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98 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
what are the 3 groups of fungi?
yeast
mold
mushrooms (but we don't care)
which mold makes aflatoxin?
aspergillus flavus
who are the most likely pts for opportunistic mycoses?
immunosuppressed
(cancer, transplant, AIDS, autoimmune, DM, long-term hospital)
what are the specific risk factors for mycoses?
inappropriate use of broad spectrum antibiotics
radiation
chemo
corticosteroids
surgery
catheterization
what fungus is the most important one in medicine/dentistry?
candida

what are some features?
normal flora, colonize soon after birth
held in check by natural defenses
may become opportunistic
what is thermal dimorphic conversion?
yeast at 37° (body)
mold at 25° (lab)
what is the fungus if you see yeast w/in a macrophage?
histoplasma capsulatum
if you see "encapsulated yeast" what is it?
cryptococcus
what is a germ tube?
what is it for?
elongated appendage growing from yeast cell

adherence
penetration (proteases)
what are hyphae?
long strand or filament of cells
which fungus has septate hyphae?
which 2 have nonseptate?
sepatate - aspergillus
nonseptate - mucor & rhizopus
which 2 fungi are assoc w/ DM?
rhizopus
mucor
what does mycelium refer to?
mat of hyphae
what is a spoangiospore?
conidium?
sporangiophore?
conidiophore?
sporangiospore = w/in sporangium (produced w/in the sac)

conidium = from conidiophore - open & not enclosed in sac

sporangiophore = stalk that bears sporangium

conidiophore = hypha branch that bears conidia
arthroconidia
blastoconidia
chlamydoconidium
arthro = hypha fragmenting
blasto = by budding
chlamydo = swollen hypha; linked to survival in adverse environment
microconidium - what is 1 example?
macroconidium - what is 1 example?
micro = unicellular –– trichophyton
macro = multicellular –– microsporum
what are the 4 types of mycoses?
examples (i.e. the ones Dr Jensen pointed out)?
systemic (=endemic) –– cocci
subcutaneous –– sporotrichosis & mycetoma
dermato- (=superficial) –– thrush & dermatophytes
opportunistic –– candidiasis & cryptococcus
are toxogenic virulence factors assoc. w/ mycosis?
no
(e.g. no exotoxins or endotoxins)
what are the virulence attributes of candida?
•biofilms (adherence)
•germ tubes & hyphae for tissue invasion
•extracellular enzymes to break down tissue
lab id considerations

are most fungi aerobes or anaerobes?

mold vs. yeast - which grows rapidly? which takes weeks to mature?

what do lab workers need to be careful about?
aerobes

yeast grows rapidly
mold may take weeks to mature

avoid inhaling spores
what are 2 common media for ID of fungi?
sabouraud agar (SDA)
potato dextrose agar (PDA)
what 4 things do antifungals target?
which one is most commonly targeted?
•cytoplasmic membrane sterols (most common = -azole)
•cell wall components
•NA & protein synthesis
•mitotic spindle formation
pathogenesis of superficial candidiasis:
who gets mucosal infections?
who gets skin infections?

what does candidal paronychia refer to?

what do you see w/ systemic?
mucosal - immunosuppressed, contraceptives, antibiotic use

skin - elderly & obese

candidal paronychia = inflammation around nails

systemic - respiratory, UTI, candidemia
what is a "true pathogen"?
causes disease in healthy host, more severe disease in immune compromised host
what pts are susceptible to opportunistic mycoses?
immunosuppressed
smoking
pregnancy
age
diabetes
which fungi cause opportunistic mycoses?
ANY fungus found in nature may give rise to opportunistic mycoses!

we learned about candidiasis, cryptococcosis, aspergillosis, PCP
what are the 3 most common candida infections?
c. albicans / c. dubliniensis
c. tropicalis

why is it important to distinguish b/w albicans & dubliniensis?
need to know for treatment – dubliniensis is more resistant to azoles
which candida is most resistant to azoles?
c. glabrata

what else is special about glabrata?
it is the only species that forms ONLY yeast cells (no 2° structures)
which 2 candida species form germ tubes?
albicans & dubliniensis
how are pseudohyphae produced?
produced when budding cells fail to detach from each other
why is sputum not useful for candida diagnosis?
candida is NORMAL FLORA
why is chromagar useful for diagnosis of candida?

what other media are used?
each species will grow as a differently colored colony. it is selective & differential

