungian term to describe how he felt that society caused women to deny their masculine side.
(mus = muscles) |
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What is yin and yang?
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In Chinese Taoist philosophy, they are the feminine and masculine forces in the universe, respectively.
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What are archetypes?
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They make up the collective unconscious common to all men and women. It is passed from generation to generation. It is actually a primal universal symbol which means the same thing to all men and women.
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What is the persona?
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A common archetype, it is the mask or role we present to others to hide our true self.
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What is the shadow?
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A common archetype, is is the mask behind the persona, which contains id-like material, denied, yet desired. It is often called the dark side of the personality, though it is not necessarily negative. Jung noted that it encompasses everything an individual refused to acknowledge. It represents the unconscious opposite of the individual's conscious expression. For example, a shy retired individual might have recurring dreams that he or she is very outgoing, verbal, and popular. In addition to dreams, its basic nature is also evident when an individual engages in projection. The clinical assumption is made that projection will decrease and individuation will increase as therapy renders this thing's behaviors conscious.
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What is confrontation?
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Its essence is to illuminate discrepancies between the client's and the helper's conceptualization of a given situation.
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What is accurate empathy?
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It occurs when a counselor is able to experience the client's point of view in terms of feelings and cognitions.
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What is summarization?
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It transpires whenever a counselor brings together the ideas discussed during a period of dialogue.
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What is the difference between symptom substitution and symptom reduction?
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Substitution is an analytic concept, while reduction is a behaviorist concept.
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What is an eclectic counselor?
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They use the theories and techniques from several models of intervention, rather than simply relying on one. They use "the best from every approach." About 50% of counselors claim to be this and a number of studies indicate that it is on the rise. They attempt to choose the best theoretical approach based on the client's attributes, resources, and situation. It is associated most with Frederick C. Thorne.
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Who is Frederick C. Thorne?
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He felt that true eclecticism was much more than a "hodgepodge of facts"; it needed to be rigidly scientific. He preferred the term "psychological case handling" rather than "psychotherapy," as he felt the efficacy of psychotherapy had not been scientifically demonstrated.
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What is counter transference?
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It occurs when the counselor's past is projected onto the clent and the helper's objectivity suffers markedly
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What is cognitive dissonance?
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It suggests that humans will feel quite uncomfortable if they have two incompatible or inconsistent beliefs and thus the person will be motivated to reduce the dissonance.
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What do Adlerians emphasize and believe?
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They emphasize lifestyle, birth order, and family constellation. They believe that our lifestyle is a predictable self-fulfilling prophecy based on our psychological feelings about ourselves. They stress the importance of birth order in the family constellation
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What is the importance of birth order to Adlerians?
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The firstborn/oldest child could be dethroned by a later child who gets most of the attention; thus the firstborn would be prone to experience feelings of inferiority. Firstborns often go to great lengths to please their parents. A second child will often try to compete with the firstborn child and often surpasses the first child's performance. A middle child (or children) will often feel that he or she is being treated unfairly. Middle children are sometimes seen as being quite manipulative. The youngest child or baby in the family can be pampered or spoiled. The good news is that they often excel by modeling/imitating the older children's behavior. This concept has been criticized by some theorists such as Wayne Dyer.
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Who is Wayne Dyer?
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A critic of birth order theories, he wrote the self-improvement book "Your Erroneous Zones" which outsold every book written in the decade of the 1970s.
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What brand of psychotherapy grew out of existentialism?
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Logotherapy.
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What is associationism?
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It assets that ideas are held together by associations. It had its roots in an essay written by Aristotle on the nature of memory. Other pioneers include John Locke, David Hume, James Mill, and David Hartley. It is considered the philosophy that led to the formation of behaviorism.
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With what psychotherapy is John Locke associated with?
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Behaviorism.
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What is the law of effect?
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It asserts that responses accompanied by satisfaction (i.e., it pleases you) will be repeated while those which produce unpleasantness or discomfort will be stamped out.
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What concept is Arnold Lazarus associated with?
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BASIC-ID, used in Multimodal Therapeutic approach that is eclectic and holistic.
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What does BASIC-ID stand for and who created it?
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Created by Arnold Lazarus, this multimodal therapeutic approach focuses on seven key modalities or areas of the client's functioning: B = acts, habits, and reactions; A = affective responses such as emotions, feelings, and mood; S = sensations, including hearing, touch, sight, smell, and taste; I = images/the way we perceive others, ourselves, including memories and dreams; C = cognitions such as our thoughts, insights, and even our philosophy of life; I = interpersonal relationships (i.e., the way we interact with others); and D = drugs, that would include alcohol, legal, illegal, and prescription drug usage, diet, and nutritional supplementation.
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Classical conditioning relates to the work of whom?
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Ivan Pavlov
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Who is E. G. Williamson?
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The father of the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint. Popular some years ago, especially with career counselors, this approach attempts to match the client's traits with a career. Also known as the trait factor approach.
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With what is Ivan Pavlov associated with?
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Classical conditioning.
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Describe the difference between a conditioned and an unconditioned response.
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Something that is conditioned is something that is learned; something that is unconditioned is unlearned. Therefore, a response such as salivation is an unconditioned response.
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What is an acquisition period?
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It refers to the time it takes to learn or acquire a given behavior.
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What is another name for operant conditioning?
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Instrumental learning.
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What is instrumental learning?
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Operant conditioning.
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Who is associated with operant conditioning?
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B. F. Skinner.
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With what is B. F. Skinner associated with?
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Operant conditioning.
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What is respondent behavior?
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Reflexes
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What do reinforcers do?
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All reinforcers, both positive and negative, raise the probability that an antecedent (prior) behavior will occur.
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What is the procedure known as "differential reinforcement of other behavior" or DRO?
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It is when the counselor positively reinforces an individual for engaging in a healthy alternative behavior. The assumption is that as the alternative desirable behavior increases via reinforcement, the client will not display the inappropriate target behavior as frequently. In the case of negative reinforcement, something is taken away after the behavior occurs.
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What is a secondary reinforcer?
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It is a neutral stimulus, such as a plastic token, which becomes reinforcing by association. Thus, a plastic token could be exchanged for known reinforcers.
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What is punishment?
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It lowers the probability that a behavior will occur.
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What is positive punishment?
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It is said to occur when something is added after a behavior and the behavior decreases.
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What is negative punishment?
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It is said to take place when a stimulus is removed following the behavior and the response decreases.
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Who is William Glasser, MD?
|
He is the father of Reality Therapy.
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Which is more a more effective behavior modifier, reinforcement or punishment?
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Reinforcement.
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In the classic Pavlovian experiment, what was the Unconditioned Stimulus?
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The meat. (unlearned)
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In the classic Pavlovian experiment, what was the bell considered to be?
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The conditioned stimulus.
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What is the most effective time interval between the Conditioned Stimulus and the Unconditioned Stimulus?
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0.5 seconds. As the interval exceeds 1/2 second, more trials are needed for effective conditioning. Remember: C comes before U
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What is delay conditioning?
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It is when the CS is delayed until the US occurs.
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What is trace conditioning?
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It is when the CS terminates before the occurrence of the US. The CS will terminate prior to the onset of the US.
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What happens when the Unconditioned Stimulus is placed before the Conditioned Stimulus?
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No conditioning. This is called backwards conditioning.
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What is stimulus generalization?
|
Also called "second order conditioning," it occurs hen a stimulus similar to the CS produces the same reaction. Example: Little Albert. Pavlov called this irradiation.
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What is stimulus discrimination?
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It is nearly the opposite of stimulus generalization. Here, the learning process is "fine tuned" to respond only to a specific stimulus. At times, it is also referred to as "stimulus differentiation."
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What is pica?
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The tendency for humans to eat object that are not food, such as chewing on a pencil or lead paint. Some people believe it is a psychological difficulty, while other experts insist it occurs due to a lack of minerals in the diet.
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What is experimental neurosis?
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This occurs when the differentiation process is too tough because the stimuli are almost identical and the target will show signs of emotional disturbance.
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What is extinction?
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It occurs when the CS is "not" reinforced via the US. Most experts believe that the CR is not eliminated, but suppressed, or what is generally called "inhibited." If the target is given a rest, the CR will sometimes reappear, although it will be weaker, a phenomena often called "spontaneous recovery." In operant conditioning, this connotes that reinforcement is withheld and eventually the behavior will be extinguished (eliminated). Ignoring is often a common method of extinction.
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What is John B. Watson associated with?
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The Little Albert experiment.
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What is chaining?
|
A behavioristic term referring to a chain or sequence of behaviors in which one response renders a cue that the next response is to occur. For example, when you are writing a sentence and place a period at the end of the sentence, it is a cue that the next letter will be an uppercase letter. It is really just a series of operants joined together by reinforcers.
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Whose principles are behavior modification strategies based heavily on?
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Skinnerian principles (instrumental, operant conditioning)
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Whose principles are behavior therapy based heavily on?
|
Pavlovian principles (classical, respondent conditioning)
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Who is Neal Miller?
|
His first studies demonstrated that animals could indeed be conditioned to control autonomic processes. He a Banuazizi showed that by utilizing rewards, rats could be trained to alter heart rate and intestinal contractions. Prior to this experiment, it was thought that automatic or "autonomic" bodily processes could not be controlled. Today, counselors often use the technique of biofeedback to help clients control autonomic responses.
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Who was Edward Thorndike?
|
He postulated the "law of effect," which is also known as "trial and error learning." This theory assumes that satsifying associations related to a given behavior will cause it to be "stamped in," while those associated with annoying consequences are "stamped out." Practice, per se, does not ensure effective learning. The practice must yield a reward.
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What was the significance of the Little Albert experiment?
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It showed that a phobia can be a learned behavior.
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Who is Mary Cover Jones?
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She demonstrated that "learning" could serve as a treatment for a phobic reaction.
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Who was John Grinder?
|
He created Neurolinguistic Programming (NLP) with John Bandler.
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What is a nondirective counselor?
|
One who allows the client to explore thoughts and feelings with a minimum of direction.
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What is a directive counselor?
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One who leads the client to discuss certain topics and provides "direct suggestions" about how the client should think, act, or behave. Also called "active therapy" or "active-directive" therapy.
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What is concreteness?
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It is also known as "specificity." The counselor uses this principle in an attempt to eliminate vague language.
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What is interpretation?
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It is highly valued in analytic and psychodynamic modalities, although it is used in other schools of counseling. It is said to take place when the counselor uncovers a deeper meaning regarding a client's situation.
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What is a biofeedback device?
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A device that does not change the client, but provides the client and helper with biological information. A scale and mirror are two simple examples. In counseling, they are primarily used to teach cients to relax or control autonomic nervous system functions, such as blood pressure, pulse rate, or hand temperature.
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What is congruence?
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Also known as genuineness, the counselor who is is real and authentic They are not playing a role and not putting up a facade.
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What is empathy?
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It is the ability to understand the client's world and to communicate this to the client.
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Who is Robert Carkhuff?
|
He is known for his creation of a five-point scale intended to measure empathy, genuineness, concreteness, and respect. The scale runs from 1 (poorest) to 5 (desirable).
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What is something known as when it is added following an operant?
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A positive reinforcer.
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What is it called when something is taken away following an operant?
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A negative reinforcer.
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What is an operant?
|
Any behavior which is not elicited by an obvious stimulus. This covers most behaviors.
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What are respondents?
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It is the consequence of a known stimulus. For example, a dog salivating to food or the pupil in your eye enlarging when walk into a dark room.
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What is higher order conditioning?
|
This occurs when a new stimulus is associated or "paired" with the CS and the new stimulus takes on the power of the CS.
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What is an EMG?
|
Electromyogram. It is used to measure muscle tension.
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What is an EEG?
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Electroencephalogram. It is used to monitor brain waves.
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What is an EKG?
|
Electrocardiogram. It is used to provide data on the heart.
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Who was Edmund Jacobsen?
|
He was a physiologist who developed a relaxation technique in which muscle groups are alternately tensed and relaxed until the whole body is in a state of relaxation. Due to its simplicity, his Method rapidly became the darling of the behavior therapy movement.
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What is GSR?
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Galvanic Skin Response. It provides electrical skin resistance.
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What is the Premack Principle?
|
It states that an efficient reinforcer is what the client himself or herself likes to do. Thus, in this procedure, a lower-probability behavior is reinforced by a higher-probability behavior. In other words, any HPB can be used as a reinforcer for any LPB.
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What is continuous reinforcement?
|
It is when you continue to provide the reinforcement each time the target behavior occurs. It is not necessarily the most practical or the most effective
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What is intermittent reinforcement?
|
Most human behaviors are reinforced effectively by this principle. In this format, the target behavior is reinforced only after the behavior manifests itself several times or for a given time interval. Also called "partial reinforcement," or thinning.
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What is thinning?
|
Also called intermittent reinforcement, it literally indicates that the behavior is only reinforced a portion of the time.
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What is the interval with regard to intermittent or partial reinforcement?
|
The interval is based on time rather than the number of responses since in this society, we use the phrase "time interval." A fixed interval, for example, would be getting paid the same amount once per month even if the amount of work varies.
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What is the ratio with regard to intermittent or partial reinforcement?
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The ratio is based on the number of responses. A fixed ratio, for example, would be giving a child an M&M for each 5 math problems she completes.
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What does the term "fixed" mean with regard to reinforcement schedules?
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It implies that the reinforcement always takes place after a fixed time or number of responses.
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What does the term "variable" mean with regard to reinforcement schedules?
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It implies that an average number of responses or time may be used.
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What is the most difficult intermittent schedule to extinguish?
|
Variable ratio.
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What is the most ineffective intermittent schedule?
|
Fixed interval.
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What does SUDS stand for?
|
Subjective Units of Distress Scale, used in systematic desensitization. Ranges from 0 (totally relaxed) to 100 (most anxiety-producing state a client can imagine).
