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1551 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which instruction sets forth the requirements and procedures for Navy commands to professionalize and develop the Navy Information Assurance Workforce (IAWF)? |
COMNAVCYBERFORINST 5239.1 |
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Which approach is taken by the DoD in relation to Information Assurance (IA)? |
Defense in Depth |
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What is responsible for overseeing and verifying compliance with government IT security regulations and the Department of Defense (DoD) IA policy as it pertains to people? |
NAVCYBERFOR |
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What percent of Echelon II Command Information Officers (CIOs) subordinate commands must be inspected on an annual basis to ensure IA WIP compliance? |
5% |
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How many working days after the inspection outbrief must Echelon II Command Information Officers (CIOs) forward the results of all IA WIP inspections to CYBERFOR? |
10 |
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How many guiding principles support the Navy’s IAWF strategy? |
5 |
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Where must standardized IAWF Mission Essential Tasks Lists (METLs) and readiness assessments be documented for use by the Fleet and Operating Force? |
Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS) |
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Which functions focus on the development, accreditation, operation, management, and enforcement of security capabilities for systems and networks? |
IAWF |
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Who is the official that formally assumes responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk? |
Designated Accrediting Authority (DAA) |
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Which civilian series is normally held by the DAA at the GS 14/15 level? |
2210 |
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Who is the person within a headquarters, acquisition, site, system, etc… who owns the business process and controls funding for the system? |
IA Program Manager (IAPM) |
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Which level must IAPMs be commercially certified up to? |
IAM Level III |
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Which personnel are responsible for the implementation and operation of a DoD Information System (IS) within their environment, enclave, network, or individual computing system level? |
IA Manager (IAM) |
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Which IAM training level are Network Level IAM positions required to train up to? |
II |
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What is the only IAM job that may be carried out on a collateral duty basis? |
Level I IAM |
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The functions of Level I IAMs may be carried out by a higher level authority if the command manpower/personnel structure is less than how many employees? |
25 |
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Which personnel are responsible for the maintenance, defense and operation of DoD IS within their environment, enclave, network, or individual computing system level? |
Information Assurance Technical (IAT) |
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Which personnel are responsible to an IAM for ensuring the appropriate operational IA posture is maintained for command, organization, site, or system? |
IA Officers (IAOs) |
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A contractor may not hold the IAO position for which environment level? |
III |
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Which personnel perform the tasks required to analyze, assess, and document IA capabilities and services of DoD Information Systems to establish compliance with IA requirements, identify vulnerabilities, and quantify risk? |
Certification and Accreditation |
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Who acts as the accreditation representative on the local level and approves all C&A packages that go to the DAA? |
Certification Authority Representative (CAR) |
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Who is the official responsible for performing the comprehensive evaluation of the technical and non-technical security features and safeguards of an IT system, application, or network? |
Certification Authority (CA) |
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Which individual is responsible for overseeing the site accreditation package or process? |
Certification Agent |
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Which individual is responsible for assisting in preparation of the site accreditation package? |
Validator |
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Which personnel use data collected from a variety of CND tools to analyze events? |
CND-A |
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Which personnel test, implement, deploy, maintain, and administer the infrastructure systems that manage the CND-SP network? |
CND Infastructure Support (CND-IS) |
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Which personnel investigate and analyze activities related to cyber incidents within the NE or Enclave? |
CND Incident Responder (CND-IR) |
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Which personnel assess systems and networks within the NE or enclave and identify deviations from acceptable configurations or policy? |
CND Auditor (CND-AU) |
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Who provides Enterprise policy for civilian personnel? |
Assistant Secretary of the Navy for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASN M&RA) |
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Civilian personnel managers and supervisors must ensure that the Commanding Officer’s appointment letter states that a commercial certification is required to meet the requirements of which publication? |
DoD 8570.01-M |
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How many months do IA professionals have to meet commercial certification requirements after they have been hired before being transferred to a job that doesn’t require them? |
6 |
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What provides oversight to IAWF with special focus on education and training? |
CYBERFOR |
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What was established to set standards for National Security Systems? |
Committee for National Security Standards (CNSS) |
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Which publication establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for DoD IA training, certification, and workforce management? |
DoD Directive 8570.01 |
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How often must all authorized users of DoD IS receive IA refresher awareness training? |
Annually |
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The status of the DoD Component IA certification and training shall be monitored and reported as an element of mission readiness and as a management review item per which reference? |
DoD Instruction 8500.02 |
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Who is responsible for coordinating the integration of IA initiatives with other workforce development and sustainment requirements? |
ASD(NII)/DoD CIO |
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Who is responsible for providing web-based access to current IA policies, techniques, requirements and knowledge resources to support life-cycle enhancement of IA workforce functional competencies? |
DISA Director |
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Who is responsible for providing appropriate IA training for the Defense Acquisition Workforce Improvement Act community? |
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics |
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Who is responsible for establishing oversight for approval and coordination of certification development and implementation? |
Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness |
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Who is responsible for developing, coordinating, and promulgating joint doctrine and IA training policies for DoD Joint and Combined operations? |
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff |
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What must the DoD components ensure that all DoD civilian positions and personnel regardless of OPM series or job title with IA functions use as the Position Specialty Code (PSC) in the Defense Civilian Personnel Data System? |
INFOSEC |
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How many major categories is the DoD IA workforce split into? |
2 |
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How many levels do each of the IA workforce categories have? |
3 |
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What provide a means to distinguish between different levels of work? |
Functions |
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What provides verification of an individuals’ knowledge and experience through evaluation and approval based on a set of standards for specific profession or occupations’ functional job levels? |
Certification |
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Which human resources transaction and information system supports civilian personnel operations in the Department of Defense and is designed to support appropriated fund, nonappropriated fund, and local national human resources operations? |
Defense Civilian Personnel Data System (DCPDS) |
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What identifies a DoD civilian position or person with IA functions regardless of OPM job title? |
Position Specialty Code (PSC) |
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What is defined as an authorized user who has access to system control, monitoring, administration, criminal investigation, or compliance functions? |
Privileged User |
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What is defined as an independent and focused threat-based effort by an interdisciplinary, simulated adversary to expose and exploit vulnerabilities to improve the security posture of DoD Information Systems? |
Red Team |
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Which instruction established a DoD cybersecurity program to protect and defend DoD information and information technology? |
DoDI 8500.01 |
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What will be employed to protect, detect, characterize, counter, and mitigate unauthorized activity and vulnerabilities on DoD information networks? |
Cyberspace defense |
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What must be given to all DoD information in electronic format in the appropriate levels that reflects the importance of both information sharing and protection? |
Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability |
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What must be used to ensure strong identification, authentication, and eliminate anonymity in DoD IS and PIT systems? |
Identity Assurance |
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Which instruction must the DoD-wide Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution be managed in accordance with? |
DoDI 8520.02 |
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Which instruction must biometrics that are used in support of identity assurance be managed in accordance with? |
DoDD 8521.01 |
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Who is responsible for monitoring, evaluating, and providing advice to the Secretary of Defense regarding all DoD cybersecurity activities and overseeing the implementation of DoDI 8500.01? |
DoD CIO |
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Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity policies and capabilities are aligned with and mutually supportive of personnel, physical, industrial, information, and operations security policies and capabilities? |
Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I)) |
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Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with in development of cybersecurity-related standards and guidance? |
NIST |
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Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity responsibilities are integrated into processes for DoD acquisition programs, including research and development? |
USD(AT&L) |
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What does the DoD CIO appoint for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Enterprise Information Mission Area (MA) (EIEMA)? |
PAO |
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In what grade or the civilian employee equivalent must the candidate be to be appointed as the Defense IA Security Accreditation Working Group (DSAWG) Chair by the DoD CIO? |
O-6 |
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How often must the DoD CIO conduct an assessment of the DoD Component cybersecurity programs? |
Annually |
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Who develops or acquires solutions that support cybersecurity objectives for use throughout the DoD via the ESSG process? |
DISA Director |
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In accordance with which instruction does the DISA Director ensure the continued development and maintenance of guidance and standards procedures to catalog, regulate, and control the use and management of Internet protocols, data services, and associated ports on DoD networks? |
DoD Instruction 8551.1 |
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In accordance with which publication does the DISA Director develop and provide cybersecurity training and awareness products as well as a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components? |
DoD Directive 8570.01 |
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Who does the DISA Director coordinate with to ensure that command cyber readiness inspection guidance and metrics provide a unity of effort among the security disciplines? |
USD(I) |
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Who assists with acquisition-related agreements, and international cybersecurity and cyberspace defense negotiations and agreements? |
USD(AT&L) |
