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186 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. The word “culture” is frequently used in organizational behavior in connection with the concept of corporate culture, the growing interest in workforce diversity, and the broad differences among people around the world.
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T
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10. According to Hofstede’s national culture framework, uncertainty avoidance is a cultural tendency toward discomfort with risk and ambiguity.
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T
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20. The noted psychologist, Milton Robins, developed a well-known set of values classified into three broad categories.
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F
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30. In Allport’s classification of human values, religious values refer to interest in people and love as a human relationship.
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F
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40. As a determinant of personality, environment consists of cultural, social, and situational factors.
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T
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50. Extraversion is the “Big Five” personality dimension that is associated with being imaginative, curious, and broad-minded.
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F
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60. Personal conception traits represent the way individuals tend to think about their social and physical setting as well as their major beliefs and personal orientation concerning a range of issues.
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70. A frequently encountered emotional adjustment trait that is especially important for organizational behavior is the Type A/Type B orientation.
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80. Workforce diversity refers to individual human characteristics –– such as gender, race and ethnicity, age, and able-bodiedness –– that make people different from one another.
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90. Employment decisions based on demographic differences are allowable under Title VII if they can be justified as bona fide occupational qualifications (BFOQs) reasonable to normal business operations, but race cannot be one of these BFOQs.
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T
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100. __________, a Dutch scholar and consultant, refers to culture as the “software of the mind.”
a) Edward T. Hall. b) Geert Hofstede. c) Fons Trompenaars. d) David McClelland. e) Thomas Donaldson. |
B
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110. All of the following are terminal values EXCEPT:
a) a sense of accomplishment. b) a world of beauty. c) mature love. d) forgiving. e) freedom. |
D
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121. __________ combines a set of physical and mental characteristics that reflect how a person
looks, thinks, acts, and feels. a) cognition. b) personality. c) perception. d) aptitude. e) ability. |
B
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130. __________ and __________ are two related aspects of the self-concept.
a) self-esteem ¼ self-monitoring. b) self-esteem ¼ self-assessment. c) self-esteem ¼ self-efficacy. d) self-monitoring ¼ self-assessment. e) self-monitoring ¼ self-efficacy. |
C
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140. Problem-solving style reflects the way a person goes about __________ and __________ information in solving problems and making decisions.
a) interpreting ¼ evaluating. b) interpreting ¼ communicating c) gathering ¼ collecting. d) evaluating ¼ analyzing. e) gathering ¼ evaluating. |
E
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150. Which of the following statements about locus of control is correct?
a) external locus of control people tend to be more introverted. b) internal locus of control people tend to be more extroverted. c) internal locus of control people tend to perform better on tasks requiring complex information processing and learning. d) external locus of control people tend to perform better on tasks where they must take personal initiative. e) many managerial and professional jobs require behavior that is consistent with an external locus of control. |
C
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161. Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Type A personality?
a) Type A people tend to work fast. b) Type A people tend to be abrupt. c) Type A people tend to be laid back. d) Type A people tend to be irritable. e) Type A people tend to be aggressive. |
C
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170. __________ has a negative impact on both attitudes and performance.
a) deviant stress. b) atypical stress. c) eccentric stress. d) abnormal stress. e) destructive stress. |
E
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180. Which of the following statements about workforce diversity is NOT correct?
a) key demographic differences in the workforce are based on gender, race and ethnicity, age and able-bodiedness. b) workforce diversity sometimes includes characteristics such as marital status, parental status, and religion. c) workforce diversity is increasing in the United States and Canada. d) workforce diversity is increasing in much of the world outside the United States and Canada. e) currently most new entrants into the United States workforce are young, white males. |
E
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190. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) demographic variables are important to consider in order to respect and best deal with the needs or concerns of people of different genders, ethnic backgrounds, ages, etc. b) differences in demographic variables are not easily linked with stereotyping. c) demography is a good indicator in seeking good individual-job fits. d) demographic statistics are changing too rapidly to indicate future labor force trends. e) stereotyping must be maintained. |
A
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1. Emotions, moods and some of their related concepts have become decreasingly important in the study of organizational behavior.
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F
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10. Sometimes an emotion can change into a mood.
