Micro Exam 3

Front 1

What Streptococcus pyogenes enzyme can lyse blood clots and fibrin deposits?

Back 1

Streptokinase

Front 2

What S. pyogenes enzyme prevents the recruitment of phagocytic cells?

Back 2

C5a peptidase

Front 3

How is S. pyogenes transmitted?

Back 3

Crowding and respiratory droplets

Front 4

Is it difficult to differentiate strep throat from viral infection?

Back 4

Yes, without serological or bacteriologic test

Front 5

What genetic transfer leads to scarlet fever?

Back 5

Complication of strep pharyngitis, bacteriophage causes bacteria to produce pyrogenic exotoxin

Front 6

What is the appearance of the tongue with scarlet fever?

Back 6

White tongue coating to “strawberry tongue”

Front 7

What is the appearance of impetigo (pyoderma)?

Back 7

Vesicles to pustules to crusting in subcutaneous tissue of the face, arms and legs, straw colored, occurs especially near the nose

Front 8

What are the S. pyogenes infections of the skin?

Back 8

Toxic shock
Necrotizing fasciitis
Strep pharyngitis
Scarlet fever
Pyoderma/Impetigo
Erysipelas
Cellulitis
Rheumatic fever

Front 9

What are characteristics of Strep toxic shock syndrome?

Back 9

• 45% mortality
• Soft tissue inflammation, pain, fever, chills, malaise, vomiting, diarrhea.
• Pain intensifies as disease progresses to shock and organ failure.
• Strep can be isolated from blood.
• At risk: immunocompromised, drug and alcohol users, cancer and heart pts.
• Can spread throughout the body
• Treated with penicillin

Front 10

What is the S. pyogenes infection of heart valves?

Back 10

Rheumatic Fever

Front 11

What drug is administered for Strep infections if the patient is allergic to penicillin?

Back 11

Erythromycin or oral cephalosporin

Front 12

Newborns are at risk for septicemia and meningitis if the mother is carrying __________ in the vagina?

Back 12

S. agalactiae/Group B Strep (GBS)

Front 13

If a woman is positive, she should be treated with intravenous ________ 4 hours before birth.

Back 13

IV Penicillin G

Front 14

What Strep bacteria is associated with inner ear infections?

Back 14

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Front 15

What structure on the bacteria makes it resistant to phagocytosis?

Back 15

capsule

Front 16

What are the characteristics of Strep. pneumoniae associated pneumonia?

Back 16

Most common strain that causes pneumonia.
Bacteria replicate in alveolar space, neutrophils and macrophages accumulate, resolution occurs after Abs are made to capsule, abrupt onset of severe chills, fever, blood-tinged sputum. Mortality rate 5%

Front 17

What valent vaccines are available for infants and adults?

Back 17

For pneumonia:
Infants: 7-valent conjugate vaccine
Adults: 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine

Front 18

What is the name of the virus that caused smallpox?

Back 18

Variola

Front 19

What vaccine was used to eradicate smallpox?

Back 19

Vaccinia

Front 20

Where is the smallpox rash abundant?

Back 20

Face, extremities.
Sparse on torso.

Front 21

What is the reservoir for smallpox?

Back 21

Human host

Front 22

What kind of vaccine is the smallpox vaccine?

Back 22

Single serotype

Front 23

What is characteristic of the molluscum contagiosum nodules?

Back 23

Common among children in the tropics.

Papules to pearly, umbilicated nodules, 2-10mm in diameter, central caseous plug that can be expressed, usually found in clusters (5-20), cytoplasmic inclusions

Front 24

Can molluscum be sexually transmitted?

Back 24

yes

Front 25

What is considered the most common sexually transmitted entity?

Back 25

HPV

Front 26

What virus is responsible for genital warts?

Back 26

HPV

Front 27

What is the histology associated with HPV infected cells? (Pap smear slide)

Back 27

Exfoliated cervicovaginal cells, perinuclear cytoplasmic vacuolization termed koilocytosis
Has no inclusions

Front 28

What kind of vaccine is the HPV vaccine?

Back 28

Subunit protein, inactivated

Front 29

Is herpes simplex enveloped or naked? Is the genome DNA or RNA?

Back 29

Enveloped, DNA

Front 30

What is the site of latency for herpes simplex?

Back 30

Neurons - dorsal root ganglion

Front 31

What disease is associated with herpes simplex 1 and 2?

Back 31

HSV-1:
Encephalitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Esophagitis
Tracheobronchitis
Gladiatorum
HSV-2:
Meningitis
Perianal
Neonatal
Both:
Pharyngitis
Whitlow
Oral
Genital

Front 32

What is the portal of entry for VZV?

Back 32

Droplets from sneezing enter mucosa of upper respiratory track

Front 33

What disease is associated with VZV?

