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150 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are
eosinophils
Which of the following is an example of GALT?
Appendixils
This body region is protected by fatty acids, acidic pH, lactic acid, and a tough cell barrier with its own normal flora
skin
Plasma cells
produce and secrete antibodies
All of the following can be recognized by toll-like receptors except
host cell membrane proteins
The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the
respiratory tract
Due to the way the lymph drains from lymph nodes, cell and products of immunity continually
enter the regular circulatory system
Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages?
Monocytes
Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytes?
Thymus
Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the
blood?
spleen
The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed
by
macrophages
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
lysozyme
The key phagocytic cells of the body are the
neutrophils and macrophages
All of the following are correct about lymph except
it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart
Which is incorrect about inflammation?
Pyrogens cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means
redness
Components of the first line of defense include all the following except
phagocytic white blood cells
The contribution of B cells is mainly in
humoral immunity
Nonspecific chemical defenses include
All of the choices are correcty
Plasma
All of the choices are correct
Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?
T cell and B cell responsesect
Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following except
bromine
The reticuloendothelial system
All of the choices are correct
Histamine, serotonin, and bradykinin are all
vasoactive mediators
Hemopoiesis is the
production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves
a ring-shaped protein digests holes in bacterial cell membranes and virus envelopes
Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means
pain
Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?
Lymph nodes
The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as
GALT
Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals?
Prostaglandins
These white blood cells are particularly attracted to sites of parasitic infections
eosinophils
All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained except
monocytes
All of the following pertain to platelets except
they contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
Diapedesis is the
migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues
Juan has influenza and has aches, pains and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take?
Acetaminophen, like Tylenol
Class II MHC genes code for
receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells
Variolation involved using
dried, ground smallpox scabs
In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is
IgM
Lymphocyte maturation involves
All of the choices are correct
The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the
variable region
T cell response to T-cell-dependent antigens requires
All of the choices are correct
Herceptin is an example of a monoclonal antibody-based drug for
breast cancer
An example of artificial passive immunity would be
giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease
Immunotherapy is the
All of the choices are correct
Cody is 4 months old and is given an MMR injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity is this?
Artificial active immunity
In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is
IgG
The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is
IgG
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by
All of the choices are correct
Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except
malaria
An example of artificial active immunity would be
chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox
Which of the following conditions have been conclusively proven to be linked to childhood vaccinations?
None of the choices are correct
Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and
genitourinary pathogens?
IgA
Properties of effective antigens include all the following except
large polymers made up of repeating subunits
Cytotoxic T cells
secrete interleukin-2 to stimulate B and T cells
Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby
disrupting their activity?
Neutralization
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are termed
hapten
Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune
system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen?
Anamnestic response
All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines excepte
they can be transmitted to other people
Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immugenicity and prolongs antigen retention at the injection site?
Adjuvant
The DTaP immunization
All of the choices are correct
Superantigens are
bacterial toxins that activate T cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens
Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates?
Agglutination
The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is called a/an
epitope
Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions
All of the choices are correct
Sam works in construction and stepped on a sharp nail. He can't remember the last time he had a tetanus shot. What type of immunity is the most important for him to receive?
Artificial passive immunity.
Antigen presenting cells
All of the choices are correct
Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
natural killer (NK) cells
The major histocompatability complex is
a set of genes that code for MHC cell receptors
Antitoxins
contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin
Class I MHC genes code for
markers that display unique characteristics of self
The most significant cells in graft rejection are
cytotoxic T cells
Edward Jenner's work involved
immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give protection against a more pathogenic one
When antiserum is subjected to electrophoresis, the gamma globulin band contains mostly
IgG
Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except
chickenpox
Toxoids
contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules
Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines
contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses
All of the following are characteristics of IgM except
it is a dimer
Live, attenuated vaccines
include the measles, mumps, rubella vaccine (MMR)
An example of natural passive immunity would be
a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta
The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is
IgA
The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is
IgE
All of the following characterize the secondary response to an antigen except
it is mostly IgM antibodies that are produced
Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?
IgM and IgG
All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except
they can mutate back to a virulent strain
Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis?
Opsonization
Which of these chemicals is a powerful inflammatory agent that also stimulates uterine contractions?
Prostaglandins
Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category
Type 1 only
This can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B cell survival and maturity
hypogammaglobulinemia
A female who is Rh+
is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status
Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen?
Inhalant
All of the following are correct about Type O blood except
persons with this type of blood carry an O antigen on their RBC
All of the following operate in surveillance and destruction of tumor cells except
B cells
Which is incorrect about DiGeorge syndrome?
The major therapy is a bone marrow transplant
Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen?
Injectant
Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to formation of antigenantibody
complexes that deposit in basement membranes occur in
serum sickness
Which cells play the greatest role in allergic symptoms?
mast cells
The serum of a person with blood type A, Rh- will have which of the following?
anti B
Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by
injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.
A person who has anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type
O
What is the Arthus reaction?
An acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site.
The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are
Type 1, Type 2, Type 3
Which of the following is mismatched?
Inhalant - bee
Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies?
They are found mainly in the lymph nodes.
Contact dermatitis involves
All of the choices are correct
A person with O type blood
lacks A and B antigens
The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of
congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland
Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type I hypersensitivity?
contact dermatitis
Histamine causes all the following except
increased sensitivity to light
The initial encounter with an allergen is called the
sensitizing dose
All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity except
IgE
Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this?
Allograft
Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases except
tuberculin reaction
Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing
desensitization
The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is
leukotriene
Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause
All of the choices are correct
Which event is the process of releasing chemical mediators?
Degranulation
Which of the following can causes secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T cells and B cells?
All of the choices are correct
What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time?
bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils
Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to
a genetic defect in the development of both T cells and B cells
Human blood types involve all the following except
MHC genes
All of the following are examples of autoimmune diseases except
myasthenia gravis
Which is mismatched?
Hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity
A xenograft is a tissue exchange
between individuals of different species
Treatment for agammaglobulinemia is
passive immunotherapy and continuous antibiotic therapy
When grafted tissue such as bone marrow contains passenger lymphocytes what could result?
Graft versus host disease
Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests?
monoclonal antibodies
Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method?
Ouchterlony
The indirect ELISA test detects ___ in a patient's blood.
antibody
All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA except
color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient's serum
The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the ___ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the ___ is its titer.
higher, higher
This test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test:
Western blot
Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients?
RIST
In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the
naked eye
A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates
a current infection
Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection?
Western blot
The lab technician performed a tube agglutination test with a sample of patient serum. What is the titer using the following results:
1/320
Viral hemagglutination testing
All of the choices are correct
A serum titer involves
serially diluting a serum sample
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test?
Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result
Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test:
precipitation
Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in
the Quellung test
All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except
motility
When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called
immunelectrophoresis
Sputum is obtained by
the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system
The physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs? If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen?
The red blood cells will not lyse
This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody:
radioimmunoassay (RIA)
The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine
All of the choices are correct
Precipitation tests involve all the following except
they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection
All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except
the light microscope
Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this?
All of the choices are correct