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What is the Yerkes-Dodson Law?
|
It asserts that a moderate amount of arousal actually improves performance.
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What is secondary reinforcement?
|
It occurs when a stimulus which accompanies a primary reinforcer takes on reinforcement properties of its own. The most popular = money.
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What is covert processing?
|
It is a term which means that the behavior is not observable. It is usually a thought or visualization which the client imagines.
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What is in vivo treatment?
|
The direct treatment of an overt, or observable, behavior.
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What is a back-up reinforcer?
|
It is an item or an activity which can be purchased using tokens. They are often unconditioned.
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What is aversive conditioning?
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Like Antabuse, it pairs an aversive, somewhat unpleasant stimulus to reduce an unfavorable behavior.
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What is behavioral rehearsal?
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Role-playing combined with a hierarchy of situations in which the client is ordinarily nonassertive. The counselor might also switch roles and model assertive behavior to the client.
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What is fixed role therapy?
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It refers to the treatment model created by psychologist George A. Kelly. In this approach, the client is given a sketch of a person or fixed role. He or she is instructed to read the script at least three times a day and to act, think, and verbalize like the person in the script. It is considered quite systematic and has been called the "psychology of personal constructs" after his work of the same name.
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Who is George A. Kelly?
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He is credited with fixed role therapy and the "psychology of personal constructs."
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What is the order for systematic desensitization?
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1) relaxation training; 2) construction of anxiety hierarchy; 3) desensitization in imagination, and; 4) in vivo desensitization.
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What is interposition?
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It is another term for desensitization in imagination. It is technically a perceptual term which implies that one item conceals or covers another.
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What is sensate focus?
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It is a form a behavioral sex therapy developed by William H. Masters and Virginia Johnson of St. Louis, MO. This approach relies on counterconditioning. A couple is told to engage in touching and caressing (to lower anxiety levels) on a graduated basis until intercourse is possible.
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Who is Wilhelm Reich?
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He felt that repeated sexual gratification was necessary for the cure of emotional maladies.
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What was Reich's Orgone Box?
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It was a device the client would sit in to increase orgone life energy.
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What is conditioned reflex therapy?
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Created by Andrew Salter, it set the stage for modern assertiveness training.
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Who was Andrew Salter?
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He is credited with conditioned reflex therapy. Some called him the Father of Behavior Therapy.
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What is covert sensitization?
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The client would instructed to imagine an unpleasant image and would then be instructed to imagine a relief scene such as an enjoyable feeling when the negative stimulus is replaced with something positive.
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What is Implosive Therapy?
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The brainchild of T. G. Stampfl, it is always conducted using the imagination and sometimes relies on psychoanalytic symbolism.
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What is flooding?
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It usually occurs when the client is genuinely exposed to the feared stimulus. It is also called "deliberate exposure with response prevention." It can be extremely effective in cases of agoraphobia and OCD.
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Who is T. G. Stampfl?
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He is credited with creating Implosive Therapy.
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Why do behavior therapists shy away from punishment?
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The effects of punishment are usually temporary and it can teach aggression. B. F. Skinner felt that after the punishment was administered, the behavior would manifest itself once again. Positive measures are seen as more effective than punishment. If punishment is used, remember that it does not case the person (or other animal, for that matter) to unlearn the behavior, and it should be used along with positive reinforcing measures.
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Why empathy versus sympathy?
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Sympathy often implies pity, while accurate empathy is the ability to experience another person's subjective experience.
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What is EDMR?
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Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, a technique created by Francine Shapiro to deal with traumatic memories. It was accidentally discovered when she noticed that disturbing memories began to abate when she was moving her eyes back and forth.
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Who is Francine Shapiro?
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She is credited with developing EMDR.
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What is attending?
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It refers to behaviors on the part of the counselor which indicate that he or she is truly engaged in active listening skills. Examples would be good eye contact or the old standby, "umhum."
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Who is Robert R. Carkhuff?
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He suggested a "scale for measurement" in regard to "empathic understanding in interpersonal processes." Level 1: Not attending or detracting significantly from the client's verbal and behavioral expressions; Level 2: Subtracts noticeable affect from the communication; Level 3: Feelings expressed by the client are basically interchangeable with the client's meaning and affect; Level 4: Counselor adds noticeably to the client's affect; Level 5: Counselor ads significantly to the client's feeling, meaning, even in the client's deepest moments. He wrote "Helping and Human Relations" in 1969.
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What is logotherapy?
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Healing through meaning. paradoxical intention is implemented by advising the client to purposely exaggerate a dysfunctional behavior in imagination. For example, a person with OCD might be instructed to wash his or her hands 51 times per day instead of the usual 45 times.
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What is existentialism?
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It is considered a humanistic form of helping in which the counselor helps the client discover meaning in his or her life by doing a deed (e.g., an accomplishment), experiencing a value (e.g., love), or suffering (e.g., Frankl discovered that even being held hostage in a concentration camp could not take away his dignity). It rejects analysis and behaviorism for being deterministic and reductionistic. This viewpoint developed as a reaction to the analytic and behavioral schools and stresses growth and self-actualization. Individuals have choices in their lives and one cannot blame others or childhood circumstances for a lack of fulfillment.
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Who is Epictetus?
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He is often quoted in regard to REBT. He was a stoic philosopher from the first century A.D. He said, "Men are disturbed not by things, but of the view which they take of them." This captures the major premise of REBT.
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Who was Albert Ellis?
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He is credited with creating REBT (formerly called RET).
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What has existential therapy been criticized on?
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It has been criticized for being too vague regarding techniques and procedures. It is more of a philosophy of helping than a grab bag of specific intervention strategies. Critics charge that it is not a systematic approach to treatment. The behaviorist assert that it is abstract and not scientific. The approach rejects traditional diagnosis and assessment procedures.
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What has behavior therapy been criticized on?
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It has been criticized on the grounds that it is reductionistic, simplistic, and does not deal with underlying causes.
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What do existentialists primarily focus on?
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They focus on the client's perception in the here and now. The focus is on what the person can ultimately become. The present and even the future are emphasized. The key to change is seen as self-determination.
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Who is Buber?
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He is credited with the I-Thou relationship.
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What is the I-Thou relationship?
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It asserts that the relationship is horizontal. A horizontal relationship assumes equality between two persons. Conversely, in a vertical relationship, the counselor is seen as the expert.
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What do existentialists think about empathy?
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They stress nonthreatening empathy as necessary for successful therapy.
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Who is Rollo May?
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He introduced existential therapy in the U.S.
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Who is Yalom?
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An existentialist, he is noted for his work in group therapy. In his book, "Love's Executioner," he reveals his approach to treatment with some of his most intriguing clients.
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Who is Fritz Perls?
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The father of Gestalt therapy.
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Who is Albert Ellis?
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He pioneered REBT.
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Who is Arthur Janov?
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He is noted for his Primal Scream Therapy.
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Who is Aaron T. Beck?
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His cognitive therapy resembles REBT.
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What are the three worlds the existentialists speak of?
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The Umwelt, Mitwelt, and the Eigenwelt.
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What is the Umwelt World?
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The physical/biological world, in existentialism.
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What is the Mitwelt World?
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The relationship world, in existentialism. (Think mi = my; my wife, my brother, my son, etc.)
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What is the Eigenwelt World?
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The identity world, in existentialism. (sounds kind-of like "identity")
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What did Frankl's experience in Nazi concentration camps teach him?
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He learned that you can't control the environment, but you can control your response. He felt that suffering would be transformed into achievement and creativity.
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What do existential counselors emphasize?
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They emphasize free choice, decision, and will.
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What is noogenic neurosis?
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A term used by logotherapists, it is the frustration of the will to meaning. The counselor assists the client to find meaning in life so the client can write his or her own life story by making meaningful choices. When exploring the meaning of life, some anxiety is normal. Moreover, death is not seen as an evil concept, but rather an entity which gives meaning to the process of life.
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What is phenomenology?
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It refers to the client's internal personal experience of events.
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What is ontology?
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It is the philosophy of being and existing. The metaphysical study of life experience.
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Who is William Glasser?
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He is the Father of Reality Therapy.
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What is Rational Imagery?
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It is a technique used by REBT therapists in which the client is to imagine that he or she is in a situation which has traditionally caused emotional disturbance. The client then imagines changing the feelings via rational, logical, and scientific thought.
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What is Rational Behavior Therapy or Rational Self-Counseling?
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Created by psychiatrist Maxie C. Maultsby, Jr., who studied with Albert Ellis, this approach relies on REBT; however, the client performs a written self-analysis. He claims the technique is well-suited to problems of substance abuse and it is highly recommended as a method of multicultural counseling.
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Who is Maxie C. Maultsby, Jr.?
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He is credited with creating Rational Behavior Therapy or Rational Self-Counseling.
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What has Reality Therapy incorporated?
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It has incorporated control theory, later referred to as choice theory.
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What does the abbreviation BCP mean?
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It means that perception controls our behavior.
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What is control or choice theory?
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It asserts that the only person whose behavior we can control is our own. According to this theory, our behavior is our best attempt to control our world to satisfy our wants and needs.
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What is rolfing?
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It is not a traditional form of talk therapy, but rather a type of deep muscle massage which is assumed to have an impact on the person's emotional state.
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What role does the client's childhood play in choice therapy?
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According to choice therapy, it may have contributed to the problem, but the past is never really considered to be the problem.
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What is paraphrasing?
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It is when a client's thoughts and feelings are restated in the counselor's own words.
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What is contracting?
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It is done with a client in a verbal or written manner and is favored by behavior therapists. In reality therapy, a plan is created to help the client master his or her own target behaviors.
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When the past is discussed in Reality Therapy, what is the focus on?
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Successful behaviors. Glasswer believes that dwelling on past failures can reinforce a negative self-concept or what reality therapists have termed the "failure identity."
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What is Glasser's position on mental illness?
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He felt that diagnostic labels give clients permission to act sick or irresponsible. Reality Therapy has little use for the formal diagnostic process, or what is known in clinical circles as "nosology." He rejected this traditional medical model of disease.
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What is nosology?
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The diagnostic process.
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What role does the reality therapist take with the client?
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The role of a friend who asks what is wrong. Unlike the detached psychoanalyst, the reality therapist literally makes friends with the client. This is the first of eight steps utilized in this model. Step 7 is refusing to use punishment.
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What book popularized Glasser's theory in educational circles?
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"Schools Without Failure."
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What is the final step in Glasser's eight steps of Reality Therapy?
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The final step asserts that the client and counselor be persistent and never give up. Even when the client wants to give up, the therapist does not. Glasser's theory has been criticized on the basis that it is too simplistic.
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According to Glasser, what might be a positive addiction?
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He stressed that people can be addicted to positive behaviors and this helps to instill self-confidence. A positive addiction must be a noncompetitive activity which can be performed alone for about one hour each day, such as jogging. Moreover, the person can see that performing the activity will lead to personal improvement. Lastly the person needs to be capable of performing the activity without becoming self-critical.
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What is summarization?
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The counselor is bringing together a number of ideas. It also could deal strictly with the material in a single session of counseling. It constitutes a "synthesis" regarding the general tone or feeling of the helping process. It is really the ability to condense the material to capture the essence of the therapeutic exchange.
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What is a success identity?
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The individual who possesses this feels worthy and significant to others. Identity is a person's most important psychological need.
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What is a failure identity?
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A person who is irresponsible, and thus frustrated in an attempt to feel loved and worthwhile, will develop this and a faulty perception of reality. The client is encouraged to assume responsibility for his or her own happiness.
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In REBT, how is the client taught to change cognitions?
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Self-talk and internal verbalizations. The credo is simple: Talk sense to yourself. When you change your thinking, you can change your life.
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What philosopher is most closely related to REBT?
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Epictetus, a stoic philosopher who suggested we feel the way we think.
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What is the ABC theory of personality with regard to REBT?
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A = activating event; B = belief system; C = emotional consequence; D = disrupting the irrational behavior at B; E = a new emotional consequence or "an effective new philosophy of life"
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What is bibliotherapy?
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It is the use of books or writings pertaining to self-improvement.
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What is musterbation?
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A term coined by Ellis, it occurs when a client uses too many shoulds, oughts, or musts in his or her thinking. Also called "absolutist thinking."
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What does Ellis feel is at the core of emotional disturbance?
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Irrational thinking at point B (belief system).
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What is catastrophizing?
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Awfulizing and terriblizing. It would occur at point B, the belief system, in the ABC model of personality.
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What is cognitive restructuring?
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It usually refers to Donald Meichenbaum's approach, which is similar to REBT. Restructuring takes place when the client begins thinking in a healthy new way using different internal dialogue.
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What is cognitive disputation?
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The act of changing the client's mode of thinking.
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What is imaginal disputation?
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REBT therapists may use imagery to urge clients to behave in different patterns.
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Who is the father of Rational-Behavior Therapy?
|
Maxie c. Maultsby, Jr.
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How does Cognitive Therapy differ from REBT?
|
In Cognitive Therapy, dysfunctional ideas are too absolute and broad, though not necessarily irrational.
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What therapy is Aaron T. Beck credited with creating?
|
He is credited with creating Cognitive Therapy.
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What is a metacognition?
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It is sometimes used as a term to describe an individual's tendency to be aware of his or her own cognitions and/or cognitive abilities.
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Who is Donald Meichenbaum?
|
He is a cognitive therapist most closely associated with his concept of stress inoculation. His approach was termed "Self-Instructional Therapy."
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What is stress inoculation?
|
It has three phases. First, the client is involved in an "educational phase" where the client is taught to monitor the impact of inner dialogue on his behavior. Next, clients are taught to rehearse new self-talk. This is the "rehearsal phase." Finally, the "application phase" is where new inner dialogue is attempted during actual stress-producing situations.
