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108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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A pregnant woman at 8 months gestation is choking on food and passes out. Which of the following describes the correct procedure for performing the Heimlich maneuver?
a) place the hands in the pelvis to perform the thrusts b) perform abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged c) perform left lateral abdominal thrusts until the object is dislodged d) place a rolled blanket under the right abdominal flank and hip area |
d) place a rolled blanket under the right abdominal flank and hip area is order to displace the uterus to the left side of the abdomen
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At what week of gestation is the doctor able to determine the sex of the fetus?
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12 weeks
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A nurse is performing an assessment on a client who is at 38 weeks gestation and notes that the fetal heart rate is 174. On the basis of this finding, the appropriate nursing action is to:
a) notify the doctor b) document the finding c) check the mother's heart rate d) tell the client that the fetal heart rate is normal |
a) notify the doctor as the fetal heart rate should be 120-160
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Where are FSH and LH secreted from?
a) adrenal glands b) anterior pituitary gland c) corpus luteum of the ovary d) the pineal body |
b) They are secreted from the anterior pituitary
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The nurse should explain which of the following to the woman who has a gynecoid pelvis:
a) her type of pelvis has a narrow pubic arch b) her type of pelvis is most favorable for labor and birth c) her type of pelvis is a wide pelvis, but has a shorter diameter d) her type of pelvis will require a cesarean section because it is not favorable for a normal labor and vaginal delivery |
b) her type of pelvis is most favorable for labor and birth
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Which of the following represent functions of amniotic fluid: CATA:
a) allows for fetal movement b) is a measure of fetal kidney function c) surround, cushions, and protects the fetus d) maintains the body temperature of the fetus e) prevents large particles such as bacteria from passing to the fetus f) provides an exchange of nutrients and waste products between the mother and fetus |
a) allows for fetal movement
b) is a measure of kidney function(as part of amniotic fluid is fetal urine) c) surrounds, cushions, and protects the fetus d) maintains the body temperature of the fetus |
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Which of the following are probably signs of pregnancy: CATA
a) ballottment b) chadwick's sign c) uterine enlargement d) braxton hicks contractions e) outline of fetus via ultrasound f) fetal heart rate detected by a nonelectrical device g) positive pregnancy test |
a) ballottment
b) chadwick's sign c) uterine enlargement d) braxton hicks contractions g) positive pregnancy test |
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What is the trend for blood pressure during pregnancy?
a) it remains unchanged b) it slowly rises c) is slowly drops d) it raises and then drops |
c) it slowly drops
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A nonstress stress test is performed on a client. The doctor say that the results warranted additional testing. What results did he detect?
a) positive b) negative c) reactive d) nonreactive |
d) nonreactive
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The physician orders a contraction stress test. The results are documented as negative. What does this indicate?
a) a normal test result b) an abnormal test result c) a high risk for fetal demise d) the need for further testing |
a) a normal test result
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Which of the following are high in folic acid?
a) milk b) yogurt c) bananas d) leafy, green vegetables |
d) leafy, green vegetables
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Which of the following lab findings would be supportive of a patient diagnosed with pica?
a) hematocrit 38% b) glucose, 86 c) hemoglobin 9.1 d) WBC 12,400 |
c) hemoglobin 9.1
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A pregnant client who is at 30 weeks gestation comes to the clinic for a routine visit. Which observation warrants a need for further teaching: The client is:
a) wearing sneakers b) wearing knee-high hose c) wearing flat shoes with rubber soles d) wearing pants with an elastic waistband |
b) wearing knee-high hose as restrictive clothing contributes to varicosities
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A nurse is developing a plan of care for a pregnant client who is complaining of intermittent episodes of constipation. To help alleviate this problem, the nurse instructs the client to:
a) consume a low-roughage diet b) drink 6 glasses of water per day c) use a fleet enema when episodes occur d) take a mild stool softener |
b) drink 6 glasses of water per day: Increased water consumption helps with constipation, as well as a high roughage diet; You, as the nurse would not recommend the use of any medication while pregnant without the patient consulting with the doctor first.