SDA, PDA, routine bacteriological media
which sugar is the most cariogenic? why?
sucrose
it's a substrate for lactic acid fermentation
used by s. mutans ⇒ glucan ⇒ adherence
what are the 4 factors in development of caries?
plaque microorganisms
host factors (teeth, saliva, hygiene)
time
diet (carbs as substrate)
which yeast prefers CSF?
cryptococcus neoformans

what is the resultant disease?
meningoencephalitis (fever, HA, stiff neck, ∆ mental status) = fatal
why is cryptococcus gattii scary?
it is an emerging infection that affects immunocompetent

where is it found?
pacific NW
what medium differentiates b/w cryptococcus gattii & neoformans in the lab?
use CGB medium
(canavanine glycine bromothymol blue)

what should you see?
gattii ⇒ color ∆ to blue
neoformans ⇒ color stays yellow
what happens w/ inhlation of aspergillus?
how about ingestion?
inhale ⇒ severe allergic reaction
ingest ⇒ mycotoxicosis, hepatocellular & colon carcinomas
what are the infective & replicative forms of pneumocystis jiroveci?
infective = cysts

replicative = trophozoite
what does a + test result mean for pnyeumocystis?
+ results ≠ definitive dx
b/c ~20% of population carries
what fungus is erythema nodosum assoc. with?
coccidioides

is it good or bad?
good prognosis

means the pt's CMI is working
what stain is used w/ cocci?
PAS
name the region for the following:
coccidioides
histoplasmosis
blastomyces
paracoccidioides brasiliensis
cocci = SW
histo = Ohio & Mississippi river valley
blastomyces = Ohio & Mississippi river valley
p. brasil = Andes mountains
which fungus has a "broad-based" bud?
blastomyces dermititidis
what is the role of each of the following, with respect to dental caries?
actinomyces viscosus
veillonella
s. mutans
lactobacillus spp.
actinomyces viscosus = implicated in root surface caries
veillonella = ANTIcariogenic
s. mutans = initiaition of caries
lactobacillus spp. = progression of caries
what is a the virulence factor given for s. mutans?
glucosyltransferase

what does it do?
sucrose ⇒ glucan ⇒ adhere to tooth surface
what shift in bacteria occurs w/ periodontal disease?
increase # of gram – bacteria

also more anaerobic b/c pockets create a good environment for them
which oral cavity bug is black pigmented?
porphyromonas gingivalis

what disease is it assoc. with?
chronic periodontitis
which 2 bugs are assoc. w/ aggressive periodontitis?
capnocytophaga spp.
aggregatiobacter acinomycetemcomitans

who gets aggressive periodontitis?
it's rare
young patients
F>M
Asian, West Africans
assoc. w/ immune deficiencies
familial clusters
how are caries diagnosed?
by a dentist. here is what they look for:

visual - white spot on enamel (early),
fissure lesions (often brown),
root lesions (leathery),
cavitation
quantitative light-induced fluorescence

tactile - probe for texture
how does fluoride help your teeth?
makes minerals less soluble in acid
promotes remineralization
messes w/ bacterial membrane permeability & metabolism

what happens w/ too much fluoride while teeth are developing?
fluorosis
staining/damage to enamel that is permanent
what are the symptoms/characteristics of ANUG?
what is NOT seen?
red, inflammed, shiny, bleeding, uncerating gingiva
pseudomembrane
halitosis
metallic taste
pain

NO lymph nodes, fever, malaise

what are the 3 components of dx of ANUG?
fusobacteria
spirochetes
leukocytes
what is noma?
extremely severe form of ANUG

what pts get it?
young kids <10yo in developing nations

seen w/ malnourishment & recent infection (viral or TB)
what are the 4 dentoalveolar infections?
•dentoalveolar abscess
•ludwig's angina
•periodontal abscess
•cervicofacial actinomycosis
what are the most common causes of dentoalveolar abscesses?
prevotella
porphyromonas
fusobacterium

what is the tx?
drain pus & remove source of infections
antibiotics if fever present
what are the causes of ludwig's angina?
it's polymicrobial:
prevotella
porphyromonas
fusobacterium
anaerobic streptococci

what is a unique feature (vs. caries and all that other junk)?
PAIN
what disease has gritty pus?
cervicofacial actinomycosis

what is the ds assoc with?
what is the treatment?
assoc w/ trauma or invasive oral procedures

tx: surgical drainage, long-term penicillin
what is a herpetic whitlow?
finger lesion seen w/ 1° herpes infection
what bug forms "molar tooth colonies" on BAP at 37°?
what is the micro morphology?
actinomyces israelii - gram + branched bacilli

what is the ds it is assoc with?
cervicofacial actinomycosis
what are the % + serum for HSV 1 & 2?
what is the significance?
~80% + for HSV1
~20% + for HSV2

serology isn't useful for dx
what 3 things are in the HSV envelope?
attachment proteins
fusion proteins
structural proteins
where do latent HSV infections occur?
persist in neurons
esp. trigeminal ganglion
what is seen w/ HHV3?
VZV reactivation
sharp line of demarcation, esp midline
what 4 clinical diseases did we learn for coxsackie A?
•herpangina (vesicular, ulcerated lesions around soft palate/uvula)
•hand-foot-and-mouth ds (vesicular lesions)
•aseptic meningitis
•gastroenteritis

what are the characteristics of this virus?
enterovirus
+ssRNA
small, no envelope
icosahedral capsid
what is the epidemiology of coxsackie A?
summer
kids
poor sanitation & crowding
humans only
fecal-oral route
what are the 3 vaccines for rotavirus & what are their characteristics?
•rotashield - live attenuated
from rhesus monkey
removed from market due to intussusception