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Who is Eric Berne?
|
He created Transactional Analysis (TA). He wrote "Games People Play" and "What Do You Say After You Say Hello?"
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What is Transactional Anaysis?
|
These therapists are most likely to incorporate Gestalt Therapy into the treatment process. It is a cognitive approach, however, while Gerstalt is experiential.
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Who is Gerald Corey?
|
He suggested that the marriage of Gestalt and TA was made in therapeutic heaven because Gestalt Therapy emphasized the affective exploration that was missing from TA, which was too intellectual.
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What three ego states does TA assert?
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The Parent, the Adult, and the Child.
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What is the Parent ego state?
|
It is composed of values internalized from significant others in childhood. It is also known as the "exteropsyche" and it bears a very strong resemblance to Freud's superego.
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What is structural analysis?
|
When a counselor analyzes out of which ego state a client is primarily operating.
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What is second order structural analysis?
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When a counselor analyzes an ego state within an ego state (e.g., Critical Parent or Nurturing Parent)
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What are the two functions in the Parent ego state?
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The Nurturing Parent and the Critical Parent.
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What is the Nurturing Parent?
|
It is sympathetic, caring, and protective.
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What is the Critical Parent?
|
It is the master of teh shoulds, oughts, and musts.
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What is the Prejudicial Parent?
|
Occasionally another component of the Parent ego state, it is opinionated with biased not based on fact.
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What is the Adult ego state?
|
It corresponds to Freud's ego state. It is also known as the "neopsyche." It is rational, logical, and does not focus on feelings. It processes facts.
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What are the three functions in the Child ego state?
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The Natural Child, the Adapted Child, and the Little Professor.
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What is the Child ego state?
|
Sometimes called the "archeopsyche," it resembles Freud's id.
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What is the Natural Child?
|
It is what the person would be naturally: spontaneous, impulsive, and untrained.
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What is the Little Professor?
|
It is creative and intuitive. It acts on hunches, often without the necessary information.
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What is the Adapted Child?
|
It learns how to comply to avoid a parental slap on the hand.
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What are injunctions?
|
They are messages we receive from parents to form the ego states and they cause us to make certain early life decisions.
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What is a healthy communication transaction in TA?
|
It occurs where vectors of communication run parallel. It is a "complementary" transaction in which you get an appropriate, predicted response.
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What is a crossed transaction (TA)?
|
It occurs when vectors from a message sent and a message received do not run parallel. For example, if I send a message from my Adult to your Adult and you respond from your Child to my Child. These can result in a deadlock of communication and/or a host of hurtful feelings.
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Who is Tom Harris?
|
He wrote "I'm OK -- You're OK"
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According to Tom Harris, what are the four basic life positions?
|
1) I'm not OK -- You're OK: a self-abusive person or masochistic personality; 2) I'm OK -- You're OK: successful; 3) I'm OK -- You're not OK: adolescent delinquents and adult criminals tend to be this; such persons feel victimized and are often paranoid; 4) I'm not OK -- You're not OK: pessimistic; could result in schizoid behavior
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What is Karpman's triangle?
|
He suggested that only three roles are necessary for manipulative drama: persecutor, rescuer, and victim.
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What is a game in TA?
|
It is a transaction with a concealed motive. They prevent honest, intimate discussion, and one player is always left with negative feelings. They have a predictable outcome as a result of ulterior transactions, which occurs when a disguised message is sent. The higher the number of degree of game, the greater the hurt.
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What therapeutic technique is common to both TA analysts and behaviorists?
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Contracting.
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What is a racket?
|
When a client manipulates others to experience a childhood feeling, this results.
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What is the life script?
|
It is a person's ongoing drama which dictates how a person will live his or her life. Claude Steiner has written extensively on these. Some popular scripts include the never scripts (a person who never feels he or she will succeed), the always scripts (individuals who will always remain a given way), the after scripts (that result in a way a person believes he or she will behave after a certain event occurs), open ended scripts (person has no direction or plan), until scripts (client is not allowed to feel good until a certain accomplishment or event arrives), desirable scripts/less desirable scripts
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Who is Claude Steiner?
|
He wrote extensively on life scripts. He suggests three basic unhealthy scripts: no love, no mind, and no joy.
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What is script analysis?
|
The process of ferreting out the client's script in TA.
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What are ulterior transactions?
|
They contain hidden transactions as two or more ego states are operating at the same time.
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What is the "top dog"?
|
In Gestalt Therapy, it is seen as the Critical Parent portion of the personality which is very authoritarian and quick to use shoulds and oughts.
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What is the "underdog"?
|
In Gestalt Therapy, it is seen as weak, powerless, passive, and full of excuses.
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Who are Truax and Mitchell?
|
They asserts that an effective counselor is authentic and genuine, not phony; gives positive regard through acceptance; and has accurate empathic understanding.
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Who is Gazda?
|
He suggested a "Global Scale for Rating Helper Responses" which ranked from 1.0 to 4.0.
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What does NLP stand for?
|
Bandler and Grinder's Neurolinguistic Programming.
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What is Bandler and Grinder's Neurolinguistic Programming?
|
This model makes some incredible claims. NLP practitioners use reframing and anchoring.
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What is reframing?
|
The counselor uses this technique to help the client to perceive a given situation in a new light so as to produce a new emotional reaction to it (e.g., a glass of water is not half empty; it is really half full).
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What is anchoring?
|
The counselor uses this technique to evoke an emotional state via an outside stimulus such as a touch or a sound or a specific bodily motion. This is similar to classical conditioning or the concept of a posthypnotic suggestion. A client with a phobia of cats, for example, might squeeze his left arm when he came in contact with a cat and this would bring out an emotion other than fear.
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What is the "playing the projection" technique?
|
In this technique, the counselor literally asks you to act like this person you dislike.
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What timeframe is Gestalt therapy most focused on?
|
This therapy is most focused on the here and now.
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What is the exaggeration experiment?
|
"What is your left hand doing? Can you exaggerate that movement in your left hand?"
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What is successive approximation?
|
An operant behavior modification term, it suggests that a behavior is gradually accomplished by reinforcing "successive steps" until the target behavior is reached. It is also known as "shaping."
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What is the DOT?
|
The Dictionary of Occupational Titles, which lists 20,000 job titles.
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What is the OOH?
|
The Occupational Outlook Handbook, published by the US Department of Labor, which attempts to depict projected job trends.
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What is psychodrama?
|
It incorporates role-playing into the treatment process. It was invented by Jacob L. Moreno, who first coined the term "group therapy." Gestalt therapists emphasize experiments and exercises.
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What is retroflection?
|
It is the act of doing to yourself what you really wish to do to someone else.
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What does "Gestalt" mean?
|
A form, figure, or configuration as a whole. It can also imply that the integrated whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
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How many layers of neurosis does Perls suggest must be peeled away to reach emotional stability?
|
Five layers of neurosis.
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What are the five layers of neurosis, according to Perls?
|
The person has a phony layer, a phobic layer (fear that others will reject his or her uniqueness), an impasse layer (the person feels stuck), the implosive layer (willingness to expose the true self), and the explosive layer (person has relief due to authenticity).
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What is "unfinished business"?
|
In Gestalt therapy, they are unexpressed emotions. When an unexpressed feeling of resentment, rage, guilt, anxiety, etc. interferes with present situations and causes difficulties, it is known as this.
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What are the three most common principles relating to gestalt psychology?
|
1) insight learning; 2) motivated people tend to experience tension due to unfinished tasks, and thus they recall unfinished activities better. Thus, if you sincerely care about the outcome of a task, you will have better recall of that task if it remains incomplete than if finished; 3) the illusion of movement can be achieved via two or more stimuli which are not moving, such as a neon sign which has a moving arrow.
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What does Gestalt Therapy emphasize?
|
It emphasizes awareness in the here and now and dream work.
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What are "games of dialog"?
|
Top dog, underdog, empty chair technique
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What do Gestalt Therapy critics assert that it fails to emphasize?
|
They feel it often fails to emphasize cognitive concerns and is anti-intellectual. It is also felt to be too confrontational.
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|
Describe counseling in the 1950s.
|
In this decade, counseling became the key guidance function. It marked a golden age for developmental psychology.
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Describe counseling in the late 1960s.
|
In this time, the field was inundated with competing psychotherapies.
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Describe counseling in the 1970s.
|
In this decade, biofeedback, behavior modification, and crisis hotlines became popular.
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Describe counseling in the 1980s.
|
In this decade, professionalism (e.g., licensing and improvement in professional organizations) was evident.
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What are the three names for the school of counseling developed by Carl R. Rogers, Ph.D.?
|
He created nondirective counseling, which became Client-Centered Therapy, which became the Person-Centered approach. It could also be referred to as "self theory."
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|
What is Rogers' approach characterized as?
|
His approach is characterized as existential or humanistic (a.k.a. third force psychology).
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What skills must an effective counselor possess in the Person-Centered approach?
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They must possess empathy, congruence, genuineness, and demonstrate unconditional positive regard to create a desirable "I-Thou relationship." This produces a "climate for growth."
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How did Rogers view man?
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He viewed man as positive when he develops in a warm, accepting, trusting environment. The individual is good and moves toward growth and self-actualization.
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How does Berne view man?
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Messages learned about self in childhood determine whether person is good or bad, though intervention can change this script.
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How does Freud view man?
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He views man as deterministic and believes people are controlled by biological instincts. People are unsocialized, irrational, and driven by unconscious forces.
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How does Ellis view man?
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He feels that people have a cultural/biological propensity to think in a disturbed manner but can be taught to use their capacity to react differently.
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How does Perls view man?
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He feels that people are not bad or good, but have the capacity to govern life effectively as "whole." People are part of their environment and must be viewed as such.
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How does Glasser view man?
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He feels that individuals must strive to meet basic physiological needs and the need to be worthwhile to self and others. The brain as a control system tries to meet needs.
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How does Adler view man?
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He feels that man is basically good; much of behavior is determined via birth order.`
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How does Jung view man?
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He feels that man strives for individuation or a sense of self-fulfillment.
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How does Skinner view man?
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He feels that humans are like other animals: mechanistic and controlled via environmental stimuli and reinforcement contingencies; not good or bad; no self-determination or freedom.
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How does Bandura view man?
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He feels that the person produces and is a product of conditioning.
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How does Frankl view man?
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He feels that the existential view of man is that humans are good, rational, and refrain from freedom of choice.
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How does Williamson view man?
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He feels that through education and scientific data, man can become himself. Humans are born with potential for good or evil. Others are needed to help unleash positive potential. Man is mainly rational, not intuitive.
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With what therapy is Rogers credited?
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He is credited with Person-Centered therapy.
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With what therapy is Berne credited?
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He is credited with Transactional Analysis.
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With what therapy is Freud credited with?
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He is credited with Psychoanalysis.
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With what therapy is Ellis credited with?
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He is credited with Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy.
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With what therapy is Perls credited with?
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He is credited with Gestalt therapy.
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With what therapy is Glasser credited with?
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He is credited with Reality Therapy.
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With what therapy is Adler credited with?
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He is credited with Individual Psychology.
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With what therapy is Jung credited with?
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He is credited with Analytic Psychology.
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With what therapy is Skinner credited with?
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He is credited with Behavior Modification.
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With what therapy is Bandura credited with?
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He is credited with Neo-behavioristic therapy.
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With what therapy is Frankl credited with?
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He is credited with Logotherapy.
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With what therapy is Williamson credited with?
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He is credited with Trait-factor therapy.
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What is congruence?
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It occurs when external behavior matches an internal response or state. This is also called genuineness. It is a condition where the counselor is very aware of his or her own feelings and accurately expresses this to the client. Rogers felt this was the most important element for an effective helping climate.
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What three conditions are essential in Person-Centered therapy for client change to occur?
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Genuineness, Empathy, and Unconditional Positive Regard.
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What is Caplan's psychodynamic model of mental health consultation?
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It is when the consultant does not see the client directly, but advises the consultee (i.e., the individual in the organization who is receiving the consultant's services). This model is interesting because it recommends that the consultant -- not the counselor/consultee -- be ethically and legally responsible for the client's welfare and treatment.
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What is Caplan's behavioral consultation or social learning theory model of consultation?
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In this model of consultation, the consultant designs behavioral change programs for the consultee to implement.
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What is Edgar Schein's "doctor-patient" model of consultation?
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In this model of consultation, the consultant is paid to diagnose the problem (i.e., the consultee is not certain what it is) and prescribe a solution. The focus is on the agency or organization, not the individual client.
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What is process consultation?
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The focus is not on the content of the problem, but rather the process used to solve the problems.
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What is the purchase of expertise model of consultation?
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In this model, the consultee says: "Here's the problem; you fix it." This is similar to the doctor-patient model, except that the consultee knows what is wrong.
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What is triadic consultation?
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In this model, the consultant works with a mediator to provide services to a client.
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What kind of setting does consultation tend to take place in, as opposed to a clinical setting?
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It tends to take place in a work/organizational setting. Counselors tend to focus more on a person or group, while consultants tend to focus more on issues. Also, in consultation work, empathy is overshadowed by genuineness and respect.
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What is verbal tracking?
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It is attending behavior that is verbal.
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What is social power or social influence related to in a counselor (a.k.a. human relations core)?
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Expertise, attractiveness, and trustworthiness.
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What is competence?
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It is how the counselor perceives himself or herself.
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What are three key areas that cause problems for a counselor's self-image?
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Competence, power, and intimacy. These factors are related to a counselor's social influence.
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Who was Gerad Egan?
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He stressed that clients are indeed more open and expressive with counselors who seem genuine. He is well-known for his books who teach a systematic approach to effective helping.
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What is accomplishment-competence?
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A feeling that an accomplishment (e.g., helping abate a client's depression) can impact one's feelings of competence, or the client's perception of the helper's expertise.