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The USD(AT&L) must ensure that PIT systems included in acquisition programs are designated, categorized, and have their authorization boundaries defined according to the guidelines that are provided in which reference? |
DoD Instruction 8510.01 |
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Who exercises oversight responsibility for developmental test planning in support of interoperability and cybersecurity programs acquiring DoD IS and PIT systems in accordance with DoDI 5134.17? |
DASD(DT&E) |
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Who coordinates with the DoD CIO to ensure cybersecurity strategies, policies, and capabilities are aligned with overarching DoD cyberspace policy, and are supportive of policies and capabilities relating to the disclosure of classified military information to foreign governments and international organizations in accordance with DoD Directive 8000.01? |
USD(P) |
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Who supports implementation of cybersecurity requirements for effective manning, management, and readiness assessments of the cybersecurity workforce in accordance with DoD Directive 8570.01 and DoD 8570.01-M? |
USD(P&R) |
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Who evaluates or validates security implementation specifications described in DoDI 8500.01? |
DIRNSA/CHCSS |
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Who develops, implements, and manages the cybersecurity program for DoD non-cryptographic SCI systems, including the DoD Intelligence IS (DoDIIS) and JWICS? |
Director, DIA |
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Who appoints the PAO for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Business Mission Area (BMA)? |
Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO) |
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Cybersecurity training and awareness products developed by what will be used to meet the baseline user awareness training that is required by DoD Directive 8570.01? |
DISA |
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Which program ensures that IT can be used in a way that allows mission owners and operators to have confidence in the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT and DoD information, and to make choices based on that confidence? |
Defense cybersecurity |
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What is used by the DoD to address risk management for all DoD ISs and PIT systems? |
NIST SP 800-37 |
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From which perspective does tier one risk management address risk? |
Organizational |
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What provides the Tier 1 risk management governance for the DoD? |
DoD ISRMC |
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Which risk management tier addresses risk from a mission and business process perspective? |
Tier 2 |
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Which risk management tier addresses risk from an IS and PIT system perspective? |
Tier 3 |
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Cybersecurity risk management is planned for and documented in a cybersecurity strategy in accordance with Interim DoD Instruction 5000.02 along with which other reference? |
DoD Instruction 8580.1 |
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What provides a disciplined and structured process that combines IS security and risk management activities into the system development life cycle and authorizes their use within the DoD? |
Risk Management Framework (RMF) |
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How many steps does the Risk Management Framework (RMF) have? |
6 |
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The reciprocal acceptance of DoD and other federal agency and department security authorizations will be implemented in accordance with procedures in which reference? |
DoD Instruction 8510.01 |
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How many conditions must be met for operational resilience? |
3 |
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Transmission of DoD information must be protected through the communications security (COMSEC) measures and procedures established in which reference? |
DoDI 8523.01 |
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COMSEC monitoring and cybersecurity readiness testing will be conducted in accordance with which reference? |
DoD Instruction 8560.01 |
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Which type of model provides people, services, and platforms the ability to discover one another and connect to form new capabilities or teams without being constrained by geographic, organizational, or technical barriers? |
Net-centric |
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What coordinates and facilitates relationships across LE, intelligence, and homeland security communities? |
DoD Cyber Crime Center |
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What is used to ensure strong identification and authentication as well as eliminates anonymity in DoD ISs so that entities’ access and access behavior are visible, traceable, and enable continuous monitoring for LE and cybersecurity? |
Identity assurance |
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Which instruction contains identity assurance policies and procedures regarding identity authentication for ISs? |
DoD Instruction 8520.03 |
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What provide standard cybersecurity, such as boundary defense, incident detection, and response, and key management as well as delivering common applications such as office automation and e-mail? |
Enclaves |
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Where must all DoD ISs be registered on the low side? |
DITPR |
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Which reference should be consulted for PIT cybersecurity requirements? |
DoD Instruction 8510.01 |
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Which DoD level must all PIT systems be registered? |
Component |
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What consists of IT capabilities that are provided according to a formal agreement between DoD entities or between DoD and an entity external to DoD? |
IT Service |
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Unified capability products will receive unified capability certification for cybersecurity in accordance with which reference? |
DoD Instruction 8100.04 |
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All acquisitions of DoD IS will comply with USD(AT&L) Memorandum along with which other reference? |
DoD Instruction 8580.1 |
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Which reference will ports, protocols, and services be managed in accordance with? |
DoD Instruction 8551.1 |
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Who is responsible for configuring and reviewing the security for IT below the system level for acceptance and connection into an authorized computing environment? |
ISSM |
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Who will oversee the development and acquisition of enterprise solutions for use throughout the DoD that support cybersecurity objectives? |
ESSG |
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Which TPM version or higher if required by DISA STIGs must DoD components ensure that new computer assets procured to support DoD meet? |
1.2 |
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Which standards will be used by STIGs developed by DISA? |
SCAP |
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Who ensures that DoD IT is assigned to and governed by a DoD Component cybersecurity program? |
DoD SISO |
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Who performs the DoD risk executive function? |
DoD ISRMC |
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Who are responsible for overseeing and establishing guidance for the strategic implementation of cybersecurity and risk management within their MAs? |
PAOs |
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Who render authorization decisions for DoD ISs and PIT systems under their purview in accordance with DoD Instruction 8510.01? |
AOs |
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Who are responsible for developing and maintaining an organizational or system-level cybersecurity program? |
ISSMs |
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In accordance with which reference must ISSMs ensure that the handling of possible or actual data spills of classified information are handled with? |
DoD Manual 5200.01 |
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Who is responsible for implementing and enforcing all DoD IS and PIT system cybersecurity policies and procedures as defined by cybersecurity-related documentation? |
ISSO |
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Authorized users must meet the minimum cybersecurity awareness requirements in accordance with which reference? |
DoD 8570.01-M |
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Who oversees the implementation of DoDI 8510.01 and directs and oversees the cybersecurity risk management of DoD IT? |
DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) |
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Who develops and provides RMF training and awareness products and a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components? |
Director, Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) |
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Who is responsible for coordinating with the DoD CIO to ensure RMFs processes are appropriately integrated with Defense Acquisition System processes for DoD IT acquisitions? |
Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&L)) |
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Who reviews plans, execution, and results of operational testing to ensure adequate evaluation of cybersecurity for all DoD IT acquisitions subject to oversight? |
Director, Operational Test and Evaluation (DOT&E) |
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Who ensures that IS security engineering services, when provided to the DoD components, support the RMF? |
Director, National Security Agency/Chief, Central Security Service (DIRNSA/CHCSS) |
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DOD Component heads must ensure that a trained and qualified AO is appointed in writing for all DoD IS and PIT systems operating within or on behalf of the DoD Component in accordance with which reference? (Page 10) |
DoD Instruction 8500.01 |
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Who is responsible for ensuring the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process supports and documents IS and PIT system categorization consistent with DoDI 8510.01? (Page 11) |
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) |
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Who is responsible for ensuring all products, services, and PIT have completed the appropriate evaluation and configuration processes prior to incorporation into or connection to an IS or PIT system? |
Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM) |
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What are product-specific and document the applicable DoD policies and security requirements, as well as best practices and configuration guidelines? |
Security Technical Implementation Guides (STIGs) |
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What are developed by DISA to provide general security compliance guidelines as well as serving as source guidance documents for STIGs? |
Security Requirements Guides (SRGs) |
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Which approach to cybersecurity risk management as described in NIST SP 800-39 is implemented by the DoD RMF governance structure? |
Three-tiered |
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Which Tier level in RMF addresses risk management at the DoD enterprise level? |
Tier 1 |
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Who directs and oversees the cybersecurity risk management of DoD IT? |
Department of Defense Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO) |
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What performs the DoD Risk Executive Function? |
DoD Information Security Risk Management Committee (ISRMC) |
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What is the community forum for reviewing and resolving authorization issues related to the sharing of community risk? |
Defense IA Security Accreditation Working Group (DSAWG) |
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Who oversees the RMF TAG and the online KS? |
Department of Defense Senior Information Security Officer (DoD SISO) |
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What provides implementation guidance for the RMF by interfacing with the DoD component cybersecurity programs, cybersecurity communities of interest (COIs), and other entities to address issues that are common across all entities? |
Risk Management Framework Technical Advisory Group (RMF TAG) |
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What supports RMF implementation, planning, and execution by functioning as the authoritative source for RMF procedures and guidance? |
Knowledge Service |
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Who must monitor and track overall execution of system-level POA&Ms? |
Authorizing Officials (AOs) |
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Who develops, maintains, and tracks security plans for assigned IS and PIT systems? |
Information System Owners (ISOs) |
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PMs must ensure periodic reviews, testing and assessment of assigned IS and PIT systems are conducted at least how often? |
Annually |
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PMs must ensure T&E of assigned IS and IT systems is planned, resourced, and documented in the program T&E master plan in accordance with which reference? |
DoDI 5000.02 |
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What reduces redundant testing, assessing and documentation, and the associated cost in time and resources? |
Reciprocity |
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What must PMs and ISOs who are deploying systems across DoD Components post security authorization documentation to in order to provide visibility of authorization status and documentation to planned receiving sites? |
Enterprise Mission Assurance Support Service (eMASS) |