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20. Researchers have identified six major categories of emotions: anger, fear, joy, love, sadness and surprise.
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30. Negative people generally perform poorly themselves and also interfere with the performance of others.
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T
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Deep acting and surface acting are two terms ring ways of dealing with emotional dissonance
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T
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50. The Affective Events Theory suggests that employees emphasize emotions along with more cognitive characteristics in performing their jobs.
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60. The cognitive component of an attitude reflects the beliefs, opinions, knowledge, or information a person possesses.
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T
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70. Changing the underlying attitude, changing future behavior, or developing new ways of explaining or rationalizing an inconsistency can reduce cognitive dissonance.
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T
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80. The five facets of the job satisfaction measured by the JDI are: (1) responsibility, interest, and growth; (2) technical help and social support; (3) social harmony and respect; (4) chances for further advancement; and (5) adequacy of pay and perceived equity vs. others.
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80. The five facets of the job satisfaction measured by the JDI are: (1) responsibility, interest, and growth; (2) technical help and social support; (3) social harmony and respect; (4) chances for further advancement; and (5) adequacy of pay and perceived equity vs. others.
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90. The argument that satisfaction causes performance suggests that managers should help workers attain high performance, and as a consequence workers will be satisfied.
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F
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100. Better business performance can lead to better working conditions (pay, benefits, business reputation, etc.)
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T
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110. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) a person who values job challenge would probably prefer working in a run-of-the-mill assembly line job. b) a person who values job challenge would probably have a negative attitude toward a run-of-the-mill assembly line job. c) a person who does not value job challenge would probably like to work in a ever-changing work environment. d) a person who does not value job challenge would probably want to change jobs frequently. e) a person who values job challenge would probably prefer to remain in a run-of-the mill assembly line job for his or her entire working career. |
B
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122. When considering the major categories of emotions identified by researchers, which statement is INCORRECT?
a) the “sadness” category may contain disappointment, neglect, shame, etc. b) the “anger” category may contain disgust and envy, among other subcategories. c) the “fear” category may contain alarm and anxiety. d) the “love” category may contain affection, longing and lust. e) the “happiness” category may contain pride and self-worth. |
E
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131. Social emotions refer to ________________________.
a) an individual’s feelings based on information internal to himself or herself. b) an individual’s feelings based on information external to himself or herself. c) group feelings based on information internal to themselves. d) group feelings based on information external to themselves. e) an individual’s feelings based on information internal and external to himself or herself. |
B
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140. Team members will more prefer to have _________________ on their teams.
a) pessimists b) people with positive affectivity c) people with negative affectivity d) people exhibiting emotional highs and lows e) people who experience negative moods in a wide range of settings |
B
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150. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Deep acting is hiding your inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions as a response to display rules. b) Surface acting is trying to modify your true inner feelings based on display rules. c) Deep acting and surface acting are two terms reflecting ways of dealing with emotional dissonance. d) Deep acting and surface acting are two terms reflecting ways of behavior when a person’s ethics is somewhat questionable. e) Deep acting is trying to modify your true inner feelings based on your personal standards for behavior. |
C
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161. There is some evidence to suggest that ______________________.
a) management expects both sexes to demonstrate the same emotions. b) management expects men and women to display different emotions. c) women report having to express more negative feelings than men in similar positions. d) women report having to de-emphasize more positive feelings than men in similar positions. e) women report having few emotions on-the-job. |
B
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171. The ________________ component of an attitude is a specific feeling regarding the personal impact of the antecedents while the ____________ component is an intention to behave in a certain way based on your specific feelings or attitudes.
a) emotional…intended b) acknowledged…affective. c) cognitive…behavioral. d) affective…behavioral. e) cognitive…affective. |
D
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180. Unfavorable attitudes in the form of low job satisfaction can result in all of the following EXCEPT:
a) costly labor turnover. b) absenteeism. c) tardiness. d) impaired mental health. e) job promotions. |
E
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192. Which statement is false regarding the decision that a person makes to join and
remain a member of an organization? a) workers who are satisfied with the job itself have more regular attendance. b) workers who are satisfied with the job itself are less likely to be absent for unexplained reasons. c) satisfied workers are more likely to quit their jobs. d) satisfied workers are less likely to quit their jobs. e) dissatisfied workers are more likely to quit their jobs. |
C
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1. Perception is the process through which people select, organize, interpret, retrieve, and respond to information from their environment.
