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269 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is ethnopluralism?
a) racial profiling b) diverse cultures c) religious profiling d) superiorialism |
b) diverse cultures
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The art of nursing that involves low-tech, high-touch artistry of caring that strengthens the patient's confidence in her or his ability to manage the healing process, make change, or master the threatening health event is termed:
a) nursing aesthetics b) caring c) holism d) spirituality |
a) nursing aesthetics
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What is the difference between cultural prescriptions and cultural proscriptions?
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cultural prescriptions- folk beliefs, practices, and values of a group that tell women and children what they SHOULD do
in relation to their roles cultural proscriptions- folk beliefs, practices, and values of a group that tell women and children what they SHOULD NOT do in relation to their roles |
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Watson and Leininger are two modern-day theorists known for their inclusion of ____ as a core of nursing.
a) hope b) religion c) holism d) caring |
d) caring
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The new nurse explains to the clinic nurse that the nursing process currently being taught has an emphasis on:
a) health promotion b) disease and illness c) linear progression of the illness d) assessment for S&S of disease |
a) health promotion
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A person who was interested in the statistical analysis of the distribution and determinants of disease in populations over time would want to study what field?
a) microeconomics b) macroeconomics c) U.S history d) epidemiology |
d) epidemiology: for example, epidemiological studies of health disease reveal how many people develop heart disease, what type, and what other common factors they have(smoking, obesity...)
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What is the leading cause of death in infants 1-12 months old?
a) SIDS b) congenital defect c) failure to thrive d) neglect |
a) SIDS
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What are some examples of teratogens?
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1. Teratogens are substances that adversely affect normal cellular development in the embryo/fetus: So...alcohol, tobacco...
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What is one of the priority goals in Healthy People 2010?
a) childhood vaccinations b) diversity training c) dental health d) genetic testing |
a) childhood vaccinations
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What age group does WIC target?
a) woman b) woman with children ages 5 and above c) women with children ages 5 or below d) women and men with children ages 5 and below |
c) women with children ages 5 or below
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The Newborn and Mothers Health Protection Act ensures that mothers and their newborn infants can remain in the hospital for at least ___ hours following a vaginal birth, and ___ hours following a cesarean birth.
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48-after vaginal
96- after cesarean |
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Concerning the digital divide, what does the "gray gap" refer to?
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Seniors who do not use internet technology
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What does HIPAA stand for?
a) Health Insurance Protection and Allowance b) Health Insurance Provision and Accountability Act c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act d) Health Insurance Protection and Accusation Act |
c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
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The clinic nurse understands that nonmaleficence is a concept used in ethical decision making. It means:
a) first do no harm b) acting on the patient's behalf c) patients have a right to information d) patients should be treated equally |
a) first do no harm
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The doctor ordered 10 mg of Tylenol. You have a 10 mg tablet on hand. The 2 month old patient has a gastric tube in place. How do you give the medication?
a) orally in a spoonful of cereal b) in the gastric tube, breaking the pill in half first c) orally crushed and mixed with apple sauce d) crushed in the gastric tube |
d) crushed in the gastric tube: you would want to mix the crushed pill thoroughly with a liquid until it is dissolved; you also want to be sure to flush the gastric tube afterwords to ensure it does not become clogged. An elixir form of the medication is preferred.
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A child with a gastric tube has severe nausea and vomiting. The doctor has ordered Tylenol for her fever. What would be the best administration of this medication?
a) orally b) gastric tube c) subcutaneous d) IM e) rectally |
e) rectally-this is used to supplement oral/gastric administration when the child is vomiting
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How do you position the child's ear for administration of an otic medication?
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pull back and down
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How should the child's head be positioned during a nasal medication administration?
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Hyperextend the neck to prevent the medication from sliding down the child's throat.
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How might you ease the pain of a SQ injection on a child?
a) apply ice for 10 minutes to the intended site b) administer a sedative 30 minutes prior to injection c) apply a local anesthetic 60 minutes before injection d) rub the injection site for 2 minutes after injection |
c) apply a local anesthetic 60 minutes before an injection
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At what angle to you administer SQ injections in a child?
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90 degrees or 45 degress for a chld with minimal subcutaneous tisse...: 101 ATI
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In what site would you inject a 3-month-old?
a) vastus lateralis b) ventrogluteal c) deltoid d) eyeball |
a) vastus lateralis
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What age group is injection into the vastus lateralis recommended?
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age 2 and under-due to minimal muscle development
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True or False: You would choose the vastus lateralis for a SQ injection on a 4 month old.
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False: This is a SQ injection, so don't inject into the muscle! That would be an IM injection.
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What is the maximum mL that can be injected IM in a child? How about an infant?
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Child-2 mL
Infant- 1/2 mL |
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Into what muscle would you inject an IM medication with a 4 year old?
a) vastus lateralis b) dorsogluteal c) rectus abdominus d) deltoid |
d) deltoid
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A mother with a very finicky child ask if you could use a 1/4 inch needle for the IM injection, as the child has a very low pain tolerance and is very frightened of needles. What do you do?