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Which reference contains DoD policy for Unified Capabilities(UC)? |
DoDI 8100.04 |
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What is used to deploy identical copies of an IS or PIT system in specified environments? |
Type authorization |
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Which type of systems do not transmit, receive, route, or exchange information outside of the system’s authorization? |
Platform Information Technology (PIT) |
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How many different approaches are described by NIST SP 800-37 when planning for and conducting security authorizations? |
3 |
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What must all DoD IS and PIT systems have that provides an overview of the security requirements for the system and describes the security controls in place or planned for meeting those requirements? |
Security Plan |
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How many steps are in the RMF process? |
6 |
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What is step one of the RMF process? |
Categorize system |
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What is step two of the RMF process? |
Select Security Controls |
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What is step three of the RMF process? |
Implement Security Controls |
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What is step four of the RMF process? |
Assess Security Controls |
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What is step five of the RMF process? |
Authorize System |
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What is the final step of the RMF process? |
Monitor Security Controls |
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RMF Team members are required to meet the suitability and fitness requirements established in which reference? |
DoD 5200.2-R |
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What is the authoritative source for detailed security control descriptions, implementation guidance and assessment procedures? |
Knowledge Service |
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Which reference identifies vulnerability severity values? |
NIST SP 800-30 |
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Who determines and documents in the SAR a risk level for every NC security control in the system baseline? |
Security Control Assessor (SCA) |
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What is used to document the SCA’s findings of compliance with assigned security controls based on actual assessment results? |
Security Assessment Report (SAR) |
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What is used to identify tasks that need to be accomplished to remediate or mitigate vulnerabilities? |
POA&M |
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IATTs should be granted only when an operational environment or live data is required to complete specific test objectives and should expire at the completion of testing (normally for a period of less than how many days)? |
90 |
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Who continuously monitors the system or information environment for security-relevant events and configuration changes that negatively affect security posture? |
Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM) |
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What is the authoritative source for RMF guidance and the repository for DoD RMF policy? |
Knowledge Service (KS) |
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Who is responsible for the functional configuration and content management of the KS as well as providing detailed analysis and authoring support for the enterprise portion of the KS content? |
Risk Management Framework Technical Advisory Group (RMF TAG) |
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Which term means "movement through a medium"? |
Propagation |
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What can be defined as a disturbance (sound, light, radio waves) that moves through a medium (air, water, vacuum)? |
Wave |
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What can be defined as a recurring disturbance advancing through space with or without the use of a physical medium? |
Wave motion |
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Which type of waves are water waves known as because the motion of the water is up and down, or at right angles to the direction in which the waves are traveling? |
Transverse |
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Which type of waves are waves in which the disturbance takes place in the direction of propagation? |
Longitudinal |
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What is the vehicle through which the wave travels from one point to the next? |
Medium |
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What is the position called that a particle of matter would have if it were not disturbed by wave motion? |
Reference line |
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What is the distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? |
Wavelength |
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Which unit of measurement are wavelengths expressed in? |
Meters |
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Which wave property gives a relative indication of the amount of energy the wave transmits? |
Amplitude |
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What is a continuous series of waves called having the same amplitude and wavelength? |
Wave train |
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The number of vibrations, or cycles, of a wave train in a unit of time is called the frequency of the wave train and is measured in what? |
Hertz |
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Which term refers to the number of occurrences that take place in one second? |
Hertz |
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Which propagation property is the rate at which the disturbance travels through the medium, or the velocity with which the crest of the wave moves along? |
Velocity |
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What is the time in which one complete vibratory cycle of events occurs? |
Period |
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What is a wave called that is directed toward the surface of the mirror? |
Incident |
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What is the angle between the reflected wave and the normal called? |
Angle of reflection |
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Which law states that “The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection”? |
Law of reflection |
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What is the bending of the wave path when the waves meet an obstruction? |
Diffraction |
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What is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from the listener, or when the listener moves either toward or away from the sound source? |
Doppler Effect |
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How does sound travel through a medium? |
Wave motion |
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In the study of physics, what is defined as a range of compression-wave frequencies to which the human ear is sensitive? |
Sound |
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Which type of sounds are capable of being heard by the human ear? |
Sonics |
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The Navy has set an arbitrary upper limit for sonics at 10,000 hertz and a lower limit at what? |
15 hertz |
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What is it standard practice to refer to sounds above 10,000 hertz as? |
Ultrasonic |
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What are sounds below 15 hertz known as? |
Infrasonic |
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How many basic elements for transmission and reception of sound must be present before a sound can be produced? |
Three |
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Which two general groups may sounds be broadly classified into? |
Noise or Tones |
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Sound has three basic characteristics: pitch, intensity, and what else? |
Quality |
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Which term is used to describe the frequency of a sound? |
Pitch |
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What is a measure of the sound energy of a wave? |
Intensity |
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What is the sensation the intensity (and sometimes frequency) the sound wave produces on the ear? |
Loudness |
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What are the two basic physical properties that govern the velocity of sound through the medium? |
Elasticity and Density |
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What is the ability of a strained body to recover its shape after deformation? |
Elasticity |
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What property of a medium or substance is the mass per unit volume of the medium or substance? |
Density |
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What is the velocity in FPS that sound will travel through air at 32 degrees F? |
1,087 |
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What is the science of sound referred to as? |
Acoustics |
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What is the reflection of the original sound wave as it bounces off a distant surface called? |
Echo |
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In empty rooms or other confined spaces, sound may be reflected several times to cause what is known as what? |
Reverberation |
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What is any disturbance, man-made or natural, that causes an undesirable response or the degradation of a wave referred to as? |
Interference |
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What is the most complex sound wave that can be produced? |
Noise |
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What is light a form of? |
Electromagnetic radiation |
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Current light theory says that light is made up of very small packets of electromagnetic energy called what? |
Photons |
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Approximately how many miles per second does light travel? |
186,000 |
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What is a large volume of light called? |
Beam |
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What is a narrow volume of light called? |
Pencil |
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Which type of substance is one through which you can see clearly? |
Transparent |
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What are substances called through which some light rays can pass but through which objects cannot be seen clearly because the rays are diffused? |
Translucent |
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|
Which year did Ole Roemer discover that light travels approximately 186,000 miles per second in space? |
1675 |
|
|
How many times in one second can a light beam circle the earth? |
7.5 |
|
|
Which term is used to designate the entire range of electromagnetic waves arranged in order of their frequencies? |
Spectrum |
|
|
What is a conductor or a set of conductors used either to radiate electromagnetic energy into space or to collect this energy from space? |
Antenna |
|
|
Which two primary components does an electromagnetic wave consist of? |
Electric and Magnetic field |
|
|
What is the smallest unit of radiant energy that makes up light waves and radio waves? |
Photon |
|
|
Which units are used for measuring the wavelength of light? |
Angstrom |
|
|
What are the primary colors of light? |
Red, green, and blue |
|
|
What are the complementary colors of light? |
Magenta, yellow, and cyan |
|
|
Which two basic fields are associated with every antenna? |
Induction and Radiation |
|
|
Which field is associated with the energy stored in the antenna? |
Induction |
|
|
Which type of antenna has an electrical length equal to half the wavelength of the signal being transmitted? |
Half-wave |
|
|
What is an energy wave called that is generated by a transmitter? |
Radio wave |
|
|
What is the basic shape of the wave generated by a transmitter? |
Sine wave |
|
|
What is the number of cycles of a sine wave that are completed in 1 second known as? |
Frequency |
|
|
The frequencies falling between 3 kHz and what are called radio frequencies (abbreviated rf) since they are commonly used in radio communications? |
300 GHz |
|
|
The usable radio-frequency range is roughly 10 kilohertz to what? |
100 gigahertz |
|
|
What is the VLF frequency range? |
3 to 30 KHz |
|
|
What is the LF frequency range? |
30 to 300 KHz |
|
|
What is the MF frequency range? |
300 to 3000 KHz |
|
|
What is the HF frequency range? |
3 to 30 MHz |
|
|
What is the VHF frequency range? |
30 to 300 MHz |
|
|
What is the UHF frequency range? |
300 to 3000 MHz |
|
|
What is the SHF frequency range? |
3 to 30 GHz |
|
|
What is the EHF frequency range? |
30 to 300 GHz |
|
|
Any frequency that is a whole number multiple of a smaller basic frequency is known as what property of that basic frequency? |
Harmonic |
|
|
What is the property of a radio wave which is simply the amount of time required for the completion of one full cycle? |
Period |
|
|
What is the space called occupied by one full cycle of a radio wave at any given instant? |
Wavelength |
|
|
The velocity (or speed) of a radio wave radiated into free space by a transmitting antenna is equal to the speed of light—which is how many miles per second? |
186,000 |
|
|
Where must the receiving antenna be located for maximum absorption of energy from the electromagnetic fields? |
Plane of polarization |
|
|
Troposphere, Stratosphere, along with what else are the three separate regions, or layers that the Earth’s atmosphere is divided into? |
Ionosphere |
|
|
The troposphere is the portion of the Earth's atmosphere that extends from the surface of the Earth to a height of about 3.7 miles (6 km) at the North Pole or the South Pole and how many miles at the equator? |
11.2 |
|
|
Which atmosphere layer has relatively little effect on radio waves because it is a relatively calm region with little or no temperature changes? |
Stratosphere |
|
|