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10. Figure-ground is a characteristic of the perceived that refers to the image that is perceived as the background versus the one that is perceived as the figure.
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20. A script schema is defined as a knowledge framework that describes the appropriate sequence of events in a given situation.
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30. A halo effect occurs when one attribute of a person or situation is used to develop an overall impression of the individual or situation.
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40. A contrast effect occurs when an individual’s characteristics are compared with those of others who have been recently encountered and who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics.
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T
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50. People seldom take credit for a favorable event or downplay the severity of a negative event when they are engaging in impression management.
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F
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60. According to attribution theory, three factors influence whether an event is attributed to an internal cause or an external cause. These three factors are: distinctiveness, consensus, and aptitude.
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F
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70. In the context of attribution theory, we tend to attribute our own successes to our own internal factors and to attribute our own failures to external factors.
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80. Classical and operant conditioning differ in two important ways. First, control in classical conditioning is via manipulation of consequences. Second, classical conditioning calls for examining antecedents, behavior, and consequences.-
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F
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90. Extinction is the withdrawal of the reinforcing consequences for a given behavior.
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100. Which of the following statements about perception is NOT accurate?
a) although important, perceptions have only a minor impact on the way people respond to various situations. b) through perception, people process information inputs into responses involving feelings. c) perception is a way of forming impressions about oneself, other people, and daily life experiences. d) perceptions serve as a screen or filter through which information passes before it has an effect on people. e) through perception, people process information inputs into responses involving action. |
A
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112. __________ schemas combine schemas built around persons and events.
a) person-in-situation. b) script. c) person. d) self. e) prototype. |
A
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120. The strongest impact of selective perception occurs in the __________ stage of the perceptual process.
a) retrieval. b) attention. c) organization. d) sorting. e) interpretation. |
B
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130. Which of the common perceptual distortions is sometimes referred to as the “Pygmalion effect,” named for a mythical Greek sculptor who created a statue of his ideal mate and then made her come to life?
a) halo effect. b) selective perception. c) self-fulfilling prophecy. d) projection. e) contrast effect. |
C
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140. In dealing with distortion management, managers need to be especially attuned to the impact of attribution on information in the __________ stage of information processing.
a) retrieval b) interpretation c) attention d) selection e) organizing |
B
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151. If a person performs poorly in many different situations, the tendency is to attribute the person’s poor performance to __________ causes; but if the person performs poorly only occasionally, the tendency is to attribute the person’s poor performance to__________ causes.
a) external; internal. b) internal; external. c) external; external. d) outside; inside. e) inside; outside. |
B
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160. __________ is the administration of a consequence as a result of behavior.
a) Motivation b) Fortification c) Reinforcement d) Augmentation e) Mentoring |
C
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170. Natural extrinsic rewards include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) compliments. b) special jobs. c) merit pay increases. d) recognition. e) asking advice. |
C
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193. One criticism of the use of __________ is that performance improvement may occur because specific performance goals are clarified and workers were held individually accountable for their accomplishment.
a) ERG theory b) reinforcement strategies c) hierarchy of needs theory d) attribution theory e) equity theory |
B
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1. Motivation refers to the individual forces that account for the direction, level, and persistence of a person’s efforts expended at work.
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T
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6. Content theories of motivation mainly focus on the physiological and psychological deficiencies that people feel a compulsion to reduce or eliminate.
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T
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12. Abraham Maslow, Clayton Alderfer, David McClelland, and Frederick Herzberg have developed four the better-known content theories of motivation.
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T
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18. A person who likes praise and recognition from his or her supervisor is seeking the satisfaction of the social needs in Maslow’s hierarchy.
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F
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24. Physiological needs can be fulfilled with rest, refreshment breaks, physical comfort on the job, and reasonable work hours.
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T
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30. Research evidence suggests that the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy are more likely to operate in a flexible rather than rigid order.
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T
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36. ERG theory collapses Maslow’s five need levels into three need categories.
