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115 Cards in this Set
- Front
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Which assumption is not true of Quantitative Research?
a) assumes social facts have a single objective reality b) researchers examine for causes and relationships c) goal is to describe the nature of things d) statistical methods comparing and contrasting groups occurs |
c) goal is to describe the nature of things (qualitative)
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This kind of research begins in the real world, practical level
a) deductive b) descriptive c) inductive d) correlational |
c) inductive
tends to be descriptive, correlational, or historical and leads to building a theory |
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Joe wants to be able to generalize the characteristics of his respondants to the general population. Which research design should he avoid?
a) survey b) longitudinal c) cross-sectional d) experimental |
a) survey
unless characteristics of non-respondants are similar to respondants survey results are not generalizable. |
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Which of these are examples of non-experimental design?
a) descriptive, longitudinal, pilot study b) descriptive, survey, correlational c) survey quasi-experient, survey, comparative |
b) descriptive, survey, correlational
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2 employment agencies hold job clubs. In 1 agency the club is member-initiated and run. In the other, employment counselors run the club. You find that members of the professionally led group have a higher job placement rate. What type of resarch led you to that finding?
a) experiment b) survey c) ex post facto d) case study |
c) ex post facto
this design studies the possible causal relationships among variables after the fact |
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Which of these is not a design variation for expirements?
a) treatment and control groups with posttest only b) treatment and control groups with pre and posttest c) 2 different treatments groups with control group and posttest d) none |
d) none, these are all variations
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What kinds of design is: In one school there are two 6th grade classrooms. Each classroom is taught arithmetic by a different method for the year. In May, arithmetic achievement is compared using a national exam to score.
a) experimental b) mixed-method c) comparative d) quasi-experimental |
d) quasi-experimental
There was no random assignment of students to classrooms or teaching method. |
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Which of these is an example of qualitative research?
a) historical analysis b) survey c) experiment d) ex-post facto |
a) historical analysis
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Non interactive research is analytical and often conducted by
a) talking to experts b) document analysis c) collecting data over a period of time d) comparing subjects reactions |
b) document analysis
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What issue is important to be aware of when conducting ethnographic research?
a) observer bias b) birth order c) sampling error d) internal validity |
a) observer bias
Because data is collected through observation and then interpreted. |
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What does action research attempt to improve?
a) participation in a study b) instrumentation c) services or a program d) feasibility |
c) services or a program
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What kind of research could help determine what counseling techniques work for what kind of clients, with what kind of problems, under what conditions?
a) meta-analysis b) biographical analysis c) pilot study d) cross-sectional research |
a) meta-analysis
comparing findings across studies. |
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If extraneous variables have been controlled the experiment is said to be
a) biased b) internally valid c) externally valid d) reliable |
b) internally valid
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Which of these is not a threat to internal validity?
a) selection of subjects b) statistical regression c) subject reactions d) attrition |
c) subject reactions
Hawthorne effect, demand characteristics, experimenter bias, placebo |
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If the results of a study can be generalized to people and situations beyond teh study the experiemnt is said to be
a) useful b) ecologically valid c) externally valid d) theorhetical |
c) externally valid
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Nominal, Ordinal, Interval and Ratio refer to what?
a) levels of measurement b) outcome measures c) sampling d) variables |
a) levels of measurement
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Scores on a final exam are an example of what kind of measure?
a) nominal b) academic c) ratio d) ordinal |
d) ordinal
exam scores can be ranked (ordered) |
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If one half of your population is pink and the other half is purple. Randomly selecting your sample to be one half pink and one half purple is an example of this kind of sampling:
a) random b) purposeful c) proportional stratified d) stratified |
c) proportional stratified
sample represents proprtionately the subgroups in the population |
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Using naturally occuring groups as your unit for sampling is:
a) purposeful sampling b) cluster sampling c) convenience d) volunteer |
b) cluster sampling
e.g city blocks, classrroms, etc. |
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Which of these is not an example of non-parametric statistics?
