Microbiology Review 3.0

Front 1

The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is

Back 1

biotechnology

Front 2

Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?

Back 2

introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA

Front 3

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields except

Back 3

None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields

Front 4

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called

Back 4

palindromes

Front 5

All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors except

Back 5

they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA

Front 6

The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of

Back 6

Pseudomonas syringae

Front 7

When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90C - 95C),

Back 7

the two DNA strands separate

Front 8

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is

Back 8

gel electrophoresis.

Front 9

All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host except it

Back 9

has a slow growth rate.

Front 10

Which of the following drugs is produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use?

Back 10

All of the choices are correct

Front 11

The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of
another organism is a specific technique called

Back 11

recombinant DNA technology

Front 12

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is
called

Back 12

gene therapy

Front 13

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called

Back 13

genetic engineering

Front 14

Transgenic animals

Back 14

All of the choices are correct

Front 15

Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

Back 15

heat target DNA to 94C

Front 16

Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock?

Back 16

mitochondrial DNA

Front 17

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are

Back 17

gene probes

Front 18

The Southern Blot technique detects

Back 18

DNA

Front 19

This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:

Back 19

DNA fingerprinting

Front 20

Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves

Back 20

All of the choices are correct

Front 21

Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects:

Back 21

Pseudomonas fluorescens

Front 22

Which step involves transformation?

Back 22

cloning host takes up a plasmid

Front 23

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are

Back 23

palindromes

Front 24

The Western Blot technique detects

Back 24

proteins

Front 25

The primers in PCR are

Back 25

synthetic DNA oligonucleotides

Front 26

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are

Back 26

sources of heat stable DNA polymerases

Front 27

Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special ___ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.

Back 27

primers

Front 28

The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of

Back 28

specific genetic marker sequence on genes

Front 29

EcoRI and HindIII are

Back 29

restriction endonucleases

Front 30

All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting except

Back 30

it cannot be used on specimens older than 5 years

Front 31

DNA polymerases used in PCR

Back 31

include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase

Front 32

In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA

Back 32

target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease

Front 33

Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions?

Back 33

microarray analysis

Front 34

The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to

Back 34

incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.

Front 35

Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?

Back 35

microarray analysis

Front 36

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to

Back 36

gamma rays and X rays

Front 37

All the following are correct about detergents except

Back 37

they are active in the presence of organic matter

Front 38

Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?

Back 38

glutaraldehyde

Front 39

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except

Back 39

lyophilization.

Front 40

Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?

Back 40

Alcohol

Front 41

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation except

Back 41

it makes the food less nutritious

Front 42

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is

Back 42

antisepsis

Front 43

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are

Back 43

vegetative bacteria and fungi

Front 44

Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?

Back 44

ultraviolet (germicidal) light

Front 45

Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal
infections?

Back 45

silver nitrate

Front 46

Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?

Back 46

chloramines

Front 47

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is

Back 47

degermation

Front 48

All of the following are correct about food irradiation except

Back 48

the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.

Front 49

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is

Back 49

disinfection

Front 50

All of the following are phenols or phenolics except

Back 50

chloramines

Front 51

Ethylene oxide is

Back 51

sporicidal

Front 52

All of the following are correct about the autoclave except

Back 52

it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances

Front 53

Which is mismatched?

Back 53

Merthiolate - silver

Front 54

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

Back 54

sporicide

Front 55

The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the

Back 55

thermal death time (TDT)

Front 56

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial
endospores is

Back 56

sterilization

Front 57

The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is

Back 57

hydrogen perioxide

Front 58

Dry heat

Back 58

is less efficient than moist heat

Front 59

Sterilization is achieved by

Back 59

steam autoclave

Front 60

Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

Back 60

pasteurization

Front 61

Iodophors include

Back 61

Betadine

Front 62

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except

Back 62

hydrogen peroxide

Front 63

Alcohols

Back 63

All of the choices are correct

Front 64

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from

Back 64

air

Front 65

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is

Back 65

sanitization

Front 66

Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?