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T
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42. In ERG theory, frustration-regression refers to the idea that an already satisfied higher-level need can be activated when a lower-level need cannot be satisfied.
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F
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48. According to acquired needs theory, people with a high need for achievement prefer group responsibilities, weak goals, and infrequent performance feedback.
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F
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54. Herzberg’s two-factor theory identifies job context as the source of job dissatisfaction and job content as the source of job satisfaction.
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T
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60. According to the two-factor theory of motivation, organizational policies and administration, supervision, working conditions, and base wage or salary are sources of job satisfaction.
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F
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66. Felt negative equity occurs when an individual feels that he or she has received relatively more than others have.
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F
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72. Feelings of inequity are determined solely by the individual receiving the rewards, not by the manager.
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T
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78. Vroom’s expectancy theory argues that work motivation is determined by an individual’s beliefs regarding the linkage between effort and performance, the linkage between performance and work outcomes, and the value placed on those work outcomes.
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T
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84. In expectancy theory, valence refers to the value attached by the individual to various work outcomes.
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T
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90. According to expectancy theory, managers can influence workers’ expectancies by identifying the needs that are important to each individual and then trying to adjust available rewards to match those needs.
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F
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98. Goals are less likely to lead to high performance levels when employees have the abilities and the sense of self-efficacy required to achieve them.
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F
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6. Static is the term used to describe any disturbance that influences the effectiveness of the communication process.
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F
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12. The communication process is completed when a message is sent.
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F
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18. Active listening is the practice of getting feedback from one’s supervisor as well as one’s peers, co-workers, and direct reports.
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F
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24. To be effective in giving constructive feedback, it is recommended that a person focus on personality factors.
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F
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32. A grapevine transfers rumors and other unofficial information through networks of friendships and acquaintances.
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T
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38. In general, the richest communication channel is face-to-face communication.
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44. Downward communication follows the chain of command from top to bottom.
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50. The flow of messages from lower to higher levels is downward communication.
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F
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56. Upward communication keeps higher organizational levels informed about how lower-level employees feel about the organization and their jobs.
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T
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62. The study of how building design may influence communication and productivity by improving lateral communications is referred to as organizational ecology.
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68. Efficient communication occurs at minimum cost in terms of resources expended.
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T
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74. The act of speaking without using words is known as nonverbal communication.
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80. Telling and listening are two sides of the communication process.
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T
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86. To be an effective active listener, a person should feed the message back –– repeating the sender’s exact words to confirm what he/she said.
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F
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1. Decision making is the process of choosing a course of action for dealing with a problem or opportunity.
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6. Some cultures place less emphasis on decision making choices, preferring to emphasize developing implementations that work.
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12. In some parts of the world, personal loyalties may drive decisions and preserving harmony may be considered more important than achieving a bit more efficiency.
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T
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18. Ethical dilemmas are often associated with risk and uncertainty and with non-routine problem situations.
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T
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24. Certainty is a less than ideal condition for managerial problem solving and decision making.
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F
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30. Behavioral responses to uncertain environments seldom involve intuition, educated guesses, or hunches.
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F
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36. Non-programmed decisions address routine problems that arise on a regular basis and for which standard solutions have been derived.
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F
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42. Classical decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.
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43. Behavioral decision theory models view the manager as acting in a world of complete certainty.
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F
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44. Behavioral decision theory models accept the notion of bounded rationality and suggest that people act only in terms of what they perceive about a given situation.
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T
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50. Classical decision models are frequently used to deal with problems at the top organizational levels of many firms since the senior executives are experienced decision makers.
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F
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56. In the garbage can model of decision making, solutions often emerge not to solve specific problems but as lessons learned from the experience of other organizations.
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T
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62. Intuition adds elements of personality and spontaneity to decision making, thereby offering potential for creativity and innovation.
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T
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68. Since managers work in chaotic settings, they should be confident in using their intuitive skills.
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T
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74. The availability heuristic involves assessing a current event based on past occurrences that are easily available in one’s memory.
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T
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1. A key way of differentiating between management and leadership is to argue that the role of management is to promote adaptive or useful change while the role of leadership is to promote stability or to enable the organization to run smoothly.