The Ionosphere extends upward from about 31.1 miles to a height of about how many miles? |
250 |
|
|
What is the most important region of the atmosphere for long distance point-to-point communications? |
Ionosphere |
|
|
What are the two principal ways in which electromagnetic (radio) energy travels from a transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna? |
Ground and Sky waves |
|
|
The surface wave is impractical for long distance transmissions at frequencies above what frequency? |
2 megahertz |
|
|
Which frequency band is used for sky wave propagation? |
High Frequency (HF) |
|
|
What is the process known as of upsetting electrical neutrality? |
Ionization |
|
|
What occurs when the free electrons and positive ions collide with each other? |
Recombination |
|
|
How many layers is the Ionosphere composed of? |
Three |
|
|
Each ionospheric layer has a maximum frequency at which radio waves can be transmitted vertically and refracted back to Earth which is known as what? |
Critical frequency |
|
|
What is the distance from the transmitter to the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? |
Skip distance |
|
|
What is a zone of silence between the point where the ground wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth? |
Skip zone |
|
|
What results in the loss of energy of a radio wave and has a pronounced effect on both the strength of received signals and the ability to communicate over long distances? |
Absorption |
|
|
Fading on ionospheric circuits is mainly a result of what? |
Multipath propagation |
|
|
In what practice are two transmitters and two receivers used, each pair tuned to a different frequency, with the same information being transmitted simultaneously over both frequencies? |
Frequency diversity |
|
|
When a wide band of frequencies is transmitted simultaneously, each frequency will vary in the amount of fading. What is this variation called? |
Selective fading |
|
|
The combined effects of absorption, ground reflection loss, and what else account for most of the energy losses of radio transmissions propagated by the ionosphere? |
Free space loss |
|
|
There is little natural interference above what frequency? |
30 megahertz |
|
|
How many main classes can the regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in the ionosphere be divided into? |
Four |
|
|
What are responsible for variations in the ionization level of the ionosphere? |
Sunspots |
|
|
Long distance propagation of hf radio waves is almost totally "blanked out” when what occurs? |
Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID) |
|
|
An ionospheric storm that is associated with sunspot activity may begin anytime from 2 days before an active sunspot crosses the central meridian of the sun until how many days after it passes the central meridian? |
Four |
|
|
For a given angle of incidence and time of day, there is a maximum frequency that can be used for communications between two given locations. What is this frequency known as? |
Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) |
|
|
Raindrops cause greater attenuation by scattering than by absorption at frequencies above what? |
100 megahertz |
|
|
Fog can cause serious attenuation by absorption at frequencies above what? |
2 gigahertz |
|
|
What is the condtion when layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool air known as? |
Temperature inversion |
|
|
As the lowest region of the Earth's atmosphere, the troposphere extends from the Earth's surface to a height of slightly over how many miles? |
7 |
|
|
What region does virtually all weather phenomena occur in? |
Troposphere |
|
|
Radio waves of frequencies below what normally have wavelengths longer than the size of weather turbulences? |
30 megahertz |
|
|
The usable frequency range for tropospheric scattering is from about 100 megahertz to what? |
10 gigahertz |
|
|
A correctly designed tropospheric scatter circuit will provide highly reliable service for distances ranging from 50 miles to how many miles? |
500 |
|
|
Which device is designed to guide electrical energy from one point to another? |
Transmission line |
|
|
Which type of line is most often used for power lines, rural telephone lines, and telegraph lines? |
Two-wire open line |
|
|
Which type of line consists of two insulated wires twisted together to form a flexible line without the use of spacers? |
Twisted pair |
|
|
Leakage caused by the condensation of moisture is prevented in some rigid line applications by the use of what? |
Inert gas |
|
|
What was developed to replace rubber and eliminate high-frequency losses associated with rubber insulators? |
Polyethylene plastic |
|
|
The radius of bends in the waveguide must measure greater than how many wavelengths at the operating frequency of the equipment to avoid excessive attenuation? |
Two |
|
|
Line losses may be any of three types— Radiation/Induction, Dielectric, and what else? |
Copper |
|
|
Copper losses can be minimized and conductivity increased in an RF line by plating the line with what? |
Silver |
|
|
Which type of losses occur because some magnetic lines of force about a conductor do not return to the conductor when the cycle alternates? |
Radiation |
|
|
What determines the amount of current that can flow when a given voltage is applied to an infinitely long line? |
Characteristic impedance |
|
|
The characteristic impedance of lines in actual use normally lies between 50 and how many ohms? |
600 |
|
|
When a transmission line is "short” compared to the length of the radio-frequency waves it carries, the opposition presented to the input terminals is determined primarily by what? |
Load impedance |
|
|
If a line is not terminated in characteristic impedance, what is it said to be? |
Finite |
|
|
What are voltages called that are moving toward the receiving end of a line? |
Incident voltages |
|
|
Which type of line has no standing waves of current and voltage? |
Nonresonant |
|
|
Which type of line has a finite length and is not terminated in its characteristic impedance? |
Resonant |
|
|
What is the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage on a line called? |
VSWR |
|
|
What are hollow metal tubes used to transfer energy from one point to another? |
Waveguides |
|
|
What are theoretical properties (inductance, resistance, and capacitance) of a transmission line that are lumped into a single component? |
Lumped constants |
|
|
Which two basic classifications are most practical transmitting antennas divided into? |
Hertz and Marconi |
|
|
Which type of antennas operate with one end grounded and are mounted perpendicular to the Earth or to a surface acting as a ground? |
Marconi |
|
|
Hertz antennas are generally used for frequencies above what? |
2 megahertz |
|
|
Which three parts does a complete antenna system consist of? |
Coupling device, feeder, and antenna |
|
|
What is defined as a conductor or group of conductors used either for radiating electromagnetic energy into space or for collecting it from space? |
Antenna |
|
|
What is the interchangeability of the same antenna for transmitting and receiving known as? |
Reciprocity |
|
|
What cannot be used at medium and low frequencies because the electric lines of force are parallel to and touch the earth? |
Horizontal polarization |
|
|
Which frequencies is sky-wave transmission used? |
High |
|
|
From approximately 50 to how many megahertz, vertical polarization results in a slightly stronger signal than does horizontal polarization with antennas at the same height? |
100
|
|
|
At 30 megahertz, vertical polarization is better for antenna heights below about how many meters? |
91
|
|
|
At ordinary antenna mast heights of 12 meters (40 feet), vertical polarization is advantageous for frequencies less than about what? |
100 megahertz |
|
|
Which type of polarization is used by VHF and UHF transmissions? |
Horizontal |
|
|
What is the useful part of the transmitter's signal? |
Radiated energy |
|
|
For the antenna in free space, that is, entirely removed from any objects that might affect its operation, the radiation resistance is how many ohms? |
73
|
|
|
For most half-wave wire antennas, the radiation resistance is about how many ohms? |
65
|
|
|
What is a plot of the radiated energy from an antenna? |
Radiation pattern |
|
|
What is it known as when antenna sources radiate energy equally in all directions? |
Isotropic radiation |
|
|
Which type of radiators emit (radiate) stronger radiation in one direction than in another? |
Anisotropic |
|
|
What is used to indicate directions of minimum radiation? |
Null |
|
|
The electrical length of any antenna wire can be increased or decreased by what way? |
Loading |
|
|
What is the basic unit from which many complex antennas are constructed? |
Half-wave antenna |
|
|
What term is used to indicate an antenna that is very short compared with the wavelength of the operating frequency? |
Doublet |
|
|
What is the simplest form of a practical antenna? |
Doublet |
|
|
What type of antenna is the shortest antenna that can be used in free space? |
1/2 wavelength |
|
|
What is an ordinary half-wave antenna that has one or more additional conductors connected across its ends? |
Folded dipole |
|
|
What is a parasitic element referred to as when it operates to reinforce energy coming from the driver toward itself? |
Director |
|
|
What is a parasitic element referred to as if it is placed so it causes maximum energy radiation in a direction away from itself and toward the driven element? |
Reflector |
|
|
What designates an array in which the direction of maximum radiation is perpendicular to the plane containing these elements? |
Broadside array |
|
|
What type of array is it when all the elements lie in a straight line with no radiation at the ends of the array? |
Collinear |
|
|
What type of array is it when the principal direction of radiation is along the plane of the array and perpendicular to the elements? |
End-fire |
|
|
What property of an array is the proportion of energy radiated in the principal direction of radiation to the energy radiated in the opposite direction? |
Front-To-Back Ratio |
|
|
What is an antenna that is a wavelength or longer at the operating frequency? |
Long-wire |
|
|
What is a horizontal, long-wire antenna designed especially for the reception and transmission of low-frequency, vertically polarized ground waves? |
Beverage antenna |
|
|
What is one of the most popular fixed-station antennas because it is very useful in point-to-point communications? |
Rhombic |
|
|
What is a half-wave radiator with a reflector? |
Corner-Reflector antenna |
|
|
What is the heating of an insulating material by placing it in a high- frequency electric field? |
Dielectric heating |
|
|
What parts of the human body are highly susceptible to dielectric heating? |
Eyes |
|
|
What is the area of a radiation pattern that is covered by radiation? |
Lobe |
|
|
The optimu gain of a broadside array is obtained when the elements are spaced what distance apart? |
0.65 wavelength |
|
|
Which year was the first practical telegraph established in London, England? |
1838 |
|
|
Which year did Marconi demonstrate the first practical wireless transmitter? |
1897 |
|
|
Which year was the first successful transatlantic transmissions achieved? |
1902 |
|
|
What is the ability to impress intelligence upon a transmission media? |
Modulation |
|
|
What is the mixing two frequencies across a nonlinear impedance known as? |
Heterodyning |
|
|
What is the basic alternating waveform for all complex waveforms? |
Sine wave |
|
|
What is generated by rotating a coil in the magnetic field between two magnets? |
Alternating Current |
|
|
What indicates how much of a cycle has been completed at any given instant? |
Phase angle |
|
|
Which cycle property is the elapsed time from the beginning of a cycle to its completion? |
Period |
|
|
Which sine wave property is determined by its physical length? |
Wavelength |
|
|
The frequencies involved in normal speech vary from a low of about 90 hertz for a deep bass to as high as what for a high soprano? |
10 KHz |
|
|
What is the ability known as to faithfully reproduce the input in the output? |
Fidelity |
|
|
What is the minimum frequency range that can be used for the transmission of speech? |
500 to 2,000 hertz |
|
|
In the modulation process, waves from the information source are impressed onto a radio-frequency sine wave called a what? |
Carrier |
|
|
What is an information wave normally referred to as? |
Modulating wave |
|
|
Output rises and falls directly with the input in which type of devices? |
Linear |
|
|
Which type of impedance is one in which the resulting current is not directly proportional to the change in the applied voltage? |
Nonlinear |
|
|
What is the sum of two individual sine waves? |
Complex waveform |
|
|
What is the process of combining two or more frequencies in a nonlinear impedance which results in the production of new frequencies called? |
Heterodyning |
|
|
How can the heterodyning process be analyzed? |
Spectrum analysis |
|
|
What is the amount of the frequency spectrum that signals occupy known as? |
Bandwidth |
|
|
How many conditions must be met in a circuit for heterodyning to occur? |
Two |
|
|
What refers to any method of varying the amplitude of an electromagnetic carrier frequency in accordance with the intelligence to be transmitted by the carrier? |
Amplitude modulation |
|
|
What is a radio-frequency wave suitable for modulation by the intelligence to be transmitted? |
Carrier frequency |
|
|
What is on-off keying referred to as when applied to a continuously oscillating radio-frequency source? |
CW signaling |
|
|
What was the first type of modulation used? |
Continuous wave |
|
|
What is a system of on-off keying developed for telegraph that is capable of passing intelligence over wire at an acceptable rate? |
Morse code |
|
|
What is one of the best methods for keying amplifier stages in transmitters? |
Blocked-grid keying |
|
|
Which type of transmission has a high degree of clarity under severe noise conditions, long-range operation, and narrow bandwidth? |
Continuous-wave |
|
|
What is required when keying takes place in an intermediate or final amplifier operating at comparatively high power? |
Buffer |
|
|
Oscillators are too unstable for direct frequency control in what type of transmitters? |
VHF and UHF |
|
|
In practice, the multiplication factor (number of times the input frequency is multiplied) is seldom larger than what in any one stage? |
Five |
|
|
Who developed the principles on which modern communications are built? |
Alexander Graham Bell |
|
|
What is an energy converter that changes sound energy into electrical energy?