a) Mann-Whitney U b) t-test c) Chi-square d) Wilcoxon Signed-Ranks |
b) t-test
used when scores give you a normal curve |
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What does the null hypothesis always state?
a) there is a difference between variables b) the difference between variables will be shown c) there is no difference between variables d) variables will have significant differences |
c) there is no difference between variables
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The GPA of the girls will be higher than the GPA of the boys is an example of:
a) a non-directional one-tailed hypothesis b) a directional one-tailed hypothesis c) a non-directional two-tailed hypothesis d) a directional two-tailed hypothesis |
b) a directional one-tailed hypothesis
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What would make this hypothesis two-tailed? The GPA of the girls will be higher than the GPA of the boys.
a) the GPA will be higher or lower b) the GPA will be the same c) the GPA will be different d) the GPA will be significant |
c) the GPA will be different
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What does the significance level you set determine?
a) the importance of the finding b) likelihood of making an error c) whether to do a one or two tailed test d) it doesn't matter |
b) likelihood of making an error
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Which of these is not a conventional significance level used in research
a) .001 b) .05 c) .01 d) .1 |
d) .1
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After publishing your results it is discovered that you concluded that there is a difference in self-esteem level of clients when in fact there is not. You have made:
a) a type 1 error b) a type 2 error |
a) type 1 error
rejecting null when it is correct |
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What test would you use to determine whether the mean scores of two groups are statistically different from one another?
a) t-test b) Mann-Whitney U c) ANOVA d) MANOVA |
a) t-test
can only be used when there are 2 groups (2 means) |
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If you have 2 independent variables and 2 dependent variables you have to use:
a) a 2x2 ANOVA b) MANOVA c) ANCOVA d) none of these |
b) MANOVA
Multivariate analysis of variance is used when there is more than 1 dependent variable |
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Which of these applies to a 2x3 ANOVA?
a) 2 IVs and 3 DVs b) 2 IVs with 3 levels c) 2 IVs |
c) 2 IVs
the first IV has 2 options (i.e. M/F) and the second IV has three levels (i.e. drop out, GED, college) |
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An ANCOVA is used when the influence of one or more independent variables on the dependent variable is:
a) irrelevent b) assumed c) controlled d) unknown |
c) controlled
With controlling for influence use ANOVA |
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Which of these is a commonly used post-hoc test?
a) Mann-Whitney U b) Chi-square c) Tukey's HSD d) Wilcxon signed-rank |
c) Tukey's HSD
(Honestly significant Difference) |
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This kind of data is used with Chi-square tests
a) raw b) nominal c) ordinal d) percentages |
b) nominal
This test determines whether two distributions differ significantly |
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What does the Solomon four group design test?
a) the null hypothesis b) the difference in means c) the effect of any pretest d) correlation |
c) the effect of any pretest
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What does portability refer to?
a) counseling over the internet b) process of easing the transition of licensed counselors from one state to another c) process for facilitating inter-state therapy d) transferring client records from one practice to another |
b) process of easing the transition of licensed counselors from one state to another
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Which of these is not circumstance in which confidentiality can be waived?
1) client is danger to self or others 2) involuntary hospitalization 3) child abuse is alleged 4) ROI expired |
4) ROI expired
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What should a disclosure statement always include?
a) counselor credentials, fees, reference list b) counselors training, exceptions to confidentiality, and grievence procedures c) counselor's name and address, supervisor's contact information, rules of conduct d) Counselor credentials, release of information process, and suggested reading list |
b) counselors training, exceptions to confidentiality, and grievence procedures
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The failure to provide professional services or to provide services below standards of practice is:
a) negligence b) malpractice c) malfeasance d) a breach of duty |
b) malpractice
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What did the FERPA/Buckly Amendment allow?
a) all students to access educational records b) parents to access counseling records c) students 18+ to access educational records d) parents of students under 18 and students 18+ to access educational records |
d) parents of students under 18 and students 18 and older to access educational records |
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What does provider list status do?