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What are Ivey's three postulated types of empathy?
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Basic, subtractive, and additive.
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What is basic empathy?
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The counselor's response in this type of empathy is on the same level as the client's.
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What is subtractive empathy?
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In this type of empathy, the counselor's behavior does not completely convey and understanding of what has been communicated.
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What is additive empathy?
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This type of empathy is considered most desirable because it adds to the client's understanding and awareness.
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Who created a program to help counselors learn accurate empathy?
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Robert Carkhuff and Truax. Carkhuff says, "all helping is for better or worse" and "no helpee is left unchanged by any helping interaction."
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What is the social influence core?
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Empathy, positive regard (or respect), and genuineness. This is not the human relations core.
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Where did most counseling prior to the 1960s take place?
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This took place mostly in dyads.
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What is a group?
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This has a membership which can be defined, some degree of unity and interaction, and a shared purpose. It's really a cluster of people in a recognizable unit.
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Who coined the phrase "group therapy" in 1931?
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Jacob Moreno, the Father of Psychodrama. Ten years before he coined this term, he noted that individuals in Vienna involved in theatrical productions without scripts experienced a cathartic reaction which seemed to be curative.
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What two organizations for group therapy were created in the 1940s?
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The American Society for Group Psychotherapy and Psychodrama and the American Group Psychotherapy Association.
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What is the ASGW?
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The Association for Specialists in Group Work is a division of the ACA that focuses primarily on group intervention.
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What is the NASW?
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The National Association of Social Workers. It was established in 1955.
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What is the AAS?
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The American Association of Suicidology.
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Which theorist's work has been classified as a preface to the group movement?
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Adler, who actually engaged in group therapy during the early 1920s. "...man's problems and conflicts are recognized in their social nature..."
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What are primary groups?
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These groups are preventive and attempt to ward off problems. These stress healthy lifestyles or coping strategies which can reduce the occurrence of a given difficulty. For example, a group which teaches birth control to prevent teen pregnancy.
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Who is Gerald Caplan?
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He was a pioneer in the crisis intervention movement and he created a model for classifying groups.
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What are Caplan's three group classifications?
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Primary, secondary, and tertiary.
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What are secondary groups?
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This group works to reduce the severity or length of a problem and generally includes aspects of prevention. For example, a group that deals with grief or shyness.
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What are tertiary groups?
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These groups usually deal with more individual difficulties that are more serious and longstanding.
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What is immediacy?
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It takes place (in a group or individual setting) when the counselor explores the client-counselor relationship as it is transpiring right at that moment. It relates to the counselor's ability to convey what is happening between the counselor and the client.
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What are group norms?
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They are explicit and implicit rules which tell group members how to behave and not behave in a given situation. All groups have them, though they are not formerly presented to the group. It refers to "expected behaviors" and may vary depending on your role in a group.
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Why did group therapy initially flourish in the US?
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There was a shortage of individual therapists during WWII.
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What is group content?
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It refers to material discussed in a group setting.
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What is group process?
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It is the manner in which discussions and transactions occur in a group. It refers to analyzing the communication, interactions, and transactions.
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What is the T-group paradigm?
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It means "training group."
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What is group cohesiveness?
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It refers to forces that tend to bind group members together. It is a sense of caring for the group and the other group members. It is associated with Kurt Lewin's "field theory." When this goes up, absenteeism and other negative factors go down. It leads to higher group productivity and commitment.
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What is a fragmented group?
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A group with little or no cohesiveness.
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What is the difference between group counseling and group therapy?
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Therapy is considered to be of longer duration.
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Who is George Gazda?
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He proposed three types of groups: guidance, counseling, and psychotherapy.
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What is a guidance group, according to Gazda?
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It is a primary group in the sense that it is mainly preventive. It is also called the "affective education group" or "psychological education group." They do not deal with remediation of severe psychological pathology.
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What is the psychotherapy group, according to Gazda?
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It is a tertiary group and may emphasize the role of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences more than a counseling group.
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What is a counseling group, according to Gazda?
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This group would not tend to be psychodynamic and therefore would focus more on conscious concerns. It generally has less structure than a guidance group.
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What is the risky shift phenomenon?
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According to this phenomenon, a group decision will be less conservative than the average group member's decision prior to the discussion. (Think back to teenage years.) This dispels the popular notion that group behavior is very conservative.
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What is taxonomy or nosology?
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The study of classification, or diagnosis.
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What types of groups tend to be structured?
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Behavioral groups, such as those which focus on assertiveness training, stress management, or coping with test anxiety. They stress directive techniques and concrete treatment objectives.
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What is a self-help or support group?
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It is composed of a group of people who are all attempting to cope with a given issue (e.g., alcoholism or weight control). Members have a common goal or problem and learn from each other. The group is not led by a professional, though this type of group may indeed rely on a professional for consultation purposes. Most are voluntary.
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What is a marathon group?
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It is one long group. It plays on the theme that after an extended period of time, defenses and facades will drop and the person can become honest, genuine, and real. It may be conducted over a weekend or a period of several days.
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Who are most often poor candidates for group therapy?
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Hostile individuals who act out aggressively, persons who are actively suicidal or homicidal, paranoid clients, those who are totally self-centered, or psychotic individuals.
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What does Yalom feel is the main factor in selecting participants for a group?
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He feels that it is important for group members to feel cohesive.
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What are some factors associated with premature termination from group therapy?
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High denial, low motivation, and low intelligence.
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What are open groups?
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They allow new members to join at any time.
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What are closed groups?
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No new people can enter. The decision is made initially that no new members can join for the life of the group. These groups tend to have more cohesiveness or unity.
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What are some disadvantages of closed groups?
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They are less cost effective. If everyone in the group quits, you will be left with no group members (numbers are not always as stable).
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What are some disadvantages of open groups?
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There is less group cohesiveness or unity which can create less trust (and possibly paranoid feelings in group members). It is more difficult to add structure. A member who has joined after the first meeting has missed information and/or experiences.
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What is universality?
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We are not the only ones in the world with a given problem. This is one of the advantages of group therapy versus individual therapy.
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What are the three basic leadership styles as implied by Lewin, Lippitt, and White?
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Autocratic (authoritarian), democratic, and laissez faire.
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What is a laissez faire leadership style?
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It implies that group members can do as they please without leader interference or direction. Children display aggressive behavior with this leadership style.
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What is the autocratic (authoritarian) leadership style?
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This is the style group members report liking least. Hostility was found to be 30 times more likely in this kind of group. It is superior when an immediate decision is necessary.
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What is the charismatic leadership style?
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In this leadership style, the leader uses his or her personal power, charisma, and attractiveness to abet facilitation.
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What are the three client response patterns with regard to assertiveness training?
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Assertive, Aggressive, Passive (Nonassertive)
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What are speculative leaders?
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Leaders that focus on the here and now.
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What is the democratic leadership style?
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In most situations, this style is most desirable as it tends to lend itself to more situations than the other two styles.
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Why is coleadership desirable?
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The group can go on, even if one leader is absent. Two leaders can focus on group dynamics better than one leader. Leaders can process their feelings between sessions. They can supply more feedback to group members than one leader. They can learn from each other, and can model effective communication for the group. It reduces burnout and helps ensure safety. It is helpful when one leader is experiencing countertransference.
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When can coleadership be a disadvantage?
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When leaders are working against each other which can cause the group to fragment, when leaders intimidate each other, or when leaders question each other's competence.
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What does Gerald Corey believe is necessary for an effective group leader?
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He believes that it is essential for a counselor to have participated in a therapeutic group and participated in a leader's group (even if the individual is well-educated and licensed and certified).
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What does Yalom believe is necessary for an effective group leader?
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He feels that self-exploration (e.g., personal therapy) is generally necessary for potential group leaders to help them deal with issues which could cause countertransference.
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How big are most effective adult counseling groups?
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5-8 members. An ideal group would have about eight adults. And adolescent group might be slightly smaller, perhaps 5-6 members. For children, 3-4.
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What length is considered plenty of time for a group when critical issues are being examined?
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One and a half to two hours is sufficient for adult group work. Longer groups can fatigue group members. With children, leaders need to consider attention span. It is suggested that these groups rely more on frequent, shorter meetings.
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What is a risk of group intervention?
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Lack of a guarantee of confidentiality.
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What should a group leader inform its members before the group begins?
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They should give members information regarding whether the group is appropriate (e.g., the purpose of the group, the risks involved, and the leader's qualifications). They need to understand that their participation in the group is voluntary and they may exit the group at any time. This informed consent should occur during the group screening process, ideally.
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What is ambivalent transference?
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This is a psychoanalytic notion which suggests that a client will treat a therapist with ambivalence, as he or she would any person viewed as an authority figure. It implies that the client will experience contradictory emotions, such as love and hate, alternating from one to the other.
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What is blocking?
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It is a term often used in group work. It occurs when a leader uses an intervention to stop -- or block -- a negative or counterproductive behavior which could hurt another member of the group.
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What is scapegoating?
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It is when members gang up on a single group member. It is the type of behavior a leader would want to block.
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What are group dynamics?
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This is the study of group operations. It refers to the study of the interrelationships of group members. Prime examples are group stages, cohesiveness, leadership style, and decision-making. These are considered to be any factor that has an impact on the group.
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What is the hot seat technique?
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This was popularized by Fritz Perl's Gestalt Therapy groups and refers to a person who is the target of the therapist's interventions in the here and now as being in the "hot seat."
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What is structuring the group?
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This is determined by the presence of (or lack of) structured tasks or exercises given to members by the group leader.
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How do you operationally define something?
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You must be able to demonstrate the concrete steps necessary to illuminate the concept. This is so that another person can duplicate your actions (i.e., the exact steps) for therapeutic, research, or testing purposes.
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Why might there really be no such thing as an "unstructured group"?
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A group cannot not have structure.
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What is reactive schizophrenia?
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This implies that the person experienced a psychotic episode following a traumatic experience. This is not the same as an individual who is seemingly always schizophrenic.
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Who is the energizer?
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They stimulate enthusiasm in the group.
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Who is the scapegoat?
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Everyone blames this person. He or she is invariably the target of severe anger and hostility.
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Who is the gatekeeper?
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They try to make certain that everyone is doing his or her task and is participating. They may "secretly" or "unconsciously" want to lead the group and could even attempt to establish norms. They may often not work on his or her own personal issues.
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Who is the interrogator?
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They ask a never-ending string of questions and may insist on asking other members inappropriate questions. Also called Peeping Tom.
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Who is the follower?
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They go along with the rest of the group. The could be considered nonassertive.
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What is practicing excitation?
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According to Andrew Salter's Conditioned Reflex Therapy, it is the practice of spontaneously experiencing and expressing true emotions (even negative ones) is seen as necessary in order to attain a state of positive mental health.
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What is inhibition?
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Also called constipation of emotions, it is seen as the opposite of excitation. Andrew Salter said, "However, in psychotherapy, we need have no fear. The diagnosis is always [this]."
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Who is the harmonizer?
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Also called the conciliator, it is the person who tries to make certain that everything is going smoothly.
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Who is the storyteller?
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This person monopolizes a wealth of group time telling endless (often irrelevant) tales. A group leader will sometimes need to help this person get to the point or will need to ask the person precisely how the story is productive in the context of the group setting.
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Who is the isolate?
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This person is ignored by others. They generally feel afraid to reach out or do reach out and are genuinely rejected. They are not the same as the scapegoat. Also called "the silent one." They receive little or no attention.
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What are some disadvantages of cohesiveness?
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It can stifle creativity and abet conformity.
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What are factions?
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Cliques or groups of people within a group. Also called a subgroup.
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What are the classifications of group roles?
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Task roles, maintenance roles, and self-serving (or individual) roles.
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What is a task role?
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These roles help solve problems, aid in terms of goal-setting and keeping the group focused, and are seen as positive.
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What is a maintenance role?
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These roles help maintain or even strengthen group processes. They help support the groups livelihood and are, therefore, seen as positive.
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What is a self-serving (individual) role?
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These roles meet their own needs at the expense of the group. It could be a person who downright refuses to participate or a person who criticizes or disagrees with others. They are counterproductive.
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What is maturity with respect to group tasks?
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It refers to a group member's level of motivation.
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What is role conflict?
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It is a situation in which there is a discrepancy between the way a member is expected and the way he or she actually behaves.
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What is a conflict of interest in a group?
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It is when a group member maximizes his or her needs and interests at the expense of someone else.
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What are the group stages (typically)?
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The initial stage (or orientation and exploration or preaffliation or forming), the transition stage (or power and control or storming), the working stage (or norming, cohesion, working, or negotiation, intimacy, and frame of reference), anf the final stage (or separation, termination, or adjourning)
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What are some other titles for the initial group stage?
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Forming, orientation, preparation, engagement, preaffiliation
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What occurs in the initial group stage?
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Members will be tentative and size up other members. They will identify or get acquainted with others based on culture, language, mode of dress, or occupation. It is characterized by an approach-avoidance conflict situation (you want to meet group members, but its scary to think about the fact that you could be rejected).
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What occurs in the final group stage?
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It represents a time of breaking away or saying good-bye. Group members can experience loss ad need to establish bonds outside of the group setting.
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In what group stage would a client generally feel the most suspicious of others?
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Like Erikson's first psychosocial stage of development, the initial group stage hosts the "trust versus mistrust" drama.
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In what group stage would fights between subgroups and members showing rebellion against the leader generally occur in?
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Garland, Jones, and Kolodny appropriately called this stage "power and control." This second stage, known as the the control or transition stage, is the stage in which the fireworks fly as group members verbally attack one another, not to mention the group leader.
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In what group stage would hierarchies or pecking orders among members generally occur in?
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This occurs in the stage of storming, also known as the power-control stage.
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How can group leaders handle rebellion against group leaders?
