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262 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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normal range calcium?
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8.6-10
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normal range k?
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3.5-5.1
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normal range na?
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135-145
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normal range mg?
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1.6-2.6
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normal range phos?
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2.7-4.5
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generalized edema
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anasarca (-----> cardiac, renal, liver failure)
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% body fluid loss fatal in adult?
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20%
(we are 60% water, 10% loss= serious) |
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normal osmolality of plasma
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280-294mOsm/kg
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daily body excretion in sensible loss
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*loss person is aware of (wound drainage, gi tract, urination)
*kidneys=1500ml *feces=150 ml |
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daily body loss in insensible loss
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*loss person not aware of
skin= 400ml via diffusion & 100ml via sweat lungs=350 ml |
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clinical s/s of FVD
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increase pulse (thready), rr
decreased bp (orthostatic hypotn), periph. pulse |
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clinical s/s of FVE
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increased pulse (bounding), bp, rr (shallow), crackles, dyspnea, visual disturbance
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common food sources of na
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bacon, butter, canned food, cheese (am or cottage), frankfurters, ketchup, lunch meat, milk, mustard, processed food, snack food, soy sauce, table salt, whole and white bread
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common food sources of k
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avocado, banana, catoloupe, carrots, fish, mushrooms, oranges, potatoes, pork, beef, veal, raisins, spinach, strawberries, tomatoes
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common food sources of ca
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cheese, collard greens, milk, soy milk, rhubarb, sardines, spinach, tofu, yogurt (low fat)
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common food sources of mg
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avocado, canned white tuna, cauliflower, cooked rolled oats, green leafy veggies (spinach, broccoli), low fat yogurt, milk, peanut butter, peas, pork, beef, chicken, potatoes, raisins
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common food sources of phosphorus
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fish, organ meats, nuts, pork, beef, chicken, whole grain breads & cereals
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EKG hypoca
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prolonged st interval, prolonged qt interval
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EKG hyperca
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shortened st segment, widened t waves
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EKG hypoK
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st depression; shallow, flat, or inverted t wave; prominent u wave
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EKG hyperK
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tall peaked wave, flat p waves, widenend qrs, prolonged pr interval
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EKG hypoMg
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tall t waves, depressed st segment
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EKG hyperMg
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prolonged pr interval, widened qrs complexes
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causes of FVD
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vomitting, diarrhea, conditions that cause increased respirations or urinary output, insuffic.IV fluid replacement, draining fistulas, ileostomy/colostomy
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causes of FVE
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CHF, decresed kidney function, frequent wound irrigation
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in acid/base balance- what is controlled by lungs and what is controlled by kidneys?
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co2- lungs
bicarb-kidneys |
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in acidosis- hyper or hypo K
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k levels rise (because moves h into cell and k out!)
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in alkalosis- k rise or fall?
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k falls (because cells release h and take in k)
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who is at risk for
hyperK |
renal d/e, addisons, k sparing diuretic, massive cell destruction (trauma, burns, sepsis, acidosis)
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who is @ risk for
hypoK |
GI suctioned pts, overusing laxatives, cushings, colitis
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who is @ risk for hyperNa?
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corticosteroids, renal failure, hyperaldosterone
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why person with hyperaldosteronism @ risk for hyperNa?
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bc aldost. regulates Na reaborb. by kidneys
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who is @ risk for HypoNa?
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pt on diuretics
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Who is @ risk for hyperCa?
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hyperparathyroid, excessive vit D, short term bed rest
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who is @ risk for hypoCa?
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end stage renal d/e, prolonged bed rest
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someone with hyperparathyroidism is @ risk for which electrolytes imbalances?
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hyperNa, hyperCa
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who is @ risk for hyperMg?
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mg containing laxatives, renal insuffic
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who is @ risk for hypoMg?
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malnutrition/starvation, vomit, diarrhea, malabsorption syndrome, celiac d/e, crohn's d/e, diuretics, chronic ETOHism, hyperglycemia, insulim admin, sepsis
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who is @ risk for hyperPhos?
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hypoparathyroidism, renal insuffic, tumor lysis syndrome
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who is @ risk for hypoPhos?