•rotarix - live attenuated
monovalent GI strain
2 doses over 2 months

•rotateq - live attenuated
5 reassorted viruses (human, bovine)
G1-4 & L1A
3 doses (2,4,6mo)
who is susceptible to rotavirus?
what season?
size of inoculum?
kids <2yo
winter (spreads from W→E of US, from Oct→April)
small inoculum
what bug is enterotoxin NSP4 associated with?

what does it do?
rotavirus

enterotoxin NSP4 mobilizes Ca2+ from ER → enterocyte loses H2O & electrolytes
what are the characteristics of rotavirus?
dsRNA in a non-enveloped icosahedral capsid
segmented genome (11)
6 structural, 5 non-structural proteins
what are the 4 parts of the 2 receptor model of rotavirus?
1 - virion binds at cell surface receptor
2 - NSP4 produced in cell released into lumen
3 - NSP4 binds at separate specific receptors on adjacent cell
4 - stimulate secretory pathways
what triad is seen w/ rotavirus?
how long does it last?
triad = fever, vomiting, watery diarrhea
lasts 5-7d
what is special about the capsid of enteric adenoviruses?

what serotypes did we discuss?
acid resistant capsid

serotypes 40 & 41
what is seen clinically w/ enteric adenoviruses? how long does it last?
5-12d
diarrhea, fever, vomiting

who gets infected?
infants
what are the features of caliciviruses?
non-enveloped ssRNA
sapporovirus
noroviruses

what ages get infected?
what causes the infection?
kids & adults

seafood & shellfish
what are the features of astroviruses?
ssRNA
star-shape on capsid

what is the epidemiology?
sporadic - no particular season
epidemics in young kids, peds ward, day care, nursing homes
what biochem test is used to identify virbrio?
oxidase: vibrio is +
what are the 2 serotypes of cholera?
O1
O139

after infection with O1, is pt immune to O139?
no, O139 can still cause disease
what is the best way to prevent cholera?
proper sewage control - infection occurs when it gets into drinking water
what is cholera cultured on? why?
TCBS
(thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose)
provides them w/ a high pH environment, favoring vibrios over everything else
bile salts kill off any non-GI bugs
where do vibrio parahaemolyticus infections originate?
raw/undercooked shellfish

what are the symptoms?
2-3d watery diarrhea, vomiting, HA, chills, low-grade fever
what bug is assoc. w/ washer woman's hands?
cholera

what blood type is most susceptible?
O
what does the cholera A-B exotoxin do?
↑cAMP ⇒ hypersecretion of H2O
what is the result of the rice water stools seen w/ cholera?
severe dehydration
hypovolemic shock
metabolic acidosis
death
which bug is assoc. w/ oysters?
vibrio vulnificus

what 3 types of infections are seen?
1 - wound
2 - sepsis (pt has underlying liver problem)
3 - acute self-limiting diarrhea

ALL go with oysters
how does shiga toxin act?
disrupts protein synthesis
cleaves 28S rRNA of 60s subunit
endothelial damage
may activate macrophage apoptosis
what would be seen in a microscopic exam of feces in a shigella case?
sigmoidoscopic exam?
feces - PMNs & RBCs

sigmoid colon - shigellosis diffuse involvement of mucosa, multiple shallow ulcers
amoeba - focal pattern of ulcers
what is the most important prevention for shigella?
hand washing
how infectious is shigella?
salmonella?
shigella is highly infectious - 200 can cause ds

salmonella is less infectious - need a high dose
what differentiates shigella & salmonella from e. coli?
shigella and salmonella are lactose NON-fermenting
what are the sx of shigella?
range from moderate diarrhea to severe dysentery

initial sx: fever, cramps, vomting, watery diarrhea

progression to dysentery is classic
what is reiter's syndrome?
complication of shigella

non-specific acute inflammatory arthritis
strong assoc. w/ HLA-B27
what are the 4 types of salmonella infections?
1 - gastroenteritis - 12-48hr incubation, sudden onset, fever, chills, cramps, diarrhea, vomiting; 2-3d duration
2 - bacteremia or septicemia w/o GI sx
3 - enteric fever
4 - carrier state
what is the source of salmonella?

why is incidence increasing?
food (animal origin) & water

changes in food processing
changing consumer preferences
changes in animal husbandry
which cells do shigella & salmonella infect?
shigella - M cells, via O Ag-induced endocytosis

salmonella - M & epithelial cells
what is the function of phoPQ-controlled genes?
allow for salmonella's intra-phagocyte survival
what lab feature identifies s. typhimurium?
produces H2S
black color
what is seen in fecal matter w/ salmonella?
leukocytes present
macrophages > PMNs
what 4 things are necessary for salmonella prevention?
clean
separate
cook
refrigerate