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Leaders need to distinguish between challenges and attacks and should not assume that every confrontation is an attack on one's personal integrity as a leader. Leaders can model responsible assertive confrontation with open and truthful expression.
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When does group planning occur?
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It begins before the group begins and continues throughout the life of the group.
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What is ecological planning?
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It is a term that has been used to describe the process of obtaining information to determine whether a group is the most elegant form of treatment and, if it is, to decide the exact nature of the group experience.
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What are some things to consider when forming a group?
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Whether to use a single facilitator or coleadership; an assessment of the best surroundings for where the group should be held; how the group will receive funding or payment for the group; whether a marketing or recruitment strategy is necessary; what information can be useful from books, journals, or the Internet; how the clients will be screened and prepared for the group; provide clients with informed consent documents
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What does the final group stage (termination) gear members toward?
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This stage is geared toward breaking away and is used to help members make plans for the future.
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What is sociometry?
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It is the study of measuring person-to-person relationships regarding what members in a group think or feel. In essence, it is a quantitative study of relationship concerns in a group.
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What is a sociogram?
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It graphically depicts group members' affiliations and interactions.
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What is sculpturing or family sculpturing?
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It is a family therapy technique in which the family members are instructed to arrange themselves spatially to create a live representation of family members' bonds, feelings, or closeness (or lack of it), and sense of alliances.
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What is blocking in group therapy?
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It is used by the leader to stop a hurtful behavior. It is often necessary for the protection of group members. It can be used in cases of gossiping or breaking confidentiality.
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What is clarification in group therapy?
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A leader uses this to ferret out the important points in a client's message. It brings out the gist of a message and illuminates what was really said to lessen any confusion.
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What is linking in group therapy?
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It is used to promote cohesion. It is an attempt to bring together common patterns or themes within the group. A leader may attempt to relate one person's predicament to another person's predicament.
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What are horizontal interventions?
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These are strategies that approach the group as a whole.
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What are vertical interventions?
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This is when the leader of a group works with individuals within the group as opposed to the group as a whole.
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What is the role of research in group therapy?
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Practical research about what exactly works best in a group setting is scarce. Many studies in this field have not been well controlled. The independent variables are often hard to define. Most research in this field are classified as "outcome research" or "process research" which addresses the question of whether the group was able to reach a given set of goals or simply the desired "outcome."
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What is probably the largest limitation of group therapy?
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A group leader can lose control and group members could experience emotional harm. Other limitations include: that a client may need individual therapy before he or she can benefit from group work; that a client may not be capable of trusting others enough to reveal key material since he or she fears others may find it unacceptable; that the group could become a substitute experience for the real world; that the group counselor may not be as effective with a whole group of people as he or she is with just one person in individual treatment; that some clients may feel pressure to replace their personal norms with those of the group; that disappointment can set in if the group is not helpful and the person loses faith in treatment without experiencing individual sessions.
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What are some of the benefits of group therapy?
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Members can learn to give help as well as receive it; group work allows for "in vivo" interpersonal work; it is cost effective and allows a trained counselor to help a greater number of people; it promotes universality; it can be an effective support system; members get multiple feedback; members can model successful communication and coping skills; the group setting is somewhat analogous to the communication and interaction of everyday life.
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What kind of therapist is Yalom?
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He is an existential therapist.
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What factors does Yalom delineate as curative factors?
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altruism, universality, and existential learning; catharsis, cohesiveness, and instillation of hope; imitative behavior and reenactment of family experiences.
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What four intervention levels does R. K. Coyne's "group work grid" model include?
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Individual, interpersonal, organization, and community population.
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What does R. K. Coyne suggest that group intervention is intended to do?
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He suggests that group intervention is intended to prevent, correct, or enhance behavior. Interventions can be correction-oriented or enhancement-oriented for either personal or task functions.
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What is the ideal way for assessing the impact of a group?
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Have an outside "observer" sit in during group sessions and consequently rate the level of behavioral change. Research in the area of group work has been criticized for not using independent observers.
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What do Corey and Corey suggest is important for groups with children under age 10?
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Involve parents and ask them for input.
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What is best to do when an adolescent in group complains about his or her parents?
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Avoid taking sides, but help him or her see the parents' point of view via a therapeutic technique such as role-playing. With children and adolescents, always be careful what you say about confidentiality, since you may need to break it to report abuse or neglect issues.
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Who was Frank Parsons?
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He has been associated with the beginning of the guidance movement.
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What is a "displaced homemaker"?
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It is a woman with children who was a homemaker but is currently in need of work to support her family. Also called "reentry women."
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What is the difference between career counseling and vocational guidance?
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Guidance is seen as a developmental and educational process within a school system, while career counseling is viewed as a therapeutic service for adults performed outside an educational setting.
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What is the "changing view of work"?
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This phrase generally indicates that in the past, work was seen as drudgery, while today it is seen as a vehicle to express our identity, self-esteem, and status. In the past, work was primarily a way to pay the bills. Today, the rewards of a career are often conceptualized as fulfilling emotional needs. This would seem to indicate that people who don't need to work still continue to do so.
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What is "decrement"?
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It is a since-disproved psychology term which suggested that speed, skills, and retention would decrease as one entered old age.
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What do career counselors mean by the term "leisure"?
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This is defined as time away from work in which the individual has the freedom to choose what he or she would like to do. It is said to be "self-determined."
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How is career defined?
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It is sometimes defined as the total work one does in a lifetime plus leisure.
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What is an avocation?
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This is a leisure activity that one engages in for pleasure rather than money.
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What did Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 (amended in 1972) state?
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It stated that women would have equal work opportunities and equal job pay. This has not lessened the gap, however, between the wages earned between men and women.
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What is the 80% four-fifths rule?
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With this, the hiring rate for minorities is divided by the figure for non-minorities. If the quotient is less than 80% then adverse impact is evident.
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What is "differential validity"?
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It is evident when a selection process (e.g., a test) is valid for one group, yet less valid or totally invalid for another group.
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What is the trait-factor theory?
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It assumed that, via psychological testing, one's personality could be matched to an occupation which stressed those particular personality traits. Also sometimes referred to as "profile matching." In this approach, a job candidate's personality and/or skills profile is matched to that of successful workers. The decision to hire is then based on the closeness or similarity of the match based on a pattern of predictor scores. It is also called the actuarial or matching approach. It is considered the first major and most durable theory of career choice.
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What is the developmental theory?
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This approach views career decisions as longitudinal and reversible.
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Who is Edmund Griffith Williamson?
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He was the chief spokesperson for the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint, which expanded upon Parsons' model to create a theory of counseling which transcended vocational issues.
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With whom is the trait-factor approach associated with?
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Parsons and Williamson. Also, sometimes C. F. Patterson.
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What is differential psychology?
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The study of individual differences.
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What are some criticisms of the trait-factor theory?
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It has been accused of being oversimplified as it subordinated personal choice making and advanced the idea of "a single job for life." It assumes that an individual's traits can be measured so accurately that the choice of an occupation is a one-time process.
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Who is considered the Father of Vocational Guidance?
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Frank Parsons.
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What is the fourth force in counseling?
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Multiculturalism.
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What is the Minnesota Viewpoint?
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Created by Edmund Griffith Williamson, it purports to be scientific and didactic, utilizing test data from instruments such as the Minnesota Occupational Rating Scales.
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What does the trait-factor fail to take into consideration?
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It fails to take individual change throughout the life span into consideration.
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What is psychometric data?
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It refers to the use of test results in counseling.
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Who is Anne Roe?
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She suggested a personality approach to career choice based on the premise that a job satisfies an unconscious need. She was one of the first individuals to suggest a theory of career choice based heavily on personality theory. Her work is often called the "person-environment" theory. The theory is primarily psychoanalytic, though it draws on Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Her major propositions are that needs which are satisfied do not become unconscious motivators; that higher order needs will not disappear even if they are rarely satisfied, but low order needs (such as safety) will be the major concern; and that needs which are satisfied after a long delay will become unconscious motivators. She emphasized that early child rearing practices influence later career choices since a job is a major source of gratification for an unconscious need.
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What are the eight fields in Roe's two-dimensional system of occupational classification?
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service, business contact, organizations, technology, outdoor, science, general culture, and arts/entertainment.
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What are the six levels in Roe's two-dimensional system of occupational classification?
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professional and managerial 1, professional and managerial 2, semiprofessional/small business, skilled, semi-skilled, and unskilled.
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What are the two dimensions of Roe's system of occupational classification?
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Fields and levels.
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What three parenting skills did Roe speak of?
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Overprotective, avoidant, or acceptant.
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What is the avoidant parenting style, according to Roe?
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This style is also often called "rejecting." It in an emotionally cold or hostile style.
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What is the acceptant parenting style, according to Roe?
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This style is democratic.
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How did Roe feel that parenting style affected career choice?
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She felt that an individual who was raised in a warm, accepting family where person-to-person interaction was rewarded would tend to seek out careers emphasizing contact with others. A cold "avoiding" family of origin would thus be more likely to produce an individual who would shun person-oriented careers.
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How does Roe's theory rely on Maslow's hierarchy of needs in terms of career choice?
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She emphasized that lower order needs take precedence over higher order needs.
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Where does some support for Roe's theory come from?
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Projective tests, such as the Rorschach and TAT
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According to Roe, what factors influence career choice?
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Genetics, parent-child interaction, unconscious motivators, current needs, interests (people/things), education, and intelligence.
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What is the difference between a job (position), occupation, and career?
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A job refers to a given position or similar positions within an organization. An occupation is broader and refers to similar jobs occupied via different people in different settings (e.g., psychotherapists). Career is the broadest category as it depicts a person's lifetime positions plus leisure.
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Who was Edwin Bordin?
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He was another theorist who emphasized the unconscious processes in career choice and felt that career choices could be used to solve unconscious conflicts. He felt that difficulties related to job choice were indicative of neurotic symptoms.
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Who was A. A. Brill?
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He emphasized sublimation, a defense mechanism, which occurs when an individual expresses an unacceptable need in a socially acceptable manner. For example, a person who likes to cut things might pursue a career as a butcher or perhaps as a surgeon.
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Who was Jane Loevinger?
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She is noted for her seven stage transition continuum theory of ego development.
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Whose career theory is considered the most popular approach to career choice?
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John Holland.
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What are the four assumptions of Holland's theory?
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First, in our culture, there are six basic personality types (realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, conventional). Second, most work environments correspond to six personality types. Third, people search out an agreeable environment which lets them express their personality type. Fourth, the individual's behavior is determined by an interaction of the personality and the environment.
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What classification would be given to Roe, Brill, and Holland?
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Personality or structural theorists.
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What is Holland's social category?
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Jobs in this classification include teachers, counselors, speech therapists, and social workers. This person would prefer to solve problems using interpersonal skills and feelings.
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What is Holland's enterprising category?
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This type of person likes to sell to other or perform leadership tasks. He or she tends to value power and status. Occupations in this category include real estate agents, business owners, television producers, and hotel managers.
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What is Holland's realistic category?
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This person likes machines. They might become a truck driver, an auto mechanic, or might fancy plumbing.
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What is Holland's investigative category?
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This personality type likes to think his or her way though a problem. Occupations congruent with this type include scientists, design engineers, geologists, mathematicians, and philosophers.
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What is Holland's artistic category?
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This type tends to shun conformity as well as structure. The emphasis is on self-expression.
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What is Holland's conventional category?
|
This type values conformity, structure, rules, and feels comfortable in a subordinate role. Statisticians, bank clerks, and controllers fit this stereotype.
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Who was Henry Murray?
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He created the "needs-press" theory and the TAT projective test.
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Who was Robert Rosenthal?
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He is famous for his research regarding the "experimenter effect."
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Who is David Wechsler?
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He is well-known for creating the Wechsler Intelligence Scales.
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Who was Hoppock?
|
He based his work on that of Henry Murray and his theory is considered a personality approach.
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How do developmental career theorists view career choice?
|
They view career choice as an on-going or so-called longitudinal process rather than a single decision made at one point in time.
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Who were the pioneer theorists in developmental career theory (the first to forsake matching models)?
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Ginzberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad, and Herma.
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Who was Ginzberg?
|
He and his associates began to emphasize developmental factors related to occupational choice. Based on a small research sample, they concluded that occupational choice takes place over a 6-10 year period, the choice is irreversible, and always has the quality of compromise. Exploration was said to lead to crystallization. He later modified his position saying that the process of choice is open-ended and lifelong. He and his colleagues now believe in a development model of career choice which asserts that the process of choosing a career does not end at age 20, career choice decisions are really made throughout the life span, and career choice is reversible.
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What three stages did Ginzberg, et al. propose?
|
Three: Fantasy (until age 11, based strongly on impulses), Tentative (ages 11 to 17, where interests and abilities are examined), and the realistic period (age 17 to early 20s, where a choice is made by weighing abilities and needs and making a compromise).
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What is optimization, according to Ginzberg?
|
This meant that individual try to make the best of what they have to offer and what is available in the job market.
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Who was Donald Super?
|
He was a developmental career theorist who emphasized the self-concept. The assumption is that the individual chooses a career which allows the self-concept to be expressed.
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What are Super's theory's stages?
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1) Growth (birth to 14), 2) Exploration (15-24), 3) Establishment (24-44), 4) Maintenance (44-64), 5) Decline (65+). GEEMD
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What is the "career rainbow"?
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It is what Super called the graphic display of the roles unfolding over the lifespan.
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What are Super's "theatres"?
|
These are where an individual's roles are played out, such as the home, community, school, and work.
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Who is John Crites?
|
He researched career maturity.
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Who is Schlossberg?
|
She has focused heavily on adult career development. She suggested five noteworthy factors: behavior in the adult years is primarily determined by social rather than biological factors; behaviors can either be a function of one's life stage or one's age at other times; sex differences are actually more powerful than age or stage differences; adults continually experience transitions which require adaptation and self-assessment; identity, intimacy, and generativity are recurring themes in adulthood.
