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176 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Define pathogenicity:
Ability to produce disease.
Trace the route of infectivity:
Entrance --> Establishment (multiplication) -->Portal of Exit --> transmission mechanism.
What are some different types of infection?
local, focal, systemic (throughout body); primary, secondary, mixed, subclinical, latent, bacteremia-septicemia-pyermia
Define virulence:
Degree of pathogenicity
Properties of exotoxins:
excreted by gram +, heat labile, antigenic, polypeptieds, highly toxic, do not cause fever.
Properties of endotoxins:
Gram -, heat stabile, non-antigenic, polysaccharides/lipid A, weakly toxic, cause fever, gram - bacteria.
First line of defense and second line of defense:
1) barriers, secreted antimicrobials, normal flora. 2) inflammation, phagocytosis, immunologic
What are the two types of immunity?
Natural and aquired
Naturally aquired active vs. naturally aquired passive
active- disease
passive- matenal antibody
Artificially aquired active vs. artificially aquired passive
active- immunization
passive- injection of anti-serum
Immunity resulting from a viral infection:
Naturally aquired active
Immunity due to the administration of the Sabine vaccine:
Artificially aquired active
Immunity due to injection of an antibody to an endotoxin:
Artificially acquired passive
Immunity due to the transmission of IgG to the fetus across the placenta:
Naturally aquired passive
Immunity due to the injection of antibodies from one person to another:
Artificially aquired passive
Define antigen:
Any substance which will induce a specific immune response when introduced into a host.
Define epitope:
the part of a macromolecule that is recognized by the immune system, specifically by antibodies, B cells, or T cells (on the surface of ag).
Properties of a T cell dependent antigens:
complex; protein; IgG, IgA, IgM; memory; majority of pathogens are T cell dependent
Properties of T cell independent antigens:
simple; polysaccharide; IgM; no memory
Factors associated with Ag that influence Ab production:
chem/phys nature of Ag; route of inoculation, dose and frequency of injections; soluble vs. particulate;
Define Antibody:
Serum proteins formed in response to Antigen stimulation. Reacts with Antigen in specific manner.
What are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins?
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE
Immunoglobulin: secretory Ab
Immunoglobulin: Ab that prevents attachment to target cells
Immunoglobulin: Mos abundant Ab
Immunoglobulins: Highest MW Ab
Immunoglobulilns: B cell Ag receptor
Immunoglobulins: Ab that attaches to mast cells
T or F: all gram negative bacteria produce endospores.
Define PMN:
white blood cells. These can further be broken down into neutrophils(fight bacterial infection), eosinophils, and basophils.
Type I sensitivity:
Anaphylactic; IgE- no Complement; anyphylaxis, hay fever, food and drug allergies.
Type II sensitivity:
Cytotoxic; IgG or IgM + complement; transfusion rxns; Rh problems.
Type III sensitivity:
Immune complex; IgG or IgM + complement; post-streptococcal diseases=
glumerulonephritis & rheumatic
Type IV sensitivity:
T lymphocyte mediated. contact dermatititis (poison oak, ivy, etc). transplant rxn; tumor, vir, fung immunity
Hypersensitivity: fungal skin test
Type IV
Hypersensitivity: Rheumatic fever
Type III
Hypersensitivity: Cutaneous anaphylaxis
Type I
Hypersensitivity: Adverse blood tranfusion rxn
Type II
Hypersensitivity: IgE mediated Rxn
Type I
Hypersensitivity: Graft rejection rx
Type Iv
True or False: the T lymphocytes are phagocytic cells
True or False: The C1 complement component binds to the Fab portion of IgG or IgM and initiates the classical complement pathway
True or False: PMN cells are able to engulf and process/present antigens to B cells in the immune response.
True or False: Particulate antigens are used in the immunodiffusion assay to detect antibodies
True or False: Endotoxins have the ability to activate the alternate complement pathway
True or False: Complement is always involved in Type I hypersensitivity Rxns
True or False: Th lymphocytes secrete immunoglobulins
True or False: Exotoxins are heat labile
True or False: IgM is produced late in an immune response to infections agents.
True or False: B lymphocytes secrete exotoxins.
How do Chlamydiae differ from viruses
they have DNA and RNA; binary fission; cell wall; prokaryotic ribosomes
What are some general characterisitics of Chlamydiae?
Obligate intracellular; inclusion body; very small; inactivated by heat; maintain infectivity for years.
Define Elementary body:
infectious particle. small cell.
Describe psittacosis (ornithosis):
respiratory disease aka parrot fever; in humans and birds. Birds treated w/ chlortetracycline HCL.
Describe lymphogranuloma venereum:
STD common in the tropics. Enters through abrasions/lacerations. CF test used.