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Tell her you have to use a minimum of a 5/8 to 1 inch needle in order for it to be an IM injection, but there are other methods to be used to ease the discomfort(distraction, local anesthetic, a present afterwards)...
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True or False: If an infant is sleeping, a nurse may ask the parents at the bedside to verify his name.
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False: A client's identity should always be verified by the hospital identification band.
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Physical development proceeds in a ___ direction.
a) anterior-posterior b) posterior-anterior c) caudalcephalo d) cephalocaudal |
d) cephalocaudal-ie head to toe
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Which theorist believed that development was most influenced by biological instincts?
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Freud
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Growth also develops in what other direction?
a) posterior-anterior b) anterior-posterior c) proximodistally d) distallyproximal |
c) proximodistally-ie midline to periphery
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Which of the following is not one of Erikson's 7 stages of development?
a) Autonomy v Shame and Doubt b) Independence v loneliness c) Trust v Mistrust d) Initiative v Guilt |
b) independence v loneliness
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Which is the following is not one of Erikson's 7 stages of development?
a) Industry v Inferiority b) Identity v Role Confusion c) Initiative v Guilt d) Self-Esteem v Superiority |
d) Self-Esteem v Superiority
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Which of Erikson's stages is the following child going through: A baby learns that not everyone or every situation is safe.
a) Identity v Role Confusion b) Autonomy v Shame/Doubt c) Trust v Mistrust d) Initiation v Guilt e) Industry v inferiority |
c) Trust v Mistrust
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Which of Erikson's stages is the following child going through: An adolescent want to define "what to be be when I grow up".
a) Identity v Role Confusion b) Autonomy v Shame/Doubt c) Trust v Mistrust d) Initiation v Guilt e) Industry v inferiority |
a) identity v Role Confusion
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Which of Erikson's stages is the following child going through: A child develops a sense of confidence through mastery of tasks.
a) Identity v Role Confusion b) Autonomy v Shame/Doubt c) Trust v Mistrust d) Initiation v Guilt e) Industry v inferiority |
e) Industry v inferiority
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Which of Erikson's stages is the following child going through: A child feels conflicted about wanting to be independent and needing to stay attached to her parents.
a) Identity v Role Confusion b) Autonomy v Shame/Doubt c) Trust v Mistrust d) Initiation v Guilt e) Industry v inferiority |
d) initiation v guilt
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Which theorist focused on the positive and negative reinforcement of development?
a) Bandura b) Skinner c) Freud d) Piaget |
b) Skinner
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Which theorist believed that learning occurs within a social context through observation and modeling?
a) Bandura b) Skinner c) Feud d) Piaget e) Vygotsky f) Bronfenbrenner |
a) Bandura
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Which theorist focused on the influence of culture on development?
a) Bandura b) Skinner c) Feud d) Piaget e) Vygotsky f) Bronfenbrenner |
e) Vygotsky
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What are Piaget's 4 stages of cognitive development?
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1. Sensorimotor
2. Preoperational 3. Concrete 4. Formal |
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During which phase of Piaget's cognitive development is the child's primary means of cognition through the senses?
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sensorimotor
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During which phase of Piaget's cognitive development is the child able to uses abstract reasoning?
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Formal
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During which phase of Piaget's cognitive development is the child able to categorize and label objects as well as solve concrete problems using logical thinking?
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concrete operational
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During which phase of Piaget's cognitive development is the child able to use words and actions together, but not yet able to use logical thinking?
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preoperational
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Which theorist would be interested in a child's intelligence?
a) Bandura b) Skinner c) Gardner d) Piaget d) Vygotsky |
c) Gardner
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Which of the following is NOT one of Gardners 8 forms of intelligence?
a) bodily-kinesthetic b) empathetic c) interpersonal d) intrapersonal |
b) empathetic
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Which of the following is NOT one of Gardners 8 forms of intelligence?
a) linguistic b) communication c) logical-mathematic d) musical |
b) communication
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Which of the following is NOT one of Gardner's 8 forms of intelligence?
a) musical b) spatial c) naturalistic d) mechanistic |
d) mechanistic
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What are Gardner's 8 forms of intelligence?
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No, I don't expect you to memorize this list, but its just stuff to review!
1. Bodily-kinesthetic 2. Interpersonal 3. Intrapersonal 4. Linguistic 5. Logical-Mathematic 6. Musical 7. Naturalistic 8. Spatial |
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Which theorist based his studies on the theory of moral development?
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Kohlberg
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Which theorist focused their research on female moral development?
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Gilligan
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What is rooting?