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malnut/starvation/ETOHism, use of aluminum hydroxide-based of mg-based antacids
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pts with ETOHism are @ risk for which lyte imbalances?
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hypoPhos, hypoMg (malnut/starvation)
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most prevalent extracellular cation
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Na
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most prevalent extracellular anion
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Cl
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most prevalent intracellular cation
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K
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aPTT
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monitors heparin therapy & screens for coag d/o's
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ph (7.4) maintained by carb-bicarb system.
carb controlled by? bicarb controlled by? |
co2 exceretion by lungs
bicarb- kidneys 20:1 (bicarb:carb) |
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how do rbc's maintain acid-base balance?
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chloride shift
(for each chloride that enters, a bicarb leaves and visa versa) |
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how does the phosphate buffer system maintain acid/base balance?
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*esp in kidneys!
acts like bicarb& clears spare hydrogen ions |
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resp rate & depth increse in alk or acidosis? met or resp?
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resp acidosis
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what happens to hydrogen ions in met acidosis?
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secreted into tubules & combine with buffers for excretion in urine (in the form of phosphoric acid)
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what happens to bicarb ions in met alkalosis?
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bicarb ions move into tubules, combine with sodium, and excreted into urine
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causes of resp acidosis
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asthma, atelectasis, brain trauma, brochiectasis, bronchitis, emphysema, hypoventilation, meds, pulm edema
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causes of resp alkalosis
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fever, hyperventilation, hypoxia, hysteria, overventilation by mechanical vents, pain
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clinical findings if resp acidosis
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rr & depth increase
headache restlessness mental status change (drowsiness, confusion) visual disturbances diaphoresis cyanosis (if hypoxia more acute) hyperK rapid, irreg pulse dysrhythmias (----> v fib) |
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possible result of mechinical vent
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resp alk
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what meds can cause resp alk?
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salicylates (aspirin)
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possible causes of met acidosis
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DM or diab. ketoacidosis
excessive ingestion of acetylsalicyclic acid (aspirin) high fat diet insuffic metabolism of carbs malnut renal insuffic or renal failure severe diarrhea (instestinal& pancreatic secretions normally alk) |
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clinical findings if met acidosis
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hyperpnea w.kussmaul's resp (to exhale extra co2)
headache n/v/diarrhea fruity smelling breath (from improper fat metabolism) cns depression (mental dullness, drowsiness, stupor, coma) twitching hyperK |
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causes of met alk
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diuretics
excessive vomitting or gi suctioning hyperaldost ingestion of excess sodium bicarb massive transfusion of whole blood |
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clinical s/s of met alk
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rr & depth decrease
n/v/diarrhea restlessness numbness/tingling in extremities twitching in extremities hypok hypoca dysrhythm (tachycardia) |
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electrolyte change in met alk
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hypoK
hypoCa |
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apply pressure immediately to puncture site when taking ABG. how long maintain pressure for how long?
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5 min
10 min if on anticoags |
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resp function indicator
(normal level) |
PCO2= 35-45mm Hg
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normal Ph
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7.35-7.45
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normal HCO3 level
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22-27 mEq/L
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normal PO2
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80-100 mmHg
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opposite response between ph & pco2 in...?
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resp imbalance:
ph down& pco2 up in acidosis ph up& pco2 down in alk |
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if ph down & pco2 up
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resp acidosis
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if ph up & pco2 down
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resp alk
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ph down & bicarb down
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met acidosis
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ph up & bicarb up
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met alk
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loss of gastric fluid via ng suction or vomiting may cause...?
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met alk
(bc of loss of hydrochloric acid) |
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intestinal secretions loss through enteric drainage tubes or ileostomy or diarrhea may cause...?
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met acidosis
(intestinal secretions high in bicarb) |
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kussmaul's resps
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abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate
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bradypnea
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resps regular but abnormally slow
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hyperpnea
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resps are labored & increased in depth & rate
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apnea
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resps cease for several seconds
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normal level of K
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3.5-5.1
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normal level of chloride
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98-107mEq/L
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normal level of bicarb (venous)
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22-29mEq/L
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pts with elevted WBCs may have falsely elevated...?