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What is the main tenet of decision making theories?
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The main tenet is that the individual has the power to choose from the various career options.
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Who are David Tiedman and Robert O'Hara?
|
They proposed the decision-making theory, which refers to periods of anticipation and implementation/adjustment. They suggested that the decision process is best explained by breaking it down into a two part process. In the anticipation stage, the individual imagines himself or herself in a given career. In the implementation phase (also sometimes called accommodation or induction), the person engages in reality testing regarding his or her expectations concerning the occupation.
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Who is John Krumboltz?
|
He postulated a social learning approach to career choice based mainly on the work of Bandura. Bandura emphasized the role of modeling in the acquisition of new behaviors. The theory states that people learn not only from the consequences of their own behavior, but also from observing the consequences of others. He felt that interests are the result of "learning" such that changes in interests can be "learned." Therefore, exposure to a wide range of work settings is highly desirable.
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What kind of model did Krumboltz suggest?
|
A behavioristic model of career development. Some assert that it is a decision-making theory or even a cognitive one. He acknowledged the role of genetics and the environment, but focused on what can be changed via learning.
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What is the human capital theory?
|
It purports that individuals secure training and education to get the possible income. This theory, however, doesn't seem valid when applied to folks of lower economic status.
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What is the accident theory?
|
This theory simply suggests that that chance factors influence one's career. For example, a student liked his history teacher so he decided to be come a history teacher himself.
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What is the status attainment theory?
|
This theory posits that the child will eventually secure a job commensurate with his or her family status. This notion will not hold water with a child who has exceptionally low or high career aspirations (e.g., a lower-class child who insists she will become a physician)
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What is a job club?
|
This is a behavioristic strategy proposed by Azrin. It operates like a behaviorist group in which members share job leads and discuss and/or role-play specific behaviors (e.g., interviewing skills) necessary for job acquisition.
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What is the Glelatt Decision Model?
|
It refers to information as "the fuel of the decision." It asserts that information can be organized into three system: predictive, value, and decision.
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What does the predictive system deal with?
|
It deals with alternatives and the probability of outcomes.
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What does that value system deal with?
|
It deals with personal likes, dislikes, and preferences.
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What does the decision system deal with?
|
It deals with personal rules.
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What is the SDS?
|
The Self-Directed Search, it is a self-administered interest inventory based on Holland's theoretical notions.
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Who is Bergland?
|
He suggested that decision making actually consists of six steps.
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What are Bergland's six steps of decision making?
|
1) The problem is defined; 2) Alternatives are generated; 3) Information is gathered; 4) Information is processed; 5) Plans are made and goals selected; 6) Plans are implemented and evaluated.
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What is the leading method adults use to find career information in the U.S.?
|
According to a report from the National Institute of Education, newspaper ads ranked first, the U. S. Employment Service was second, while post secondary institutions snared the number three spot. Private employment agencies ranked fifth, while high school counselors and teachers ranked ninth.
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What is "job netting"?
|
This term is often used to describe the process of finding a job on the Internet.
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What is the OOH?
|
The Occupational Outlook Handbook. It was originally published by the U. S. Department of Labor in 1946 to aid war veterans. It highlights salient factors on the job, necessary training, earnings, and even advancement opportunities.
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What is the DOT?
|
The Dictionary of Occupational Titles. It is the largest, most comprehensive source and is often used more than any other printed resource in the field. It has more than 28,000 job titles. It has been replaced by O*NET. Each job is given a 9 digit code. The first three numbers designate the occupational category, the middle three describe tasks in relation to data, people, and things, respectively. The final digits help alphabetize the titles.
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What is the O*NET?
|
The Occupational Information Network, a new automated replacement for the DOT.
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What are the different occupational categories in the DOT?
|
0/1: Professional, Technical, and Managerial Careers; 2: Clerical and Sales Careers, 3: Service Careers, 4: Agricultural, Fishery, Forestry, and Related Careers, 5: Processing Careers, 6: Machine Trade Careers, 7: Bench Work Careers, 8: Structural Work Careers, 9: Miscellaneous. In the code for counselor (045.107-010), 0 = professional, 04 = life sciences, 045 = occupations in psychology
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Which publication indicates trends in the job market?
|
The OOH, which relies on DOT codes.
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What is the SOC?
|
The Standard Occupational Classification Manual. It codes job clusters (e.g., teachers, librarians, and counselors) via similar work function. Thus, it is very useful for a counselor who wants to find additional occupations that a worker might already be trained for or could consider with additional training.
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What is the SIC?
|
The Standard Industrial Classification Manual. It classifies businesses in raged to the type of activity they are engaged in (i.e., the type of service or product). Industry growth is often computed on codes from this publication.
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What is an easy-to-read source for career information?
|
The OOH is considered the easiest guide to read and understand. It has been said that, statistically-speaking, high school are more apt to rely on the OOH than the DOT, face-to-face career counseling, or career days.
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What is underemployment?
|
This occurs when a worker is engaged in a position which is below his or her skill level. The phenomenon can occur when an abundance of educated people flood a labor market that does not have enough jobs which require a high level of training.
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|
What are the ten fastest growing occupations (from 1998 - 2008)?
|
1. computer engineers, 2. computer support specialists, 3. systems analysts, 4. database administrators, 5. desktop publishing specialists, 6. paralegals and legal assistants, 7. personal care and home health aids, 8. medical assistants, 9. social and human services assistants, 10. physician assistants
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What is the GOE?
|
The Guide for Occupational Exploration. It was published by the U. S. Department of Labor and lists groups of jobs listed in 12 interest areas, including artistic, scientific, plants and animals, protective, mechanical, industrial, business, detail, selling, accommodating (i.e., services), humanitarian, leading-influencing, and physical-performing. It helps job seekers "explore" jobs that are slanted toward a given "interest area."
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What is self-efficacy theory based on?
|
It is based on the work of Bandura, as he proposed that one's belief or expectation of being successful in an occupation causes the individual to gravitate toward that particular occupation. He felt that "chance factors," such as being exposed to certain situations, influence career development.
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What are SIGI Plus, Choices, and Discover?
|
They are Computer Assisted Career Guidance Systems (CACG) or Computer-based Career Information Systems (CBCISs).
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What is the contrast effect, with regard to career counseling?
|
It refers to a heightened sense of awareness regarding the difference between the successive juxtaposition (meaning put side by side) of two stimuli. Hence, in career placement settings, the term has been used to suggest that an interviewer's impression of an interviewee is often affected by previous interviewees. Thus, a typical applicant would look more impressive if she is interviewed after a string of applicants who are ill-qualified for the job. The opposite is also, unfortunately, true.
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What is the compensatory effect, with regard to career counseling?
|
It suggests that a worker compensates or makes up for things he or she can't do on the job. Thus, a librarian who must be quiet from 8 to 5 may go out after work and get wild, crazy, and most importantly, loud. This might also occur in a psychodynamic fashion and infers that an individual might tend to compensate for poor job satisfaction by excelling in his or her activities outside of work.
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What is spillover, with regard to career counseling?
|
Here, the individual's work spills over, if you will, into his or her time off the job. When this takes place, the person engages in activities similar to work during periods of leisure.
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What is the recency effect?
|
It occurs when a rater's judgment of an employee reflects primarily his or her most recent performance. This is undesirable inasmuch as the employee's performance over the entire rating period should be duly noted.
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What is the leniency/strictness bias?
|
This occurs when a rater tends to give employees very high/lenient or very low/strict ratings while avoiding the middle or so-called average range. Raters who do the opposite (i.e., rate almost everybody in the average range) are said to display a "central tendency bias."
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What is the AACD?
|
It was actually the American Personnel and Guidance Association (APGA) until 1983. It became the American Association for Counseling and Development in 1983.
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What is the ACA?
|
The American Counseling Association. It was the AACD and changed its name in 1992.
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What is the NVGA?
|
The National Vocational Guidance Association. It was founded in 1913 and was fused with other organizations in 1952 to become the APGA.
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What is a lifestyle?
|
It is a broad term which describes the overall balance of work, leisure, family, and social activities. Sometimes called "avocational."
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What does the SII assume?
|
It assumes satisfaction in a job in which those working in the occupation have similar interests.
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What is the SII?
|
The Strong Interest Inventory. It measures interests, not abilities.
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What are the different levels of physical work?
|
Sedentary (max lifting is 10lbs), Light work (max lifting is up to 20lbs and can walk or stand up to 6 hours daily), Medium work (max lifting is up to 50lbs), Heavy work (max lifting is up to 100lbs), and Very heavy work (max lifts exceed 100lbs).
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What is the hidden job market?
|
In this concept, most jobs are not advertised. This accounts for over 76% of jobs.
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What does and SDS score reveal?
|
It provides the user with a three-letter code that indicates three personality types the examinee most resembles (Holland type).
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What is an Occupational Finder booklet?
|
It describes over 1300 occupations in order to ascertain which occupations best match the personality type (Holland code).
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Who is Frederick Kuder?
|
He created the Kuder Career Search which is considered to be an interest inventory.
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What is the PPVT-III?
|
It is a measure of hearing vocabulary and a screening test of verbal ability.
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What is the GATB?
|
The General Aptitude Test Battery. It was created by the United States Employment Service and is the test utilized by state employment security offices, Veterans Administration hospitals, and related government agencies. It measures 12 job-related aptitudes, including intelligence/general learning ability, verbal aptitude, numerical aptitude, spatial aptitude, clerical perception, form perception, motor coordination, manual dexterity, and finger dexterity.
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What is the ASVAB?
|
The Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery. It is often administered at recruiting stations or to high school seniors interested in the military. The reliability and validity of this measure have recently come under fire despite the face that over one million are given yearly.
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What is the DAT?
|
The Differential Aptitude Test. It helps students decide whether they should attend college, and if so, where he or she might excel the most.
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|
What did occupational aptitude tests grow out of?
|
They grew out of the trait-factor movement related to career counseling. The primary purpose of an aptitude test is to predict future performance.
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What is a displaced homemaker?
|
An individual who has always stayed home and raised children, but now the children have grown and he or she is seeking employment. This individual could also be divorced or widowed.
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What is the concept of occupational sex segregation?
|
This suggests that female occupations generally pay less and lack the status of male occupations.
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Who were Fitzgerald and Crites?
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They discovered that even when girls manifest higher career maturity than boys, their aspirations are lower.
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What is a dislocated worker?
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It refers to an individual who loses his or her job because a company downsizes or relocates. It can also refer to a person who has an obsolete set of job skills.
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What are some precipitating factors for a mid-life career change?
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These factors can include divorce, having a baby, caring for a disabled child, empty nest syndrome, and perhaps most important, job dissatisfaction.
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What is a reentry woman?
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It refers to women who go from working within the home to outside the home. They typically experience an extremely high degree of career indecision.
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What is habituation or adaptation?
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It indicates a decrease in response to a constant stimulus or a stimulus that is repeated too frequently.
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What is the "supply and demand curve"?
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The number of employees employers want to hire goes down as salary goes up and the number of employees wiling to work for you goes up as the salary increases.
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What is SIGI Plus?
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The System of Interactive Guidance and Information -- a computer career program that allows students to conduct a self-assessment and explore career options. It was created by the Educational Testing Service and is intended for college students, and even assists with up-to-date information on colleges and graduate schools.
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Who is Robert Hoppock?
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He is most likely to say that we choose a job to meet our needs. He feels that to make an accurate career decision, you must know your personal needs and then find an occupation that meets a high percentage of the needs. Also, as your personal needs change, you might need to secure a different position.
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Who is John O. Crites?
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He is well-known for his Career Maturity Inventory (CMI) that measures attitudes and competencies related to the career choice process.
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What are some difficulties with career testing?
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It is common to stereotype, the counselor may rely too heavily on test results, and many tests are biased in favor of White, middle-class clients.
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What is appraisal?
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It is a broad term which includes more than merely "testing clients." It could include a survey, observations, or even clinical interviews. It is the process of assessing or estimating attributes.
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What is a test?
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It is simply an instrument which measures a given sample of behavior. It can be defined as a systematic method of measuring a sample of behavior.
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What do we mean by the term "measure"?
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It merely connotes that a number or score has been assigned to the person's attribute or performance.
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What is test format?
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It refers to the manner in which test items are presented.
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What is a subjective paradigm?
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It relies mainly on the scorer's opinion. If the rater knows the test taker's attributes, the rater's "personal bias" can significantly impact upon the rating.
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What is an objective paradigm?
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In this type of test, the rater's judgment plays little or no part in the scoring process.
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What is a free response test?
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The person taking the test can respond in any manner he or she chooses. Although these response patterns can yield more information, they often take more time to score and increase subjectivity (i.e., there is more than one correct answer).
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What are forced choice items?
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Also called recognition items, it is sometimes used to control for the "social desirability phenomenon" which asserts that the person puts the answer he or she feels is socially acceptable (i.e., the test provides alternatives that are all equal in terms of social desirability). The MMPI-2, for example, uses forced choices to create a "lie scale" composed of human frailties we all possess. This scale, therefore, ferrets out those individuals who tried to make themselves look good (i.e., the way they believe they "should" be).
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What is the difficulty index?
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It indicates the percentage of individuals who answered each item correctly. The higher the number of people who answer a question correctly, the easier the item is -- and vice versa. A .5 difficulty would suggest that 50% of those tested answered the question correctly, while 50% did not. Most theorists agree that a "good measure" provides a wide range of items that even a poor performer will answer correctly.
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What are dichotomous recognition items?
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You are presented with two opposing choices, such as true or false.
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What is a normative test format?
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Each item is independent of all other items. Test takers can legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test. For example, a percentile rank.
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What is an ipsative test format?