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An infant reflex, the baby's head turns and begins to suck when her cheek or lower lip is stroked
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The startle response with sudden jarring causes extension of the head, and the arms to abduct and move upward is an infant reflex termed:
a) rooting b) sucking c) moro d) grasping d) babinski |
c) moro
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When a babies foot is stroked, the babinski reflex causes:
a) turning in of foot and out of toes b) turning out of foot and in of toes c) none of the above |
a) turning in of foot and out of toes
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What are infants attracted to most due to the limited nature of their vision? Check all that apply:
a) black and white b) dull colors c) bright colors d) pastel colors |
a) black and white
c) bright colors |
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A mother brings her infant in for a check up. She is concerned that her baby has only gained 1.5 lbs since last month. What do you tell her?
a) that is not enough weight and should be evaluated by a physician b) that is too much weight and should be evaluated by a physician c) that is an appropriate amount of weight and requires no evaluation |
c) that is an appropriate amount of weight and requires no evaluation: growth is rapid and infants on average gain 1.5 lbs per month for the first year.
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How long does it usually take for the baby to be able to raise its head and chest while lying on its belly?
a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 5 months d) 8 months |
b) 3 months
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A mother brings her 3 month child to the emergency room complaining that the child rolled off changing table while she reached for the powder. What do you think?
a) the child is too young to be able to roll from side to side, and there should be a report to DCF for further investigation of abuse b) this is possible, 3 months olds should be able to roll from side to side |
b) this is possible, 3 months olds should be able to roll from side to side
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At what age should an infant be able to turn over completely?
a) 1-2 months b) 3-4 months c) 6-7 months d) 9-10 months |
c) 6-7 months
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At what age can an infant be expected to crawl and begin pulling up?
a) 2-3 months b) 4-5 months c) 6-7 months d) 8-9 months e) 10-11 months |
d) 8-9 months
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What is one of the first fine motor skills to develop?
a) pinch to pick up small objects b) writing their name c) scribbling d) cruising |
a) pinch to pick up small objects
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What is recommended to be the infant's first solid food?
a) thickened breast milk b) calcium fortified oatmeal c) buffalo chicken wings d) iron-fortified rice cereal |
d) iron-fortified rice cereal: it is the least allergenic of the grains and the iron will help the baby replenish the iron stores received in utero.
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True or False, when the infant is ready to progress to solid food from formula or breast milk, make a small portion of cereal and spoon feed it to the infant.
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False: When introducing the rice cereal to the baby, mix it with formula or breast milk until it is very soupy. As the baby adapts to solids, you can increase the consistency of the cereal.
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A mother tells you her 6 year old child switches back and forth with his left and right hand. He has not yet established a dominant hand. What do you tell her?
a) this is usual, as the dominant hand is not established until the child is 7-8 years old b) a child usually establishes dominance by 4 years of age c) there is no established time line for hand dominance, it just happens when it happens |
b) a child usually establishes dominance by 4 years of age
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About how many words should children ages 3-5 know?
a) 500 b) 1000 c) 2000 d) 50 |
c) 2000
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The pediatric nurse assess the toddler's fine motor skills by observing which one of the following:
a) buttoning a shirt b) writing with a pencil c) holding a spoon to eat d) using the pincer grasp |
c) holding a spoon to eat
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The mother of a 26-month-old toddlers tells the pediatric nurse that she is having trouble disciplining her daughter. What might you tell her?
a) "the terrible two's are a difficult time, you have to show her you are the boss" b) when she does something wrong, tell her she is a bad girl and has to be punished for her actions c) grab her by the arm and give her a time out on a chair in the corner d) take away her favorite doll and tell her that she cannot have it back until she changes her behavior |
d) take away her favorite doll and tell her that she cannot have it back until she changes her behavior
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What is magical thinking?
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When a child, typically a preschooler wishes harm on someone, and then by chance that harm comes true, so they think they caused the harm. For example, a child wishes his best friend was dead, and then the best friend gets into a car accident and dies. The child believes that he caused the car accident.
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Key aspects in a teens environment that help him make good decisions include all of the following except the ability to:
a) think abstractly b) use deductive reasoning c) make long-term plans d) use logical thinking |
d) use logical thinking
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At what age will an infant be expected to hold their head up?
a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 9 months d) 12 months |
b) 3 months
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At what age is an infant expected to transfer objects from and to hand?
a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 9 months d) 12 months |
c) 6 months
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At what age will an infant be expected to utilize the pincer grasp?
a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 9 months d) 12 months |
d) 9 months
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True or False: Cows milk is recommended for the birth to 12 months age group.
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False
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About how many teeth should the infant have by the end of the first year?
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6-8
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In what stage of Erickson's model of development is a toddler expected to be in?
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Autonomy v. Shame
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In what stage of Piaget's model of development is a toddler expected to be in?
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Preoperational
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2 toddlers are in a room together with toys; what should you expect them to be doing?
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Playing alone or beginning to use parallel play.
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How much fruit juice should you allow toddlers to have per day?
a) 1-2 oz b) 2-3 oz c) 4-6 oz d) 12-20 oz |
c) 4-6 oz
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How much cows milk per day should the toddler drink?
a) 1 glass b) 2-3 glasses c) 3-4 glasses d) unlimited |
c) 3-4 glasses
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According to Erickson's stages of development, what stage would a preschooler (3-5 years old) be in?
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Initiative v. Guilt
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According to Piaget's stages of development, what stage wold a preschooler (3-5 years old) be in?