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K
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drawing blood
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-don't draw from an arm where NS is infusing
-don't draw blood from where IV site exists -don't allow pt to clench& unclench before drawing blood |
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normal PT level
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9.6-11.8 seconds (male)
9.5-11.3 seconds (female) |
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normal INR
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2-3 for standard warfarin therapy
3-4.5 for high dose warfarin therapy |
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diets high in leafy green veggies can increase absorption of___?
what does this do to pt? |
K
shortens pt |
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if ph up & pco2 down
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resp alk
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ph down & pco2 up
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resp acidosis
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ph & bicarb down
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met acidosis
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ph& bicarb up
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met alk
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loss of gastric fluid via ng suction or vomiting causes...?
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met alk
(loss of hydrochloric acid) |
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loss of intestinal secretions via enteric drainage tubes or ileostomy, or diarrhea causes...?
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met acidosis
(bc intestinal secretions high in bicarb) |
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resps that are abnormally deep, regular, and increased in rate
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kussmaul's resps
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resps are regular but abnormally slow
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bradypnea
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resps are labored and increased in depth & rate
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hyperpnea
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resps that cease for several seconds
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apnea
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pts with elevated WBC & platelet counts may also have falsely elevated...?
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k level
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drawing blood
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-don't draw if NS infusing into that arm
- don't draw blood where IV infusing - don't allow them to clench/unclench before |
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normal K level
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3.5-5.1
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normal Cl level
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98-107mEq/L
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normal bicarb (venous) level
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22-29 mEq/L
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screens for heparin therapy
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aPTT
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normal aPTT level
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20-36 seconds
(when receiving therapy, should be 1.5-2.5X normal) |
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screen in warfarin therapy
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PT & INR
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Normal PT level for male & female
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male: 9.6-11.8 seconds
female: 9.5-11.3seconds |
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INR level for standard & high dose warfarin therapies
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standard: 2-3 seconds
high dose: 3-4.5 seconds |
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diets high in green leafy veggies can increase absorption of vit k, which does what to pt?
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shorten it
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PT greater than _______ places pt @ risk for hemorrhage?
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30 seconds
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normal platelet count
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150,000-400,000
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some things that can increase platelet count?
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-high altitude
-chronic cold weather -exercise |
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normal male& female Hgb?
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male: 14-16.5
female: 12-15 g/dL |
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normal Hct male & female?
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male: 42-52%
female: 35-47% |
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LHD flip
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LHD1 is higher than LHD2
(MI!) |
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regulatory protein in striated muscle
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troponin (increased amounts released into bloodstream when infarction)
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main plasma protein in blood?
(normal level) |
ALBUMIN
3.4-5g/dL |
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enzyme produced by pancreas & salivary glands that aid in digestion of complex carbs, excreted by kidneys
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amylase
(rises in acute pancreatitis) |
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pancreatic enzyme that changes fat & triglycerides into fatty acids & glycerol
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lipase
(rise in pancreatic d/o's) |
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normal level of cholesterol
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140-199mg/dL
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normal level of LDL
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less than 130mg/dL
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normal level of HDL
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30-70mg/dL
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normal level of triglycerides
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less than 200mg/dL
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what conditions may cause hyperuricemia?
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conditions of fast cell turnover, & slow renal excretion or uric acid
(may cause falsely elevated level: aminophylline, caffeine, vit C) |
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nursing considerations when fasting blood glucose to be taken?
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-fast 8-12 hrs before test
-if pt with DM, withhold morning insulin or meds until blood drawn |
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nursing considerations when glucose tolerance test to be taken?
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-avoid high carb diet 3 days before test
-avoid etoh, smoking, coffee 36 hrs before test -fast 10-16 hrs before test -avoid strenuous activity 8 hrs before test -withhold morning insulin if DM am of test -test will take 3-5 hrs, requires administration of glucose (oral or IV), & multiple blood samples |
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creatinine
& normal level |
renal function (increased levels if if slowing GFR)
0.6-1.3mg/dL |
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BUN
& normal level |
nitrogen portion of urea
-elevated levels indicate slowing of GRF 8-25mg/dL |
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importance of Ca?