a) promote the counslor's career b) provide free advertising c) allow for referrals from HMOs d) reduce healthcare costs |
c) allow for referrals from HMOs
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Providing the same level of care for mental health and addictions as for medical and surgical coverage is
a) equity b) parity c) proximity d) propiquity |
b) parity
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What is the first step in planning a program?
a) secure funding b) develop goals and objectives c) conduct a pilot study d) conceptualize the system |
d) conceptualize the system
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What is the major difference between goals and objectives?
a) goals are lofty and objective concrete b) goals are broad intentions and objectives are specific and measurable c) goals are dictated by the counselor and objectives are determined by client d) the terms are interchangable |
b) goals are broad intentions and objectives are specific and measurable |
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When should aprogram be modified?
a) right after the pilot study b) during development of goals c) after program evaluation d) in conjunction with a feedback loop |
c) after program evaluation
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What does a needs assessment measure?
a) discrepencies between what is and what is desired b) differences in services provided c) client satisfaction d) financial needs |
a) discrepencies between what is and what is desired
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Which of these is not a principle of ethics?
a) autonomy b) justice c) opportunity d) fidelity |
c) opportunity
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You realize that your client is not benefiting from your services. What is the proper thing to do?
a) talk to your supervisor and then continue working with the client b) terminate your services, but provide time to transition client c) contact the board of ethics d) Let thd client decide if s/he would like to continue |
b) terminate your services, but provide time to transition client
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Theorists from this perspective focus on the structure of the individual, such as needs, traits and interests and designed a theory of career development from that basis.
a) developmental b) behavioral c) actuarial d) ecological |
c) actuarial
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This theorist presented to concept of the career rainbow which consists of 9 major roles.
a) Super b) Holland C) Gottfredson d) Roe |
a) Super
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Which of these is NOT one of the 9 major roles in life (Super)?
a) sibling b) child c) parent d) homemaker |
a) sibling
Child, student, citizen, spouse, homemaker, parent, worker, leisurite, pensioner |
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This model is a graphic representation of the many determinants that comprise one's self-concept.
a) Jihari Window b) life-career rainbow c) Archway Model d) RIASEC hexagon |
c) Archway Model
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To Holland, career choice is
a) a natural progression b) an expression of personality c) culturally influenced d) interactive |
b) an expression of personality
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Holland's six styles or types apply to
a) workers and bosses b) people and work environments c) career choice and happiness d) social and cultural factors |
b) people and work environments
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RIASEC
a) Rational, idealistic, Acquired, Social, Educational, Compromising b) Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, Conventional c) Realistic, Individualistic, Artful, Social, Entrepreneurial, COnventional d) Rational, Introverted, Artistic, Social, Extroverted, Compromising |
b) Realistic, Investigative, Artistic, Social, Enterprising, Conventional
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Sandra is a career counselor who thinks typeology plays a major role in career development. What instruments might she use to help determine a client's type?
a) Myers-Briggs Tpe Indicator and Dictionary of Occupational Codes b) Career Beliefs Inventory and O*Net Ability Profiler c) Strong Interest Inventory and Vocational Preference Inventory d) Minnesota Importance Questionaire and Iowa Test of Basic Skills |
c) Strong Interest Inventory and Vocational Preference Inventory
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Individuals narrow down and opt out of unavailable or inappropriate occupations as they develop.
a) focus and weed b) explore and select c) circumscribe and compromise d) Orient and decide |
c) circumscribe and compromise
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Gottfredson's developmental model states that orientation to sex roles in career development occurs at what age?
a) 9-13 b) 3-5 c) 7-9 d) 6-8 |
d) 6-8
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Internal factors such as aspirations, values and interests are critical to this age group according to Gottfredson:
a) 6-8 b) 9-13 c) 14+ d) 14-16 |
c) 14+
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He used Bandura's social learning theory to identify principal concepts for this theory of career development:
a) Krumboltz, LTCC b) Holland, RIASEC c) Super, L-CW d) Roe, SII |
a) Krumboltz, LTCC
Learning theory of career counseling |
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According to Krumboltz, which of these does career decision making involve?