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Preoperational
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About how many hours of sleep should the preschool be getting per day?
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12 hours!
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According to Erickson's stages of development, what stage would the school age child (5-12 years old) be in?
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Industry v. inferiority
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When should a child be expected to alternate feet when climbing stairs?
a) 1-3 b) 3-5 c) 5-7 d) 7-9 |
b) 3-5
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According to Piaget's stages of development, what stage would a school age child (5-12 years) be in?
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Concrete operations
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At what age can you expect children to eat as much as adults do?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 13 d) 16 |
b) 5 years and up
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According to Erikson's stages of development, what stage would you expect an adolescent (12-20 years) to be in?
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Identity v. Role Confusion
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According to Piaget's stages of development, what stage would you expect an adolescent (12-20 years) to be in?
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Formal operational
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What is the leading cause of death for adolescents?
a) suicide b) car accidents c) homicides d) congenital defect |
b) car accidents
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What are some of the common nutritional deficiencies of adolescents?
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iron, calcium, and vitamin A and C
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What immunization(s) is/are given at birth?
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Hep B
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When is the Hep B vaccination given?
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1-2 months
6-18 months |
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When is the Rotavirus vaccination given?
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2 months
4 months 6 months |
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When is the DTap vaccination given?
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2 months
4 months 6 months 15-18 4-6 years |
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At what 4 times is the Hib vaccination given?
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2 months
4 months 6 months 12-15 months |
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At what 5 times is the pneumococcal vaccinations given?
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2 month
4 months 5 months 12-15 months 2-6 years old |
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At what 4 times is the IPV vaccination given?
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2 months
4 months 6-18 months 4-6 years |
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At what age do you start giving the flu vaccination?
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6 months
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At what two times is the MMR vaccination given?
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12 months
4-6 years |
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How do the MMR and Varicella vaccination schedule compare?
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They are the same!
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At what 2 times is the Varicella vaccination given?
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12 months and 4-6 years
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At what 2 times is the Hep A vaccination given?
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12-19 months(2 shots given)
2-6 years |
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At what age to MMR and Varicella vaccinations begin?
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12 months
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Which two vaccinations are live?
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MMR and Varicella
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At what age is the meningococcal vaccination given?
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2 years
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At what age is a child's immune system fully developed?
a) 1 month b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 9 months e) 12 months f) 15 months g) 18 months h) 24 months |
h) 24 months or 2 years
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Which devolopmental theorist emphasizes social interaction and the attainment of mastery through achieving a balance between two conflicting tasks at each stage?
a) Freud b) Brazleton c) Erikson d) Bowlby |
c) Erikson
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To help prevent a major cause of death in infancy, parents should be made aware that during this stage there can be:
a) skull flattening from supine position b) sudden increases in mobility c) higher incidence of allergies d) risks from scheduled immunizations |
b) sudden increases in mobility
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At what age should infants be able to say Momma and Dadda?
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7 months
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At what age should infants be able to reach for a toy?
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8 months
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At which age should infants be able to sit with support?
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4 months
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At which age should a child be able to feed themselves or stack 2 blocks?
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15 months
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When does the front fontanel close?
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12-18 months
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What pneumonic can be used to inquire about a child's daily activities?
a) Pizza b) Soda c) Chips d) Coke |
b) Soda
Sleep Output Diet Activity |
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With sufficient breast milk intake, the infant will have __ or more wet diapers and gain weight.
a) 3 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10 |
b) 6
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When a head circumference measurement is taken, where is the measuring tape placed?
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Over the lower forehead, above the pinna of the ears, and over the occipital prominence.
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Where is a newborn's temperature taken?
a) oral b) rectal c) axillary d) tempanic |
c) axillary
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If a rectal temperature is taken on a newborn, how far should you insert the thermometer?
a) 1/4 inch b) 1/2 inch c) 3/4 inch d) 1 inch |
b) 1/2 inch
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What is a normal infant heart rate?
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80-150
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What is a normal respiratory rate for an infant?
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25-55
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What is a normal systolic bp for an infant?
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65-100
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What is a normal diastolic bp for an infant?
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45-65
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True or False: An infant's bp is 65/45, the doctor should be notified immediately.
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False: That is within normal parameters!
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What difference in the palm can be found in children with down syndrome?
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The 2 horizontal fissures are sometimes fused into one single fissure.
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A 5 month old comes in to the doctors office. Her posterior fontanel is not closed. What do you tell the parent?
a) this is an abnormal finding b) this is a normal finding c) nurses do not assess fontanels |
a) this is an abnormal finding: the posterior fontanel closes within 1-3 months after birth
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How long should you expect the anterior fontanel to remain open for?
a) 1-3 months b) 3-6 months c) 9-12 months d) 12-18 months |
d) 12-18 months
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True or False: It is common for young children to have palpable, painless movable nodes up to 1 cm in diameter.
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True!
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What are Ishihara pseudochromatic charts used for?
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detecting color blindness
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True or False: Clear drainage from the ear is OK as long as it doesn't turn red or purulent.