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-bone formation
-nerve impulse transmission -contraction of myocardial/skeletal muscles -aids in clotting (converts prothrombin into thrombin) |
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importance of Mg?
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-blood clotting
-regulated neuromusc. activity -metabolism of Ca -used as index to determine met activity & renal function |
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importance of Phos?
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-bone formation
-energy store & release -urinary acid-base buffering -carb metabolism (high concentrations stored in bone &skeletal muscle) |
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normal WBC
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4,500-11,000
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significance of "shift to left"?
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increased number of immature neutrophils in peripheral blood
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significance of "shift to right"?
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cells have more than usual # of nuclear segments
*liver disease, down syndrome, megaloblastic & pernicious anemia |
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total low WBC w/ left shift indicates...?
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recovery from bone marrow depression or infx
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high total WBC w/left shift indicates...?
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increased release of neutrophils by bone marrow in response to overwhelming infx or inflammation
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normal ph of urine?
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4.5-7.8
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spec gravity of urine?
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1.016-1.022
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normal serum amylase level?
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25-151 IU?L
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Which CK isoenzyme reflects cardiac?
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MB
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therapeutic range for phenytoin (dilantin)?
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10-20 mcg/mL
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therapeutic range for serum theophylline (or aminophylline)?
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10-20 mcg/mL
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normal therapeutic range for digoxin?
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0.5-2.0 ng/mL
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administering furosemide to a pt with low K could cause...?
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vent dysrhythmias (esp if hx of cardiac problems)
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normal serum protein level?
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6-8 g/dL
(*if cirrosis, often low protein because inadequate nutrition-- excess protein not helpful bc liver metabolizes protein) |
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when WBC below ______ implement neutropenic precautions?
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2,000
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troponin level greater than _____ is consistent with MI
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0.1-.0.2 ng/mL
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if pt taking spironolactone, avoid foods high in...?
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K!
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foods low in Na?
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fruits & veggies
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if gout, limit intake of...?
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anything with high purine content
(liver) * hearts * herring * mussels * yeast * smelt * sardines * sweetbreads |
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2 food groups high in vit b?
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meats, dairy
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bananas high in...?
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k
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diet for pt with cirrhosis?
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should eat foods high in thiamine
(plant and animal origin-- PORK, nuts, whole grain cereals, legumes) |
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when pt taking anticoags, omit foods high in vit. ___ from diet
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K (needed for clotting!)
-green, leafy veggies (broccoli) |
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Infusion Time Formula=
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total volume to infuse/ml per hour being infused
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flow rate formula=
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total volume X drop factor/ time in min
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Fahrenheit into Celsius
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F= (1.8 X C) + 32
C= (F-32)/ 1.8 |
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1mcg= _____ g
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0.000001g= 1mcg
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1mg= _______ g
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0.001g= 1mg
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1kg= ____ g
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1000g= 1kg
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1ml= _____ L
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0.001L= 1ml
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# of grams of a med per 100 ml of solution is...
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percentage solution
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# grams of a med contained in 1 ml of a solution
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mEq
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1 tsp= ___ ml
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5ml= 1tsp
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1 cup= ____ fl oz
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8 fl oz= 1 cup
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1 qt= ____ ml
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946ml= 1 qt
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2 pt= _______ fl oz= ______qt
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2pt= 32 fl oz= 1 qt
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1pt = ____ fl oz
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16 fl oz= 1pt
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1 lb= ______ oz
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16 oz = 1 lb
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six med rights
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RIGHT med, dose, person, place (route), time, documentation
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capacity of a med cup
|
30 ml or 1 oz
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parentral injection routes
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SQ, IM, IV, intradermal
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should not administer more than
__?__ IM __?__ SQ |
3mL IM
1mL SQ |
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what insulin to draw up first?
|
RN!!!
regular then NPH |
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standard formula for calculating med dose
|
(D/A) (Q)= X
(desired/available) (quantity)= X |
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standard macrodrip requires __?__ to equal 1mL
|
10,15,20 gtt
(60 gtt in micro) |
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how often to monitor IV flow rates for adults and kids?