|
Microphone |
|
|
What has the largest voltage output for a given mechanical stress and is the most commonly used crystal in microphones? |
Rochelle salt |
|
|
Crystal microphones are delicate and must be handled with care. Exposure to temperatures above what may permanently damage the crystal unit? |
125 degrees F |
|
|
The dynamic microphone has a uniform response over a frequency range that extends from 40 to what? |
15,000 hertz |
|
|
An AM transmitter can be divided into what two major sections according to the frequencies at which they operate? |
RF and AF |
|
|
What are all of the sum frequencies above the carrier spoken of collectively as? |
Upper sideband |
|
|
What is the resultant wave called when the carrier and sidebands are combined in a single impedance and viewed simultaneously with an oscilloscope? |
Modulation envelope |
|
|
Which agency assigns carrier frequencies for radio stations in the standard broadcast band? |
Federal Communications Commission (FCC) |
|
|
The standard AM broadcast band starts at 535 kilohertz and ends at what? |
1,605 kilohertz |
|
|
How many sidebands accompany a carrier wave which has been modulated by voice or music signals? |
Two |
|
|
What generates unwanted (SPURIOUS) sideband frequencies? |
Overmodulation |
|
|
To measure degrees of modulation less than 100 percent, what can you use to indicate the relative magnitudes of the rf carrier and the audio- modulating signal? |
Modulation Factor |
|
|
Which two categories are modulator circuits usually placed into? |
High or Low |
|
|
What does the FCC define in the Code of Federal Regulations as "modulation produced in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system"? |
High-Level modulation |
|
|
What is the simplest modulator available which is also the easiest to adjust for proper operation? |
Plate modulation |
|
|
Which action in the plate modulator effectively changes an audio frequency to a different part of the frequency spectrum? |
Heterodyning |
|
|
What is widely used in portable and mobile equipment to reduce size and power requirements? |
Control-grid modulator |
|
|
What is generally employed when audio power is limited and distortion of the grid-modulated circuit cannot be allowed? |
Cathode modulator |
|
|
Which type of modulation is the angle of a sine-wave carrier varied by a modulating wave? |
Angle |
|
|
What is used in frequency modulation to shift the frequency of an oscillator at an audio rate? |
Audio signal |
|
|
What is used in all single-channel, radiotelegraph systems that use automatic printing systems? |
Frequency-shift keying |
|
|
What is the approximate amount of inherent signal-to-noise ratio improvement of FSK over AM? |
3 to 4 dB |
|
|
Which modulating signal property controls the amount by which the frequency departs from the average? |
Amplitude |
|
|
What is frequency deviation divided by the frequency of the modulating signal called? |
Modulation index |
|
|
What modulates oscillator frequency in direct modulation? |
Reactance tube |
|
|
Multivibrators are limited to frequencies below about what? |
1 MHz |
|
|
What is simply a diode, or pn junction, that is designed to have a certain amount of capacitance between junctions? |
Varactor |
|
|
What is used to calculate the number of significant sidebands existing in the waveform? |
Modulation index |
|
|
What will determine certain capabilities of the pulse-modulation system? |
Rest time duration |
|
|
What is the maximum value of the transmitted pulse? |
Peak power |
|
|
What is the ratio of working time to total time for intermittently operated devices? |
Duty cycle |
|
|
What is the duration of time RF frequency is transmitted known as? |
Pulse Width (PW) |
|
|
Most radar oscillators operate at pulse voltages between 5 and how many kilovolts? |
20 |
|
|
What is a pulse-forming network discharged by? |
Spark gap |
|
|
Which type of spark gap uses a trigger pulse to ionize the air between the contacts of the spark gap and to initiate the discharge of the pulse-forming network? |
Fixed gap |
|
|
The hydrogen thyratron modulator is an electronic switch which requires a positive trigger of only how many volts? |
150 |
|
|
What is the most common type of radar modulator? |
Hydrogen thyratron |
|
|
In military voice systems the bandwidth for voice signals is limited to 300 to 3,000 hertz, requiring a sampling frequency of what? |
8 kilohertz |
|
|
What is the simplest form of pulse modulation? |
Pulse-amplitude |
|
|
What has the advantage of requiring constant transmitter power since the pulses are of constant amplitude and duration? |
Pulse position modulation |
|
|
What is a method of pulse modulation in which the modulating wave is used to frequency modulate a pulse-generating circuit? |
PFM |
|
|
What refers to a system in which the standard values of a quantized wave are indicated by a series of coded pulses? |
Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM) |
|
|
What is the process of re-creating original modulating frequencies (intelligence) from the RF carrier referred to as? |
Demodulation |
|
|
Which type of modulation consists of on-off keying of a carrier wave? |
Continuous-Wave (CW) |
|
|
Which reception method is highly selective and allows little interference from adjacent cw stations? |
Heterodyne |
|
|
What is used to receive short-wave code signals because it is easy to adjust and has high sensitivity and good selectivity? |
Regenerative detector |
|
|
What refers to any method of modulating an electromagnetic carrier frequency by varying its amplitude in accordance with the message intelligence that is to be transmitted? |
Amplitude modulation |
|
|
What is normally used where large input signals are supplied and a linear output is required? |
Series-diode detector |
|
|
What is often used in receivers to supply an amplified detected output? |
Common-Emitter Detector |
|
|
What is essentially a tank circuit which is tuned to a frequency either slightly above or below the FM carrier frequency? |
Slope detector |
|
|
What uses a double-tuned RF transformer to convert frequency variations in the received FM signal to amplitude variations? |
Phase-shift discriminator |
|
|
The output of the Foster-Seeley discriminator is affected not only by the input frequency, but also to a certain extent by what? |
Input amplitude |
|
|
What occurs when an input frequency higher than the center frequency is applied to the discriminator circuit and the current and voltage phase relationships change? |
Phase shift |
|
|
What uses a double-tuned transformer to convert the instantaneous frequency variations of the fm input signal to instantaneous amplitude variations? |
Ratio detector |
|
|
Which type of tuned circuit operates below resonance? |
Capacitive |
|
|
Ratio detectors can operate with as little as how many millivolts of input? |
100 |
|
|
In phase modulation (PM) the intelligence is contained in the amount and rate of what in a carrier wave? |
Phase shift |
|
|
What uses the amplitude of a pulse-amplitude modulated (PAM) signal or the duration of a pulse-duration modulated (pdm) signal to charge a holding capacitor and restore the original waveform? |
Peak detection |
|
|
What year was the first official naval radio message sent from ship to shore? |
1899 |
|
|
What year was the first radiotelephone used between ships? |
1916 |
|
|
In what year were the first superheterodyne receivers installed in the fleet? |
1931 |
|
|
In what year were the first successful radio teletypewriter transmissions between ships completed? |
1944 |
|
|
In what year did the first successful use of radiophoto (facsimile) occur? |
1945 |
|
|
What refers to communications over a distance and includes any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, writings, images, or sounds? |
Telecommunications |
|
|
What is the most important method the Navy has of communicating between widely separated forces? |
Radio |
|
|
What was the first means of radio communications that had military and commercial importance? |
Radiotelegraphy |
|
|
Line-of-sight characteristics limit the usual range of radiotelephone from how many miles? |
20 to 25 |
|
|
The Navy uses radio teletypewriter (rtty) mainly for high-speed automatic communications across ocean areas and has a normal speed of operation of how many words per minute? |
100 |
|
|
What is the process used to transmit photographs, charts, and other graphic information electronically? |
Facsimile (fax) |
|
|
What is a combination of sets, units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts joined together to perform a specific operational function or several functions? |
System |
|
|
What consists of a unit or units and the assemblies, subassemblies, and parts connected or associated together to perform a specific function? |
Set |
|
|
What is a collection of units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts? |
Group |
|
|
What is an assembly or any combination of parts, subassemblies, and assemblies mounted together? |
Unit |
|
|
What is a number of parts or subassemblies, or any combination thereof, joined together to perform a specific function? |
Assembly |
|
|
What is one component or two or more components joined together? |
Part |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the extremely high frequency (EHF) band? |
30 GHZ - 300 GHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the super high frequency (SHF) band? |
3 GHZ - 30 GHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the ultra high frequency (UHF) band? |
300 MHZ - 3 GHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the very high frequency (VHF) band? |
30 MHZ - 300 MHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the high frequency (HF) band? |
3 MHZ - 30 MHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the medium frequency (MF) band? |
300 KHZ - 3 MHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the low frequency (LF) band? |
30 KHZ - 300 KHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the very low frequency (VLF) band? |
3 KHZ - 30 KHz |
|
|
What is the frequency range for the extremely low frequency (ELF) band? |
Up to 300 Hz
|
|
|
What band has the ability to penetrate ocean depths to several hundred feet with little signal loss? |
ELF |
|
|
What type of transmission is normally considered a broadcast, that is, one-way transmission, no reply required? |
VLF |
|
|
What systems are established to communicate over long- distance trunks or links between fixed terminals? |
Point-to-point |
|
|
What is normally a message circuit between two points that are both switching centers or individual message distribution points? |
Trunk |
|
|
What is a transmitter-receiver system connecting two locations? |
Link |
|
|
Frequencies above what are not normally refracted by the atmosphere and ground-wave range is minimal? |
30 megahertz |
|
|
The naval communications system is broken down into what groups? |
Strategic and tactical |
|
|
What type of communications are usually limited to a specific area of operations and are used to direct or report the movement of specific forces? |
Tactical |
|
|
What mode is a method of operation in which telecommunications between stations takes place simultaneously in both directions using two separate frequencies? |
Full-Duplex (fdx) |
|
|
What is the type of operation in which one station transmits information on one or more channels directed to more than one station and/or unit? |
Broadcast (bc) |
|
|
Message traffic is normally sent to the fleet by three methods: broadcast, intercept, and what else? |
Receipt |
|
|
What combines into a single system all the elements that make up the naval communications system and the Army and Air Force equivalent? |
DCS |
|
|
What offers rapid, direct interconnection of DOD and certain other government installations through worldwide telephone exchanges? |
DCS AUTOVON |
|
|
What provides authorized users with a means for exchanging classified information over communications security (COMSEC) circuitry or over other approved circuitry? |
AUTOSEVOCOM |
|
|
Daily capacity of the AUTODIN system is about how many average-length messages? |
Five million |
|
|
What was established for the purpose of integrating the critical intelligence communications (CRITICOMM) and the special intelligence communications (SPINTCOMM) networks into a single automated communications network? |
DSSCS |
|
|
What network provides a voice link between the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and all subordinate commands ashore, afloat, and airborne? |
HICOM |
|
|
What meets our need for a connection between Navy tactical voice systems of the operating forces and the various fixed telephone services ashore? |
NORATS |
|
|
What is the principle use of the continuous wave? |
Radiotelegraphy |
|
|
A cw transmitter requires four essential components. These are a generator, amplifier, keyer, and what else? |
Antenna |
|
|
What is power the product of? |
Current and Voltage |
|
|
What refers to a sine wave quantity (for example, an oscillator output) that has a frequency that is a submultiple of the frequency of some other sine wave quantity it helped make? |
Subharmonic |
|
|
What are special power amplifiers that multiply the input frequency? |
Frequency multipliers |
|
|
What is the elimination of the undesired portions of the signal? |
Suppression |
|
|
What type of transmission is the most common communications mode used today? |