Back 66

tincture of iodine

Front 67

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

Back 67

cells in a culture die at a constant rate

Front 68

Microbiological contaminants are best described as

Back 68

unwanted microbes present on or in a substance

Front 69

Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?

Back 69

aqueous glutaraldehyde

Front 70

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

Back 70

bacterial endospores

Front 71

All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except

Back 71

allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug

Front 72

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the

Back 72

therapeutic index (TI)

Front 73

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?

Back 73

Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem

Front 74

Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed

Back 74

narrow-spectrum drugs

Front 75

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

Back 75

trimethroprim

Front 76

The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibioticassociated
colitis is

Back 76

clindamycin

Front 77

Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?

Back 77

bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane

Front 78

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?

Back 78

Liver

Front 79

Salvarsan was

Back 79

used to treat syphilis

Front 80

This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis

Back 80

isoniazid

Front 81

Drug susceptibility testing

Back 81

determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics

Front 82

The drug used for several protozoan infections is

Back 82

metronidazole

Front 83

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

Back 83

All of the choices are correct

Front 84

Gram negative rods are often treated with

Back 84

aminoglycosides

Front 85

An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

Back 85

blocks DNA replication

Front 86

Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?

Back 86

gentamicin

Front 87

Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?

Back 87

All of the choices are correct

Front 88

A superinfection results from

Back 88

decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species

Front 89

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because
these organisms

Back 89

are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult

Front 90

All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except

Back 90

a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic

Front 91

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?

Back 91

Tetraclycline

Front 92

Penicillins and cephalosporins

Back 92

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules

Front 93

Antibiotics are derived from all the following except

Back 93

Staphylococcus

Front 94

Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat ___ infections.

Back 94

helminthic

Front 95

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

Back 95

HIV

Front 96

Antimicrobics that are macrolides

Back 96

include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin

Front 97

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause

Back 97

superinfections

Front 98

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other
microorganisms are called

Back 98

antibiotics

Front 99

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except

Back 99

they have a beta-lactam ring

Front 100

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug
dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?

Back 100

MIC

Front 101

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

Back 101

clavulanic acid

Front 102

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except

Back 102

are nephrotoxic

Front 103

Aminoglycosides

Back 103

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis

Front 104

All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except

Back 104

they prevent assembly and release of the virus

Front 105

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except

Back 105

development of resistance to the drug

Front 106

Acyclovir is used to treat

Back 106

shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes

Front 107

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

Back 107

broad-spectrum drugs

Front 108

The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is

Back 108

amphotericin B

Front 109

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat ___ infections.

Back 109

fungal

Front 110

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

Back 110

All of the choices are correct

Front 111

Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous
catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?

Back 111

urinary tract

Front 112

Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of

Back 112

exoenzymes

Front 113

The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the

Back 113

reservoir

Front 114

The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the

Back 114

incidence rate

Front 115

Which is mismatched?

Back 115

Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites

Front 116

Resident flora are found in/on the

Back 116

All of the choices are correct.

Front 117

The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed

Back 117

symptom

Front 118

An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a

Back 118

vector

Front 119

The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the

Back 119

prodromal stage

Front 120

Virulence factors include all the following except

Back 120

ribosomes

Front 121

All infectious diseases

Back 121

are caused by microorganisms or their products

Front 122

Joe contracted hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ___ and the reservoir is ___.

Back 122

the doughnut, humans

Front 123

The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora

Back 123

during, and immediately after birth.

Front 124

The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak
activity is

Back 124

period of invasion

Front 125

Enterotoxins are

Back 125

All of the choices are correct

Front 126

A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?

Back 126

forest ranger

Front 127

Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?

Back 127

Lactobacillus

Front 128

Nosocomial infections involve all the following except

Back 128

they are only transmitted by medical personnel

Front 129

Infection occurs when

Back 129

pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues

Front 130

Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are

Back 130

biological vectors

Front 131

Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of

Back 131

inflammation.

Front 132

Exotoxins are

Back 132

proteins

Front 133

Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are

Back 133

the patient's own normal flora

Front 134

Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?

