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81 Cards in this Set

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Definition of a drug:

Alters process no change/ create new functions

What is pharmacokinetics vs pharmacodynamics?

Body to drug vs Drug to body

What are the four steps in the nursing process?

Assessment, analysis, planning, implementation, evaluation

Which step of the nursing prcss is the following:


-Initiation and completion of specific nursing actions as defined by nursing diagnoses, goals, and outcome criteria


- Independent, collaborative, dependent


- Statements of interventions include frequency, specific instructions...

Implementation

Which step of the nursing process does the following example show:


- Data collection, review, and analysis


- Medication profile

Assessment

Which step of the nursing process does the following example show:


- Determining status of goals+outcomes of care


- Monitoring the ptnts response to drug therapy


- Clear, concise documentation of pre and post assessment

Evaluation

Which step of the nursing process does the following example show:


- Identification of goals and outcome criteria

Planning

Which step of the nursing process does the following example show:


- Identifies actual and potential client problem(s) based on review and interpretation of client data - nurse reviews relevant client data and determines what they mean

Analysis

Patho definitions:


__ = sequence of events; Abnormalities to clinical manifestation =


___ = cause of disease

Pathology ; Pathogenesis : Etiology

What are the manifestations (data gathered about disease) of disease and the nature of data for each?

Symptoms (patients perception) ; Signs (examiners observation) ; Lab abnormalities, (test results) Radiographic abnormally (ie X-ray, CT, ultrasound)

What is the difference between Structural vs Functional disease?

Organic disease with structural changes / lesions within body vs without visible lesions at onset, physiologic change

What are the three Exogenous causes of diseases vs Endogenous?

Physical, chemical, microbiologic vs Vascular, immunologic, metabolic

What is an idiopathic disease vs iatrogenic vs nosocomial?

cause unknown vs adverse reaction vs acquired in hospital

What are three routes of absorption?

Enteral (drug absorbed into systemic circulation), Parental (into blood circulation), Topical

Enteral = oral, sublingual, buccal, rectal


Parental = IV, IM, ID, SQ


Topical = skin, eyes, ears, rectum, lungs

Which route of absorption has no first pass effect?

Parental

For the following transport mechanisms identify which concentration it goes from and which drug characteristics are involved:


Passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport, endocytosis

1. Passive = high to low ; hydrophobic + small


2. Facilitated = high to low with protein carrier ; hydrophilic + big


3. Active = low to high with ATP ; hydrophilic + big


4. Endocytosis = receptor mediated ; too large

What factors decrease absorption? (5)

pH (WA in alkaline + WB in acidic); dece blood flow; decr contact time; decr total SA; P glycoproteins

What are the factors affecting bioavailability?

solubility of drug (hydrophilic vs phobic), instability of environment (stomach and intestine, enzymes), first pass effect

What factors increase distribution?(5)

incr blood flow, incr capillary permeability, decr protein binding, incr solubility (small non polar hydrophobic, incr vol of distribution

Metabolism aka ___ = biochem alteration of drug into what four forms?

Inactive metabolite, more soluble compound, more potent metabolite, or less active metabolite

What factors affect Phase 1 of biotransformation? (4)

Polymorphism, polypharmacy, liver disease, age

How does polymorphism affect biotransformation?

Polymorphism = genetics of person = rapid metabolizers = [] of active drug decr = inactive incr = therapeutic effect decr = greater amount of drug req

How does polypharmacy affect biotransformation?

Polypharmacy seen with older adults. have CYP450 inducers = incr activity of enzyme = incr inactive = decr active

Phase 2 biotransformation is when...

already polar drug becomes even more polar = more water soluble and easier to excrete

___ = when amount of drug being absorbed is same as amount being cleared when the drug isgiven continuously or repeatedly

Steady state (takes 4-5 half lives)

What are the 5 "focuses" of Pharmacodynamics?

Drug receptor interactions ; Dose response relationship ; Potency and Efficacy; Drug activity profile ; Class of meds

What are the two type of drug receptor interactions and what type of drug do they "accept"?

Extracellular = hydrophilic, large, polar, charged vs Intracellular = hydrophobic, small, nonpolar, uncharged drugs

What are the three types of Extracellular receptors?

1. ligand gated ion channels 2. g protein coupled receptor 3. tyrosine kinase receptors

A dose response relationship curve answeres what question?

how much drug is needed to produce a therapeutic response

Define potency vs efficacy:

Potency = how much drug is req to have a therapeutic response (less needed = greater potency) vs Efficacy = max therapeutic response that drug is able to produce (related to # of drug receptor complexes formed)

What things are part of the drug activity profile?

Duration of action, Onset of action, Therapeutic index

Drug activity profile definitions:


__ = time it takes for drug to meet min effective []


__ = ratio of min [] of drug that prdcs toxic effect and min [] that prdcs desired effect


__ = length of time drug exhibits therapeutic effect

Onset of action ; Therapeutic index (narrow TI = high chance of side effect) ; Duration of action

What are the classes of meds?

