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117 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which factor controls radiographic contrast? A. exposure time B. mA C. kVp D. SID |
C. kVp |
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which radiographic term refers to the degree of blackening when associated with radiographic film and brightness when describing appearance on a digital display monitor? A. optical denisty B. contrast resolution C. magnification D. Spatial resolution |
A. optical denisty |
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Which of the following factors controls shape distortion? A. alignment B. mA C. Miliampere-time (mAs) D. SID |
A. alignment |
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How should a left lateral projection radiograph of the chest be displayed? A. as though the patient were standing in front of and facing the the left of the viewer B. as though the patient were standing in the normal anatomic position, face to face with the viewer C. so that the side of the patient where the xray beam enters is the side of the image closer to the viewbox D. so that the side of the patient closer to the IR during the procedure is the side of the image closer to the view box |
D. so that the side of the patient closer to the IR during the procedure is the side of the image closer to the view box |
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How should a PA projection radiograph of the chest be displayed? A. as viewed from the perspective of the xray tube B. so that the procedure is the side of the image closer to the display device C. as thought the patient was standing in front of the viewer, with the patient's right side nearer the viewer's right side and the patient's left side nearer the viewer's left side D. as though the patient was standing in front of the viewer, with the patients right side nearer the viewer's left side and the patient's left side nearer the viewer's right side |
D. as though the patient was standing in front of the viewer, with the patients right side nearer the viewer's left side and the patient's left side nearer the viewer's right side |
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A PA projection radiograph of the hand should be displayed: A. from the perspective of the xray tube and with the fingers pointing upward B. from the perspective of the xray tube and with the fingers pointing downward C. with the patient in the anatomic position and with the fingers pointing upward D with the patient in anatomic position and with the fingers pointing downward |
A. from the perspective of the xray tube and with the fingers pointing upward |
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who is responsible for obtaining a necessary clinical history when the radiologist is unable to see the patient? A. radiographer B. radiology nurse C. chief technologist D. dept receptionist |
A. radiographer |
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To dispose of a hypodermic needle properly, it should be: A. bent B. recapped C. broken to prevent its reuse D. placed in a puncture proof container |
D. placed in a puncture proof container |
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What is the medical property classification of isopropyl alcohol? A. sterilizer B. antiseptic C. germicide D. disinfectant |
B. antiseptic |
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Within the operating room, who should remove sterile items that are in the way of the radiographer? A. surgeon B. radiographer C. anesthesiologist D. circulating nurse |
D. circulating nurse |
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to prepare the patient for a radiographic examination of the abdomen, what are the three methods used for cleansing the patient's bowel? A. laxatives, enemas and exercise B. limited diet, enemas, and exercise C. limited diet, laxatives and enemas D. limited diet, laxatives and exercises |
C. limited diet, laxatives and enemas |
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which type of muscle tissue produces perestalsis? A. cardiac B. striated C. smooth |
C. smooth |
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Which type of muscle tissue comprises skeletal muscle? A. cardiac B. striated C. smooth |
B. striated |
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which pathologic condition requires a decrease in exposure factors from the routine procedure? A. edema B. pneumonia C. emphysema D. pleural effusion |
C. emphysema |
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which change in exposure factors should be used to control voluntary motion that is a result of the patient's age or mental illness? A. increase the mA B. decrease the mA C. increase the exposure time D. decrease the exposure time |
D. decrease the exposure time |
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which procedure best reduces the possibility of patient controlled motion? A. increase the mA B. increase the exposure time C. give understandable instructions to the patient D. use shorter SID |
C. give understandable instructions to the patient |
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Which side marker placement rule applies when performing an AP oblique radiograph of the cervical spine? A. the R marker is typically used B. the L marker is typically used C. always mark the side closest to the IR D. always mark the side farthest from the IR |
C. always mark the side closest to the IR |
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which piece of information is not required as part of the identification of radiographs? A. name of the patient B. date of the examination C. name of the radiographer D. name of the medical facility |
C. name of the radiographer |
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what is the primary purpose of collimating to the area of interest? A. lengthens the scale of contrast B. reduces the required mA C. reduces patient exposure D. compensate for an increase in OID |