Back 134

respiratory

Front 135

Resident flora of the intestines include

Back 135

Bacteroides

Front 136

Which is mismatched?

Back 136

Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots

Front 137

All of the following are signs of infectious diseases except

Back 137

nausea

Front 138

The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the

Back 138

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

Front 139

Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted

Back 139

from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta

Front 140

Reservoirs include

Back 140

All of the choices are correct

Front 141

All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except

Back 141

Escherichia

Front 142

When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?

Back 142

To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.

Front 143

Which is not terminology used for resident flora?

Back 143

Pathogenic flora

Front 144

Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a

Back 144

carrier

Front 145

A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is

Back 145

epidemic

Front 146

When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as

Back 146

sporadic

Front 147

The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed

Back 147

sign

Front 148

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?

Back 148

A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus.

Front 149

An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a

Back 149

fomite

Front 150

If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more
virulent?

Back 150

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 151

DEFINITIONS
acids

Back 151

a solution with a PH value below 7 on the pH scale.

Front 152

DEFINITIONS
aldehyde

Back 152

glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde kill by alkylating protein and DNA

Front 153

DEFINITIONS
alkalies

Back 153

a solution with a PH value above 7 on the pH scale.

Front 154

DEFINITIONS
antisepsis

Back 154

the prevention of sepsis by antiseptic means; flora of skin and mucous membrane.

Front 155

DEFINITIONS
antiseptics

Back 155

chemical applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens

Front 156

DEFINITIONS
asepsis

Back 156

techniques that prevent the entry of microorganisms into sterile tissues

Front 157

DEFINITIONS
bactericide

Back 157

an agent that kills bacteria.

Front 158

DEFINITIONS
bacteriostatic

Back 158

Any process or agent that inhibits bacterial growth.

Front 159

DEFINITIONS
betapropiolactone

Back 159

disinfectant with batericidal, sporicidal, fungicidal and virucidal in vapor form; limited due to toxicity and carcinogenic properties; used to sterilize blood plasma, vaccines, tissue grafts, surgical instruments, and enzymes.

Front 160

DEFINITIONS
chlorhexidine

Back 160

a chemical antiseptic; effective on gram-positive and gram-negative, although less effective on some gram-negative

Front 161

DEFINITIONS
chlorine dioxide

Back 161

Disinfectant against water borne pathogens, such as viruses, bacteria, and protozoa.

Front 162

DEFINITIONS
cold-temperature sterilization

Back 162

the use of nonheating methods such as coenzumes

Front 163

DEFINITIONS
degermination

Back 163

cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from living tissue

Front 164

DEFINITIONS
denature

Back 164

the loss of normal characteristics resulting from some molecular alteration.

Front 165

DEFINITIONS
dessicated

Back 165

to dry thoroughly.

Front 166

DEFINITIONS
detergents

Back 166

quaternary ammonia compounds (quats) act as surfactants that alter membrane permeability of some bacteria and fungi

Front 167

DEFINITIONS
disinfectant

Back 167

destruction of vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects; not endospores

Front 168

DEFINITIONS
disaffection

Back 168

a process to destroy vegetative pathogens, not endospores; inaimate objects

Front 169

DEFINITIONS
ethyl alcohol

Back 169

act as surfactant dissolving membrane lipids and coagulating proteins of vegetative bacterial cells and fungi

Front 170

DEFINITIONS
ethylene oxide

Back 170

a potent, highly water-soluble gas invaluable for gaseous sterilization of heat-sensative objects.

Front 171

DEFINITIONS
formaldehyde

Back 171

disinfectant, preservative, toxicity limit use

Front 172

DEFINITIONS
formalin

Back 172

a 37% aqueous solution of hormaldehyde gas; potent chemical fixative and microbicide.

Front 173

DEFINITIONS
fungicide

Back 173

a chemical that can kill fungal spores, hyphae, and yeast.

Front 174

DEFINITIONS
fungistatic

Back 174

capable of inhibiting the growth of fungi.