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What is the prescribed activity levels following an amniocentesis?
a) strict bed rest b) light activity c) frequent ambulation d) as tolerated |
b) light activity may be resumed after the cramping subsides
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A pregnant client test positive for TB. What will she be advised:
a) therapeutic abortion is advised due to the gross abnormalities that will be present b) she will have to stay hat home until treatment is complete c) medication will not be started until after delivery of the fetus d) INH plus rifampin will be required for a total of 9 months |
d) INH plus rifampin will be required for a total of 9 months
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How do insulin needs change for the pregnant woman with diabetes during the 3rd trimester?
a) more insulin is needed b) less insulin is needed c) no insulin is needed d) insulin requirements do not change during pregnancy |
a) more insulin is required, as the mother is also covering the insulin needs of the fetus as well
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A client in the first trimester of pregnancy arrives at a health care clinic and report that she has been experiencing vaginal bleeding. A threatened abortion is suspected, and the nurse instructs the client regarding management of care. Which statement indicated further teaching is needed?
a) I will watch for evidence of the passage of tissue b) I will maintain strict bed rest throughout the remainder of the pregnancy c) I will count the number of peri pads used on a daily basis and note the amount and color of blood on each d) I will avoid sex until the bleeding has stopped, and for 2 weeks following the last evidence of bleeding |
b) I will maintain strict bed rest throughout the remainder of the pregnancy: This is not necessary
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Which of the following are signs and symptoms of preeclampsia that need to be assessed for: CATA
a) proteinuria b) hypertension c) low-grade fever d) generalized edema e) increased pulse rate f) increased respiratory rate |
a) proteinuria
b) hypertension d) generalized edema |
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Which of the following are risk factors for preterm labor: CATA
a) history of cardiac disease b) hemoglobin of 13.5 c) maternal age of 17 d) maternal age 41 and first pregnancy pregnancy, |
a) history of cardiac disease (reduces oxygen supply to the fetus)
c) maternal age of 17 (younger than 18 is a risk) d) maternal age 41 and first pregnancy pregnancy,(first pregnancy over the age of 40 is a risk) |
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Which of the following statements, if made by the pregnant 17 year old would warrant further investigation: "I don't like my...
a) face any more. I always look like I have been crying b) breasts anymore. These silver lines are ugly c) stomach anymore. That brown line is disgusting d) figure anymore. My clothes are all too tight |
a) " I don't like my face anymore. I always look like I have been crying" This is indicative of facial edema that could be related to gestational hypertension or preeclampsia
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How is rubella spread and what should you advise a pregnancy woman who has had possible exposure to a child with rubella?
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Rubella is spread via inhaled droplets. If a woman thinks she was exposed, she should come in for a titer
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Which of the following is responsible for the development of Chadwick's sign?
a) hCG b) estrogen c) progesterone d) prolactin |
b) estrogen
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Where can the fundus be palpated at 12 weeks?
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symphysis pubis
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Where can the fundus be palpated at 16 weeks?
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midway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
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Where is the fundus located at 20 weeks gestation?
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umbilicus
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Where is the fundus located at 36 weeks?
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xiphoid process
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What test consists of assessing the five parameters of fetal activity: FHR, fetal breathing movement, gross fetal movement, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume?
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Biophysical profile
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A nurse is discussing nutrition with a client who has lactose intolerance. The nurse should instruct the client to supplement the dietary source of calcium by eating which of the following foods:
a) dried fruits b) creamed spinach c) fresh squeezed orange juice d) hard cheese |
a) dried fruits: Calcium is also present in dark greens, nuts and broccoli
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What is the difference between an inevitable and incomplete abortion?
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Inevitable abortion is with moderate to severe bleeding with mild cramping and cervical dilation. An incomplete abortion manifests with heavy bleeding, severe cramping, cervical dilation, and passage of large clots. It is indicative of retained placenta that is causing the massive bleeding
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A woman presents to the clinic with a possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following is priority:
a) monitoring daily weight b) assessing for edema c) monitoring the apical pulse d) monitoring the temperature |
c) monitoring the apical pulse to identify/prevent hypovolemic shock
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Higher than normal levels of hCG indicates what?