Single-sideband |
|
|
What is generally used whenever special voice communications circuits are necessary between shore activities or between ships and shore activities because it is less susceptible to atmospheric interference than amplitude modulation? |
SSB |
|
|
What is used extensively in naval communications to expand our traffic capabilities? |
ISB |
|
|
What four basic functions must a receiver perform in order to be useful? |
Reception, selection, detection, and reproduction |
|
|
What occurs when a transmitted electromagnetic wave passes through the receiver antenna and induces a voltage in the antenna? |
Reception |
|
|
What is the ability of the receiver to select a particular frequency of a station from all other station frequencies appearing at the antenna of the receiver? |
Selection |
|
|
What is the action of separating the low (audio) frequency intelligence from the high (radio) frequency carrier? |
Detection |
|
|
What is the action of converting the electrical signals to sound waves? |
Reproduction |
|
|
What property is defined by the ability of a receiver to reproduce weak signals? |
Sensitivity |
|
|
What is the limiting factor of sensitivity? |
Noise |
|
|
What is the degree of distinction made by the receiver between the desired signal and unwanted signals? |
Selectivity |
|
|
What property of a receiver is its ability to accurately reproduce, in its output, the signal that appears at its input? |
Fidelity |
|
|
What is the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control? |
Ganged tuning |
|
|
What are the only two fundamental sections of the fm receiver that are electrically different from the AM receiver? |
Discriminator and Limiter |
|
|
Which circuit in FM circuits is designed to respond to frequency shift variations? |
Discriminator |
|
|
What is the variation in signal strength called at the receiver antenna? |
Fading |
|
|
What is an AGC voltage that is used to cause degeneration by driving the amplifiers toward cutoff referred to as? |
Reverse AGC |
|
|
Which audio amplifier property determines the degree of amplification provided to different frequencies in the sound spectrum? |
Frequency response |
|
|
Treble tones are defined as the audio frequencies above approximately what frequency? |
3,000 hertz |
|
|
Bass tones are defined as the audio frequencies below approximately what frequency? |
300 hertz |
|
|
Which circuits are used in situations where you must accurately control the frequency of an oscillator by some external signal? |
Automatic Frequency Control |
|
|
Which circuit cuts off the output of a receiver when there is no input? |
Squelch |
|
|
What is a signal-producing process through heterodyning and frequency selection? |
Frequency synthesis |
|
|
What provides the capability to transfer remote control station functions and signals to transmitters? |
Transmitter transfer switchboard |
|
|
What is the most widely used code in manual telegraphy? |
Morse code |
|
|
The interval between words is equal to how many dots in morse code? |
Seven |
|
|
The five-unit (five-level) code has been the most commonly used in modern printing telegraphy and is universally used in teletypewriter operation. This is also known as what code? |
Baudot |
|
|
What are the two basic modes of teletypewriter operation? |
Asynchronous and Synchronous |
|
|
What is the most common mode used in teletypewriter operation? |
Start-stop |
|
|
What is the reciprocal of the time in seconds of the shortest signal element? |
Baud rate |
|
|
How many words per minute is the defense communications system standard speed for teletypewriter operation? |
100 |
|
|
Which type of circuits make use of the presence or absence of current flow to convey information? |
Neutral |
|
|
Under which condition does the teletypewriter appear to be running because the machine is decoding the constant space as the Baudot character blank and the type hammer continually strikes the type box but there is no printing or type box movement across the page? |
Running open |
|
|
Which two basic radio teletypewriter (ratt) systems does the Navy use? |
Tone modulated and Carrier Frequency Shift |
|
|
Which colors are used on patch panels to identify whether that panel is used for passing secure or nonsecure information? |
Red and Black |
|
|
Which type of equipment is used to encrypt and decrypt tty messages that require security handling? |
Cryptographic |
|
|
What takes the rf signal passed on by the antenna filter and translates it to an audio signal? |
Radio receiver |
|
|
What is a combined, simultaneous display of the amplitude and phase relationships of two input signals? |
Lissajous pattern |
|
|
Which type of communications circuit permits two-way communications between stations? |
Half-duplex |
|
|
What is the simultaneous transmission of a number of intelligible signals (messages) in either or both directions called using only a single rf carrier? |
Multiplexing |
|
|
Which two methods of multiplexing can be used? |
Time-division and Frequency-division |
|
|
What is the normal voice speaking frequency range? |
100 to 3,500 hertz |
|
|
By multiplexing tty circuits, up to how many circuits may be carried in any one of the 3,000 hertz multiplexed channels? |
16 |
|
|
Which transmission method is used for transmitting still images over an electrical communications system? |
Facsimile |
|
|
What are compromising emanations (ce) generally referred to as? |
Tempest |
|
|
What includes all measures designed to protect transmission from interception, traffic analysis, and imitative deception? |
Transmission security |
|
|
What occurs when a person comes into contact with a source of rf voltage in a manner that allows rf current to flow through the area of contact? |
RF burn |
|
|
Which device changes dc pulses to mark and space modulation for teletypewriter transmissions? |
Keyer |
|
|
What changes an audio signal back to dc pulses during teletypewriter reception? |
Converter |
|
|
Which device stores a teletypewriter message on a paper tape by punching Baudot coded messages into it? |
Perforator |
|
|
What stores an incoming tty signal on paper tape? |
Reperforator |
|
|
What is the reference color of equipment that passes classified information? |
Red |
|
|
Which year was the first artificial satellite placed in orbit by the Russians? |
1957 |
|
|
Score was the first satellite with the primary purpose of communications by the US in which year? |
1958 |
|
|
Which year was the first regular satellite communications service used by the Navy? |
1960 |
|
|
Which year was the Defense Communications Satellite Program (DCSP) initiated by the Secretary of Defense? |
1962 |
|
|
Which type of satellite only reflects received radio signals back to earth? |
Passive |
|
|
What amplifies signals received and then retransmits them back to earth? |
Repeater |
|
|
In general terms, an orbit is either elliptical or which other shape? |
Circular |
|
|
What is a period of orbit that approaches that of the earth called? |
Near Synchronous |
|
|
All satellites orbit the earth in which type of orbits? |
Elliptical |
|
|
What is the point in the orbit called when it is the greatest distance from the center of the earth? |
Apogee |
|
|
What is the angle between the equatorial plane of the earth and the orbital plane of the satellite called? |
Angle of inclination |
|
|
A satellite orbiting in any plane not identical with the equatorial plane is in which type of orbit? |
Inclined |
|
|
Which type of orbit is defined by a satellite orbiting in a plane that coincides with the equatorial plane of the earth? |
Equatorial |
|
|
A satellite in a circular orbit at a height of approximately how many nautical miles above the earth is in a synchronous orbit? |
19,300 |
|
|
A satellite in a circular orbit from approximately 2,000 miles to how many miles above the earth is considered to be in a medium altitude orbit? |
12,000 |
|
|
About how many solar cells mounted on the surface of the satellite do newer communications satellites have? |
32,000 |
|
|
Generally speaking, how many sizes of parabolic-type antennas are currently in use at earth terminal sites? |
Three |
|
|
Depending on the type used and the operational requirements, transmitters used in earth terminals have output power capabilities that vary from 10 watts to how many kilowatts? |
20 |
|
|
Which table provides the coordinates of a satellite or a celestial body at specific times during a given period? |
Ephemeris |
|
|
What is the period of time called for one earth terminal to yield control to another as a satellite moves out of its area of coverage? |
Hand over |
|
|
The smallest terminal in the defense communication systems network has effectively an 18-foot antenna and weighs how many pounds? |
19,500 |
|
|
Which year did the Department of the Navy establish the Naval Space Command? |
1983 |
|
|
Which year was the first DSCS Phase III satellite launched into orbit? |
1984 |
|
|
Which publication was written to concisely explain the role of the Navy in the Defense Communications Satellite Program? |
NTP-2 |
|
|
What is the zone called where the satellite can be seen by both the up- and down-link earth terminals? |
Zone of mutual visibility |
|
|
The frequency range from ELF to SHF is from below 300 hertz up to how many gigahertz? |
30 |
|
|
What is a nonradiating device called that absorbs the rf and has the impedance characteristics of the antenna? |
Dummy load |
|
|
What is a small building called that is physically separated from the transmitter location that contains antenna loading, coupling, and tuning circuits? |
Helix house |
|
|
Which type of antenna is a special form of a rhombic-arranged monopole array that is designed to transmit from a particular location? |
Triatic |
|
|
Communications systems in which portion of the radio frequency spectrum use line-of-sight propagation? |
1 to 10 gigahertz |
|
|
The distance between microwave system hop points ranges from 50 to 150 kilometers (31 to how many statute miles)? |
95 |
|
|
The tropo system uses the turbulence in the layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere to bounce signals back to earth and has a transmission range up to 800 kilometers (how many statute miles)? |
500 |
|
|
HF has a hop distance (skywave) of about how many miles? |
1,400 |
|
|
The distance of one hop for a line-of-sight system is between 31 and how many miles? |
95 |
|
|
What was developed by the U.S. Navy as a command tool for commanders in tactical combat situations? |
NTDS |
|
|
How many separate data transmission links does NTDS use to maintain tactical data communications between tactical units? |
Three |
|
|
What provides high-speed, computer-to-computer transfer of tactical information, command orders, and unit status to all tactical data systems? |
Link 11 |
|
|
What provides a means of transmitting track information to those units not capable of participating in the link 11 network? |
Link 14 |
|
|
What permits the computer to take control of the autopilot in an equipped aircraft? |
Link 4A |
|
|
What is the international distress frequency? |
500 Kilohertz |
|
|
What is the survival craft communications frequency? |
8,364 kilohertz |
|
|
What take energy at (or near) the visible light spectrum and convert it to a very narrow and intense beam in the same region?
|
Lasers
|
|
|
Which color of communications lasers could possibly penetrate the ocean to great depths?
|
Blue-green
|
|
|
What is a type of two-equipment installation where one unit can be substituted for another in the event of failure?
|
Doubling up
|
|
|
What acts as a coil and is used with variable inductors for impedance matching of high-power transmitters?
|
Helix
|
|
|
What are conductors or optical waveguides called that readily pass light?
|
Fiber optics
|
|
|
Input impedance of the voltmeter should exceed the impedance of the circuit by a ratio of at least what?
|
10 to 1
|
|
|
The average value of a dc waveform can vary from 63.6% of peak value for a rectified full sine wave to what percent of peak value for a triangular wave?
|
50%
|
|
|
The Simpson 260 analog multimeter is capable of measuring both ac and dc voltages of up to how many volts?
|
5,000
|
|
|
When performing measurements with any analog multimeter, remember that the most accurate readings are taken with the pointer at what location?
|
Midscale
|
|
|
What is defined as the apparent displacement of the position of an object because of the difference between two points of view?
|
Parallax
|
|
|
What are primarily designed for waveform observation and are typically less accurate than other pieces of test equipment used to measure dc voltages?
|
Oscilloscopes
|
|
|
Most analog voltmeters (that use D’Arsonval meter movements) in common use today are accurate to approximately what percent of full-scale reading?
|
+/- 2%
|
|
|
The digital multimeter in most cases provides an accuracy of at least what percent?
|
±0.1%
|
|
|
In standard oscilloscopes, the vertical amplifier input impedance is generally greater than what, making it possible to measure voltages in high-impedance circuits?
|
1 megohm
|
|
|
Most commonly used oscilloscopes have a frequency response from dc up to what?
|
100 megahertz
|
|
|
The upper frequency limitations of digital multimeters vary from 20 kilohertz to over what?
|
300 kilohertz
|
|
|
What method of measuring ac voltage is the most accurate of the common measurement techniques?