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adults= q 30 min
kids= q 15 min |
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if using controller, how high must bag be hung above controller?
|
36"
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For rapid emergency fluid administration, blood products, or anestetics, which type of needles/cannulas to be used?
|
LARGE diameter (14, 16, 18, 19 gauge)
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for peripheral fat infusions (lipids), which size lumen/cannula to be used?
|
20, 21 gauge
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what size gauge is pt has very small veins?
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24- 25 gauge
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standard IV and clear liquid IV- what size gauge?
|
22 or 24 gauge
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micro drips (60 drops/ml) used if fluid to be infused @ slower rate (less than __?__)
|
use if less than 50 mL/hr)
often used in critical care with potent meds, also peds |
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how often to change filters w/blood components?
|
Q 24-72 hrs
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what NOT to administer parenteral or blood products through?
|
one way valve
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when administering meds, flush first with __?___ then __?___ after
|
1-2 ml NS (to make sure IV cannula is in place) then
1-2 ml NS (to maintain patency) |
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peripheral IV sites to avoid
|
edematous extremity; arm that's weak, paralyzed, traumatized; arm that's same side as mastectomy; arm with shunt for dialysis or AV fistula; infected skin tissue
|
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start infusion distally or proximally? why?
|
distally in case of infiltration (can move up extremity but not down)
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how often to change venipuncture site?
|
Q48-72 hrs
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how often to change IV dressing
|
Q 72 hours(Q 3 days)
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how often to change IV tubing?
|
Q 24- 72 hours
|
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don't let IV bag hang for more than __?__hrs because of potential for bacterial contamination (which may lead to sepsis)
|
24 hrs
|
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infiltration more common with which types of IV devices?
|
IV cannulas-- steel needle or butterfly sets
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who esp cannot tolerate fluid overload?
|
very old & very young
resp, cardiac, renal, liver d/e pts |
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client with CHF usually doesn't get solution with __?__ because ___?
|
saline bc it encourages the retention of water
|
|
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tachycardia, dyspnea, hypoTN, cyanosis, decreased LOC
loud churning heard over pericardium from air in rt ventricle (IV therapy) |
air embolism
|
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decreased bp, pain along vein, weak & rapid pulse, cyanosis of nail beds, loc
(IV therapy) |
catheter embolism (obstruction caused by breakage of the catheter tip during IV line insertion or removal)
|
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increased bp, distended jugular veins, rapid breathing, dyspnea, moist cough/crackles
(IV therapy) |
circulatory overload
|
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ecchymosis, immediate swelling and leakage of blood @ the site, hard & painful lumps @ the site
(IV therapy) |
hematoma
|
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edema, pain, coolness @ site; may or may not have blood return
(IV therapy) |
infiltration
|
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heat, redness, tenderness @ site
not swollen or hard IV infusion sluggish (IV therapy) |
phlebitis
|
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hard/ cord-like vein
heat, redness, tenderness @ site IV infusion sluggish (IV therapy) |
thrombophlebitis
|
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what to do if suspect air embolism?
|
clamp tubing @ turn pt on LEFT side with head of bed lowered (trendelenberg) to trap air in rt ventricle
then notify physician |
|
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what to do if suspect catheter embolism?
|
remove it carefully, inspect catheter when removed,
if cath. tip broken off, put tourniquet as proximally as possible to IV site on affected limb, notify physician immediately, prepare for x-ray, prep for surgery if need to remove other cath pieces |
|
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what to do if circulatory overload occurs?
|
decrease flow rate to min. possible @ a KVO rate, elevate head of bed, keep client warm, assess lung sounds & edema, notify physician
|
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what to do if hematoma develops when administering IV therapy?
|
elevate extremity and apply pressure and ice as prescribed
|
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what to do if infection occurs when administering IV therapy?
|
d/c IV, place the venipuncture device in a sterile container for possible culture.
also notify physician |
|
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what to do if infiltration occurs?
|
remove IV device immediately
(don't rub it or it might cause hematoma) document |
|
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what to do if thrombophlebitis?