C. reduces patient exposure |
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how is radiographic image quality affected when the radiation beam is restricted to the area under examination only? A. increased radiographic optical density B. increased radiographic contrast resolution C. reduced magnification D. increased fog |
B. increased radiographic contrast resolution |
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which of the following is a consdertation for determining when to use gonadal sheilding? 1. the patient has a reasonable reporductive potential. 2. the gonads lie within or close (5cm) to the primary xray field 3. the patient is aware of the application of the gonadal shield. A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 |
A. 1 and 2 only |
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which change most improves spatial resolution when the sternum is imaged? A. increasing the OID B. decreasing the SID C. decreasing the source to object distance D. increasing the SID |
D. increasing the SID |
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for which examination is the use of gonadal shielding most important for a patient of childbearing age? A. wrist B. skull C. chest D. lumbosacral region |
D. lumbosacral region |
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which computed radiography accessory houses the image storage phosphors that acquire the latent image? A. image reader B. control panel C. imaging plate D. video monitor |
C. imaging plate |
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what is the image receptor in direct digital radiography? A. phophor imaging plate B. intensifying screen and film C. solid state detector D. computer monitor |
C. solid state detector |
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in direct digital imaging, how is collimation controlled? A. manually by the radiographer B. automatically by an automatic collimator C. electronically by shuttering D. all of these control field size in direct digital imaging |
A. manually by the radiographer |
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reasons to avoid using electronic side marker placement in digital imaging include: 1. increased potential for errors in marking the correct side 2. increased legal implications 3. eliminates anatomy being obscured by marker A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 |
A. 1 and 2 only |
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the knowledge, skills ability, and behaviors that are essential for providing optimal care to defined groups of patients is termed: A. functional competence B. age specific competence C. patient care competence D. chronologic competence |
B. age specific competence |
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when imaging obese patients, all of the following should be taken into consideration except for: A. locating landmarks such as the jugular notch and pubic symphysis B. setting the collimator to the smallest dimensions C. selecting standard IR sizes and standard collimation settings for DR D. selecting larger IR sizes and larger collimation settings for DR |
D. selecting larger IR sizes and larger collimation settings for DR |
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the approximate distance from the jugular notch to the pubic symphysis on a patient who is more than 6 feet tall is? A. 15 inches B. 21 inches C. 22 inches D. 24 inches |
C. 22 inches |
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which term refers to the stud of the function of the body organs? A. anatomy B. osteology C. physiology |
B. osteology |
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which are the four fundamental body planes? A. sagittal, coronal, horizontal, and oblique B. sagittal, coronal, midaxillary, and transverse C. midsagittal, midcoronal, horizontal, and oblique D. midsagittal, midcoronal, midaxillary, and transverse |
A. sagittal, coronal, horizontal, and oblique |
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which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? A. oblique B. horizontal C. midsagittal D. midcoronal |
C. midsagittal |
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which are the two great cavities of the torso? A. pelvic and pleural B. pelvic and abdominal C. thoracic and pleural D. Thoracic and abdominal |
D. Thoracic and abdominal |
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which body structure is located within the thoracic cavity? A liver B. heart C. gallbladder D. urinary bladder |
B. heart |
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in which quadrant of the abdomen is the appendix located? A. RUQ B. RLQ C. LUQ D. LLQ |
B. RLQ |
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which region of the abdomen is located below the umbilical region? A. epigastrium B. hypogastrium C. Left hypochondrium D. Right hypochondrium |
B. hypogastrium |
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which vertebra is located at the level of the xiphoid process? A. C7 B. T7 C. T10 D. L3 |
C. T10 |
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which body habitus represents a person of large, massive stature in whom the stomach is loacted high and nearly horizontal within the abdomen? A. sthenic B. asthenic C. hyposthenic D. hypersthenic |
D. hypersthenic |
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excluding small sesamoid and accessory bones in the skull, how many bones comprise the skeleton? A. 202 B. 206 C. 201 D. 215 |
B. 206 |
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which structure belongs to the axial skeleton? A. skull B. lower limb C. upper limb D. pelvic girdle |
A. skull |
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which bone has a medullary cavity? A. tibia B. sacrum C. parietal D. sternum |
A. tibia |
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bones are classified according to their: A. size B. shape C. function D. origin |
B. shape |
