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45 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Leadership that is BASED UPON occupying a POSITION in an organization is called: A) informal leadership B) formal leadership C) leadership D) management |
B) formal leadership |
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Six traits that separate leaders from non-leaders are: A) Respectability, trustworthiness, flexibility, self-confidence, intelligence, and sociability B) self-confidence, progression of experiences, influence of others, personal life factors, honesty, and drive C) intelligence, self-confidence, integrity, sociability, and honesty D) drive, desire to lead, honesty, self-confidence, cognitive ability, and knowledge of business |
D) drive desire to lead self-confidence honesty cognitive ability knowledge of business |
ODD SHOCK [w/o the "O's] D = drive D = desire S= self-confidence H = honesty C = cognitive abilities K = knowledge |
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The leadership theory that considers follower readiness as a factor in determining leadership style is called: A) contingency B) path goal C) situational D) charismatic |
C) situational |
The leadership theory that considers follower readiness as a factor in determining leadership style is called: A) contingency B) path goal C) situational D) charismatic
Hersey, Blanchard, and Johnson's (2008) situational leadership theory addresses follower readiness as a factor in determining leadership style and considers task behavior and relationship behavior as two important aspects of leadership. Follower readiness, called maturity, is assessed in order to select one of the four leadership styles for a given situation.
4 Leadership Styles: • telling leadership style • selling leadership style • participating leadership style • delegating leadership style
Text: Chapter 1, pg 10 |
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A leader who focuses on the day-to-day operations of the unit or department & short-term goals is considered a: A) transformational leader B) charismatic leader C) transactional leader D) autocratic leader |
C) transactional leader |
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Which of the following motivation theories and models contains collective decision-making, long-term employment, use of quality circles, and holistic concern and mentoring? A) theory X B) theory Y C) theory Z D) McClellands model |
C) theory Z |
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Benner's model of Novice to Expert (1984) is based on how many levels of experience? A) five B) six C) seven D) four |
A) five
Rationale: novice, advanced beginner, competent nurse, proficient nurse, expert nurse |
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A full-time employee works how many hours per year? A) 1,040 B) 2,080 C) 1,664 D) 1,872 |
B) 2,080
Rationale: 40 hrs x 52 wk/year = 2080 hours |
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A nurse is doing patient charting. This activity is considered ______________. A) direct care B) productive time C) indirect care D) nonproductive time |
C) indirect care |
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Acuity data and Nursing Hours Per Patient Day (NHPPD) are concrete parameters that are used primarily for: A) benchmarking B) adjusting staffing levels C) developing Nursing budget D) review of patient care outcomes |
B) adjusting staffing levels |
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You are a nursing manager on an inpatient medical-surgical unit. How many Full Time Employers per day would you need if your target NHPPD was eight, and you expected to have 22 patients on your 24 bed unit? A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 26 |
B) 22 |
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You are a perioperative nurse in a small rural hospital and have just received your schedule for the upcoming month. You are dismayed to find that you seem to be scheduled to work on the one day you requested off in order to attend an event at your son's elementary school. Whose responsibility is it to schedule staff and him should you talk to about this? A) staff members themselves B) nursing staffing office C) nurse manager D) director of nursing |
C) nurse manager |
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On your inpatient OBGYN unit, the model of patient care delivery consists of a group of patients who are cared for by an RN, an LPN, and a nursing assistive personnel (NAP). This patient care model is called: A) functional Nursing B) team Nursing C) total patient care D) primary nursing |
B) team Nursing |
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In which model of care delivery is the focus on the patient's needs rather than staff needs? A) primary B) patient-centered C) total patient care D) modular |
B) patient-centered |
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The concept of ___________ does not work well when applied to healthcare, because the general rule that when the price of an item or service goes up, the demand goes down, does not necessarily apply to the public demand for (or their belief in their right to obtain) a healthcare item or service. A) Price elasticity B) scarcity C) economic D) cost maximization |
A) Price elasticity |
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A ____________________ business has no stockholders. A) for-profit B) not-for-profit C) monopoly D) fiefdom |
B) not-for-profit |
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______________ is responsible for the administration of Medicare and Medicaid. A) The health care financing administration (HCFA) B) social security department C) tax equity and fiscal responsibility act (TEFRA) D) Congress |
A) The health care financing administration (HCFA) |
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A budget that outlines anticipated revenue and expenses over a specified time period is called: A) operational B) capital C) construction D) accounting |
A) operational |
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Gas, electricity, and telephone costs are considered: A) fixed cost B) variable costs C) direct expenses D) indirect expenses |
D) indirect expenses |
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In the budget preparation phase, obtaining information regarding a competitor's performance is considered: A) demographic information B) regulatory influences C) strategic initiatives D) competitive analysis |
D) competitive analysis |
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A payment classification system used for reimbursement of health care cost by Medicare is: A) managed care contracts B) penetration rate revenue C) diagnosis related groups D) length of stay records |
C) diagnosis related groups (DRGs) |
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Estimate of cost for turnover per nurse can equate up to: A) $24,000 B) $43,000 C) $67,000 D) $72,000 |
C) $67,000 |
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A _____________ is a plan that provides formal quantitative expressions for the acquisition and disbursement of monies over a specified period of time. A) accounting B) budget C) mission D) vision |
B) budget |
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Nurse Z has been assigned to care for Mrs. D, a trauma patient with bilateral femoral spiral fractures and a torn spleen, which was removed 2 days ago. Mrs. D confides to Nurse Z that she agreed to an advance directive when she entered the hospital, but now she's not so sure that this is what she wants. Mrs. D asks if this is normal for her to feel this way. Which element of the University of Colorado hospital model should Nurse Z consider first in this situation? A) clinical expertise B) benchmarking data C) patient preferences D) quality improvement and risk data |