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F
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8. Trait perspectives assume that traits play a central role in differentiating between leaders and non-leaders or in predicting leader or organizational outcomes.
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T
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15. Leaders do not need to be brilliant and they do not have to possess extensive specific knowledge concerning their industry, firm and job.
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F
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22. Sometimes the more general terms of human relations oriented leadership and task oriented leadership are used to refer, respectively, to employee-centered supervisors and production-centered supervisors.
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T
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29. Despite earlier beliefs, the Ohio State leadership studies concluded that leaders should be moderate on consideration behaviors and moderate on initiating structure behaviors.
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F
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36. Research suggests that high-quality LMX is associated with increased follower satisfaction and productivity, decreased turnover, increased salaries, and faster promotion rates.
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T
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43. Fiedler’s leadership contingency theory holds that group effectiveness depends on an appropriate match between a leader’s style and the demands of the situation.
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T
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50. In Fiedler’s contingency theory, situational control is a function of leader-member relations, task structure, and position power.
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T
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57. The biggest controversy surrounding Fielder’s work is exactly what the least preferred co-worker scale actually measures.
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T
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63. In House’s path-goal theory, supportive leadership spells out the what and how of subordinates’ tasks.
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F
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70. Current assessments of path-goal theory by well-known scholars have pointed out that most aspects have been thoroughly validated.
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F
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77. Leaders make attributions about subordinate performance and react differently depending on those attributions.
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T
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84. Transformational leadership involves leader-follower exchanges necessary for achieving routine performance agreed upon between leaders and followers.
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F
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91. __________ is exerted by persons appointed to or elected to positions of formal authority in organizations.
a) informal leadership. b) administrative leadership. c) bureaucratic leadership. d) formal leadership. e) authoritative leadership. |
D
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98. Leadership studies at the University of Michigan developed two basic forms of leader behavior, which are __________.
a) consideration and initiating structure. b) implicit and explicit. c) proactive and reactive. d) employee centered and production centered. e) in-groups and out-groups. |
D
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106. According to the Ohio State leadership studies, a leader high in __________ is concerned with spelling out the task requirements and clarifying other aspects of the work agenda.
a) consideration. b) initiating structure. c) attention to detail. d) production orientation. e) employee orientation. |
B
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113. Which of the following characterizations of Leader-Member Exchange Theory is NOT accurate?
a) the LMX 7 scale assesses the degree to which leaders and followers have mutual respect for each other’s capabilities, feel a deepening sense of mutual trust, and have a strong sense of obligation to one another. b) the dimensions of the LMX 7 determine the extent to which followers will be part of the leader’s “in-group” or “out-group.” c) out-group followers tend to function as assistants, lieutenants, or advisers. d) in-group followers have higher quality personalized exchanges with the leader. e) out-group followers tend to emphasize more formalized job requirements. |
C
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120. In Fiedler’s leadership contingency theory, a leader’s style is essentially a ______________.
a) power. b) strength. c) trait measure. d) personality. e) ego. |
C
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129. Suppose that the following features characterize the leadership situation in a specific work team: (a) The skills required in each team member’s job, the order in which tasks are to be performed, and the interdependencies among the various jobs are all clearly defined. (b) The supervisor frequently criticizes team members and readily punishes them because he has the power to do so. (c) Because the supervisor is punitive, the team members try to undermine his authority and sabotage his leadership. Which leadership style likely would be most effective in this situation?
a) task- motivated. b) relationship-motivated. c) human relations. d) team- motivated. e) achievement- motivated. |
B
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136. Which of the following leadership theories has it roots in the expectancy model of motivation?
a) attribution theory. b) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory. c) House’s path-goal theory. d) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theory. e) Fiedler’s contingency theory. |
C
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143. According to the path-goal leadership theory, a manager is showing a participative leadership style when he/she __________.
a) lets subordinates know what performance is expected. b) expects the highest levels of performance. c) consults with subordinates and takes their suggestions into account before making decisions. d) treats subordinates as equals during decision making. e) acts friendly to subordinates. |
C
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152. On repetitive tasks, the path-goal theory predicts that open-minded or non-authoritarian subordinates will be satisfied with a ______________ leader.