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False: Any clear drainage noted from the ear, particularly after head trauma or with cranial infections should be reported to the health care provider immediately as this fluid may indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak.
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Describe the Weber test.
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Striking a tuning fork and placing the handle of the tuning fork midline on top of the child's head.
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When performing a Weber test, what do you ask the child?
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Which ear she ears the sound best in. If hearing is normal, sound is heard equally in both ears.
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If a child is able to hear sound better in one ear, during a Weber test, what might this indicate?
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Hearing loss in one ear
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Describe the Rinne test.
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Strike a tuning fork and place the handle on the mastoid process behind the ear and have the child tell you when he no longer hears it, then immediately place the tuning fork 1-2 inch away from the auditory meatus. They should be able to hear it still.
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What would you expect to see when inspecting the nasal mucosa of a child with allergic rhinitis?
a) normal looking mucosa b) redness c) purulent drainage d) dry e) pale, boggy |
d) pale and boggy
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What would you expect to see when inspecting the nasal mucosa in a child with an upper respiratory infection?
a) normal looking mucosa b) redness c) purulent drainage d) dryness e) pale, boggy |
b) redness
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By what age can you expect the lateral diameter to be greater then the anteroposterior diameter?
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2
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A 4 year old has equal anteroposterior and lateral diameter. What might you expect?
a) chronic lung disease b) acute asthma c) crohns d) viral infection |
a) chronic lung disease
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What type of breath sounds are: loud, high-pitched, and heard only over the trachea?
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bronchial
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What type of lung sounds are: soft, low-pitched, and heard throughout the lung fields?
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Vesicular
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When listening to bowel sounds on a child, you hear them clearly, and as you move across the abdomen you find you can no longer hear them. What might this indicate?
a) this is normal b) appendicitis c) bowel obstruction d) loose stools |
A child with a bowel obstruction will have absent bowel sounds below the obstruction.
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If your child has a viral infection, is it OK to treat their fever with aspirin?
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Never; It is correlated with the development of Reye's syndrome in children with viral infections.
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What special step is taken when a child is using a cooling blanket to lower their temperature?
a) their clothes are removed b) all sheets/blankets are removed from the bed c) they are given a sedative for comfort d) rectal temps are monitored |
d) rectal temperatures are monitored every 15 minutes while the child is on the machine
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At what temperature do you initially set the cooling blanket to?
a) 50 degrees F b) 80 degrees F c) 98.6 degrees F d) the temp the child is right now |
c) 98.6: The temperature can be decreased slowly according to the child's response to the cooling
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True or False: Cooling blankets are routinely used in hospitals to help children with moderate fevers.
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False: They are used only in circumstances warranting an immediate drop of a very high fever.
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Can a married 16 year old sign consent?
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Yes
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Can a 13 year old mother sign consent?
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Yes
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In some states, the age of consent for girls is ages ___ and older for contraception advice and gynecological procedure.
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14
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In general a gram of urine is equal to about ___ mL(s).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5 |
a) 1
1 gram=1 mL This is in reference to weighing diapers to determine output. |
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Normal urinary output is:
a) 1-2 mL/kg/hr b) 3-4 mL/kg/hr c) 1-2 mL/lb/hr d) 3/4 mL/lb/hr |
a) 1-2mL/kg/hr
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Why is a tongue blade used to examine the throat of a person suspected of having epiglottis?
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It isn't! This may elicit the gag reflex and cause the inflamed epiglottis to completely obstruct the airway.
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Which is preferred for feeding the newborn, an orogastric or nasogastric tube? Why?
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orogastric tube because newborns are obligate nose breathers!
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How often is a child's restrained extremity initially checked? How about after the first hour?
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Every 15 minutes for the first hour and then every 1-2 hours.
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True or False: After a bolus feeding through an orogastric tube, the tube is removed.
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True! If the tube is to be left in place, the nasogastric route should be considered
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What common nonbarbiturate sedative-hypnotic drug is commonly used in children to produce sedation during procedures?
a) NO2 b) morphine c) Clonopine d) chloral hydrate |
d) chloral hydrate (Aquachloral)
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What opioid antagonist is used to reverse the effects of morphine sulfate?
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Naloxone (Narcan)
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True or False: After administering Chloral hydrate, sleep is induced and an artificial airways must be established.
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False: This drug decreased anxiety and induces sleep without respiratory depression or suppression of the cough reflex.
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Children ___ months of age and younger have not developed a clear and selective attachment to their parents.
a) 3 months b) 6 months c) 9 months d) children of any age have developed a clear and selective attachment to their parents |
b) 6 months or less
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True or False: Children with attachment issues will exhibit these three stages when hospitalized: Protest, Despair, Detachment.
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False: Regardless of age or separation from family, a child who is hospitalized will exhibit all 3 stages.
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What happens during the detachment phase of a hospitalized child?
a) the child appears withdrawn b) the child refused to be played with c) the child shows disinterest in their parents |
c) the child represses their pain at the sense of loss of their parents. This may help explain why children sometimes show disinterest on the return of their parents, as a way of acting out their anger.