Describe trachoma and inclusion conjuctivitis (TRIC):
Eye infection caused by C. trachomatis.
Describe Neisseria Gonorrhaea:
Caused by C. trachomatis;
Describe Pneumonia, bronchitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis:
C. pneumoniae; 1st isolate in Taiwan; transmitted by resp secretions; cough, malaise
Rickettsiae is responsible for causing what diseases?
Typhus, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, Q fever, Ehrlichiosis, rickettsial pox
What are some general characterisitics of Ricikettsiae?
Intermediate in size, DNA and RNA; short rods of coccobacilli; obligate intracellular; arthrpd resvoir
Describe Epidemic (louse borne) typhus:
louse bites infected human and becomes carrier-->fecal excretion on skin passes to another person
What is Brill-Zinsser Disease:
A latent disease- result of primary infection of typhus earlier.
Descripbe Endemic (murine-- flea borne) typhus:
R. typhi; milder than louse borne; in areas of high rat infestation; rarely fatal. rat to rat, rat to man.
Describe scrub (mite borne= chiggers and red mite) typhus:
R. tsutaugamushi; eschar (ulcer covered with blackened scar); mite to rodent; someteimes mite to human.
Describe RMSF (tick borne):
R. rickettsii; many cases in children; wood ticks. rash first appears on extremities.
Define eschar:
Ulcer covered with blackened scar
Descrbie Q fever:
Coxiella burnetti; airborne; resembles influenze; livestock -- humans.
Describe Rickettsial pox:
Ricketsia akari; mice--mites--humans; skin rash similar to chickenpox= fever
Describe Ehrilchiosis:
Human monocyte ehr- Ehrilichia chaffeensis. Human granulocytic; ticks; destruction of leukocytes.
What are some characterisitics of fungi?
aerobic; heterotrophic; true nucleus; lack chlorophyll; sexual and/or asexual reprod; cell wall= chitin
How are fungi important?
Deteriorate foods/fabrics; food fermentation; antibiotics; plant diseases; animal diseases
How are yeasts identified in a lab?
1) observation-wet mount= lactophenol blue stain 2) culture- Saboraud's medium
The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are:
present in mast cells.
Cell mediated immunity is associated with:
T lymphocytes
An immunoassay using rbc's as the indicator and no hemolysis indcates a positive rxn for the presence of ab in a patien's serum:
Complement fixation
The specificity of an immunoglobulin is due to its:
variable portion of the h and l chains
The classical complement pathway is initiated by:
IgG or IgM reacting with ag
Cytokines are:
suvstances secreted by wbc's that regulate the immune response.
Macrophages secrete:
An Ideal antimicrobial should not have the ability to:
induce an immediate hypersensitivity response.
Describe the general characterisitics of Diphtheroids:
Cause skin infections; gram + rods; propionbacterium acnes-- oily secretion--proprionic acid,lipase--fatty acids-- inflammatory response.
Describe the general characterisitics of Corynebacterium xerosis:
Cause skin infections. aerobic.
Describe the general characteristics of a Staph aureus infection:
a)folliculitis- inf of hair follical-pus= stye (if located at base of eye).
b)extension of folliculitis=pimples/boils(furuncle). Many follicles= carbuncle.
Describe the general characteristics of Impetigo:
Infection by direct contact. eg: school children. blisters-blisters replaced by crusts.
Describe the general characteristics of Scalded Skin Sydrome:
Ritter's disease. Infect of skin, blood, nose. org produces exotoxin-redness of skin- skin wrinkles/blister w/ fluid.
Describe the 2 types of leprosy:
a) lepromatous- disfiguring skin lesions, extensive, malignant. b) tuberculoid: non-progressive, benign skin lesion= few bacteria present.
Leprosy is caused by:
Mycobacterium leprae. Transmission = person to person direct contact.
Define tetanospasm:
Spasmodic contractions of muscle result when a heat labile neurotoxin interferes with the relaxation sequence.
Describe the general characteristics of actinomycosis:
Wound infectoin caused by Actinomyces Israelii. pus contains "sulfur" granules.
Describe the 3 types of pneumonia:
a)pneumococcal- strep. pneumoniae;ab recovery. b)klebsiella-kleibsella pneumoniae;necrosis of alvelar. most common in people with low defense mech; mycoplasma- Mycoplasma pneumoniae; common in school age children; org adheres to resp epithelium.
Describe the general characteristics of whooping cough:
Bordetella pertussis; childhood disease-organisms. Vaccine=DPT
True or False: The FTA is a laboratory diagnostic test for Gonorrhea
True or False: Subacute bacterial endocarditis is commonly caused by Borelia:
True or False: Clostridium and Borrelia are spore-forming aerobes
True or False: Asymptomatic carriers are commonly associated with the disease typhoid fever.
