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203 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The use of an organism's biochemical processes to create a product is
Which of the following is a serious concern when performing PCR?
introduction and amplification of contaminating DNA
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields except
None of the choices; it is useful for all these fields
DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called
All of the following are characteristics that make plasmids good cloning vectors except
they can accept a relatively large amount of foreign DNA
The commercial product Frostban contains a genetically engineered strain of
Pseudomonas syringae
When DNA is heated to just below boiling (90C - 95C),
the two DNA strands separate
A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is
gel electrophoresis.
All of the following are desirable features in a microbial cloning host except it
has a slow growth rate.
Which of the following drugs is produced by genetic engineering and approved for human use?
All of the choices are correct
The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of
another organism is a specific technique called
recombinant DNA technology
When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is
gene therapy
The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called
genetic engineering
Transgenic animals
All of the choices are correct
Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?
heat target DNA to 94C
Which of the following is less subject to degradation than is chromosomal DNA and is used as an evolutionary time clock?
mitochondrial DNA
Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are
gene probes
The Southern Blot technique detects
This is often used in forensic science to distinguish one sequence of DNA from another by comparing the sequence of the strands at specific loci:
DNA fingerprinting
Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves
All of the choices are correct
Recombinant strains of this organism are released to colonize plant roots to produce an insecticide to destroy invading insects:
Pseudomonas fluorescens
Which step involves transformation?
cloning host takes up a plasmid
Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are
The Western Blot technique detects
The primers in PCR are
synthetic DNA oligonucleotides
Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are
sources of heat stable DNA polymerases
Both DNA sequencing and polymerase chain reactions require special ___ to initiate synthesis of a new DNA molecule.
The fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of
specific genetic marker sequence on genes
EcoRI and HindIII are
restriction endonucleases
All of the following are correct about DNA fingerprinting except
it cannot be used on specimens older than 5 years
DNA polymerases used in PCR
include Taq polymerases and Vent polymerase
In order to ensure compatibility between the target DNA and the plasmid DNA
target DNA and plasmid are treated with the same restriction endonuclease
Which of the following methods determines which genes are actively transcribed in a cell under a variety of conditions?
microarray analysis
The function of the dideoxy (dd) nucleotides that are used in the Sanger method of DNA sequencing is to
incorporate into newly replicated DNA strands and stop elongation.
Which technique will hopefully be used to identify and devise treatments for diseases based on the genetic profile of the disease?
microarray analysis
Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to
gamma rays and X rays
All the following are correct about detergents except
they are active in the presence of organic matter
Which of the following is officially accepted as a sterilant and high-level disinfectant?
All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except
Which of the following types of agents targets protein conformation?
All of the following are benefits of food irradiation except
it makes the food less nutritious
The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is
The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
vegetative bacteria and fungi
Which control method would not be a suitable choice for killing mycobacteria in a capped culture tube?
ultraviolet (germicidal) light
Historically, which of the following was instilled into the eyes of newborn infants to prevent gonococcal
silver nitrate
Which of the following is being used to replace hypochlorites in treating water because of the possibility of cancer-causing substances being produced?
Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is
All of the following are correct about food irradiation except
the World Health Organization does not endorse this process.
The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens is
All of the following are phenols or phenolics except
Ethylene oxide is
All of the following are correct about the autoclave except
it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances
Which is mismatched?
Merthiolate - silver
Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?
The shortest time required to kill all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the
thermal death time (TDT)
The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial
endospores is
The chemical agent that produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals and also decomposes to O2 gas is
hydrogen perioxide
Dry heat
is less efficient than moist heat
Sterilization is achieved by
steam autoclave
Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by
Iodophors include
Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all the following except
hydrogen peroxide
All of the choices are correct
HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from
The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is
Which of the following does not contain a heavy metal?
tincture of iodine
Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?
cells in a culture die at a constant rate
Microbiological contaminants are best described as
unwanted microbes present on or in a substance
Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic?
aqueous glutaraldehyde
Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?
bacterial endospores
All of the following are correct about allergic reactions to drugs except
allergic reactions generally will occur the first time a person takes the drug
A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the
therapeutic index (TI)
Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?
Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem
Antimicrobics effective against only gram positive bacteria would be termed
narrow-spectrum drugs
Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?
The drug used against intestinal anaerobic bacteria, that can also alter normal flora causing antibioticassociated
colitis is
Which of the following is not a mode of action of antivirals?
bond to ergosterol in the cell membrane
Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?
Salvarsan was
used to treat syphilis
This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis
Drug susceptibility testing
determines the pathogen's response to various antimicrobics
The drug used for several protozoan infections is
Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include
All of the choices are correct
Gram negative rods are often treated with
An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that
blocks DNA replication
Which antimicrobic does not inhibit cell wall synthesis?
Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?
All of the choices are correct
A superinfection results from
decrease in most normal flora with overgrowth of an unaffected species
There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because
these organisms
are so similar to human cells that drug selective toxicity is difficult
All of the following could be reasons why antimicrobic treatment fails except
a disk diffusion test showing pathogen sensitivity to the antimicrobic
Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?
Penicillins and cephalosporins
block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules
Antibiotics are derived from all the following except
Mebendazole, niclosamide, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat ___ infections.
Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat
Antimicrobics that are macrolides
include azithromycin, clarithromcyin, and erythromycin
Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal flora often cause
Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other
microorganisms are called
All of the following pertain to cephalosporins except
they have a beta-lactam ring
A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobics in broth, then incubates each drug
dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?
A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is
clavulanic acid
All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones except
are nephrotoxic
attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis
All of the following are correct about Tamiflu and Relenza except
they prevent assembly and release of the virus
Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobic drugs include all the following except
development of resistance to the drug
Acyclovir is used to treat
shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes
Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed
broad-spectrum drugs
The most versatile and useful antifungal drug that is used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is
amphotericin B
Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat ___ infections.
The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include
All of the choices are correct
Marion is going to the hospital for a triple bypass operation. She will have general anesthesia, intravenous
catheter, surgical wounds, and a urinary catheter. Which nosocomial infection is she at greatest risk for contracting?
urinary tract
Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of
The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the
The number of new cases of a disease in a population over a specific period of time compared with the healthy population is the
incidence rate
Which is mismatched?
Secondary infection - infection spreads to several tissue sites
Resident flora are found in/on the
All of the choices are correct.
The subjective evidence of disease sensed by the patient is termed
An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another is a
The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches, is the
prodromal stage
Virulence factors include all the following except
All infectious diseases
are caused by microorganisms or their products
Joe contracted hepatitis A by eating contaminated doughnuts from a local bakery. The source of the disease is ___ and the reservoir is ___.
the doughnut, humans
The human body typically begins to be colonized by its normal flora
during, and immediately after birth.
The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the pathogen is at peak
activity is
period of invasion
Enterotoxins are
All of the choices are correct
A person with which occupation is most at risk for a zoonotic disease?
forest ranger
Which genus is resident flora of the mouth, large intestine, and, from puberty to menopause, the vagina?
Nosocomial infections involve all the following except
they are only transmitted by medical personnel
Infection occurs when
pathogens enter and multiply in body tissues
Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to host are
biological vectors
Local edema, swollen lymph nodes, fever, soreness, and abscesses are indications of
Exotoxins are
Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are
the patient's own normal flora
Which portal of entry is the most commonly used by pathogens?
Resident flora of the intestines include
Which is mismatched?
Coagulase - dissolve fibrin clots
All of the following are signs of infectious diseases except
The principal government agency responsible for tracking infectious diseases in the United States is the
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
Some diseases can be vertically transmitted. This is understood to mean the disease is transmitted
from parent to offspring via milk, ovum, sperm, or placenta
Reservoirs include
All of the choices are correct
All of the following genera are considered resident flora of skin sites except
When would Koch's Postulates be utilized?
To determine the cause of a new disease in a microbiology research lab.
Which is not terminology used for resident flora?
Pathogenic flora
Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a
A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a population is
When a disease occurs occasionally at irregular intervals and random locales, it is referred to as
The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed
Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission?
A mother transmitting syphilis to her fetus.