a) family dynamics b) task approach skills c) skill-building events d) experiencial learning |
b) task approach skills
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Jonah believes that his client's generalizations and beliefs may be mental barriers to taking action. Which test might Jonah use to identify these generalizations and beliefs?
a) Strong Interest Inventory b) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator c) SIGI-3 d) Career Beliefs Inventory |
d) Career Beliefs Inventory
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Kelly has learned through experience that her boss does not respond well to suggestions made during staff meetings, but will welcome feedback during weekly supervision. Her perception is that her boss feels threatened by her. What kind of experience would Krumboltz say she's had?
a) Reinforcement b) environmental conditions and events c) associative learning d) planned happenstance |
c) associative learning
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These three periods of career development were introduced in the early 1950s by developmentalists.
a) environmental, instrumental, associative b) power, social valuation, internal orientation c) fantasy, tentative, realistic d) realistic, industrious, conventional |
c) fantasy, tentative, realistic
Ginzberg, Ginsburg, Axelrad and Herma |
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According to needs appraoch theory, major determiners in career choice are:
a) parental influence and childhood experiences b) cognitive development and ego-relevant crises c) adolescent adjustment patterns and freedom of choice d) learning experiences and unplanned events |
a) parental influence and childhood experiences
Ann Roe. Field by level classifications. 6 levels, 8 fields |
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Which of these is not one of the 8 fields identified by Roe's needs approach theory?
a) Science b) Arts and entertainment c) Cultural d) Outdoor |
c) Cultural
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This theory of career development parallel's Erikson's eight psychosocial satges.
a) Needs approach b) Decision-Making Model c) Social-Cognitive d) Developmental |
b) Decision-Making Model
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Sonya wants to start a family and knows she wants to continue working, but maybe not full-time. She seeks a career counselor to discuss how to balance these two decisions. What theorhetical orientation may be best?
a) needs approach b) social learning c) decision-making d) feminist |
c) decision-making
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This sequential procedure is used to solve career problems based on CIP.
a) RIASEC b) CASVE c) LTCC d) ITBS |
b) CASVE
communication, analysis, synthesis, valuing, execution. emphasizes cognitions, information and problem-solving CIP-cognitive information processing |
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CJ was discouraged by her parents when she began to express interest in becoming a doctor. But with the support of her school guideance counselor she took AP chemistry and biology and discovered she out-performed many boys in her class. So she chose to pursue pre-med during college. This learning experience strengthened CJ's:
a) sense of accomplishment b) sense of self-efficacy c) sense of rebellion d) sense of self-esteem |
b) sense of self-efficacy
Social-learning theory. An individual's expectations will influence whether a behavior will be initiated and how persistant a person will be when facing barriers. |
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Mohammed has decided to pursue teaching as a career. In his neighborhood, very few people go on to college, but he sees becoming a teacher as a way to inspire other kids by setting an example as well as returning to the local high school and starting an after-school job skills group. Mohammed's decision is highly influenced by:
a) social norms b) gender roles and expectations c) context d) personality and values |
c) context
Contextualism implies that career development is a constant interplay of forces within an individual, within the environment and interaction between the two. The goal of the counselor is to encourage the client to make meaning of the two. |
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Rachel works with clients to help them make sense of their life and work. From her perspective career personality type, developmental tasks, and life themes are key in helping a client be successful. Rachel is mot likely a proponent of this type of career counseling.