Agonist drugs, antagonist drugs, irreversible receptor antagonists

Classes of meds defn:


__ = covalent bonds, cant seperate from receptor


__ = mimic ligand receptor, same effect as endogenous ligand itself


__ = block receptors activation response. Has two types..

Irreversible ; Agonist ; Antagonist (competitve = blocks ligand site vs non competitve = binds to site different from endogenous site)

Part of Symptomatic disease are the following abbreviations, what do they stand for?


Dx; Hx; PE;

Diagnostic, history; physical exam;


*most diagnoses can be made from ^^

Diagnosing asymptomatic disease easrly reqs regular...? (3)

Dental appts, well baby exam, physical exam

When and who to screen for asymptomatic diseases depends on what three things?

ØLikelihood of patient developing disease


ØAvailability of treatment


ØCost of screening test

For potentional diseases what are the three methods of disease preventation?

Lifestyle and behav changes, vaccination, public health improvements

Preventable diseases (ie smallpox, measles, whopping cough, periodontal disease)

What is the difference between diagnostic test vs procedure?

Test = analyze specimen removed from patient vs Procedure = manipulationof patient beyond that usually done during physical examination

Clinical procedures involve a primary healthcare practitioner performing what type of procedure vs specialist?

PHCP = common common tests (ie urinalysis,vaginal smears, and throat cultures) vs Specialist = manipulative procedures

Radiological procedures defns:


__ = allow PE of internal structures without surgery


__ = depend on differing absorption propertiesof tissues as x-rays pass through them, Radiodense material leaves white shadow


__ = produces a dynamic x-ray image


__ = good for soft tissues and liquids



Radiologic techniques; X ray; Fluoroscope; Ultrasound

Radiological procedures defns:


__ = creates cross-sectional images of body, preferred for detecting acute processes and delineating deep-seatedlesion


__ = records tissue characteristics in tissueplanes, T1 = lipid vs T2 = water


__ = evaluates functional activity of anorgan, expensiveand exposes patient to radiation

Computed tomography (CT); Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI); Nuclear medicine

Anatomic Pathology Tests and Procedures defns:


__ = diagnosis of lesions in pieces of tissue removed from patient


__ = removal of small specimens


__ = removal of large specimens


__ = cells sloughed or scraped from bodysurfaces (ie cancer)

Surgical pathology; Biopsy; Resection; Cytology specimens

Anatomic Pathology Tests and Procedures defns:


__ = uses small-caliber needle to obtainspecimen


__ = postmortem exam of a body, imp teaching tool


_ = investigates accidental and criminaldeaths

Fine-needle aspiration (FNA); Autopsy; Forensic pathology

Clinical Pathology Tests and Procedures defns:


^ Branch of pathology that performslab tests on tissues and fluids


__ tests = evaluate organ function + detect specific abnormalities


__ = test for presence of Microbes, RBC/ WBC, chemical substances


__ = measurement of hemoglobin, counting of WBC and RBC

Biochemical tests; Urinalysis; Complete blood count (CBC)

Clinical Pathology Tests andProcedures defns:


__ = procurement,typing, testing, processing, storage, and administration of blood components


__ = detection of antigens and antibodies inblood and tissue and study of lymphocytes


__ = detecting pathogenic microorganisms and determining susceptibility


__ = more common. more rapid and give more sensitiveresults

Transfusionmedicine; Immunopathology; Microbiology laboratory; Molecular tests

Molecular diagnosis: determines __ of neoplasms or microorganisms


- involves sequencing DNA or RNA andcoupling it with a probe


- sequencing is done by a polymerase chainreaction (PCR)

“molecular signature”


vs Pharmacogenomics: involves predicting patient’s response to particular drugstores on genetic makeup. Useful when treatment involves a drug notorious for eliciting an “idiosyncratic” response. Dangerous if therapeutic levels are exceeded


Public Health Laboratories:


- established by governments to helpcontrol __


- perform many biological tests


- water testing also important to publichealth


- certain highly contagious diseasesrequire reporting to state authorities



communicable diseases

Who is responsible for Foodand Drugs Act + ControlledDrugs and Substances Act?

Health Products Food Branch (HPFB) Inspectorate of Health Canada

Who regulates acts which protect the Canadian consumer from potential health hazards and fraud or deception in the sale and use of foods, drugs, cosmetics, and medical device?

Therapeutic Products Directorate (TPD)

Which federal law governs the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information?

Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA)

Which act is the primary piece of legislation governingfoods, drugs, cosmetics, and medical devices? States that drugs must comply with official prescribed standards

Canadian Food and Drugs Act

Which act replaced the Narcotic Control Act and provides reqs for the control andsale of narcotics, controlled drugs, and substances of misuse?

ControlledDrugs and Substances Act (CDSA)


* RCMP is responsible for enforcement ofthe CDSA

The Marihuana Medical Access Program wasreplaced with what?


* Health Canada regulates the producers ofmarihuana for this purpose but is not involved in the decision-making process.

Marihuana for Medical Purposes Regulations

What is the primary purpose of Health Canada’s TPD?

to protect patients and ensure drug effectiveness.