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True or False: The nurse can feel confident that the child has been relieved of their stress during their progression through the detachment phase of hospitalization.
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False: The child may appear happy but they are really just internalizing the stress, and displaying less outward signs.
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True or false: The growth of the child's digestive system SLOWS during the toddler years, which leads to a reduction in the caloric needs from those of the infant period.
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True!
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What type of treatment is initially indicated for infants with an umbilical hernia?
a) surgery b) manual manipulation c) none |
c) none- most umbilical hernias resolve spontaneously by 3-5 years of age, although surgery may be indicated if the hernia is larger than 1.5 cm in diameter or those with an elongated or extensible tubular process.
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True or false: Surgery is considered for persistent hernias beyond the age of 5, incarcerated hernias, and hernias that enlarge dramatically.
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True!
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Projectile vomiting is the classic and most common symptom of ___.
a) crohns b) obstruction c) pyloric stenosis d) intussusception |
c) hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
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What is the name for a condition in which a proximal section of the intestine and mesentery "telescopes" into a distal section of the intestine?
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Intussusception
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What are 2 common symptoms of intussusception?
a) acute abd pain/currant jelly stools b) referred pain/diarrhea c) currant jelly stools/rebound tenderness d) none of the above |
a) acute abd pain and current jelly stool
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What is Danca's sign and what does it indicate?
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Its the presence of a sausage-shaped mass in the upper right quadrant, which indicates intussusception.
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A major sign of malrotation or volvulus is ____ vomit.
a) black b) red c) yellow d) green |
d) green vomit
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What abnormality in the intestines appears on X-ray as a cork-screw, coiled, or bird's beak appearance?
a) intussusception b) pyloric stenosis c) Meckel diverticulum d) Malrotation |
d) Malrotation
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What are some triggers to IBS muscle spasms?
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large amount of food, spicy foods, high-fat foods, gas-causing-foods, stress
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What medications are regularly used in the treatment of IBS in children?
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None! Medication are rarely used in the treatment of IBS in children.
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A child presenting with recurring bloody diarrhea might have ___.
a) IBS b) crohns c) appendicitis d) ulcerative colitis |
d) ulcerative colitis
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What is the difference between crohns disease and ulcerative colitis in terms of the area of intestine infected?
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Crohns-non-sequential areas of intestine
Ulcerative colitis- a continuous segment of intestine is involved |
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Periumbilical pain, peaking at 4-hour intervals, followed by the classic sign of right lower quadrant pain is indicative of ___.
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appendicitis
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Omphalitis is an infection of ___.
a) the eyes b) the tear ducts c) the anus d) the umbilical stump |
d) the umbilical stump
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A baby with a diagnosis of omphalitis would be expected to have ___ and ___ around the umbilical site.
a) heat and yellow drainage b) redness and edema c) purulent drainage and strong odor d) redness and pulsations |
b) redness and edema
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What is described as persistent, unexplained crying or fussing in infants younger than 3 months of age.
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Colic
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What warrants a diagnosis of colic?
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episodes of crying 2-3 hours at a time, 3 days a week for 2-3 weeks
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What is the most common cause of diarrhea illness among children worldwide.
a) colic b) c-diff c) IBS d) rotavirus |
d) rotavirus
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Chronic diarrhea is defined as one or more liquids to semi liquid stools passed per day for ___ days.
a) 3 b) 8 c) 14 d) 30 |
c) 14 days
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True or False: Children should be give applesauce or bananas when they are constipated, to help them pass their stool easier.
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False: Those should be given when they have diarrhea to help make their stools FIRMER.
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True or False: Safe laxatives for use in children include milk of magnesia and polyethylene glycol (Miralax).
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True!
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What is encopresis?
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Stool incontinence beyond the age when children should normally be able to control their bowels.
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What is the difference between encopresis with constipation and encopresis without constipation?
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Encopresis with constipation- stool becomes hard and impacted and liquid stool leaks out the now weakened rectum
-Encopresis without constipation- voluntary stools in inappropriate places |
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What is a common treatment for encopresis?
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bowel training
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Vomiting and regurgitation that is nonbilious and includes undigested formula or food is most likely ___.
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GERD
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What test is used to diagnose GERD?
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24-hour intraesophageal pH monitoring study
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What can be done with infant formula to help decrease vomiting associated with GERD?
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Thicken it with cereal and reduce the volume.
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After feeding, how should an infant with GERD be positioned?
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upright, no higher than a 45 degree angle
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True or False: Several studies have indicated that PRONE positioning decreases episodes of reflux.
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True! However, since prone positioning has been associated with SIDS, this should only be considered with extreme caution and when complications from GERD exceed the risks of SIDS.
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___ position facilitates gastric emptying.
a) left b) right c) prone d) supine |
b) right
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What disease results in absent or abnormal peristalsis related to absence of ganglion cells in the affected portion of the colon?
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Hirschsprung disease- their poop will be ribbon like!