Front 175

DEFINITIONS
germicidal

Back 175

an agent that kills germs, especially pathogenic microorganisms.

Front 176

DEFINITIONS
germicide

Back 176

an agent lethal to non-endospore-forming pathogens.

Front 177

DEFINITIONS
glutaraldehyde

Back 177

a yellow acidic liquid used in antimicrobial control. It kills spores.

Front 178

DEFINITIONS
high-efficiency particulate air filters

Back 178

HEPA filters prevents the spread of airbone bacterial and viral organisms.

Front 179

DEFINITIONS
hydrogen peroxide

Back 179

produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals that damage protien and DNA while also decomposing to O2 gas-toxic to anaerobes; antiseptic at low concentrations; strong solutions are sporicidal

Front 180

DEFINITIONS
idophors

Back 180

Most common iodine for skin and mucous membranes as antiseptic; also disinfectant for equipment and surfaces.

Front 181

DEFINITIONS
ionizing radiation

Back 181

radiant energy consisting of short-wave electromagnetic rays (xrays) or high-speed electrons that cause dislodgmentof electrons on target molecules and create ions.

Front 182

DEFINITIONS
irradiation

Back 182

the application of radiant energy for diagnosis, therapy, disinfection, or sterilization.

Front 183

DEFINITIONS
least resistance

Back 183

least resistance

Front 184

DEFINITIONS
lyophiliztion

Back 184

freeze-drying; the seperation of a dissolved solid from the solvent by freezing the solution and evacuating the solvent under vacuum. A means of preserving the viability of cultures.

Front 185

DEFINITIONS
microbicide

Back 185

substance that kills microbes, such as viruses and bacteria.

Front 186

DEFINITIONS
moderate resistance

Back 186

moderate resistance

Front 187

DEFINITIONS
nonionizing radiation

Back 187

electromagnetic radiation that does not carry enough energy; ultraviolet light, visible light, microwave, radio waves, intrared light

Front 188

DEFINITIONS
oligodynamic action

Back 188

a chemical having antimicrobial activity in minuscule amounts.

Front 189

DEFINITIONS
pasteurization

Back 189

heat treatment of perishable fluids to destroy heat sensative vegetative cells, followed by rapid chillin to inhibit growth of survivors and germination of spores.

Front 190

DEFINITIONS
phenol

Back 190

low to intermediate level germicide; bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal, not sporicidal.

Front 191

DEFINITIONS
phenolics

Back 191

disrupt cell walls and membranes and precipitate protiens

Front 192

DEFINITIONS
pyrimidine dimers

Back 192

the union of two adjacent pyrimidines on the same DNA strand, brought about by exposure to ultraviolet light; its a form of mutation.

Front 193

DEFINITIONS
quats

Back 193

detergents that are only weakly microbicidal and are used as sanitizers and preservatives.

Front 194

DEFINITIONS
radiation

Back 194

electromagnetic waves or xrays.

Front 195

DEFINITIONS
sanitization

Back 195

cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from inanimate surfaces

Front 196

DEFINITIONS
surfactants

Back 196

a surface-active agent that forms a water-soluble interface.

Front 197

DEFINITIONS
thermal death point

Back 197

the lowest temperature that achieves sterilization upon a 10 minute exposure.

Front 198

DEFINITIONS
thermal death time

Back 198

the least time required to kill all cells of a culture at a specific temperature.

Front 199

DEFINITIONS
thermoduric

Back 199

resistant to the harmful effects of high temperature.

Front 200

DEFINITIONS
tinctures

Back 200

a medicinal susbtance dissolved in an alcoholic solvent.

Front 201

DEFINITIONS
tyndallization

Back 201

fractional (discontinued, intermittent) sterilization designed to destroy spores inderectly.

Front 202

DEFINITIONS
uv radiation

Back 202

radiation with an effective wavelength from 240 nm to 260 nm. induces mutations readily but has very poor penetrating power.

Front 203

DEFINITIONS
virucide

Back 203

a chemical agent that inactivates viruses, especially in living tissue