Describe the size and the type of participants in the FourClinical Phases of Investigational Drug Studies

1. small and healthy


2. large and volunteers with disease


3. large and patients followed by research centres


4. voluntary postmarketing studies by companies to know therapeutic and adverse effects

What are the three areasof Potential Liability?

Failure to assess or re evaluate ptnt; failure to ensure safety of ptnt; med error

During pregnancy which three factors affect the fetus's safety?

Drug properties, festal gestational age, maternal factors

What is the major risk during the first trimester vs the third trimester?

first: exposure of fetus to drugs + greatestrisk for drug-induced developmental defects vs third: drug transfer more likely

What four drugcharacteristics increase the likelihood of drug transfer via breastfeeding?

fat solubility, low molecular weight, nonionization, and high concentration

Pharmacokinetics Children: Absorption


__ due to immature acid producing cells


__ due to slow / irregular peristalsis


__ due to immature liver and decr enzymes


__ decreases bioavailability


__ faster and irregular

gastric pH less acidic; slowed gastric emptying ; reduced first pass elimination; reduced bile sale formation; intramuscular absorption faster and irregular

Pharmacokinetics Children: Distribution


total body water differences result in __


greater total body water means __


__ due to decreased production of protein by liver


immature blood brain barrier means __



increased distribution and dilution of water soluble drugs; lower fat content; decreased level of protein binding; more drugs enter the brain

Pharmacokinetics Children: Metabolism


__ due to immature liver


older children have __ metabolism, req higher doses or more freq


other factors... (3)

decreased microsomal enzyme; higher metabolism; liver enzyme prdctn, genetic diff, substances mom may have been exposed to during pregn

Pharmacokinetics Children: Excretion


kidney immatiruity affects __ and __


decreased __ of kidneys may reduce excretion of drugs, decr kidney function, and decr concentrating ability

glomerular filtration rate and tubular secretion; decr perfusion rate

What 5 factors affect pediatric drug dosages?


1. thin and permeable


2. lack acid to kill bacteria


3. weak mucus barriers


4. less well regulated and easily dehydrated


5. immature, decr drug metablism and excretion

Skin; Stomach; Lungs; Body temp; Liver and Kidney

When calculating dosages for ped ptnts what units should weight and height be in?

kg (not lbs) and cm (not in)

What four issues in clinical drug use should be considered for older adults?

Polypharmacy, non adherence, incr incidence of chronic illnesses, sensory and motor deficits

Cardiovascular. What two physiological changes cause decr absorption and distribution?

decr cardiac output and decr blood flow



Gastrointenstinal. What physiological changes cause altered absorption? delayed gastric emptying?

incr pH = altered absorption; decr peristalsis = delayed gastric emptying

Liver. What physiological changes cause decr metabolism?

decr enzyme production = decr metabolism

Kidney. What physiological changes cause decr metabolism, decr excretion (3)?

decr blood flow = decr metabolism; decr blood flow, decr kidney function, decr glomerular filtration rate = decr excretion

Pharmacokinetics Older Adults: Absorption


__ due to decr ability of stomach to produce HCl


__ due to decr muscle tone and activity


__ due to decr cardiac output and perfusion


__ due to flattened villi



gastric pH less acidic; slowed gastric emptying/ mvmnt throughout; decr blood flow to GI tract; absorptive surface of GI tract reduced

Pharmacokinetics Older Adults: Distribution


lower total body water % = ?


increased fat content due to __


decreased prdctn of proteins by liver result in __ and __

higher [] of water soluble drugs; decr lean body mass; decr protein binding of drugs and incr circulation of free drugs

Pharmacokinetics Older Adults: Metabolism


aging liver produces __ affecting drug metabolism


reduced blood flow to liver results in decr metabolism which results in..



fewer microsomal enzymes; decr metabolism = incr half life = drug accumulation

Pharmacokinetics Older Adults: Excretion


decr glomerular filtration rate due to ___


decr number of __

decr blood flow; intact nephrons

What are the three categories in the Beers Criteria for Preventation of Adverse drug events?

1. Potentially inappr drugs and classes in elderly


2. Potentially inappr meds to avoid with certain diseases


3. Meds to be used with caution in older adults

Gene therapy is an experimental technique using geneticmaterial to treat or prevent disease. What are the three techniques?

Replacing mutated gene with healthy copy of the gene; Introducing new gene into body to help fight a disease; Inactivating mutated gene thats functioning improperly

What occurs duringgene therapy vs gene transfer?

Gene therapy: segments of DNA are injected into the patient’s body vs Gene transfer: viruses are used

Who oversees gene therapy research in Canada?

Biologics and Genetic Therapies Directorate of Health Canada

What is Pharmacogeneticsvs Pharmacogenomics?

genetics: study of genetic variations in drug response + focuses on single-gene variations vs genomics: how genetics affect the body’s response to drugs+ individualized drug therapy

What 3 things are part of MedicationReconciliation?

Verification, clarification, and reconciliation