|
Differential voltmeter
|
|
|
Most analog multimeters cannot be used for measuring ac current and are only accurate to within what percent on dc ranges?
|
±2%
|
|
|
The Fluke 8000A digital multimeter is accurate to within ±0.3% when measuring dc current and what percent when measuring ac current?
|
±1%
|
|
|
What is designed to indicate the presence of current and the relative magnitude of one source of current as compared to another?
|
Current tracer
|
|
|
Current probes can be divided into three basic types: passive, active, and what else?
|
Hall Effect
|
|
|
Meggers produce the large voltages that are required to measure resistances as high as what?
|
10,000 megohms
|
|
|
The Fluke 893 ac-dc differential voltmeter can be used for measuring extremely high resistances from 10 megohms to 106 megohms with a typical accuracy of what?
|
±5%
|
|
|
What is that property of a circuit that produces an electrostatic field when two conducting bodies separated by a dielectric material have a potential applied to them?
|
Capacitance
|
|
|
What is the basic measurement of capacitance?
|
Farad
|
|
|
What is the amount of current flow maintained at 1 ampere that passes a given point of a circuit in 1 second?
|
Coulomb
|
|
|
Capacitance measurements are usually accomplished by either a bridge-type or a what other type of capacitance meter?
|
Reactance-type
|
|
|
What is the ratio of the energy dissipated to the energy stored in a capacitor)?
|
Dissipation factor
|
|
|
What is the ability of a coil to function as a storehouse of energy in magnetic form and is determined by the shape and dimensions of the coil?
|
Inductance
|
|
|
The Hay bridge is used for inductors with low losses low D dial reading or high Q) at what?
|
1 kilohertz
|
|
|
What measures inductance by comparing it with a capacitance and (effectively) two resistances?
|
Maxwell bridge
|
|
|
In equipment that uses vacuum tubes, faulty tubes are responsible for more than what percent of all electronic equipment failures?
|
50
|
|
|
If the average receiving vacuum tube is not overdriven or operated continuously at maximum rating, it can have a life of at least how many hours before the filament opens?
|
2,000
|
|
|
Klystron tubes that remain inoperative for more than how many months may become gassy?
|
6
|
|
|
How many hours or more of reduced voltage operation may be required for klystrons that have been inoperative for periods in excess of 6 months?
|
Eight
|
|
|
When the twt is installed, you can usually measure the collector current and voltage and check the power output for various inputs. Any deviation greater than what percent from normal specifications may be considered to be an indication of a defective tube?
|
10%
|
|
|
Transistor circuits, other than pulse and power amplifier stages, are usually biased so that the emitter current is from 0.5 milliampere to 3 milliamperes and the collector voltage is from 3 to how many volts?
|
15
|
|
|
A back-to-forward resistance ratio on the order of what or greater should be obtained for the collector-to-base and emitter-to-base measurements?
|
100 to 1
|
|
|
Many ohmmeters are designed such that on the R × 1 range, how many milliamperes or more can flow through the electronic part under test?
|
100
|
|
|
Ohmmeter ranges that require a current of more than what in the test circuit are not to be used for testing transistors?
|
1 milliampere
|
|
|
What should not be used to furnish power for transistor equipment because they have poor voltage regulation and, possibly, high ripple voltage?
|
Battery eliminators
|
|
|
What is created whenever two substances (solid or fluid) are rubbed together or separated?
|
Static electricity
|
|
|
An MOS field-effect transistor (MOSFET) can be damaged by a static voltage potential of as little as how many volts?
|
35
|
|
|
When moving an ESDS device or assembly, always touch (with your bare skin) the surface on which it rests for at least how long before picking it up?
|
1 second
|
|
|
Transistors are capable of operating in excess of how many hours at maximum ratings without appreciable degradation? |
30,000 |
|
|
What is a three-element, solid-state device in which the forward resistance can be controlled? |
SCR |
|
|
What device is designed to switch from a blocking state to a conducting state for either polarity of applied voltages and with either positive or negative gate triggering? |
Triac |
|
|
What is a solid-state, three-terminal semiconductor that exhibits stable open-circuit, negative-resistance characteristics? |
Unijunction Transistor (UJT) |
|
|
What must never be used in testing MOSFETs? |
VTVM |
|
|
What constitute an area of microelectronics in which many conventional electronic components are combined into high-density modules? |
Integrated Circuits (ICs) |
|
|
The most frequently used ICs are manufactured with either 14 or how many pins? |
16 |
|
|
What are spring-loaded devices that are designed to clip onto a dual-in-line package IC while the IC is mounted in its circuit? |
Logic clips |
|
|
What is designed to detect faulty, in-circuit-DIP ICs by comparing them with ICs that are known to be good (reference ICs)? |
Logic comparator |
|
|
What can immediately identify whether a specific point in the circuit is low, high, open, or pulsing? |
Logic probes |
|
|
Some logic probes have a feature that detects and displays high-speed transient pulses as small as how many nanoseconds wide? |
5 |
|
|
What provides various functions that can assist you in maintenance, testing, and troubleshooting of equipment using digital circuitry? |
Logic analyzer |
|
|
Most logic analyzers have crt displays that can monitor up to how many timing signals at the same time? |
32 |
|
|
A specific gravity reading between 1.275 and what indicates a full-charge condition and assures you that the lead acid type battery is in good condition? |
1.300 |
|
|
What series of battery testers incorporate a multiple-range voltmeter, battery-loading resistors, multiplier resistors, and a jack-switching arrangement that connects the load resistors across the voltmeter for a total of 32 different voltmeter-load resistor combinations? |
TS-183/U |
|
|
What are the two types of nickel-cadmium batteries? |
Vented and Nonvented |
|
|
The voltage at the terminals of a NICAD will normally be between 1.25 and how many volts in an open-circuit condition? |
1.30 |
|
|
What are used to attenuate rf signals in incremental steps? |
Decade attenuators |
|
|
The core of Fiber is usually made of plastic, glass, or what else? |
Plastic-Clad Silica (PCS) |
|
|
What type of fiber optic cores have high attenuation (25 dB/km), require precision tools and connectors, and are extremely susceptible to mechanical damage? |
Glass |
|
|
What injects a short, intense laser pulse into the fiber and monitors reflections caused by breaks, inclusions, microcracks, and discontinuities? |
OTDR |
|
|
What is used with an OTDR to provide visual evidence of fiber faults, connector and splice locations, and attenuation locations? |
Oscilloscope |
|
|
What measures the input versus the output of light in an optical fiber? |
Optical ohmmeter |
|
|
What is test equipment designed to evaluate the operational performance of a piece of equipment or printed circuit board (pcb)? |
Automatic Test Equipment (ATE) |
|
|
What provides on-site screen testing and fault isolation of digital pcb’s and modules? |
AN/USM-465 |
|
|
What is a versatile troubleshooting tool used to statically test resistors, capacitors, inductors, diodes, transistors, multiple-component circuits, and integrated circuits? |
Huntron Tracker 2000 |
|
|
Testing components by what method is the most preferred method for troubleshooting? |
Comparison |
|
|
What are impedance-measuring instruments that determine the ratio of reactance to resistance of capacitors or inductors and resistors? |
Q meters |
|
|
What are among the most accurate types of measuring devices used in the measurement of impedance? |
Bridges |
|
|
What are used in bridge circuits to control the application of operating power to the bridge and to complete the detector circuit? |
Switches |
|
|
What is recommended for the indicating device in bridges used for the measurement of very high resistances? |
Electronic multimeter |
|
|
Commercially manufactured Kelvin bridges have accuracies of approximately what percent for resistance ranges from 0.001 ohm to 25 ohms? |
2% |
|
|
What is a commonly used type of bridge for the measurement of capacitors and dielectric losses? |
Schering bridge |
|
|
What property of a capacitor is defined as the reciprocal of the dissipation factor, which is the ratio of the capacitor's dielectric constant to its conductivity at a given frequency? |
Q |
|
|
What type of bridge is used for the measurement of inductance and the Q of the inductor? |
Hay |
|
|
A typical range of values that can be measured with the Hay bridge is from 1 microhenry to 100 henries. The accuracy of the measurements made with this bridge is about what percent? |
2% |
|
|
What type of bridge is used for the measurement of inductance and inductive Q but can measure higher ranges than the Hay bridge? |
Maxwell |
|
|
Typical commercial impedance angle meters, operating at 2 MHz, are accurate to within what percent for impedances of from 10 to 500 ohms? |
4% |
|
|
What is used to determine the ratio of power changes or to indicate the power level in a circuit with respect to either 0 or a standard reference level? |
Decibel |
|
|
What meters are useful for making measurements where direct indication in decibels is desired? |
dB Meter |
|
|
What is used to measure power taken from ac or dc power sources? |
Electrodynamic wattmeter |
|
|
The maximum current range of electrodynamic wattmeters is normally restricted to about how many amperes? |
20 |
|
|
Wattmeters used as laboratory standards have an accuracy of 0.1%, high-grade portable wattmeters an accuracy of 0.2% to 0.25%, and high-grade switchboard wattmeters an accuracy of what percent of full-scale value? |
1% |
|
|
Iron-core wattmeters are primarily used as what instruments and employ the induction principle? |
Switchboard |
|
|
What are used for direct, small power measurements or for power measurements at frequencies beyond the range of electrodynamometer-type instruments? |
Electronic wattmeters |
|
|
The frequency range of the electronic wattmeter can be extended up to how many megahertz by using pentodes instead of triode tubes? |
20 |
|
|
What can be used in a bridge circuit so that small resistance changes can be easily detected and power measurement can be accomplished by the substitution method? |
Bolometer |
|
|
An air-mounted bolometer provides a power sensitivity how many or more times greater than that provided by static calorimetric devices? |
100 |
|
|
Typical dimensions of a thermistor bead used for microwave measurements are 0.015 inch along its major axis and what size along its minor axis? |
0.010 inch |
|
|
What is the standard power meter used in the Navy that is an automatic self-balancing instrument employing dual-bridge circuits? |
Hewlett-Packard 431 C |
|
|
What are the most accurate of all instruments for measuring high power? |
Calorimeters |
|
|
Power measurement with true calorimeter methods is based solely on temperature, mass, and what else? |
Time |
|
|
Calorimeters are classified as static (nonflow) and what other types? |
Circulating (flow) |
|
|
What is the most common type of static calorimeter? |
Adiabatic |
|
|
What provides a method of using two calorimetric bodies thermally shielded against ambient temperature variations and improves sensitivity? |
Twin calorimeter |
|
|
What frequency standard maintained by the U.S. National Bureau of Standards has long-term stability and an accuracy of 1 part in 10^12, using an atomic clock? |
Primary |
|
|