a) directive. b) supportive. c) achievement-oriented. d) authoritarian. e) participative. |
E
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159. According to Hersey and Blanchard, a _________ style of leadership is best for low to moderate follower readiness.
a) telling. b) selling. c) participating. d) delegating. d) directing. |
B
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166. __________ addresses the topic of how individuals try to understand causes, assess responsibilities, and evaluate personal qualities as they pertain to events in their lives.
a) Attribution theory. b) Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership theory. c) Contingency theory. d) Graen’s Leader-Member Exchange Theory. e) Substitutes for leadership theory. |
A
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175. All of the following are characteristics of charismatic leaders EXCEPT:
a) these leaders are high in need for power. b) these leaders have high feelings of self-efficacy and conviction of the moral rightness of their beliefs. c) these leaders have big egos. d) these leaders demonstrate behaviors such as role modeling, image building and articulation of goals. e) these leaders emphasize high expectations, show confidence and arouse follower motives. |
C
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183. Close charismatic leaders should demonstrate all of the following EXCEPT:
a) sociability b) social courage. c) intelligence. d) expertise. e) high standards. |
B
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194. Which of the following statements about charismatic/transformational leadership is NOT accurate?
a) charismatic/transformational leadership is not always good. b) dark-side charismatics can have negative effects on followers. c) charismatic/transformational leadership is not always needed; sometimes emphasis on a vision diverts energy from more important day-to-day activities. d) charismatic/transformational leadership by itself is not sufficient; charismatic/transformational leadership needs to be used in conjunction with traditional leadership. d) charismatic/transformational leadership is important only at the top levels of organizational leadership. |
E
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1. Groups involve two or more people working together regularly to achieve common goals.
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2. The member satisfaction criterion of group effectiveness means that members are sufficiently satisfied to continue working well together on an ongoing basis and/or to look forward to working together again in the future.
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F
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3. Ringlemann identified two reasons why people may not work as hard in groups as they would individually: (a) their individual contributions are less noticeable in the context of a group; and (b) group goals are often less well defined than individual goals.
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F
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4. Permanent work groups, or command groups in the vertical structure, are specifically created to solve a problem or perform a defined task.
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F
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5. Virtual groups are groups whose members convene and work together electronically via computers.
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T
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6. The five stages of group development are forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning.
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T
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7. The storming stage of group development is a period of high emotionality and tension among the group members.
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T
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9. In the performing stage of group development, the group is able to deal with complex tasks and handle internal disagreements in creative ways.
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T
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10. In general, chances for long-term group success are better when the group input foundations – tasks; goals, rewards, and resources; technology; membership diversity; and group size – are stronger.
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T
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11. Members of a homogenous group vary with respect to age, gender, race, ethnicity, experience, culture, and similar characteristics.
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F
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12. FIRO-B theory suggests that groups whose members have compatible needs are likely to be more effective than groups whose members have incompatible needs.
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T
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13. George Homans describes a classical model of group dynamics involving two sets of behaviors. These sets of behaviors are required and emergent.
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T
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14. A key negative aspect of intergroup dynamics is that the members of each group may divert energies toward their mutual animosities rather than on the performance of important tasks.
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T
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15. Interacting groups exist when subgroups disagree on some aspect of workplace operations.
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F
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16. Some work arrangements involve co-acting groups whose members work closely together on tasks wherein close coordination of activities takes place.
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F
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17. In decision by lack of response, one idea after another is suggested without any discussion taking place. When the group finally accepts an idea, all others have been bypassed and discarded by simple lack of response rather than by critical evaluation.
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T
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18. Decision by minority rule is being used when two or three people can dominate the majority or “railroad” the majority into agreeing to a solution.
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T
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19. Teams will make decisions by consensus when discussion leads to one alternative being favored by most members and the others members agree to support it.
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T
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20. The best groups limit themselves to just one decision-making method, using it over and over across most, if not all, situations.
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F
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21. Groupthink is the tendency of members in highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities.
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T
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22. Groupthink can be avoided by having group members discuss issues with outsiders and report back.