|
remove iv, notify physician, restart iv in opposite extremity
*never irrigate the iv cath! |
|
|
what position to put pt in during central line insertion, tubing change, and line removal?
|
trendelengurg (lay flat on back w.feet up) & instruct to perform valsalva
(to increase pressure in central veins when iv system is open) |
|
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how often iv dressing changed?
|
48-72 hours
(every 2-3 days) |
|
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pallor, coolness, swelling
iv therapy? |
infiltration has probably occurred
|
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delayed tranfusion complication that occurs in clients who are chronically dependent on blood transfusions, such as clients with anemia or thrombocytopenia
|
iron overload
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autologous donation that involves suctioning blood from body cavities, joint spaces, or other closed body sites during a procedure
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blood salvage
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how is platelet therapy evaluated?
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an improvement in platelet count
-usually evaluated @ 1 hr & 18-24 hours from the transfusion |
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prepared from fresh frozen plasma & can be stored for one year
-once thawed- must use it! |
cryoprecipitates
(used to replace clotting factors, esp fibrinogen & factor 8) |
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universal donor & universal recipient?
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donor--- Oneg
rec---- AB+ |
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signs of immediate transfusion reaction in unconscious pt?
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chills & diaphoresis
muscle aches, back pain, chest pain rashes, hives, itching, swelling rapid, thready pulse dyspnea, cough, wheezing pallor/cyanosis apprehension tingling/numbness h/a n/v, abd cramping, diarrhea |
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signs of transfusion reaction (not necessarily immediate)
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weak pulse
fever tachy or bradycardia hypoTN visible hemoglobinuria oliguria or anuria |
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signs of delayed transfusion reactions
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fever
mild jaundice decreased hct |
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what to do if transfusion reaction?
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stop transfusion!
keep iv open with .9%NS notify physician & blood bank stay with client, vitals as often as Q5 min urine for lab prepare to administer emergency meds (vasopressors, antihistamines, fluids, corticosteroids) return blood bag, tubing, attached labels, and transfusion record to blood bank |
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No solution other than __?___ should be added to blood products
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NS
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to avoid risk of septicemia, infusions (1 unit) should not take more than how long?
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4 hours
(and blood administration set should be changed Q 4-6 hrs) |
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once blood received from bank, how soon does it need to be administered?
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asap
(w/in 20-30 min) if not used or refrigerated (in designated blood fridge) return to blood bank |
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how often vitals and lung sounds when transfusing blood?
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before transfusion
15 min after & every hour until the transfusion is complete |
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what gauge needle needed to allow max flow rate of blood products (to prevent damage to RBCs)?
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18-19 gauge
(if smaller gauge, RBCs may be diluted with NS) |
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when should pre-transfusion meds (tylenol, benadryl) be administered?
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30 min before PO
immediately before IV |
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how long must the nurse stay with the patient during tranfusion?
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15 min- this is the most critical time
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rapid onset of chills & high fever
vomiting diarrhea hypoTN shock |
septicemia
(notify physician, obtain blood cultures & cultures of blood bag, administer o2, IV fluids, antibiotics, vasopressors, corticosteroids) |
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vomiting, diarrhea, hypoTN, altered heme levels
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Fe overload
(deferoxamine/desferal removes Fe which has accumulated in kidneys--- urine will turn red as Fe is excreted) |
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anorexia, n/v, dark urine, jaundice
(what disease that commonly occurs with blood transfusions? |
Hep C
(usually 4-6 weeks after transfusion) |
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hyperactive reflexes, paresthesias, tetany, muscle cramps, + trousseau's sign, + chvostek's sign
in blood tranfusions |
hypoca
(this happens in transfusions because citrate in transfused blood binds with Ca and is excreted) |
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2 possible electrolyte imbalances when administering blood products?
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hypoCa
hyperK |
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paresthesia, weakness, abd cramps, diarrhea, dysrhythmias
in blood transfusions |
hyperK
(happens because stored blood liberates K through hemolysis) *the older the blood, the more likely hyperK- so pts with renal failure or renal insuffic ---> fresh blood!) |
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safe storage of blood
# of days? how do you know this? |
35 days
*check the expiration date!!* |
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plasma expander
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albumin
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if a pt has a temp of __?___ or higher, blood products should not be hung
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100 F
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priority actions in event of a fire
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RACE
rescue, alarm, confine, extinguish |
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using a fire extinguisher
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PASS
pull the pin aim @ the base of the fire squeeze the handles sweep the fire from side to side |
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if fire & someone is on life support?