a) Trait-factor b) Learning theory c) feminist d) postmodern |
d) postmodern
Mark Savickas. Based on career construction theory, stories and meanings are provided by clients. The counselor is not viewed as the expert, but rather an active agent in assisting the client. |
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The actuarial or matching approach to career counseling is also known as the:
a) Trait-Factor approach b) Circumscribe and compromise c) Constructivism and Contextualism d) sociological and situational |
a) Trait Factor Approach
Parsons. study the individual (trait), survey the occupations (factor), match the person with an occupation. He wrote Choosing a Vocation in 1909. |
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A career counselor who looks at what the client's problems are, why they have occurred, and how they are being dealth is likely coming from this model of career counseling:
a) psychodynamic b) comprehensive c) trait-factor d) feminist |
b) comprehensive
John Crites. three diagnoses of career problem: differential, dynamic, and decisional |
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Which of these factors will not affect career decision-making?
a) risk-taking style b) investment c) self-efficacy d) income |
d) income
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At her first career counseling appointment, Sierra tells her counselor that she has been indecisive her whole life and just can't seem to get past it. What might her counselor suggest?
a) seek individual therapy first b) gather more information about careers c) read Choosing a Vocation d) identify her strengths and values |
a) seek individual therapy first
An undecided person would benefit from more information. An indecisive person may need personal therapy to address the ongoing trait. |
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A broad definition of career:
a) a definable work activity b) a series of jobs and occupations c) all the work and liferoles one engages in d) education, training, experience and activities associated with one's occupation |
c) all the work and liferoles one engages in
from Super. |
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Kris is a police officer and during his leisure time he enjoys activities such as paint ball, target shooting, and hunting. According to one theory of leisure, Kris' leisure activities...
a) compensate for his work duties b) spillover from his job c) complement his job tasks d) are congruent with his work |
b) spillover from his job
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What is the second step in the Career Counseling process?
a) assessment b) provide information c) identify the problem d) establish a relationship? |
c) identify the problem
establish relationship identify problem assess provide information make a decision implement and follow-up |
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Mary was a homemaker for 20 years and is returning to the work force, but has no idea what kind of job she might qualify to do. Which of these issues might be primary in Mary's counseling?
a) career transition b) disabilities c) testing/assessment d) cultural diversity |
a) career transition
change in needs and values, retraining, physical capacity, family structure, pre-retirement issues, lack of information or job-seeking skills |
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What does the COPsystem test for?
a) achievement, interest, and personality b) interests, abilities and values c) achievement, personality and abilities d) abilities, aptitude, and traits |
b) interests, abilities and values
COPSystem is 3 tests |
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This free, comprehensive database replaces the Dictionary of Occupational Titles.
a) America's Job Bank b) Bureau of Labor Statistics c) O*NET d) OOH |
c) O*NET
Occupational Information Network. Its three major components: Find Occupations, Skills Search, and Crosswalk. |
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In the DOT what do the first 3 numbers in the 9-digit codes represent?
a) georgraphic location b) salary, management, and industry c) category, division and group d) industry, department, title |
c) category, division and group
Dictionaryof Occupational Titles |
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Marc wants to get into a career that is up and coming. Before going to his career counselor to get ideas about which direction to go what resource might he consult?
a) O*NET b) DOT c) OOH d) SIGI 3 |
c) OOH
Occupational Outlook Handbook. Published every 2 years by the US Dept. of Labor |
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Reba is president of a small real estate agency and is facing the difficult task of firing her least productive agents. What type of counseling might the agency provide to these individuals?
a) outplacement b) retirement c) career education d) dislocated worker |
a) outplacement
This counseling is provided by agencies for workers who are to be terminated. |
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Which level of career education is provided at the high school level?
a) career exploration b) career planning c) career orientation d) career awareness |
c) career orientation
career awareness (elementary) career exploration (middle school) career orientation (high school) career preparation (high school) |
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Marguerite is in her 50s and her children are grown. She has been a homemaker her whole life with no plans of joining the workforce. Which term best describes Marguerite?
a) dislocated worker b) displaced homemaker c) dislocated homemaker d) none of these |
d) none of these
dislocated workers are no longer employed due to downsizing, uneeded skills, company relocations, etc. displaced homemakers are looking for work |
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Tom and his partner both work and share chores equally. What conflicts might they experience as a dual-earner, same-sex couple?