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These measures compare traits within the same individual. This kind of test allows the person being tested to compare items. Test takers cannot legitimately be compared to others who have taken the test. This measure does not reveal absolute strengths. This points out highs and lows between a single individual. For example, "Mrs. Jones' anxiety is improving."
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What is a speed test?
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It is intended to be very easy. The difficulty is induced by time limitations, not the difficulty of the tasks or the questions themselves. A good timed/speed test is purposely set up so that nobody finishes it.
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What is a power test?
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It is designed to evaluate the level of mastery without a time limit. This will ideally be designed so that no one receives a perfect score.
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What does an achievement test measure?
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It measures maximum performance.
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What does a personality test or interest inventory measure?
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It measures typical performance.
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What is the Q-Sort?
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It involves a procedure in which an individual is given cards with statements and asked to place them in piles of "most like me" to "least like me." Then, the subject compiles them to create the "ideal self." The ideal self can then be compared to his or her current self-perception in order to assess self-esteem.
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What is a spiral test?
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In these tests, the questions get progressively more difficult.
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What is a cyclical test?
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There are several sections on the test in which the questions are spiral in nature. In each section, the questions would go from easy ones to those which are more difficult.
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What is a horizontal test?
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It measures various factors (e.g., math and science) during the same testing procedure.
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What is a vertical test?
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This type of testing would have versions for various age brackets or levels of education (e.g., a math achievement test for pre-schoolers and a version for middle-school children).
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What are parallel forms?
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Also called equivalent forms, they are two versions of the same test. Each form must have the same mean, standard error, and other statistical components.
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What is validity?
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It refers to whether the test measures what it says it measures.
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What is reliability?
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It tells how consistent a test measures an attribute.
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Which is more important, validity or reliability?
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Experts nearly always consider validity the number one factor in the construction of a test. A test must measure what it purports to measure. Reliability is the second most important concern. Reliability places a ceiling on validity, but validity does not set the limits on reliability.
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What are the four basic types of validity?
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Content validity, construct validity, concurrent validity, and predictive validity.
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What is content validity?
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Also called rational or logical validity, it determines whether the test examines or samples the behavior under scrutiny. For example, an IQ test that only sampled memory and not vocabulary or math would ahve poor content validity.
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What is construct validity?
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It refers to a test's ability to measure a theoretical concept, like intelligence, self-esteem, artistic talent, mechanical ability, or managerial potential.
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What is concurrent validity?
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It deals with how well the test compares to other instruments that are intended for the same purpose. Also lumped under the term criterion validity.
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What is predictive validity?
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Also known as empirical validity, it reflects the test's ability to predict future behavior according to established criteria. Also lumped under the term criterion validity.
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What type of test yields the highest level of reliability?
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In the real world, physical measurements are more reliable than psychological ones.
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What is face validity?
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It looks or appears to measure the intended attribute. It merely tells you whether the test looks like it measures the intended trait.
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What is incremental validity?
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It has been used to describe the process by which a test is refined and becomes more valid as contradictory items are dropped. It also refers to a test's ability to improve predictions when compared to existing measures that purport to facilitate selection in business or educational settings. When a test has this, it provides you with additional valid information that was not attainable via other procedures.
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What is synthetic validity?
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It was popularized by industrial psychologists who felt the procedure had merit, especially when utilized for smaller firms who did not hire a large number of workers. The helper or researcher looks for tests that have been shown to predict each job element or component (e.g., typing, filing, etc.). Tests that predict each component (criterion) can then be combined to improve the selection process.
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What is convergent validity?
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It is actually a method used to assess a test's construct/criterion validity be correlating test scores with an outside score. Say, for example, that a measure purports to measure phobic responses. A client, who has a snake phobia, is then exposed to a snake and experiences extreme panic. If the client scores higher on the test than he would in a relaxed state, then this would occur.
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What is discriminant validity?
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This means that the test will not reflect unrelated variables. Hence, if phobias are unrelated to IQ, then when one correlates clients' IQ scores to the scores on the test for phobias, this should produce a near zero correlation. Similarly, a counselor who is genuinely qualified to sit for a state licensing exam should score higher on the exam than a student who flunked an introductory counseling course, if this is evident.
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What is predictive validity?
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It is the power to accurately describe future behavior or events. It is a subtype of criterion validity.
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What is test-retest reliability?
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This is when you give the same test to the same group of people two times and then the scores are correlated. It tests for stability, or the ability of a test score to remain stable or fluctuate over time when the client takes the test again. When using this paradigm, the client generally takes the same test after waiting at least seven days. It is only valid for tests such as IQ, which remain stable over time and are not altered by mood, memory, or practice effects.
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What are equivalent or alternate forms of reliability?
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This is when the same population is given alternate forms of the identical test in parallel forms and a reliability correlation coefficient is figured on the two sets of scores. Counterbalancing is necessary when testing reliability in this fashion to control for such variables such as fatigue, practice, and motivation.
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What's the split-half method of reliability?
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In this situation, the individual takes the entire test as a whole and the test is divided into halves. The correlation between the half scores yields a reliability coefficient.
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What is inter-rater/inter-observer reliability testing?
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In this method, several raters assess the same performance. This method has been called "scorer reliability" and is utilized with subjective tests such as projectives to ascertain whether the scoring criteria are such that two persons who grade or assess the responses will produce roughly the same score.
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What is a reliability coefficient of 1.0?
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This indicates a perfect correlation and generally occurs only in physical measurement.
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What does the difference in the reality coefficient from 1.0 represent?
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The difference represents the percentage of the obtained score that could be accounted for by error. The coefficient is the true variance, while the remainder constitutes error variance.
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What is true variance?
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The percentage of shared variance or the level of the same thing measured in both).
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How do you demonstrate the variance of one factor accounted for by another?
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You square the correlation (i.e., reliability coefficient). For example, if the correlation between test 1 and 2 is .70: .70 x .70 = .49 or 49%. The is also called the coefficient of determination.
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What is IQ?
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It is an intelligence quotient because it is the result of a division. The early ratio formula for the Binet IQ was MA/CA (i.e., mental age / chronological age x 100)
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Who is Sir Francis Galton?
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He felt intelligence was a single or so-called unitary factor. He did research and concluded that intelligence was normally distributed like height or weight and that it was primarily genetic. He has been recognized as one of the major pioneers in the study of individual differences. He believed that exceptional mental abilities were genetic and ran in families.
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Who was Charles Spearman?
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He postulated two factors - a general ability G and a specific ability S which were though to be applicable to any mental task.
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What is fluid intelligence?
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It is flexible, culture-free, and adjusts to the situation.
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What is crystallized intelligence?
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It is rigid and does not change or adapt.
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Who was Charles Spearman?
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He postulated two factors: a general ability (G) and a specific ability (S) which were thought to be applicable to any mental task.
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Who was J. P. Guilford?
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He isolated 120 factors via factor analysis that added up to intelligence. Two of the dimensions -- convergent and divergent thinking -- are still popular terms today.
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What is convergent thinking?
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It occurs when divergent thoughts and ideas are combined into a single concept.
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What is divergent thinking?
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It is the ability to generate a novel idea.
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Who is credited with the first standardized IQ test?
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Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon in 1905.
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What is internal consistency reliability?
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Homogeneity. It is also called inter-item consistency. Does every item on the test measure the same thing as every other item?
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What are Kuder-Richardson estimates?
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They test if performance on one item is truly related to performance on another (internal consistency reliability). It is often denoted on exams as KR-20 or KR-21 formulas.
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What is Lee J. Cronbach's alpha coefficient?
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It has been used to test if performance on one item is truly related to performance on another (internal consistency reliability).
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What is the split-half method?
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It investigates internal consistency reliability. It relies on splitting the test in halves (e.g., even versus odd scores).
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What is cross validation?
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It takes place when a researcher further examines the criterion validity (and, in rarer instances, construct validity) of a test by administering the test to a new sample. This procedure is necessary to ensure that the original validity coefficient is applicable to others who will take the exam. This method helps guard against error factors, which are likely to be present if the original sample is small. In most cases, this coefficient is indeed smaller than the initial validity coefficient, a phenomenon called "shrinkage."
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Who was Lewis M. Terman?
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From Stanford University, he helped to publish an American version of the Binet IQ test (Thus, Stanford-Binet)`
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What is a standardized measure?
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It is a measure where the scoring and administration procedures are formal and well delineated.
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What is a nonstandardized measure?
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It is a measure which lacks procedural guidelines for scoring and/or administration and does not include quantitative information related to "standards" of performance.
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What is the formula for IQ?
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MA/CA x 100. It is a ratio IQ.
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Who is Wilhelm Stern?
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He created the famous formula for IQ.
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What is a deviation IQ?
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As opposed to a ratio IQ, it compares the individual to a norm (i.e., the person is compared to others in his or her age group). Today's Binet IQ relies on the standard age score (SAS) with the mean of 100 and standard deviation of 16.
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What is the mean and standard deviation for the Stanford-Binet IQ?
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Mean = 100, standard deviation = 16
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If a task on the Binet IQ was determined to be a 9-year-old task, how many 9-year-olds would be able to answer correctly?
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50% of that age group would answer the question correctly.
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Why was the first IQ test derived?
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It was originally derived to identify mentally retarded Parisian children so they could be taught separately. The assumption was made that intelligence was basically the ability to understand school-related material.
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What is entropy?
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A popular family therapy systems theory term, it means that dysfunctional families are either too open or too closed (i.e., letting too much information in or not enough information in).
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What is negative entropy?
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This is what the balanced state a healthy family is in.
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How do the Wechsler IQ tests differ from the Binet?
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The Binet tests were not seen to be the best test for adults. Wechsler felt the Binet was slanted toward verbal skills and thus he added "performance" skills to ascertain attributes which might have been cultivated in a background that did not stress verbal proficiency. The Wechsler yields a verbal IQ, performance IQ, and a full-scale IQ. Also, the Binet has a standard deviation of 16, while the Wechsler has standard deviation of 15.
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What is the Merrill-Palmer Scale of Mental Tests?
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It is an intelligence test for infants.
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What is an advantage and disadvantage of group IQ tests?
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They are quicker to administer, but are less accurate and have lower reliability.
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Where did group IQ tests begin?
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They began with the Army Alpha and Army Beta in WWI.
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What is a culture-fair test?
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In this kind of test, items are known to the subject regardless of his or her culture. These tests attempt to expunge items which would be known only to an individual due to his or her background.
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Who is John Ertl?
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He claimed he invented an electronic machine to analyze neural efficiency and take the place of a paper and pencil IQ test. The device relies on a computer, an EEG, a strobe light, and an electrode helmet. The theory is that the faster one processes the perception, the more intelligence he or she has.
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Who is Raymond B. Cattell?
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He is responsible for the fluid (inherited neurological that decreases with age and is not very dependent on culture) and crystallized intelligence (intelligence from experiential, cultural, and educational interaction). Crystallized intelligence is measured by tests that focus on content. Fluid intelligence is tested by what has been called "content-free reasoning" such as a block design or pictorial analogy problem.
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Who is Arthur Jensen?
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He sparked tremendous controversy when he suggested in a 1969 Harvard Educational Review article ("How Much Can We Boost IQ and Scholastic Performance?") that the closer people are genetically, the more alike their IQ scores. Adopted children, for example, will sport IQs closer to their biological parents than to their adopted ones. He then leveled the charge that Whites score 11 to 15 IQ points higher than Blacks (regardless of social class). His theory stated that due to slavery, it was possible that Blacks were bred for strength rather than intelligence. He estimated that heredity contributed 80% while environment influenced 20% of the IQ.
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Who is Uri Bronfenbrenner?
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He claimed that Arthur Jensen relied on twin studies with poor internal validity.
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Who was Robert Williams?
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He created the Black Intelligence Test of Cultural Homogeneity (BITCH) to demonstrate that Blacks often excelled when given a test laden with questions familiar to the Black community. He charged that tests like the Binet and the Wechsler were part of "scientific racism."
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What is the MMPI-2?
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The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 is known as a "self-report" personality inventory. The client can respond with a "true," "false," or "cannot say" to 567 questions (10 more that the traditional MMPI which was the most researched test in history as well as the most useful for assessing emotional disturbance). The "new" MMPI designated via the 2 is intended to help clinicians diagnose and treat patients. The test is said to have retained the best factors of the MMPI, which updating the test and eliminating sexist wording. It is suitable for those over 18 with a sixth-grade reading level or higher. Test time varies from 60-90 minutes.
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What is a test that relies on a summated or linear rating scale?
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This describes answer scales in which various values are given to different responses. For example, on a Likert Scale, a "strongly agree" might be given a 5, yet an "agree response" might be rated as a 4. The client's score is the "sum" of all the items.
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What kind of stimuli is a client shown in a projective test?
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They are shown neutral stimuli so that they will "project" his or her personality.
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What is association in a projective test?
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"What comes to mind when you look at this ink blot?"
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What is completion in a projective test?
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"Complete these sentences with real feelings."
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What is construction in a projective test?
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"Draw a person."
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What is the 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire (16 PF)?
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It is suitable for persons 16 and older and measures key personality features like assertiveness, emotional maturity, and shrewdness. This test was created by Raymond B. Cattell.
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Who is James McKeen Cattell?
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He coined the term "mental test" and spent time researching mental assessment and its relation to reaction time at the University of Pennsylvania. He originally worked with Wundt and later Galton.
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What is a factor-analytic test or inventory?
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Tests or inventories that analyze data outside a given theory. The 16 PF is one. This is as opposed to a theory-based test.
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Who is Oscar K. Buros?
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He is noted for his Mental Measurements Yearbook which was the first major publication to review available tests.
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What is an aptitude test?
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It assesses potential and predicts.
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What is an achievement test?
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It examines what you know.
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What type of validity is most important in an aptitude test?
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Predictive validity is most important.
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What is the TAT?