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maintain resp status by ambu bag until client moved away from threat of the fire then put back on life support
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what kind of knot to use w. restraints?
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half-bow or safety knot (quick release tie)
*NOT to side rails, secure to bed frame or chair |
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some alternatives to restraints
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-orient client & fam to surroundings
-explain all procedures -encourage fam/friends to stay w.pt (or other sitters) -assigned confused pts near nurses station -provide appropriate visual& auditory stimuli (clocks, calendars, tv, radio) -place familiar items near bedside (pix) -eliminate bothersome txs (tube feedings) asap -eval all meds pt receiving -use relaxation techniques -exercise &ambulation! |
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what to document when restraints used?
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-reason
-method -date& time of application -duration of use& clients response -release from restraint w.periodic exercise &circulatory, neurovasc, & skin assessment -assessment of continued need for restraint -eval of client's reponse |
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what kind of precautions for measles, chickenpox, disseminated varicella zoster, tb?
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AIRBORNE
(single room w.neg pressure, door closed, high effic air filter, mask on pt when out of room) |
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what kind of precautions for adenovirus, diptheria (pharyngeal), epiglottitis, influenza, meningitis, mumps, mycoplas pneumonia or meningococcal, pneumonia, parvovirus b19, pertussis, pneumonia, rubella, scarlet fever, sepsis, strep pharyngitis?
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DROPLET
(barrier protection- private room or cohort client, use of mask if pt leaves room (only leave if necessary) |
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what kind of precautions if colonization or infx w.multidrug-resistant organism?
-RSV, C diff, wound infxs, herpes simplex, impetigo, scabies, varicella, conjunctivitis |
CONTACT
(barrier- private room or cohort, use gloves& gowns) |
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how is anthrax transmitted?
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direct contact w.bacteria &spores
(skin, GI, inhalation) |
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how is smallpox transmitted?
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air droplets & by handling contaminated materials
*highly contagious |
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how is botulism spread?
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spores found in soil &can spread through the air or food (improperly canned food) or via contaminated wound
*not spread from person-person |
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if treated early, botulism can be txd w?
if not- what happens? |
can be txd w.antitoxin
if not, can lead to death w.in 24hours (12-36hrs after ingestion & 24-72 hours after inhalation-----> paralysis of arms, legs, trunk, resp muscles, need mechanical vent) |
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how is plague contracted?
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-bitten by rodent or flea carrying d/e
-ingestion of meat or handling an animal infected w.plague *person-person spread |
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how is tularemia contracted?
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ticks, deer flies, contact w.infected animal
(tx w.antibiotics, recovery produces lifelong immunity) |
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how is hemmorrhagic fever carried?
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rodents, mosquitoes
(person-person, or bodily fluid contact) |
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for kids, when to call emergency response?
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after 5 cycles of cpr
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compression landmarks for adults, kids, infants?
cpr |
adults & kids-- nipple line
infants- just below nipple line (2 fingers, not heel of one hand on top of other) |
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collapsed or airless state of the lung that may be the result of airway obstruction
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atelectasis
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extended postop stage
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period of @ least 1-4 days post surgery
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immediate postop stage
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period of 1-4 hours post surgery
|
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intermediate postop stage
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4-24hrs post surgery
|
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separation of wound edges
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wound dehiscence
|
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protrusion of internal organs through an incision
|
would evisceration
|
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withhold liquids for __?__ before general anesthesia
how long for local? |
general- 6-8 hours before
local- 3 hours |
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don't smoke for how long before surgery?
|
24 hours
|
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fancy word for calf pumping?
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gastrocnemius
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med conditions that increase risk of surgery?
|
bleeding d/os
DM chronic pain heart d/e obstruct sleep apnea uri liver d/e fever chronic resp d/e immulonological d/os abuse of street drugs |