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which bone classifications are vertebrae? A. flat B. long C. short D. Irregular |
D. irregular |
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which bone classification is the trapezium? A. flat B. long C. short D. Irregular |
C. short |
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which bone classification concisist largely of compact cortex tissue in the form of two plates that enclose a layer of diploe? A. flat B. long C. short D. Irregular |
A. flat |
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which term specifically refers to the study of the joints? A. anatomy B. osteology C. arthrology D. physiology |
C. arthrology |
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which structural classification of articulations refers to joints that have only limited or slight movement? A. synovial B. fibrous C. cartilaginous |
C. cartilaginous |
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which functional classification of articulations are synovial joints? A. diarthroses B. synarthoses C. cartilaginous |
A. diarthroses |
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which structural classification of articulations are cranial sutures? A. fibrous B. synovial C. cartilaginous |
A. fibrous |
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which type of movement occurs in a hinge joints? A. rotational B. gliding or sliding C. flexion and extension D. abduction and adduction |
C. flexion and extension |
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which of the following joints is an example of an ellipsoid joint? A. hip B. intercarpal C. interphalangeal D. metacarpophalangeal |
D. metacarpophalangeal |
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which term refers to a long, pointed process? A. crest B. styloid C. condyle D. tuberosity |
B. styloid |
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which term for a depression refers to a hole in a bone through which blood vessels and nerves pass? A. sinus B. sulcus C. groove D. foramen |
D. foramen |
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which term refers to a fracture in which a broken bone projects through the skin? A. open B. closed C. displaced D. nondisplaced |
A. open |
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which term refers to a body part on the opposite side of the body? A. lateral B. posterior C. ipilateral D. Contralateral |
D. Contralateral |
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which term refers to the path of the central xray? A. view B. method C. position D. projection |
D. projection |
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which term refers to a general body position? A. axial B. recumbent C. tangential D. left anterior oblique |
B. recumbent |
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which term refers to the movement of body art away from the central axis of the body? A. flexion B. inversion C. abduction D. adduction |
C. abduction |
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Which term is the plural form for diagnosis? A. diagnosix B. diagnoses C. diagnosae D. diagnosum |
B. diagnoses |
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what is the name of the area between the two pleural cavitities? A. hilum B. mediastinum C. pleural space D. thoracic cavity |
B. mediastinum |
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which structure is not demonstrated within the mediastinum in PA projections of the chest? A. heart B. trachea C. diaphragm D. esophagus |
C. diaphragm |
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which pathologic condition of the lung involves the replacement of air with fluid in the lung interstitium and alveoli? A. atelectasis B. tuberculosis C. penumothorax D. pulmonary edema |
D. pulmonary edema |
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why should chest images be performed with a 72 inches SID? A. to blur involuntary heart motion B. to minimize magnification of the heart C. to maximize magnification of the heart D. to project the clavicles above the apices |
B. to minimize magnification of the heart |
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why should chest images be performed after the patient has suspended respiration after the second inspiration? A. to blur rib markings B. to expand the lungs better C. to demonstrate a collapsed lung D. to calm the heart and reduce cardiac motion |
B. to expand the lungs better |
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with reference to the IR, how are the midsagittal plane and the midcoronal plane positioned for the PA projection of the chest? A. midsagital: parallel; midcoronoal: parallel B. midsagittal: parall; midcoronoal: perpendicular C. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronoal: parallel D. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronal; perpendicular |
C. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronoal: parallel |
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for the PA projection of the chest, which positioning maneuver should be performed for the best removal of the scapulae from lung fields? A. place the hands on the hips B. rotate the shoulders forward C. cross both arms over the head D. place the hands behind the back |
B. rotate the shoulders forward |
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why should the chest most likely be demonstrated using two PA projections (in which the patient is seen in suspended inspiration and suspended expiration)? A. to demonstrate pneumothorax B. to evaluate the heart and great vessels C. to measure the width of the mediastinum D. to demonstrate movement of the diaphragm |
A. to demonstrate pneumothorax |
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which of the following is an effective way to detect rotation of the patient with the PA projection image of the chest? A. the number of ribs demonstrated above the diaphragm B. the symmetrical appearance of the sternoclavicular joints C. the amount of apical area demonstrated above the clavicles D. the appearance of the lateral border of the scapulae outside the lung fields |