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The Thematic Apperception Test. It consists of 30 cards plus one blank card. The test, which is intended for ages 4 and older, uses up to 20 cards when administered to any given individual (19 selected to fit the age and sex of the client plus one blank card). The pictures on each card are intentionally ambiguous and the client is asked to make up a story for each of them.
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What is the Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank (RISB)?
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It is a projective test in which the subject completes an incomplete sentence with a real feeling.
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What does test bias primarily result from?
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It primarily results from a test being normed solely on White middle-class clients.
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What is the Bender Visual Motor Gestalt Test?
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Named after Loretta Bender, this test is an expressive projective measure, though first and foremost it is known for its ability to discern whether brain damage is evident. Suitable for ages four and beyond, the client is instructed to copy nine geometric figures which the client can look at while constructing his or her drawing.
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With whom do interest inventories work best?
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They work best with individuals who are of high school age or above inasmuch as interests are not extremely stable prior to that time. Interests become quite stable around age 25.
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What is a major criticism of interest inventories?
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They emphasize professional positions and minimize blue-collar jobs. Contrary to popular opinion, interests and abilities are NOT highly correlated. Also, many times the person tries to answer the questions in a socially acceptable manner.
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What is something positive about interest inventories?
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They are reliable and not threatening to the test taker.
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What is the AMECD?
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A division of the ACA called the Association for Measurement and Evaluation in Counseling and Development.
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What is the GATB?
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The General Aptitude Test Battery. This is often used a neighborhood state employment offices to help match jobs.
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What s the GZTS?
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The Guilford-Zimmerman Temperament Survey. It is a personality measure for persons who do not have severe psychiatric disabilities.
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What do school selection tests assess?
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They assess aptitude.
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What is social desirability?
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The right way to feel in society, it explains a person's tendency to try to answer questions in a socially acceptable manner.
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What is deviation?
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This occurs when an individual purposely, or when in doubt, gives unusual responses.
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What is acquiescence?
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It manifests itself when a client always agrees with something.
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What publications should one read to find out about new personality tests?
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Professional journals, the Buros Mental Measurements Yearbook, classic textbooks in the field as well as test material produced by the testing company
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What is the standard error of measurement?
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It tells you how accurate or inaccurate a test score is. The lower the number, the better. A lower standard error means high reliability.
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What effect does a test's length have on its reliability?
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A longer test will have a higher reliability.
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What is the Spearman Brown formula?
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It is used to estimate the impact that lengthening or shortening a test will have on a test's reliability coefficient.
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What is inter-rater reliability?
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This occurs when multiple administrators of a test come up with nearly identical scores of the same client.
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What is important to tell the client about tests?
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They should know that a test is merely a single source of data and not infallible.
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What is the Buckley Amendment, Public Law 93-380?
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According to this, a person can view her record, which includes test data, can view their daughter's infant IQ test given at preschool, or could demand a correction she discovered while reading a file. Persons over 18 can inspect their own records and those of their children. The Family Education Rights and Privacy Act also stipulates that information cannot be released without adult consent.
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Who is Lewis Terman?
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He was associated with Stanford University and Americanized the Binet (thus making it the Stanford-Binet)
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How do you calculate the difficulty index?
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It is calculated by taking the number of persons tested who answered the item correctly/total number of persons tested.
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What is the most valuable type of research?
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The experiment, used to discover cause-and-effect relationships.
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What is experimental research?
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It is the process of gathering data in order to make evaluative comparisons regarding different situations. An experiment must have the conditions of treatment controlled via the experimenter and random assignments (also called randomization) used in the groups. An experiment attempts to eliminate all extraneous variables.
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What is a quasi-experiment?
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The researcher uses preexisting groups, and hence the independent variable cannot be altered (e.g., gender or ethnicity). You cannot state with any degree of statistical confidence that the IV caused the DV.
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What is the ex post facto study?
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This is a quasi-experiment which literally means "after the fact," connoting a correlational study or research in which intact, preexisting groups are utilized. In this case, the IV was administered before the research began.
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What are some threats to internal validity?
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Maturation of subjects, mortality (i.e., subjects withdrawing), instruments used to measure the behavior or trait, and statistical regression (i.e., the notion that extremely high or low scores would move toward the mean if the measure is utilized again).
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What is internal validity?
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It refers to whether the DVs were truly influenced by the experimental IVs or whether other IVs had an impact.
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What is external validity?
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It refers to whether the experimental research results can be generalized to larger populations. Thus, if the results of the study only apply to the population in the study itself, then this is said to be low.
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What is factor analysis?
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It refers to statistical procedures which attempt to summarize a lot of variables using the important or underlying "factors."
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What is a chi-square?
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It is a non-parametric statistical measure that tests whether a distribution differs significantly from an expected theoretical distribution.
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What is parsimony?
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Interpreting results in the simplest way. It literally means a tendency to be miserly and not overspend. The easiest and less complex explanation is the best.
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What is Occam's Razor?
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It suggests that experimenters interpret the results in the simplest manner. This is also referred to the principle of economy or Lloyd Morgan's 1894 Canon.
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Which APA journal publishes more counseling research articles than any other periodical in the field?
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The Journal of Counseling Psychology.
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What is the difference between basic and applied research?
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Basic research is conducted to advance our understanding of theory, while applied research is conducted to advance our knowledge of how theories can be used in terms of practical application.
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What is the independent variable?
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The variable that the experimenter manipulates, controls, alters, or wishes to experiment with.
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What is the dependent variable?
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It is the variable that expresses the data regarding factors you wish to measure.
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What is a casual comparative design?
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This occurs if the experiment is described as a true experiment except for the fact that the groups were not randomly assigned. Data gleaned from this type of experiment ex post facto can be analyzed with a test of significance (e.g., a t-test or ANOVA) just like any true experiment.
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What do ethics suggest with regard to experiments?
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1. Subjects are informed of any potential risks; 2. Any negative after-effects are removed; 3. Subjects are allowed to withdraw any time; 4. Confidentiality of subjects will be protected; 5. Research report results will be presented in an accurate format that is not misleading; 6. Only techniques will be used that the experimenter is trained in
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Who is R. A. Fisher?
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He pioneered hypothesis testing.
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What is a t-test?
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It is a test of significance to determine if a difference in groups' scores are significant or just due to chance factors. This has been called the "two-groups" or "two-randomized-groups" research design.
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What is an independent group comparison design?
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It is when two groups were independent of each other in the sense that the change (or lack of it) in one group did not influence the other group.
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What is a repeated measures comparison or between-subjects/within-subjects design?
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When the researcher measures the same group of subjects without the IV and with the IV.
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What is the difference between a between-subjects design and a within-subjects design?
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In a between-subjects design, different subjects are used for each condition. Each subject receives only one value of the IV. In a within-subjects design, the same subjects are employed. Two or more values or levels of the IV are administered to each subject.
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What is a parameter?
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A value obtained from a population. It summarizes a characteristic of the population.
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What is a statistic?
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A value drawn from a sample.
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What does a P = .05 mean?
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It means that there is a 5% chance that the difference between the control group and the experimental groups is due to chance factors. This could also be called a 95% confidence interval or level of significance. It means that differences truly exist and the experimenter will obtain the same results 95 out of 100 times.
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When do you use a one-way versus a two-way ANOVA?
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You use a one-way when testing one IV and a two-way when testing two IVs.
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What is a MANOVA?
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A multivariate analysis of variance, used when there are more than one DV.
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What is a Type I error?
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Also called an alpha, it occurs when you reject the null hypothesis when it is true.
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What is a Type II error?
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Also called a beta, it occurs when you accpet the null hypothesis when it is false.
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How does sample size affect error?
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Raising the sample size helps to lower the risk of chance/error factors. Differences revealed in large samples are more likely to be genuine than differences revealed using a small sample size.
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When do you use a t-test?
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You use this when you are ascertaining whether two sample means are signficantly different.
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When do you use an ANOVA?
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You use this test if there are more than two groups and you want to see if the sample means are signficantly different.
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When do you use an ANCOVA?
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You use this when there are two or more groups controlling for extraneous variables
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What is the Kruskal-Willis?
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It is used instead of the one-way ANOVA for nonparametric data.
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What is the Wilcoxon?
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It is a signed rank test used in place of the t-test when the data are nonparametric and you wish to test whether two correlated means differ significanlty.
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What is the Mann-Whitney U-Test?
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It is used to determine whether two uncorrelated means differ significantly when data are nonparametric.
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What is the Spearman correlation or Kendall's tau?
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It is used in place of the Pearson r when parametric assumptions cannot be utlizied.
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When do you use the Chi-Square nonparametric test?
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It is used when you want to examine whether obtained frequencies differ significantly from expected frequencies.
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What are post hoc or a posteriori tests?
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They are group comparison tests that can determine whether a significant difference exists between specific groups (e.g., ANOVA, Tukey's, Duncan's multiple range, Scheffe's test)
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What is a correlation coefficient?
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It is a statistic that indicates the degree or magniture of relationship between two variables. It is often abbreviated using a lower-case r. It makes a statement regarding the association of two variables and how a change in one is related to the change in another. Correlations range from 0.00 (no relationship) to 1.0 or -1.0 (perfect relationships)
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What is biserial correlation?
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This indicates that one variable is continuous (i.e., measured using an interval scale) while the other is dichotomous. An example would be evident if you decided to correlate state licensing exam scores to NCC status (here the dichotomy is licensed/unlicensed).
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What is a phi-correlation?
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This is used if both variables are dichotomous. Imagine a researcher wants to correlate NCC status with CCMHC status or perhaps gender with certifications status (has certification/does not have certification).
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What is bivariate?
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It is a term used when correlational data describe the nature of two variables.
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What is multivariate?
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It is a term used if more than two variables are under scrutiny.
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What is an intensive experimental design?
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Behaviorists often utilize N = 1. The first step is to create a baseline measure. N is the number of persons being studied. This method is popular with behaviorists who seek overt (measurable) behavioral changes. The client's dysfunctional behavior is measured (baseline), the treatment is implemented, and then the behavior is measured once again (i.e., another baseline is computed). A's often signify baselines, B's are intervention strategies, and C's are a second or alternative form of intervention. These rely on one subject.
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What are idiographic studies?
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Also called single-subject designs, they are single case investigations. Freud popularized the original case study methodology although he did not rely on numerical baseline measures.
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What is a single-blind study?
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It is when the subjects do not know what treatment they are receiving, but the researcher does. This study helps eliminate demand characteristics which are clues or features of a study which suggest a desired outcome.
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What is the participant observer model?
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In this type of study, the researcher actually participates in the study while making observations about what transpired.
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What is an AB design?
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It is the simplest type of single-subject research. It relies only on "continuous-measurement." A = baseline is secured; B = the outcome is examined. In order to improve the research process, an ABAB design can be used to better rule out extraneous variables.
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What is a multiple baseline design?
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When a researcher employs more than one target behavior.
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What is the Pearson Product-Moment correlation r?
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It is used for interval or ratio data.
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What is the Spearman rho correlation?
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It is used for ordinal data.
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What does a bi-modal distribution look like, graphically?
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A camel's back with two humps. For example, a distribution of men's and women's weights. It is called a multimodal distribution.
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What is the range?
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A measure of variability that is the distance between the largest and smallest scores. The larger the range, the greater the dispersion or spread of scores from the mean.
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What is the most useful measure of central tendency?
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The mean.
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What is the harmonic mean?
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It refers to a central tendency statistic that is the reciprocal of the arithmetic mean of the reciprocals of the set of values. For example: 2, 2, 4 -> 1/2, 1/2, 1/4 = .4166 -> 1/.4166. This statistic has limited usage, however, it is occasionally called for if measurements were not made on an appropriate scale (e.g., data revealed the number of behaviors per hour, when the number of minutes per behavior would be more useful). It cannot be used with negative numbers or if the data include a score of zero.
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What is a factorial design?
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This is used when the researcher wants to ferret out the effects of more than one IV. These designs include two or more IVs, often called levels (although it does not connote hierarchy).
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What is a Solomon four-group design?
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The researcher uses two control groups. Only one experimental group and one control group are pretested. The other control group and the experimental group are merely post-tested. The genius of the design is that it lets the researcher know if the results are influenced by pretesting. The two control groups as well as the two experimental groups can then be compared.
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What is a positively skewed curve?
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It is one where the majority of the scores are on the LEFT. The TAIL indicates whether the distribution is positively or negatively skewed.
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What is a histogram?
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A bar graph used to display class intervals in a vertical fashion. If it were horizontal, it would be a "horizontal bar chart." A double-barred histogram can be used to compare two distributions of scores such as pre- and post-test scores.
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What are the ordinate and the abcissa?
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The x and y coordinates, respectively.
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What is a Z-score?
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It is a standard deviation.
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What is the standard deviation and mean of a t-score?
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It has a mean of 50 with a standard deviation of 10.
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What is a platykurtic distribution?
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It looks like the upper half of a hot dog lying on its side over the abscissa. The opposite is a leptokurtic distribution which is very tall, thin, and peaked.
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What is kurtosis?
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It refers to the peakedness of a frequency distribution.
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What are stanine scores?
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The divide the distribution into nine equal intervals with stanine 1 as the lowest ninth and 9 as the highest ninth. In this system, 5 is the mean.
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What is a nominal scale?
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It is strictly a qualitative scale. It is the simplest type of scale. It is used to distinguish logically separated groups. It merely classifies, names, labels, or identifies by group. An example would be the DSM categories.
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What is the order of complexity for the four types of measurement scales?
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NOIR: Nominal, Ordinal, Interval, Ratio.
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What measurement scales do nonparametric tests rely on?
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They rely only on ordinal and nominal information.
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What is an ordinal scale?
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It rank-orders variables, though the relative distance between the elements is not always equal. An example is a horse categorized as a second place winner in a race. This rank does not indicate absolute differences.
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