True or False: Campylobacter causes relapsing fever
True or False: Neisseria possess pili that contribute to their virulence potential
True or False: Diptheria toxin is a very potent endotoxin
True or False: Rice water stools are a characterisitic feature of plague.
True or False: Shigella produces an erythrogenic toxin that results in skin rash.
True or False: Granulomas are characterisitic of the lung disease caused by mycobacterium.
True or False: Strep. mutans has the ability to synthesize extracellular polysaccharides from sucrose.
True or False: Syphilis is commonly diagnosed by observing gram negative cocci in clinical specimens.
True or False: Subacute bacterial endocarditis may be caused by alpha hemolytic streptococci that are part of the NF of the oral cavity.
True or False: Blurred vision and cranial nerve paralysis are symptoms that may result from the production of botulinum toxin.
True or False: Actinomycosis is classified as a non-invasive infection.
True or False: Brucellosis is a disease of animals that maybe be transmitted to humans.
True or False: The acid fast stain is very useful for the direct detection of streptococcus
True or False: Hemophilis influenzae b may lead to meningitis in children
True or False: Endotoxin shock is a characterisitic feature of syphilis.
True or False: DPT is a very effective vaccine for the prevention of systematic fungal infections.
The presence of sulfur granules is an indication of what infection?
Tetanospasms are an indication of what infection?
The Schick test is used for the diagnosis of what infection?
The presence of the Vi antigen is an indication of what infection?
Typhoid Fever
The presence of corynebacteriophage is an indication of what infection?
Verotoxin is caused by
E. coli
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by
Non-invasive; exotoxin is caused by
Rheumatic fever is caused by
Toxic shock is caused by
Lepormatous leprosy is caused by
Dental plaques are caused by
Furuncles are caused by
Meningococcal meningitis is...
primarily a disease of young adults.
In a positive TB skin test...
there is an area of induration after 48 hours.
Botulism is unlike other bacterial food poisonings because the toxin produces harmful effect on the...
nervous system
DPT immunizes against...
Bordetella, diptheria toxin, tetanus toxin
Pathology seen in diptheria is due to...
action of an exotoxin
Asymptomatic carriers may be associated with...
Define: aseptic meningitis
Symptoms of meningitis, but there are no bacteria present in the meninges.
Define pneumonic plague:
Characterized by fever and headache. Shortness of breath and chest pain.
Syphillis is caused by:
Treponema pallidum
Ulcers are caused by:
Helicobactero pylori
Primary atypical pneumonia are caused by:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Diptheria is caused by:
Cornybacterium diptheriae
Cholera is caused by:
Vibrio cholerae
Define enterotoxin:
A protein toxin released by a micro-organism in the lower intestine.
Gonorrhea is caused by:
Neisseria Gonorrhaea
Tuberculosis is caused by:
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Typhoid fever is caused by:
Salmonella typhi
Lyme disease is caused by:
Borrelia burgdoferi
Plague is caused by:
Yersinia pestis
Tetanus is caused by
Clostridium tetani
Anthrax is caused by:
Bacillus anthracis
Dysentery is caused by:
Shigella disenteriae
Pertussis is caused by:
Bordetella pertussis
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by:
Neisseria Gonorhhea.
Compare and contrast HAV and HCV:
both are caused by a virus containing RNA. HAV is contracted through contaminated food or water. HCV is usually through transplants.
Antgenic drift vs antigenic shift:
Change in bound antigens. antigenic drift is local; shift refers to a worldwide change.
compare and contrast salk vs. sabin vaccines:
Both were created to treat polio. The salk uses dead cells whereas the sabin is a live vaccine.
Guarnieri bodies are associated with:
Negri bodies are associated with:
Koplik spots are associated with:
Downey cells are associated with:
EB virus
Warthin Finkelday cells are associated with:
Dane particles are associated with:
Hepatitis B
Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with:
EB virus
Owl eye inclusions are associated with:
Salk Vaccine is...
inactivated vaccine
Immune HA assay
Sabin vaccine is..
an attenuated vaccine
HA is...
Non-immune HA assay
MMR is an...
attenuated vaccine
Common cold is caused by:
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
EB virus
Shingles are caused by:
VZ virus
Infantile diarrhea is caused by:
Neonatal herpes is caused by:
German measles is caused by:
Rubella virus
Chickenpox is caused by:
VZ virus
Rabies are caused by:
VEE is caused by:
Mumps are caused by:
Herpes viruses usually remain latent in which body site?
Nerve ganglia
True or False: RSV is a primary agent associated with genitourinary tract infections