B. the symmetrical appearance of the sternoclavicular joints |
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for which projection of the chest should the midsagittal plane be parallel with the IR? A. PA projection B. lateral projection C. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position D. AP axial projection, lordotic position |
D. AP axial projection, lordotic position |
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with reference to the IR, how are the midoronal plane and the midsagittal plane positioned for the lateral projection of the chest? A. midcoronal: parallel; midsagittal: parallel B. midcoronal: parallel; midsagittal: perpendicular C. midcoronal: perpendicular; midsagittal: parallel D. midcoronal: perpendicular; midsagittal perpendicular |
C. midcoronal: perpendicular; midsagittal: parallel |
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which projection of the chest best demonstrates lung apices free from super imposition with the clavicles? A. PA projection B. left lateral projection C. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position D. AP axial projection, lordotic position |
D. AP axial projection, lordotic position |
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which PA oblique projection of the chest may be used to evaluate the heart and great vessels when performing a cardiac series? A. 45 degree RAO B. 45 degree LAO C. 55 to 60 degree LAO D. 10 to 20 degree RAO and LAO |
C. 55 to 60 degree LAO |
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how many degrees should the patient be rotated for PA oblique projections of the chest to evaluate the lungs? A. RAO: 45 degrees: LAO : 45 degrees B. RAO: 45 degrees; LAO: 55 to 60 degrees C. RAO : 55 to 60 degrees; LAO: 45 degrees D. RAO : 55 to 60 degrees; LAO 55 to 60 degrees |
A. RAO: 45 degrees: LAO : 45 degrees |
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using a lateral decubitus position for patients who are unable to stand upright best demonstrates which of the following pathologic conditions of the chest? A. rib fractures B. cardiomegaly C. collapsed lung D. Air or fluid levels |
D. Air or fluid levels |
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with reference to the IR, how are the midsagittal plane and the midcoronal plane positioned for the AP chest, left lateral decubitus?A. midsagital: parallel; midcoronoal: parallel B. midsagittal: parall; midcoronoal: perpendicular C. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronoal: parallel D. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronal; perpendicular |
C. midsagittal: perpendicular; midcoronoal: parallel |
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which pathologic condition of the lungs is best demonstrated with the AP chest, left lateral decubitus position? A. free air in both sides of the chest B. fluid levels in both sides of the chest C. free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side D. fluid levels in the left side or free air in the right |
D. fluid levels in the left side or free air in the right |
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which pathologic condition of the lungs is best demonstrated with the AP chest, right lateral decubitus postion? A. free air in both sides of the chest B. fluid levels in both sides of the chest C. free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side D. fluid levels in the left side or free air in the right |
C. free air in the left side or fluid levels in the right side |
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which radiographic position requires that the patient be placed supine with the IR placed vertically against the patients right side and a horizontal central ray directed to the center of the IR? A. ventral decubitus B. dorsal decubitus C. right lateral decubitus D. left lateral decubitus |
B. dorsal decubitus |
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which radiographic position requires that the patient be placed prone? A. left lateral decubitus B. right lateral decubitus C. dorsal decbuitus D. ventral decubitus |
D. ventral decubitus |
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which evaluation criterion pertains to the PA projections image of the chest? A. the ribs should appear distorted B. the sternum should be lateral, not rotated C. ten posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm D. the ribs posterior to the vertebral column should be superimposed |
C. ten posterior ribs should be visible above the diaphragm |
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which evaluation criterion pertains to the PA projection image of the chest? A. the ribs should appear distorted B. the clavicles should lie superior to the apices C. the scapulae should be projected outside the lung fields D. the ribs posterior to the vertebral column should be superimposed |
C. the scapulae should be projected outside the lung fields |
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which evaluation criterion pertains to the lateral projection image of the chest? A. a small amount of the heart should be seen on the right side B. the ribs posterior to the vertebral column should be superimposed. D. the distance from the vertebral column to the lateral border of the ribs should be equidistant on both sides |
B. the ribs posterior to the vertebral column should be superimposed. |
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the primary controlling factor of a radiographic contrast is? A. mA B. time C. kVp D. SID |
C. kVp |
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the ability to visualize very small structures on a radiograph is termed: A. contrast B. density C. distortion D. recorded detail |
D. recorded detail |