Back 33

Chicken pox, Shingles

Front 34

What is the recurrent form of VZV?

Back 34

Shingles

Front 35

What is the site of latency for VZV?

Back 35

Neuron, in nerve roots

Front 36

What herpes virus is associated with organ transplantation complications?

Back 36

Cytomegalovirus/CMV

Front 37

What herpes virus causes retinitis in AIDS patients?

Back 37

Cytomegalovirus/CMV

Front 38

What is the site of latency for CMV?

Back 38

T cells, macrophages

Front 39

What herpes virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis?

Back 39

EBV

Front 40

What is the site of latency for EBV?

Back 40

B cell

Front 41

What herpes virus is associated with roseola?

Back 41

HHV6, HHV7

Front 42

What is the leading cause of viral congenital defects today?

Back 42

CMV

Front 43

What herpes virus is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma?

Back 43

HHV8

Front 44

What diseases are associated with enterococcus?

Back 44

UTI, peritonitis, endocarditis (nosocomial)

Front 45

What virulence factors are associated with anthrax?

Back 45

Protective Antigen (PA) Edema Factor (EF) Lethal Factor (LF), and capsule

Front 46

The lethal toxin causes macrophages to release _________.

Back 46

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

Front 47

What is the appearance of the lesion in cutaneous anthrax?

Back 47

Painless papule progressing into an ulcer, painful lymphadenopathy, massive edema

Front 48

Do lymph nodes swell in response to ocular anthrax?

Back 48

yes

Front 49

Is gastrointestinal anthrax deadly?

Back 49

Yes, near 100% mortality rate

Front 50

What bacteria causes fried rice associated food poisoning?

Back 50

Bacillus cereus

Front 51

What bacteria can grow on cold cuts in the refrigerator?

Back 51

Listeria monocytogenes/human listeriosis

Front 52

Pregnant women are told to avoid ___________ cheese and deli meats to avoid complications with ____________.

Back 52

Unpasteurized, human listeriosis

Front 53

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is an occupational ______________ disease.

Back 53

zoonotic

Front 54

What pathogen causes marked swelling of the parotid glands?

Back 54

mumps

Front 55

What risks are associated with Mumps infection?

Back 55

Contagious period is before symptoms occur, asymptomatic shedding, may be associated with juvenile diabetes, very serious in immunocompromised people

Front 56

Who is at risk for congenital rubella infection?

Back 56

Those born to mothers with rubella during pregnancy

Front 57

What are Koplik spots?

Back 57

Spots on the mucosa of the mouth that are specific to measles and precede the measles rash, but may be seen for the first day or two after rash appears

Front 58

What causes the measles rash?

Back 58

T cells are destroying the virally infected endothelial cells in the capillary-bleeding of skin

Front 59

What is the portal of entry for the measles?

Back 59

Droplets enter respiratory tract

Front 60

What kind of vaccine is the MMR?

Back 60

Live attenuated vaccine

Front 61

What virus is the most common cause of infantile gastroenteritis?

Back 61

Rotavirus Type A

Front 62

Is there a vaccine available for rotavirus?

Back 62

Yes - Oral vaccine is available for babies at about 1.5 - 2 mos old

Front 63

What virus that can easily contaminate water and food causes sporadic outbreaks of vomiting and diarrhea on cruise ships?

Back 63

Norwalk

Front 64

What is the portal of entry for HIV?

Back 64

Blood, semen, vaginal fluid, pre-ejaculate, or breast milk can transmit HIV.
The four major routes of transmission are unprotected sexual intercourse, contaminated needles, breast milk, and transmission from an infected mother to her baby at birth.

Front 65

What cell is the reservoir for HIV?

Back 65

Macrophages

Front 66

What cell is destroyed by HIV leading to the development of AIDS?

Back 66

T-cells

Front 67

Is HIV an RNA virus or DNA?

Back 67

RNA

Front 68

What kind of chemotherapy is used to treat HIV infections?

Back 68

Antiviral Therapy (NRTI, NNRTI)
Protease Inhibitors
Combination Therapy

Front 69

When are antibodies against HIV present?

Back 69

Per CDC website:
Most people will develop detectable antibodies within 2 to 8 weeks (the average is 25 days). Ninety-seven percent of persons will develop antibodies in the first 3 months following the time of their infection. In very rare cases, it can take up to 6 months to develop antibodies to HIV.

Front 70

What group of individuals have the highest incidence of HIV in the United States?

Back 70

Homosexual males (49%)
Intravenous drug users (26%)
Heterosexuals (9.3%)
Homosexual intravenous drug users (6.4%)
Blood Transfusions (1.3%)
Unknown (8%)
Prostitutes, newborns of HIV mothers, blood and organ transplant recipients before 1985.