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A breath hydrogen test is used to positively diagnose what condition?
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lactose intolerance
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Children with lactose intolerance can get needed calcium from what common food?
a) bananas b) apple sauce c) oatmeal d) yogurt |
d) yogurt
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Celiac disease is a permanent intolerance to ___.
a) glucose b) calcium c) lactose d) gluten |
d) gluten
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True or False: People with Celiac disease are told to avoid rice because it contains gluten.
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False: Rice does not contain gluten
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A child that presents with Celiac disease is expected to have what type of stools?
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bulky, greasy, foul-smelling, and putty colored
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What vitamin deficiency are children with Celiac disease expected to have?
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Vitamin K
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A biopsy of the intestinal mucosa of a person with Celiac disease would be expected to show what abnormality?
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atrophy of the villi and deep crypts
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True or False: Children with Celiac disease who have more severe mucosal damage have impaired digestion of disaccharides, and may need to temporarily restrict lactose.
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True!
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Why might a child with short bowel syndrome be started on TPN or enteral feedings?
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to stimulate the adaptive growth of the small intestine
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A child presenting with an enlarged liver, dark/staining urine, and tan colored stools may have clinical manifestations of ___.
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biliary atresia
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What is biliary atresia?
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Obstructed bile ducts
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Which two types of hepatitis are spread through the fecal-oral route?
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Hep A and Hep E
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What should be given to children who have been exposed to a person with Hep A within 2 weeks of exposure?
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Immune globulin
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A 6-week-old infant is admitted to the hospital with the possible diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. The nurse asks the parents about the infant's feeding history. Which of the following symptoms is most descriptive of pyloric stenosis in the infant?
a) abdominal peristaltic waves passing from right to left b) frequently appearing hungry with projectile vomiting c) periodic bilious forceful vomiting after feedings d) decrease interest in feedings with weight loss |
b) frequently appearing hungry with projectile vomiting
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During abdominal assessment, the nurse is aware that a classic sign of pyloric stenosis is the ___ to ___ movement of peristalsis.
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left to right
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True or False: When assessing skin tugor, if the child's skin remains suspended or tented for 30 seconds or more, this indicates dehydration.
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False: 15 seconds or more
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It is important to note that if a teenager's acne is being treated with topical retinoids such as tretinoin (Retin-A), adapalen (Diferin), or tazarotene (Tazorac), the acne site must NOT be covered with ___ or ___.
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Makeup or moisturizers.
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Isotretinoin (Accutane) is an acne medication that must be avoided by who?
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Preggers! It has been shown to cause severe birth defects.
-users are required to get pregnacy test every month |
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True or False: Impetigo is not contagious and is actually self resolving.
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False: it is a highly contagious bacterial infection that sometimes requires oral antibiotics
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___ is described by a spreading bacterial infection that enters via existent openings in the skin caused by dermatological conditions or trauma that then spreads into the interstitial space and is characterized by edematous and red appearance.
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Cellulitis
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True or False: Warts require prompt treatment as they will only resolve with topical anti-fungals combined with oral antibiotics.
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False: 75% of warts resolve on their own within 2 years
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Which type of herpes occurs on the genitals, herpes simplex virus 1 or herpes simplex virus 2?
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Herpes simplex virus 2
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Ringworm is diagnosed using visual inspection and a ___ ___.
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Wood lamp: It discloses yellowish-gold fluorescence coloration
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The child who comes to the community health clinic with red to pink patches with loose yellow greasy scaling has seborrheic _____.
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dermatitis
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Nits on the eyelashes of a child are sometimes a sign of___.
a) poor hygiene b) neglect c) sexual abuse d) septic infection |
c) sexual abuse: the nurse must report any suspicious findings
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True or False: Animal bites carry a higher risk for infection than do human bites.
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False: HUMAN bites carry a higher risk for infection than do animal bites.
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Why do human bites carry a higher risk for infection than animal bites?
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Because human bites may carry blood-borne diseases such as hep B or HIV.
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True or False: A rash appearing 24 hours after a tick bite is indicative of Lyme disease.
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False: It takes 48 hours after contact with a human to introduce the spirochete into the feeding site where the tick has buried its head. Any rash that appears before 48 hours is an allergic reaction or infection, not Lyme disease.
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True or False, following a tick bite, in addition to assessing the bite site, the nurse needs to assess joints for inflammation due to sudden onset of arthritis
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True
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True or False, Kate was bitten by a tick last week and needs to go in for blood tests to determine if she contracted Lyme disease.
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False: They need to wait 3-4 weeks for the IgM antibodies to appear in the blood.
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A diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is made when what 3 conditions are med?
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fever, rash, and history of tick bite
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Finding white sacs on the hair shaftes would be indicative of what?
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Head lice!
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What GI condition would present with bright red blood and mucus in the stool?
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Intussusception
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What GI disorder involves a lack of nerve cells in the intestines, and initially presents at birth when meconium isn't passed within the first 48 hours?