a) inequitable division of chores with kids b) gender roles with regard to income c) whose job takes precedence if a career move is offered d) equal pay for equal work |
c) whose job takes precedence if a career move is offered
This example does not mention kids. Presumeably gender roles about which partner should earn more money don't apply to the couple and equal pay for equal work is understood to concern women earning less than men. |
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More and more women are in the work force. What does research show with regard to women who become the second earner?
a) household work is shared equally b) household work is often neglected c) majority of household work is maintained by the woman d) more household work is delegated to children/hired out. |
c) majority of household work is maintained by the woman
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FMLA applies to employers with more than 50 workers and provides for:
a) 12 months of unpaid leave to care for family b) up to 12 weeks of paid leave to care for child or parent c) up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave within a 12 month period to care for new child or immediate family member d) up to 12 weeks of paid leave within a calendar year to care for sick family member or new baby. |
c) up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave within a 12 month period to care for new child or immediate family member
Family Medical Leave Act |
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Which group has the lowest rate of unemployment?
a) white men b) white women c) Hispanic women d) black women |
b) white women
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Going beyond mesaurement to make judgements about human attributes and behaviors. Often used interchangebly with evaluation.
a) assessment b) appraisal c) interpretation d) testing |
b) appraisal
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If the mean, median and mode all fall in the same place the distribution of scores is...
a) non-parametric b) normal c) curved d) significant |
b) normal
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Recent study results revealed that the mean was higher than the mode. This represents a ...
a) normal distribution b) negative skew c) positive skew d) none of these |
c) positive skew
The mean is pulled in the direction of the extreme scores (the tail of the distribution). |
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What is determined by subtracting the lowest score from the highest score and adding 1?
a) standard deviation b) variance c) inclusive range d) spread |
c) inclusive range
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After grading the final exam, Dr. Bell saw that the distribution of scores fell into a normal curve. What percentage of scores fell within 1 standard deviation?
a) 68% b) 34% c) 27% d) 95% |
a) 68%
34% above and 34% below the mean. 95% of scores within 2SD 99% of scores within 3SD |
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In a normal distribution, 1 SD above the mean is represented by what z-score?
a) 1 b) -1 c) +1 d) 0 |
c) +1
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Joelle's reading score is in the 93rd percentile. This means that her score is higher than what percentage of scores?
a) 7% b) 93% c) 92% d) 8% |
c) 92%
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Billie's test results show that his score is the same as the median score in a normal distribution. Into which stanine does his score fall?
a) 6 b) 5 c) 2 d) none of these |
b) 5
Distribution scores are converted into 9 parts (1 to 9) with 5 in the middle and a SD of about 2. |
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A person has a raw score of 60 on a standardized math test and score of 45 on a standardized reading test. Which score is higher?
a) neither b) unable to determine c) 60 d) they are equivalent |
b) unable to determine
Scores have to be converted to standardized scale in order to compare them. |
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What does a standardized score express?
a) relationship to the population b) standard deviation c) distance from the mean in terms of SD d) variability in the test |
c) distance from the mean in terms of SD
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How is the mean represented by a z-score? a T score?
a) 1, 3 b) 0, 50 c) 1, 5 d) 0, 10 |
b) 0, 50
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In a study, the correlation coefficient was found to be .9. From this, authors determined that the treatment of vitamin supplements improved Racoons' ability to learn a maze over time. Is this a good conclusion?
a) No. The racoons probably learned through practice. b) Yes. .9 is a positive correlation c) Yes. Vitamins do improve learning. d) No. correlation is not causation. |
d) No. correlation is not causation.