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Molar pregnancy
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Lower than normal levels of hCG indicates what?
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ectopic pregnancy
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A nurse is reviewing the results of the rubella screening titer with a pregnant 24 year old client. The test results are positive, and the mother asks if it is safe for her toddler to receive the vaccine. The appropriate nursing response is:
a) You are still susceptible to rubella, so your toddler should receive the vaccine b) Most children do not receive the vaccine until they are 5 years old c) It is not advised for children of pregnant women to be vaccinated during their mother's pregnancy due to risk of infection with the live virus d) Your titer supports your immunity to rubella, and it is safe for your toddler to receive the vaccine at this time |
d) Your titer supports your immunity to rubella, and it is safe for your toddler to receive the vaccine at this time
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At what gestational age can the fetal heart be seen by ultrasound?
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It can be seen at 5 weeks, but not heard yet.
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At what gestational age can the fetal heart be heard by ultrasound?
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12 weeks
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A client with a 38-week twin gestations is admitted to a birthing center in early labor. One of the fetuses is a breech presentation. Of the following interventions, which is the lowest priority in planning the nursing care of this client?
a) measure fundal height b) attach electronic fetal monitoring c) prepare the client for a possible cesarean section d) visually examine the perineum and vaginal opening |
a) Measure fundal height: This is a routine check up before labor, but not into labor
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When the midwife documents that fetus at -1 station, you know that this is in reference to what anatomical structure?
a) fundus b) umbilicus c) symphysis pubis d) ischial spine |
d) ischial spine
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A woman receiving Pitocin starts experiencing hypertonic uterine contractions. After stopping the infusion, turning mom, and applying oxygen; the doctor orders a medication to reduce uterine activity. What do you need to do prior to administering this medication?
a) check maternal pulse b) verbally confirm the written order with the doctor c) check blood pressure d) perform an ultrasound |
c) check blood pressure: The medication used to reduce uterine activity could lower the maternal blood pressure or it may be contraindicated if the woman has high blood pressure. Either way you have to know the blood pressure before administration.
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A nurse is reviewing the physician's orders for a client admitted for premature rupture of membranes. Gestational age of the fetus is determined to be 37 weeks. Which order should the nurse question?
a) perform a vaginal examination every shift b) monitor maternal vitals every 4 hours c) monitor FHR continuously d) administer ampicillin 1 gm IVPB every 6 hours |
a) perform a vaginal examination every shift: Due to risk of infection, routine vaginal examinations are not performed with PROM
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Which of the following is least likely to be associated with DIC?
a) prolonged clotting times b) decreased platelet count c) swelling of the calf of one leg d) petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria |
c) swelling of the calf of one leg
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A nurse is performing an assessment on a client diagnosed with placenta previa. Which of these assessment findings would the nurse expect to note:CATA
a) uterine rigidity b) uterine tenderness c) severe abdominal pain d) bright red vaginal bleeding e) soft, relaxed, non tender uterus f) fundal height may be greater than expected for gestational age |
d) bright red vaginal bleeding
e) soft, relaxed, non tender uterus f) fundal height may be greater than expected for gestational age |
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A woman with preeclampsia is receiving mag sulfate. The nurse assigned to care for the client determines that the magnesium sulfate therapy is effective if:
a) scotomas are present b) seizures do not occur c) ankle clonus is noted d) the blood pressure decreases |
b) seizures do not occur: Mag sulfate is given to prevent seizures, not to lower blood pressure; blood pressure will only have a transient drop
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Which of the following are adverse reactions to magnesium sulfate? CATA
a) flushing b) hypertension c) increased urine output d) depressed respirations e) extreme muscle weakness f) hyperactive deep tendon reflexes |
a) flushing
d) depressed respirations e) extreme muscle weakness |
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What is Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) used for?
a) increasing uterine contractions b) pain relief c) preventing respiratory depression in the newborn d) treating nausea and vomiting |
b) provides pain relief
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Which of the following assessment finding would indicate the presence of concealed bleeding?