An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a
If the ID for gonorrhea is 1,000 cells and the ID for tuberculosis is 10 cells, which organism is more
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a solution with a PH value below 7 on the pH scale.
glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde kill by alkylating protein and DNA
a solution with a PH value above 7 on the pH scale.
the prevention of sepsis by antiseptic means; flora of skin and mucous membrane.
chemical applied to body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens
techniques that prevent the entry of microorganisms into sterile tissues
an agent that kills bacteria.
Any process or agent that inhibits bacterial growth.
disinfectant with batericidal, sporicidal, fungicidal and virucidal in vapor form; limited due to toxicity and carcinogenic properties; used to sterilize blood plasma, vaccines, tissue grafts, surgical instruments, and enzymes.
a chemical antiseptic; effective on gram-positive and gram-negative, although less effective on some gram-negative
chlorine dioxide
Disinfectant against water borne pathogens, such as viruses, bacteria, and protozoa.
cold-temperature sterilization
the use of nonheating methods such as coenzumes
cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from living tissue
the loss of normal characteristics resulting from some molecular alteration.
to dry thoroughly.
quaternary ammonia compounds (quats) act as surfactants that alter membrane permeability of some bacteria and fungi
destruction of vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects; not endospores
a process to destroy vegetative pathogens, not endospores; inaimate objects
ethyl alcohol
act as surfactant dissolving membrane lipids and coagulating proteins of vegetative bacterial cells and fungi
ethylene oxide
a potent, highly water-soluble gas invaluable for gaseous sterilization of heat-sensative objects.
disinfectant, preservative, toxicity limit use
a 37% aqueous solution of hormaldehyde gas; potent chemical fixative and microbicide.
a chemical that can kill fungal spores, hyphae, and yeast.
capable of inhibiting the growth of fungi.
an agent that kills germs, especially pathogenic microorganisms.
an agent lethal to non-endospore-forming pathogens.
a yellow acidic liquid used in antimicrobial control. It kills spores.
high-efficiency particulate air filters
HEPA filters prevents the spread of airbone bacterial and viral organisms.
hydrogen peroxide
produces highly reactive hydroxyl-free radicals that damage protien and DNA while also decomposing to O2 gas-toxic to anaerobes; antiseptic at low concentrations; strong solutions are sporicidal
Most common iodine for skin and mucous membranes as antiseptic; also disinfectant for equipment and surfaces.
ionizing radiation
radiant energy consisting of short-wave electromagnetic rays (xrays) or high-speed electrons that cause dislodgmentof electrons on target molecules and create ions.
the application of radiant energy for diagnosis, therapy, disinfection, or sterilization.
least resistance
least resistance
freeze-drying; the seperation of a dissolved solid from the solvent by freezing the solution and evacuating the solvent under vacuum. A means of preserving the viability of cultures.
substance that kills microbes, such as viruses and bacteria.
moderate resistance
moderate resistance
nonionizing radiation
electromagnetic radiation that does not carry enough energy; ultraviolet light, visible light, microwave, radio waves, intrared light
oligodynamic action
a chemical having antimicrobial activity in minuscule amounts.
heat treatment of perishable fluids to destroy heat sensative vegetative cells, followed by rapid chillin to inhibit growth of survivors and germination of spores.
low to intermediate level germicide; bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal, not sporicidal.
disrupt cell walls and membranes and precipitate protiens
pyrimidine dimers
the union of two adjacent pyrimidines on the same DNA strand, brought about by exposure to ultraviolet light; its a form of mutation.
detergents that are only weakly microbicidal and are used as sanitizers and preservatives.
electromagnetic waves or xrays.
cleansing technique that removes microorganisms and debris from inanimate surfaces
a surface-active agent that forms a water-soluble interface.
thermal death point
the lowest temperature that achieves sterilization upon a 10 minute exposure.
thermal death time
the least time required to kill all cells of a culture at a specific temperature.
resistant to the harmful effects of high temperature.
a medicinal susbtance dissolved in an alcoholic solvent.
fractional (discontinued, intermittent) sterilization designed to destroy spores inderectly.
uv radiation
radiation with an effective wavelength from 240 nm to 260 nm. induces mutations readily but has very poor penetrating power.
a chemical agent that inactivates viruses, especially in living tissue