-1.00 is perfect negative correlation. +1.00 is perfect positive correlation. Correlation coefficient says nothing about cause and effect. |
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Franco was working to develop a new measure of intelligence and administered the test to the same group of research assistants 5 times each with different results. Franco's new measure is...
a) valid b) reliable c) invalid d) unreliable |
d) unreliable
Reliability is the degree to which a test can be expected to provide similar results for the same subjects on repeated administrations. |
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Which type of reliability refers to test-retest reliability using an instrument for the same group twice?
a) equivalence b) internal consistancy c) stability d) interitem consistency |
c) stability
The results of the two administrations are correlated. Length of time between may influence stability. 2 weeks is a good length of time between test administrations. |
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A test has been split into 2 halves and the correlation between them calculated. What formula might be used to see how reliable the test would have been if it was not split into halves?
a) Mann-Whitney U b) Spearman-Brown c) Kudar-Richardson d) none of these |
b) Spearman-Brown
Spearman-Brown formula measures internal consistency. Also called the prophecy formula. |
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What formula might you use to determine internal consistency for a test that contains multiple choice questions?
a) Spearman-Brown b) Cronbach's Alpha c) Pearson Correlation Coefficient d) Mann-Whitney U |
b) Cronbach's Alpha
Used for instruments that have non-dichotomous items. Kuder-Richardson formulas are used with dichotomous items, such as true-false or yes-no. |
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Two tests are administered. Each one measures true variance (T1 and T2) and error variance (E1 and E2). If the correlation coefficent between the two tests is .9 what is the amount of true variance measured in common?
a) 18% b) 90% c) 10% d) 81% |
d) 81%
true variance in common=correlation squared .9 squared=81 |
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Two tests are administered. Each one measures true variance (T1 and T2) and error variance (E1 and E2). If the correlation coefficent between the two tests is .9. What is the error variance?
a) 19% b) 81% c) .9 d) .01 |
a) 19%
Coefficient of Nondetrmination is the unique variance, NOT IN COMMON. If variance in common is 81% (correlation squared) then the error variance the remaining %. |
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A person scores a 92 on a test. The standard error of measurement is 5. There is a 67% chance that his score falls between:
a) 87 and 92 b) 89.5 and 94.5 c) 87 and 97 d) 92 and 97 |
c) 87 and 97
SEM helps determine the range within which an individual's score probably falls. |
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If a person scores 90 on a test and the standard error of meaurement is 5. What percentage of the time will his score fall between 80 and 100?
a) 67% b) 95% c) 99% d) 33% |
b) 95%
(Think 2 standard deviations.) |
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Marvin has designed a test for math consisting of short vignettes and lots of graphics. What type of validity might his test be lacking?
a) content b) construct c) face d) predictive |
c) face
Face validity: the test looks valid. For this example, it doesn't look like a math test. This could be important to the test-taker. |
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Hugo works with SPMI clients and uses multiple methods to measure several traits. What type of validty should be important to him?
a) concurrent b) predictive c) content d) construct |
d) construct
A test has construct validity to extent that it measures some hypothetical construct (anxiety, stress, creativity, etc.) Convergent validation occurs when there is high correlation between the construct under investigation and others. Discriminent validation occurs when there is no significant correlation. |
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Looking at Luke's GRE score from 1999 and comapring it to the second score he earned in 2001. Is...
a) norm referenced b) criterion referenced c) ipsatively interpreted d) maximal performance |
c) ipsatively interpreted
Comapring the test within an individual. Norm referenced comparing individual to others Criterion referenced comparing and individual's performance to a predetermined criterion |
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Which of these is not a test of intelligence?
a) Standford-Binet b)WAIS III c) TAT d) WISC IV |
c) TAT
Thematic Apercention Test is a projective test. A person projects thought processes, needs, anxieties, etc. WAIS- III is for adults WISC IV is for children |
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Looking through a database for information about crime rates is an exaple of this kind of measurement:
a) intrusive b) internal c) non reactive d) case study |
c) non reactive
Also called unobtrusive. Data is collected without the knowledge/awareness of the individual. |
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Which of these is not an advantage to computer-based assessment?
a) standardized administration b) no personal contact between tester and test taker c) results may be available immediately d) profiles and reports can be generate |
b) no personal contact between tester and test taker
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