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103 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is the second step of ORM
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Assess Hazards
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what is the third step of the ORM
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make risk decisions
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what term is used to describe a known or unknown condition or state where an elevated probability of loss or an increased level of severity is likely or imminent
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high risk
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what type of course can you DOR
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voluntary
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when are EAP walk-throughs conducted
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quarterly
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when are EAP full exercises conducted
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annually
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when are safety stand downs conducted
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annually and at CO discretion
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who test develop sight augment plans
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CCA
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where do you use a special course indicator code
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voluntary training
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what is the purpose of the Navy training system
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ensure a systematic approach for determining what to train and how best to accomplish that training
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what is the most essential link in the training chain
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the instructor
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define knowledge
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thoroughly familiar with the subject matter being taught (SME)
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what are the instructors responsibilities
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students; safety; security; curriculum
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what are the 4 principles to John Keller's model of motivational training
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confidence; attention; relevance; satisfaction
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define LAW OF READINESS
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physically and mentally ready
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what type of learning occurs during DISCOVERY
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TRIAL AND ERROR
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what are the types of sensory learners?
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visual; auditory; kinesthetic
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what are the 4 basic learning styles
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concrete; abstract; reflective; active
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abstract and reflective= ___% retained
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50%
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what is the greatest barrier to effective communication
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fear
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how many factors are there in planning instructional delivery
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6
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what are the 6 factors in planning instructional delivery
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pauses; force; articulation; grammar; inflection; rate of speech
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what are the 4 purposes of oral questioning
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focuses; arouses; drills; stimulates
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how many types and purposes or oral questions
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7
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what are the types and purposes of oral questions
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canvasing; thought provoking; interest arousing; multiple answer; factual; leading; yes/no
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what is the basic most often used method of instruction for teaching skill type subjects
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demonstration
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what are the 2 methods of testing
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knowledge and performance
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how many items can knowledge tests test
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5
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what are the different types of performance tests
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product; process; combination
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what are the primary materials used in presenting instruction
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lesson plan; instruction sheets; IMM/VMM
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what is the responsibility of OPNAV in the training organization structure
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provides policy for implementing and supporting the DON strategic goals
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what is the responsibility of NETC in the training organization structure
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strategic goals n the area of leadership
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who monitors the CUIT
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Learning centers
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who monitors the quality of curriculum, instruction, and evaluation functions
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learning centers
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who supports the LC CO, LC DET/LS CO/ OIC to ensure quality of training
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learning center officer
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True or False? CDP is a unique number to identify a navy course
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false
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who has responsibility to ensure data accuracy within CeTARS
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CCA
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how is learning center data populated in CeTARS and CANTRAC
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CeTARS feeds CANTRAC
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what is CANTRAC
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database that holds information on all training activity and courses
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Define "A" school
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provides basic knowledge and skills. No NEC awarded
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define "C" school
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advanced specialized skills. Awarded NEC
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what is a PEVT code
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indicates student status in CeTARS
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who is responsible for maintaining a Master Record Audit Trail?
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CCMM
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how often are FRCs conducted
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annual; biannual; triennial. not to exceed 3 years
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what is the periodicity for conducting a HPRR
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3 years unless triggering event occurs
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what is the role and responsibility of NETC N7 for the HPRR process
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provides oversight and guidance
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what is the initial HPRR message that goes out
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annual
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what are the 4 triggers to conduct a HPRR
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request by requirement sponsor
fleet feedback couse surveillance curriculum |
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which HPRR message provides LC and stakeholders with a long range schedule for planning
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annual HPRR schedule message
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lis the 3 forms of acceptable actions from a resource sponsor
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naval message
command letterhead letter digitally signed email |
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what standard is the min skill required
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OCCSTDS
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who is responsible for reviewing and approving OCCSTDS
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OPNAV
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what establishes a repeatable and defendable job analysis process of developing or revising training
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JDTA
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what are the external triggers to perform a JDTA
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NTSP; ORM; fleet performance assessment; direct fleet input; HPRR
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what are the internal triggers to perform a JDTA
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revision to OCCSTDS; rating merger; establishment or revision of NEC
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what is a set of related tasks
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duty
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when is a FEA performed
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after the JDTA has been conducted
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how many triggers for a FEA
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9
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what is a structured methodology to facilitate its decision making process
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BCA
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who has initial approval authority of a TPP
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CCA
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who approves TPP implementation not requiring offsets
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NETC N7
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what is SERENA
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learning centers to upload, maintain, and manage training project plans
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how are TPPs serialized in SERENA
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by the first available number
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who approaches the TPP
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the CCA
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describe what is required of a skill and knowledge learning objective
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knowledge/ performance
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how many stages to develop a PPP
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7
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what are the TOS (training objective statement) codes for skill
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TO/(S)- SKILL (background)
TO/(J)- SKILL ( task/function) O- operation P- preventive maintenance C- Corrective Maintenance |
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what are the TOS codes for knowledge
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F- familiarization
T- Theory |
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what are the codes for skill and knowledge
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0/-1-2-3-4
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what are the 3 types of training materials provided by the ILE
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instructor led training; interactive multi media instruction; blended
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what are the minimum sections of a training plan
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front matter and lesson topics
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what lists the tasks for a given course
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CTTL
(course training task list) |
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what does the CTTL give the curriculum developer
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CTTL is the building block for the course
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what is the instruction sir handling and storing classified training materials
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OPNAVINST 5510.1
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what documents are in the final TCCD
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front matter
COI annexes |
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what list lists material, facilities and manpower
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RRL
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who does the Master Training Audit Trail belong to?
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CCMM
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who implements the testing plan, designates testing officers and designates the course supervisor
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learning site commanding officer/OIC
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who is responsible for test administration, oversee grading, secure tests, maintain test banks, coordinate/manage revisions and conduct IS training?
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Learning Site Testing Officer
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what type of test may or may not be graded
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informal
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what is designed to direst the study or homework efforts of trainees
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assignment sheets
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which type of test requires trainees to supply the missing information from memory
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completion
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how many sections are in a testing plan
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10
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what are the 3 methods of remediation
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targeted; scalable; iterative
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what are trainees who are discharged from the navy classified as
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attrites
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which OPNAVINST is the PQS program
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3500.34
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what is the function of the PQS program
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minimum level of competency is required and to standardize and facilitate those qualifications
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what is the difference between PQS and JQR
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PQS is for multiple platforms and JQR is for a single platform
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what is NRTC
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non-residential training courses
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how many steps to develop and approve a NTSP
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5
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list the five steps to develop and approve a NTSP
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6 years; 3 years; 3 years; prior to initial operation test and evaluation; 3 months
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what is ITER condition red
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cancels or stops training
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what is ITER condition yellow
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delays or cancels classes
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how are MTO reports submitted
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weekly via naval message
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what is AIM
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computer based training authoring tool developed by the navy
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which AIM tool supports TBCD
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AIM II
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which AIM tool supports PPP bases curriculum
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AIM I
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what is the purpose of the Content Planning Module
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application to document and map JDTA data
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what are the 4 primary areas of CPM
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home; JDTA; Projects; reports
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what forms of training are supported by ILE
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instructor led; facilitated; computer based
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what is Navy E-Learning
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training anytime, anywhere
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where would you go for data entry for CeTARS
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CeTARS ii Menu
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what provides the means for fleet activity and view request seats
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ENTRS
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