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T
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23. The guidelines for brainstorming include ruling out all criticism, welcoming “freewheeling,” emphasizing quantity of ideas, and encouraging “piggy-backing” on others’ ideas.
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T
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24. The Delphi technique puts people in small groups of six to seven members and asks everyone to respond individually and in writing to a basic question such as: “What should be done to improve the effectiveness of this work team?”
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F
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25. Electronic brainstorming occurs through the use of special software that facilitates the entry of ideas at will through one’s personal computer.
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T
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26. In the open systems model, group dynamics are the processes through which inputs are transformed into outputs.
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F
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27. Efficiency of recording and storing information for later use and the ability to handle large groups with geographically dispersed members are two advantages of electronic approaches to group decision making.
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T
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1. Power is a behavioral response to the exercise of influence.
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F
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2. According to Chester Barnard, subordinates accept a directive from a superior when one or the other of the following conditions is met: (a) the subordinate can and must understand the directive, or (b) the subordinate must feel mentally and physically capable of carrying out the directive.
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F
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3. According to Chester Barnard, directives falling within the zone of indifference are obeyed, whereas those falling outside of it are not considered legitimate under the terms of the psychological contract.
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T
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4. Position power is available to a manager solely as a result of her or his position in the organization.
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T
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5. Having the formal authority to approve or deny employees requests for job transfers, equipment purchases, overtime, or personal time off are examples of a manager’s legitimate power.
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T
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6. Process power derives from a person’s control over methods of production and analysis.
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T
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7. Astute executives often hire individuals to act as representatives of and to constituencies ¾ such as investors, customers, alliance partners, and unions ¾ in order to ensure that their influence is felt but does not dominate.
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T
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8. A subordinate obeys a supervisor possessing expert power because the boss ordinarily knows more about what is to be done or how it is to be done than does the subordinate.
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T
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9. Referent power is the ability to control another’s behavior because, through the individual’s efforts, the person accepts the desirability of an offered goal and a reasonable way of achieving it.
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F
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10. Coalition power is the ability to control another’s behavior indirectly because the individual owes an obligation to you or another as part of a larger collective interest.
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T
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11. There are three basic dimensions of power and influence in which managers become involved. These three dimensions are inside, outside, and diagonal.
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F
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12. Three personal characteristics ¾ expertise, tactfulness, and experience ¾ have special potential for enhancing personal power in an organization.
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F
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13. A manager’s referent power is increased by characteristics that enhance his or her “likeability” and create personal attraction in relationships with other people.
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T
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14. By defining a problem in a manner that fits the manager’s expertise, it is natural for that manager to be in charge of solving it, which in turn subtly shifts his or her position power.
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T
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15. The most common strategies of turning power into relational influence include friendliness, coalition, bargaining, and higher authority but exclude reason, assertiveness, and sanctions.
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F
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16. The concept of empowerment is part of the sweeping change being witnessed in today’s corporations.
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T
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17. When embarking on an empowerment program, management needs to recognize the current zone of indifference and systematically move to contract it.
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F
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18. A clearer definition of roles and responsibilities may help managers empower others.
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T
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19. A second tradition treats organizational politics as the art of creative compromise among competing interests.
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T
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20. The abilities to use practical intelligence to be calculating and shrewd about social connections are important political skills that can help lower executive stress.
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T
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21. Political action links managers more formally to one another as representatives of their work units.
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T
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22. Advisory linkages for lateral political action involve formal staff units having special expertise.
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T
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23. Playing dumb, depersonalization, and stalling are avoidance techniques that are commonly used when the employee must risk being wrong or when actions may yield a sanction.
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T
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24. People who are really devious will engage in political self-protection by using the redirecting techniques of: blaming the problem on someone or some group who has difficulty engaging in self-defense; blaming the problem on uncontrollable events; or escalating commitment to a losing course of action.
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T
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25. Pay plan incentives that align the interests of management and stockholders are an important control that can be instituted for agents.
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T
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26. Understanding agency theory and resource dependencies does little to help managers, executives, employees, stockholders, and the general public to understand the nature and purpose of organizational governance.
|
F
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27. Whereas organizational governance was an internal and rather private matter in the past, it is now becoming more public and openly controversial.
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T
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