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Hirschsprung
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What is a normal BUN?
a)1.2-4.2 b) 8-21 c) 38-42 d) 120-200 |
b)8-21
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What is a normal BUN?
|
8-21
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What is a normal creatnine?
a) .5-1.2 b) 1.5-5 c) 10-12.5 d) 12-18 |
a) .5-1.2
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What is a normal Creatnine?
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.5-1.2
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What is a normal potassium?
a) .5-1.2 b) 5-10.5 c) 3.5-5 d) 5.5-8.5 |
c) 3.5-5
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What is a normal Potassium?
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3.5-5
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What is a normal sodium?
a) 34-35 b) 8-10 c) 3.5-5 d) 135-145 |
d) 135-145
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What is a normal Sodium?
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135-145
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What is a normal calicum?
a) 4-6 b) 8-10 c) 12-18 d) 18-22 |
b) 8-10
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What is a normal Calcium?
|
8-10
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What is a normal Magnesium
a) 1.2-2.1 b) 2.1-3.2 c) 3.2-4.1 d) 4.1-5.2 |
a) 1.2-2.1
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What is a normal Magnesium?
|
1.2-2.1
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What is a normal specific gravity?
a) .003-.025 b) 2.003-2.025 c) 2.025-2.003 d) 1.003-1.025 |
d) 1.003-1.025
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What is a normal specific gravity?
|
1.003-1.025
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What is a normal albumin?
a) 5-6.5 b) 10-20 c) 8-10 d) 3.5-5 |
d) 3.5-5
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What is a normal albumin?
|
3.5-5
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What is a normal AST?
a) 10-35 b) 8-39 c) 9-40 d) 230-242 |
c) 9-40
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What is a normal AST?
|
9-40
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What is a normal ALT?
a) 7-35 b) 35-42 c) 4-7.2 d) 4.2-6.4 |
a) 7-35
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What is a normal ALT?
|
7-35
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What is a normal ammonia?
a) 45-56 b) 2.3-5.6 c) 22-45 d) 14-45 |
14-45
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What is a normal Ammonia?
|
14-45
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What is the major electrolyte of concern in extracellular fluid?
a) calcium b) sodium c) potassium d) chloride |
b) sodium
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What is the major electrolyte of concern in intracellular fluid?
a) calcium b) sodium c) potassium d) chloride |
a) calcium
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A patient experiencing hypovolemia would display which of the following symptoms:
a) low HR, High BP b) low HR, low BP c) high HR, high BP d) high HR, low BP |
d) high HR, low BP
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What is a normal blood Ph?
|
7.35-7.45
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What is a normal PaCO2?
|
35-45
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What is a normal PaO2?
|
80-100
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The HCO3 and H2CO3 should have a __ to __ ratio.
a) 20 to 1 b) 1 to 20 c) 2 to 1 d) 1 to 2 |
a) 20 to 1
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How do the kidneys act of pH buffers of the blood?
|
they regulate renal excretion of H+ in the urine
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As more H+ is released into the blood, the pH:
a) remains the same b) becomes more acidic c) becomes more basic |
b) becomes more acidic
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Pneumonia and renal insufficiency are possibly caused by which acid base inbalance?
a) Metabolic Acidosis b) Metabolic Alkalosis c) Respiratory Acidosis d) Respiratory Alkalosis |
a) Metabolic Acidosis
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What is the most common cause of metabolic alkalosis?
|
vomiting or gastric suction
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What acid base inbalance is likely to occur in a patient who is hyperventilating?
|
Respiratory alkalosis
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Which acid base inbalance do the following symptoms describe: headache, change in mental status, sleepy, nausea/vomiting, drop in BP, cold and clammy, dysrythmias, shock
|
metabolic acidosis
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Which acid base inbalance do the following signs and symptoms describe: tingling, dizziness, hypertonic muscle, hypocalcemia, repressed respirations, paralytic ileus, PVCs and U waves?
|
metabolic alkalosis
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Which acid base inbalance do the following signs and symptoms describe?
lightheaded, inability to concentrate, tinnitus, tachycardia, atrial dysrhythmias, possible unconsciousness |
respiratory alkalosis
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Which acid base inbalance do the following signs and symptoms describe? hypercapnia, increased HR/RR/BP, change in mental status, feeling of fullness in head, Vfib with anesthesia, high potassium
|
respiratory acidosis
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What is the most accurate method of oxygen administration?
a) nasal cannula b) trach c) non-rebreather d) partial non-rebreather e) venturi mask |
e) venturi mask
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During the patient teaching of incentive spirometry use, do you tell the patient to suck air in, or blow air out of the mouth piece?
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suck air in!
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Looking at ABG's, if the bicarbonate(HCO3) is low, will the pH become more acidic or basic?
|
more acidic; bicarb is basic so if you take away the basic the pH will become more acidic
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What is the normal range for the bicarbonate (HCO3)?
|
22-28
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Looking at ABG's, if the bicarbonate (HCO3) is high, will the pH become more acidic or basic?
|
more basic; bicarb is basic so if you increase the basic bicarb, the pH becomes less acidic
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