a) increase in fundal height b) heavy vaginal bleeding c) early deceleration on the fetal heart monitor d) back pain |
a) increase in fundal height: blood may displace the fundus higher; otherwise vaginal bleeding would not be evident, and abdominal pain would be present
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The nurse finds the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following positions should she put the mother in? CATA
a) prone b) on the side c) reverse trendelenburg d) supine e) hips elevated |
b) on her side
e) hips elevated |
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Which of the following analgesics is contraindicated in a patient with a history of opioid dependency?
a) morphine sulfate b) fentanyl (Sublimaze) c) Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol) d) Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) |
c) Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol); It can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in an opioid dependent client
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Which of the following observation could indicate uterine inversion and require immediate intervention?
a) chest pain b) a rigid abdomen c) a soft and boggy uterus d) maternal complaints of severe pain |
d) maternal complaints of severe pain; other symptoms include a depressed fundal area, hemorrhage and shock
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What would the following indicate: chest pain and a rigid abdomen?
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Signs of a ruptured uterus
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A pregnant client is admitted to the labor room. An assessment is performed, and the nurse notes that the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are low, indicated anemia. The nurse determines that the client is at risk for which of the following:
a) anxiety b) hemorrhage c) low self-esteem d) postpartum infection |
d) postpartum infection
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When is the typical age period for the onset of schizophrenia?
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late teens to early twenties
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What do Haldol, Thorazine and Prolixin typically treat?
a) both positive and negative symptoms of schizo b) positive symptoms c) negative symptoms d) anxiety |
b) positive symptoms of schizo
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A client with schizo has difficulties with personal boundaries. Which of the following are personal boundary problems?
a) delusions of grandeur or persecution b) depersonalization or derealization c) visual or auditory hallucinations d) communication difficulties or social withdrawal |
b) depersonalization or derealization
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With dementia, is the level of consciousness usually altered?
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No
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What is Korsakoff's syndrome and how does it relate to dementia?
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It is thyamine deficiency usually occurring due to long term alcohol abuse; Causes dementia
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True of False: HIV/AIDS can cause brain infections with a range of symptoms from acute delirium to profound dementia.
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True
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During what stage of Alzheimer's does loss of ability to perform ADLs occur?
a) Stage I b) Stage II c) Stage III d) Stage IV |
c) Stage III
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What do the following medications have in common: Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine and Memantine?
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They are used to treat cognitive decline.
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Medications approved to treat cognitive decline end in...
a) ane b) ine c) il d) prine |
b) ine
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During which trimester does molar issues present themselves?
a) first b) second c) third |
b) second
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Generally, during which trimester does an incompetent cervix begin bleeding?
a) first b) second c) third |
b) second
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What might blood studies reveal with an ectopic pregnancy? CATA
a) elevated WBC b) low progesterone c) high progesterone d) low hCG e) high hCG |
a) elevated WBC
c) high progesterone e) high hCG |
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When a patient is taking methotrexate to end an ectopic pregnancy, what vitamin are they advised to avoid to prevent a toxic response to the medication?
a) vitamin A b) vitamin B6 c) vitamin B12 d) folic acid |
d) folic acid
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What teaching is done regarding methotrexate?
a) avoid alcohol and sun b) avoid alcohol and cigarettes c) avoid excess mercury d) avoid concurrent use of steroids |
a) avoid alcohol and sun
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What is a dietary risk factor for gestational trophoblastic disease?
a) low folic acid b) low vitamin B c) low protein d) low thyamine |
c) low protein
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Which of the follow can cause an incompetent cervix? CATA
a) DES b) alcohol abuse c) dehydration d) age less than 18 |
a) DES
c) dehydration |
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The client with hyperemesis gravidarum would have:
a) a low hematocrit b) a high hematocrit c) hematocrit is not effected |
b) a high hematocrit
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What diet order would the patient admitted for hyperemesis gravidarum be for the first 24-48 hours?
a) NPO b) clear liquids c) full liquids d) as tolerated |
a) NPO
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What condition are retinal arteriolar spasms associated with?
a) molar disorders b) diabetic disorders c) hypertensive disorders d) congenital malformations |
c) hypertensive disorder
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Which of the following are contraindicated in pregnant diabetic women
a) insulin administration b) oral anti-diabetics c) glucose tolerance tests d) 2 hour post-prangial tests |
b) oral anti-diabetics because they cause birth defects
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Dehydration may cause uterine contractions because it stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete what hormone?