C) patient preferences |
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"The ___________ model provides a way for the nurse to organize information needed not only to care for the patient, but also to evaluate the care provided." A) model for improvement B) University of Colorado hospital C) Mayo Clinic D) Samaritan hospital quality practice |
B) University of Colorado hospital |
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PDSA is: A) A national quality improvement campaign B) process, demonstrate, supervisor, and analyze C) an acronym for an EBP model D) A type of quality improvement outcome that is part of the 100,000 lives campaign |
C) an acronym for an EBP model |
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A _____________ is a plan that provides formal quantitative expressions for the acquisition and disbursement of monies over a specified period of time. A) accounting B) budget C) mission D) vision |
B) budget |
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"The ___________ model provides a way for the nurse to organize information needed not only to care for the patient, but also to evaluate the care provided." A) model for improvement B) University of Colorado hospital C) Mayo Clinic D) Samaritan hospital quality practice |
B) University of Colorado hospital |
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A key benefit of adopting quality improvement methods and principles are: A) empowering staff and provide an outlet for critical thinking B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction C) decreasing unnecessary expenses from lost business, and helping customers think you care about them D) involving staff in how work is planned and done, and increasing the customer's perception that you care about them by designing processes that need the provider's needs |
B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction |
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To increase the ability to predict the effect that one or more changes would have if they were implemented is a goal of: A) FOCUS B) QA C) PDSA D) risk management |
C) PDSA |
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A sentinel event is: A) a major change in patient status B) an unexpected incident involving a death or serious physical or psychological injury to a patient C) a way to identify processes for improvement based on analysis of care over a long period of time D) an occurrence involving a sentinel or someone who is watching |
B) an unexpected incident involving a death or serious physical or psychological injury to a patient |
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An example of an external customer is: A) a staff nurse B) a pharmacist C) the joint commission D) a hospital chaplain |
C) the joint commission |
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Nurse Q has gather data on his patients behaviors and status regarding pain management on his shift. These include: nonverbal behaviors, respiratory rate, and pain rating. Which fees of the PDS a cycle is Nurse Q working under? A) Planning phase B) doing phase C) studying phase D) acting phase |
B) doing phase |
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Philosophies: A) are a way of looking at the world through rose-colored glasses B) are a rational investigation of truth, reality, and human behavior C) are an investigation into behaviors in truth, but not necessarily a reality D) stem from a persons beliefs and opinions, and principles of bioethics |
B) are a rational investigation of truth, reality, and human behavior |
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An example of teaology is: A) do unto others as you would have them do unto you B) murder is always wrong C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it D) a person's character must be developed so that he will be predisposed to be a virtuously |
C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it |
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Beneficence, nonmalficence, fidelity, justice, economy, veracity, and respect for others are all examples of: A) philosophies pertaining to nursing B) ethical dilemmas C) philosophies related to organizational law D) ethical principles and rules |
D) ethical principles and rules |
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A virtuous person, according to Burkart and Daniel (2002), has: A) compassion, discernment, integrity, and trustworthiness B) discernment, compassion, understanding, and empathy C) trustworthiness, integrity, sympathy, and follow the rules D) integrity, compassion, understanding, and makes the best decision that is fair for all |
A) compassion, discernment, integrity, and trustworthiness |
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To increase the ability to predict the effect that one or more changes would have if they were implemented is a goal of: A) FOCUS B) QA C) PDSA D) risk management |
C) PDSA |
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Which is NOT necessarily a characteristic of values ? A) provides a set of rules by which to live B) guide actions and decisions C) hinder problem-solving and give direction to life D) influence how people react to others |
C) hinder problem-solving and give direction to life |
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Nurse X has always maintained that "whatever you think is right, is right" in his personal and professional relationships on your unit. Upon what ethical principle is he basing this kind of decision making? A) beneficence B) nonmalficence C) teaology D) relativism |
D) relativism |
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The duty to do good to others and maintain a balance between those items that may cause harm and those that may cause good is called: A) Fidelity B) nonmaleficence C) beneficence D) veracity |
C) beneficence |
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A key benefit of adopting quality improvement methods and principles are: A) empowering staff and provide an outlet for critical thinking B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction C) decreasing unnecessary expenses from lost business, and helping customers think you care about them D) involving staff in how work is planned and done, and increasing the customer's perception that you care about them by designing processes that need the provider's needs |
B) viewing every problem as an opportunity to improve, and improving staff satisfaction |
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A _____________ is a plan that provides formal quantitative expressions for the acquisition and disbursement of monies over a specified period of time. A) accounting B) budget C) mission D) vision |
B) budget |
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the patient's needs rather than staff needs? A) primary B) patient-centered C) total patient care D) modular |
B) patient-centered |
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An example of teaology is: A) do unto others as you would have them do unto you B) murder is always wrong C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it D) a person's character must be developed so that he will be predisposed to be a virtuously |
C) the achievement of a good C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it |
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An example of teaology is: A) do unto others as you would have them do unto you B) murder is always wrong C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it D) a person's character must be developed so that he will be predisposed to be a virtuously |
C) the achievement of a good C) the achievement of a good outcome justifies using less than desirable means to attain it |
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