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radiograph of the hands, wrist, feet, and toes are routinely displayed on the illiuminator with the digits: A. positioned towards the ceiling B. positioned towards the floor C. horizontal and pointed the left D. horizontal and pointed the the right |
A. positioned towards the ceiling |
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in film/screen radiography, which term is defined as the degree of blackening? A. optical density B. contrast C. recorded detail D. distortion |
A. optical density |
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radiographers can control voluntary motion by: A. using a high kVp B. increasing the length of exposure time C. performing the examination in the recumbent position D. giving clear instruction to the patient |
D. giving clear instruction to the patient |
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the metric conversion of 40 inches is: A. 16cm B. 18cm C. 90cm D. 102cm |
D. 102cm |
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which of the following must be cleaned after every patient? A. collimator B. tabletop C. gonad shields D. xray tube |
B. tabletop |
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gonad shielding is required when the gonads lie within_____cm of the primary xray field? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 |
B. 5 |
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in the anatomic position, the palms of the hands are facing: A. backward B. forward C. up D. down |
B. forward |
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a plane passing through the body parallel with the midsagittal plane is termed: A. coronal B. sagittal C. axial D. obilque |
B. sagittal |
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a plane passing vertically through the body from side to side is termed: A. oblique B. sagittal C. coronal D. horizontal |
C. coronal |
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any plane passing through the body at right angles to its longitudinal axis is termed: A. oblique B. sagittal C. coronal D. horizontal |
D. horizontal |
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how many regions is the abdomen divided into? A. two B. four C. six D. nine |
D. nine |
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the adult skeleton is composed of how many bones? A. 185 B. 200 C. 206 D. 208 |
C. 206 |
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bones are composed of an outer layer of compact boy tissue called the? A. compact bone B. periosteum C. spongy tissue D. medullary canal |
A. compact bone |
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long bones have a central cylindrical cavity called the: A. meniscus B. periosteum C. medullary cavity D. spongy tissue |
C. medullary cavity |
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how many specific types of synovial joints are there? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6 |
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After birth, a separate bone begins to develop at the ends of long bones. each end is called the: A. diaphysis B. epiphysis C. epiphyseal line D. epiphyseal plate |
B. epiphysis |
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a term that means the same as anterior is A. platar B. distal C. dorsal D. ventral |
D. ventral |
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the term that refers to parts away from the head of the body, or angling the central ray towards the feet is: A. caudad B. cephalad C. medial D. proximal |
A. caudad |
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the term that refers to parts nearer the point of attachment, or origin is: A. distal B. proximal C. caudad D. cephalad |
A. distal |
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the term used to describe the sole of the foot is: A. ventral B. posterior C. plantar D. dorsal |
C. plantar |
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which of the following terms are used to described xray projections? 1. AP 2. PA axial 3. supine A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3 |
A. 1 and 2 |
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the thoracic viscera consists of the: 1. lungs 2. mediastinum 2. diaphragm A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3 |
A. 1 and 2 |
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the area between the two lungs is termed the: A. carina B. thorax C. mediastinum D. pleural space |
C. mediastinum |
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after entering the hilum, each primary bronchus divides. how many primary branches are in the right lung? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
B. 3 |
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the part of the lung that extends above teh clavicle is termed the: A. apex B. base C. hilum D. lingula |
A. apex |
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what is the optimal respiration phase for a PA or lateral chest radiograph? A. full inspiration first breath B. full expiration first breath C. full inspiration second breath D. full expiration second breath |
C. full inspiration second breath |
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how many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA chest radiograph? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 |
B. 10 |
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what is the recommended SID for a supine AP chest radiograph? A. 40 in B. 48 in C. 72 in D. 120 in |
C. 72 in |
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the costophrenic angle is a part of the A. heart B. lungs C. diaphragm D. trachea |
B. lungs |
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the space between the two pleural walls is called the A. lingula B. mediastinum C. pleural cavity D. parenchyma |
C. pleural cavity |
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the aspiration of a foreign particle in the lung would be termed: A. pneumonia B. bronchitis C. viral pneumonia D. aspiration pneumonia |
D. aspiration pneumonia |
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