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oxytocin
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Kate is 7 cm dilated, but is 10 weeks early. Which tocolytic medication will she be given to stop labor?
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None, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm is a contraindication for tocolytics.
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A mother was given terbutaline (brethine) to stop her preterm labor. She suddenly develops tachycardia. What do you do?
a) call the doctor b) auscultate lung sounds c) document it as a normal finding d) turn her on her left side |
c) document it as a normal finding: This is a normal side effect that should decrease over time
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If maternal or fetal tachycardia is severe following the administration of ritodrine (Yutopar), a tocolytic, what medication may be given to reverse the adverse cardiovascular effects?
a) narcan b) calcium gluconate c) protamine sulfate d) propanolol |
d) propanolol (Inderal)
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What would happen if Indocin was administered to a woman who is in labor?
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It would suppress labor by blocking the production of prostaglandins.
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What is the difference between PROM and PPROM?
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PROM is spontaneous rupture of membranes within 1 or more hours prior to the onset of true labor.
PPROM is the spontaneous rupture of membranes after 20 weeks and prior to 37 weeks gestation. |
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When testing for rupture of membranes, the nurse uses nitrazine paper. What color will the paper turn if it is positive for amniotic fluid?
a) green b) gray c) blue d) yellow |
c) blue
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Why would a client admitted for preterm labor have a urine specimen ordered?
a) to test for glucose b) to test for protein c) to test for bacteria d) to test for amniotic fluid |
c) to test for bacteria as infections are strongly associated with preterm labor
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When a vaginal examination reveals that the umbilical cord has prolapsed out of the laboring woman's vagina, what is the first thing you do?
a) place the client in trendelenburg b) apply pressure to the presenting part of the fetus c) administer oxygen at 10 L via face mask d) call for assistance |
d) call for assistance; then do all the others!
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A patient with a long history of schizo controlled by haldol experiences an exacerbation of the disease. The nurse notes continuous restlessness and fidgeting. Which medication would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe for this client?
a) haldol b) prolixin decanoate c) clozapine d) cogentin |
d) cogentin: the patient is experiencing extrapyramidal effects and cogentin is a medication used to treat extrapyramidal effects
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Do negative or positive symptoms of schizo result in a better prognosis?
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Positive symptoms result in a better prognosis.
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A 21 year old client, being treated for asthma with steroid medication, has been experiencing delusion of persecution and disorganized thinking for the past 6 months. Which factor may rule out a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
a) she has experienced signs and symptoms for only 6 months b) the client must hear voices to be diagnosed with schizo c) the client's age is not typical for this diagnosis d) the client is receiving medication that could lead to thought disturbances |
d) the client is receiving medication that could lead to though disturbances
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A nurse is working with a client diagnoses with schizoid personality disorder. What symptom of this diagnosis should the nurse expect to assess and at what risk is this client for acquiring schizophrenia?
a) delusions and hallucinations-high risk b) limited range of emotional experience and expression-high risk c) indifferent to social relationships-low risk d) loner who appears cold and aloof- low risk |
b) limited range of emotional experience and expression-high risk
C and D are correct symptoms but both would indicate a HIGH not low risk; A is wrong since delusion and hallucinations are NOT symptoms of schizoid personality disorder, but of actual schizophrenia itself |
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True of False: Schizo is linked to an excess of dopamine dependent neuronal activity in the brain as well as prenatal exposure to influenza.
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True!
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A client who is at 32 weeks of gestations is diagnosed with placenta previa is admitted to labor and delivery. Which of the following nursing interventions is the highest priority?
a) assess the perineum b) start an IV c) place the client on bedrest d) monitor fetal and uterine activity |
d) monitor fetal and uterine activity because the status of the fetus and onset of labor pose the greatest risk to the client
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Following an amniocentesis on a client at 15 weeks gestation who is Rh-, which is the nurse's highest priority?
a) check the client's vital signs b) monitor for uterine contractions c) administer RhD immune globulin d) monitor fetal heart rate |
d) monitor fetal heart rate as changes in the fetal heart rate following an amniocentesis may indicate injury has occurred to the fetus;
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When you see a woman with a big nose, you know that is a
a) genotype b) phenotype c) genetic allele d) chromosomal characteristic |
b) phenotype: An individual physical appearance
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An individuals genetic composition is termed the
a) genotype b) phenotype c) genetic allele d) chromosomal characteristic |
a) genotype
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What genetic screening test helps to predict your chances of genetic disorder?
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Karotyping
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What is the common impairment that occurs in Trisomy 13, Trisomy 18, Trisomy 21 Cri-du-chat and Turner syndrome?
a) physical deformities b) cognitive deformities c) failure of secondary sex characteristics to form d) extra X chromosome |
b) cognitive deformities
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Which of the following is Down syndrome?
a) Trisomy 13 b) Trisomy 18 c) Trisomy 21 d) Fragile X syndrome |
c) Trisomy 21
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With Trisomy 18, the child has ___ copies of chromosome ___.
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In Trisomy 18, the child has THREE copies of chromosome 18.
*Remember Tri=3 and 18 is the defective |
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What in a baby, might hint on that they have Cri-du-chat?
a) abnormal cry b) failure of meconium to pass c) foul smelling urine d) unusual sucking reflex |
a) abnormal cry
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Cri-du-chat is the missing portion of chromosome
a) 13 b) 18 c) 5 d) 15 |
c) 5
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____ is characterized by only one functional X chromosome, short in stature, other physical feature and cognitively challenged and occur in (males/females).
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Turner Syndrome; occurs only in females
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What disorder is characterized by a X-linked disorder in which one long arm of an X chromosome is defective?
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Fragile X syndrome
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What is the nature of SARS
a) bacteria b) anabolic infection c) virus d) pneumonia exacerbation |
c) virus
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What type of virus are people with SARS infected with?
a) mast b) coronaviruses c) ebola virus d) E-1505 |
b) coronaviruses
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How is the SARS virus spread?
a) via contact b) via droplets c) saliva d) bodily fluids |
b) via droplets: Which is why strict airborne droplets precautions are initiated
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PEEP can result in:
a) decreased oxygen saturation b) decreased respiratory rate c) decreased cardiac output d) increased cardiac output |
c) decreased cardiac output because it increases intrathroacic pressure nd leads to a decreased blood return to the heart
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When the vent's low pressure alarm goes off, what should you check for?
a) if the patient is experiencing apnea b) if the patient is sleeping c) if there is a kink in the tubing d) if there is a cuff leak or disconnection |
d) if there is a cuff leak or disconnection
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If the vent's high pressure alarm is going off, what should you check?
a) if the patient is experiencing apnea b) if the patient is sleeping c) if there is a kink in the tubing d) if there is a cuff leak or disconnection |
c) if there is a kink in the tubing
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The nurse knows that PEEP
a) cannot be used alone b) can be used while weaning c) delivers a small amount of gas at a rapid rate d) lengthens the inspiratory phase of respiration |
a) cannot be used alone It must be used in conjunction with assist control of synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation
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What mode would you set the vent to if you wanted a present ventilator rate and tidal volume in while the client initiates the breath but the vent adds oxygen to them?
a) AC b) SIMV c) PSV d) PEEP |
b) SIMV: This is used as a regular mode of weaning but may increase the work of breathing and respiratory fatigue
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A client can usually be extubated if they can sustain ___ of spontaneous breathing.
a) 1 hour b) 12 hours c) 24 hours d) 72 hours |
a) 1 hour
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The cuff pressure should be maintained at below ___
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20 |
d) 20
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When intubated, if the client is able to speak, or you hear an air hiss, what does this indicate?
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An air leak around the cuff.
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