What is generally used in conjunction with the measurement of the rotational speed of a teletypewriter or facsimile motor? |
Tuning fork |
|
|
Stroboscopes generally have a high- and low-range switch. The typical low range is from 600 to 3,600 rpm, and the upper range is from 3,600 to how many rpm? |
15,000 |
|
|
The most common instruments available for the measurement of audio frequencies are oscilloscopes and what else? |
Frequency counters |
|
|
Radio-frequency measurements are primarily made with what? |
Frequency counters |
|
|
Most oscilloscopes are limited in use to approximately what frequency? |
100 MHz |
|
|
Frequency meters are capable of measuring frequencies in the range of 1 to how many gigahertz? |
40 |
|
|
What are calibrated resonant circuits used to measure frequency? |
Wavemeters |
|
|
The three basic kinds of wavemeters include the following: Absorption, Reaction, and what other type? |
Transmission |
|
|
What is the ratio of the maximum voltage or current to the minimum voltage or current at any point along a transmission line? |
Standing-Wave Ratio (SWR) |
|
|
What method permits measurement of the standing-wave ratio without actually measuring the standing waves? |
Bridge |
|
|
The Hewlett-Packard Model 415E swr meter is designed to be operated at a mean center frequency of what? |
1,000 hertz |
|
|
What property of insulating material is probably the manufacturer’s most important consideration and is the primary factor that affects the size of the coaxial cable? |
Dielectric constant (K) |
|
|
What occurs when two or more frequencies become mixed across a nonlinear device? |
Intermodulation distortion |
|
|
What occurs when a signal from an adjacent channel crosses over into a second channel and modulates the frequency of the second channel? |
Cross modulation |
|
|
What occurs when regenerative feedback is sufficient to cause a circuit to oscillate, even though it is not designed to oscillate? |
Parasitic generation |
|
|
What is a term used by technicians and engineers alike that generally signifies dissatisfaction with the shape of the wave processed by an amplifier? |
Distortion |
|
|
Attaining 100% amplitude modulation of an rf carrier with a sine wave requires a modulating power equal to what amount of the rf carrier power? |
Half |
|
|
An increase in the power output of an AM transmitter is indicated by an increase in what? |
Antenna current |
|
|
What is widely used as an amplitude-modulation monitor and measuring instrument? |
Oscilloscope |
|
|
What are the two types of modulation patterns provided by the oscilloscope, depending upon the hookup used? |
Wave-envelope and Trapezoidal |
|
|
What type of modulation is a form of amplitude modulation in which only one sideband is transmitted with a suppressed carrier? |
Single-sideband |
|
|
Deviation in frequency is usually expressed in what? |
Kilohertz |
|
|
Typical accuracies for a modulation analyzer are within what percent? |
±1% |
|
|
What is an analysis of a complex waveform, prepared in terms of a graphic plot of the amplitude versus frequency known as? |
Spectrum analysis |
|
|
What three axes of degree are important when considering varying frequency? |
Amplitude, time, and frequency |
|
|
Present-day spectrum analyzers can measure segments of the frequency spectra from 0 hertz to as high as what when used with waveguide mixers? |
300 gigahertz |
|
|
Complex waveforms are divided into what two groups? |
Periodic and Nonperiodic |
|
|
The modulation energy in an amplitude-modulated wave is contained entirely within the what? |
Sidebands |
|
|
The amount by which the frequency departs from the average is controlled by the amplitude of the modulating signal. What is this variation referred to as? |
Frequency deviation |
|
|
What is used to pulse-modulate the constant frequency rf carrier to produce the pulse radar output? |
Rectangular wave |
|
|
What is the term for distinguishing a signal from other signals near it? |
Resolving |
|
|
Modern spectrum analyzers have been refined to the degree that IF bandwidths are less than what? |
1 hertz |
|
|
What is a testing and measurement technique that has found increasing usefulness in testing transmission lines (both metallic and fiber-optic), cables, strip lines, connectors, and other wideband systems or components? |
Time-domain reflectometry |
|
|
What is the ratio between the minimum and maximum swr values is then taken as the system? |
Figure of Merit |
|
|
What testing is used to determine the bandwidth, alignment, frequency response, impedance matching, and attenuation in various circuits, systems, and components? |
Swept-Frequency |
|
|
What is basically a sweep generator in which the sweep rate is matched to that of the spectrum analyzer? |
Tracking generator |
|
|
Circuit impedance is measured conveniently by using what principle? |
Reflectometer |
|
|
What is one of the more common and useful applications for using the swept-frequency technique? |
Antenna system testing |
|
|
The measured vswr (within the operating frequency range) of any broadband antenna should not exceed a vswr of what? |
2.5 to 1 |
|
|
The vswr for any single-tuned antenna should not exceed what at the tuned frequency? |
1.5 to 1 |
|
|
The first mechanical adding machine (calculator) was invented by Blaise Pascal (French) in what year? |
1642 |
|
|
What is designed to perform a specific operation and usually satisfies the needs of a particular type of problem? |
Special-purpose computer |
|
|
The computers of the first generation (1951-1958) were physically very large machines characterized by what? |
Vacuum tube |
|
|
The computers of the second generation (what years), were characterized by transistors instead of vacuum tubes? |
1959-1963 |
|
|
Third generation computers (1964-1970), many of which are still in use, are characterized by what? |
Miniaturized circuits |
|
|
What is a modern shipboard computer system designed to support shipboard and intermediate level maintenance, supply, financial, and administrative functions? |
SNAP II |
|
|
What is a listing of the repair parts that are allowed to be kept onboard ship, at all times? |
COSAL |
|
|
What is the reference for stock numbers, part numbers, and quantity allowed onboard for a specific system? |
APL |
|
|
What is a listing of all work to be performed by a certain work center during a given time period? |
Ship’s force work list |
|
|
What provides shipboard maintenance managers with a consolidated listing of deferred maintenance to manage and control its accomplishment? |
CSMP |
|
|
What manages the computer and allows you to run application programs like word processing or recordkeeping programs? |
Operating System |
|
|
Components or tools of a computer system are grouped into one of what two categories? |
Hardware or Software |
|
|
What is the brain of the computer? |
CPU |
|
|
What transform the digital computer into a system that is more than a high- speed adding machine? |
Logic instructions |
|
|
What is the process by which instructions and data are read into the computer called? |
Loading |
|
|
What type of memory consists of a very thin crystal made of semiconductor material? |
Bubble |
|
|
What type of computer memory retains all the data and instructions even when the computer is powered down and is usually programmed from the manufacturer? |
ROM |
|
|
What is the working memory of the computer and is volatile (loses its data when the computer powers down)? |
RAM |
|
|
What type of memory has the advantages of ROM with the additional flexibility to program the memory to meet a unique need? |
PROM |
|
|
What type of memory has the advantages of ROM but also allows you the flexibility to change programs to include improvements or modifications in the future? |
EPROM |
|
|
The storage capacities of magnetic drums range from 20 million to more than how many characters (or bytes) of data? |
150,000 million |
|
|
A high average speed for keyboard operation is how many characters per second? |
2-3 |
|
|
What printers have the most professional-looking, pleasing-to-the-eye print of all the printers in the character-at-a-time impact printer class? |
Daisy-wheel |
|
|
The speeds of daisywheel printers range from 30 to how many characters per second (cps)? |
60 |
|
|
Dot-matrix printers are faster than the daisy-wheel printers with speeds ranging from 60 to how many cps, but their print quality is not as good? |
350 |
|
|
Ink jet printers can print up to how many cps? |
300 |
|
|
Laser printers can print up to how many cps? |
26,666 |
|
|
The major grouping of keyswitches on a keyboard will be in one of what two styles of a typewriter keyboard arrangement? |
QWERTY or DVORAK |
|
|
What is defined in terms of the number of picture elements that can be displayed on the horizontal line without overlapping or running into each other? |
Horizontal resolution |
|
|
Gas plasma displays use approximately 200 volts to charge the electrodes, and electroluminescent displays require only how many volts? |
20 |
|
|
What is the memory outside the main body of the computer (cpu) where we store programs and data for future use? |
Secondary storage |
|
|
What is the heart of any computer system? |
Operating System |
|
|
UNIX is a trademark of what company? |
AT&T |
|
|
What eliminate the need for programmers to write new programs when all they want to do is copy, print, or sort a data file? |
Utility programs |
|
|
What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order? |
Sorting |
|
|
What is the combining of two or more ordered files into one file? |
Merging |
|
|
What are used to generate programs to print detail and summary reports of data files? |
Report Program Generators (RPG) |
|
|
What allow the programmer to write a single instruction that is equivalent to a specified sequence of machine instructions? |
Macroinstructions |
|
|
What type of languages were developed to allow a programmer to work in a language that is close to English or mathematical notation? |
Procedure-oriented |
|
|
What was designed as a teaching language to help beginning programmers write programs? |
BASIC |
|
|
What is being used by many colleges and universities to teach programming because it is fairly easy to learn; yet is a more powerful language than BASIC? |
PASCAL |
|
|
What is a modern general-purpose language designed with the professional programmer in mind and has many unique features to aid in the implementation of large scale applications and real-time systems? |
Ada |
|
|
What is the process of planning the computer solution to a problem? |
Programming |
|
|
What is one method of pictorially representing a procedural (step-by-step) solution to a problem before you actually start to write the computer instructions required to produce the desired results? |
Flowcharting |
|
|
Within a flowchart, what are used to specify arithmetic operations and relational conditions? |
Graphic symbols |
|
|
What is the fundamental element in program preparation? |
Instruction |
|
|
What instructions allow comparison between variables, or between variables and constants? |
Logic |
|
|
Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred to as what? |
Bugs |
|
|
What is a collection of related elements or items, that when properly coded into some type of input medium, can be processed by a computer? |
Data |
|
|
Using an 8-bit code, it is possible to represent how many different characters or bit combinations? |
256 |
|
|
What provides an internal means for checking the validity, the correctness, of code construction? |
Parity bit |
|
|
What represents the smallest unit of data? |
Bit |
|
|
Eight bits are equal to one what? |
Byte |
|
|
What is a group of related bytes that are treated as a single addressable unit or entity in memory known as? |
Word |
|
|
What is one or more related characters that are treated as a unit of information known as? |
Field |
|
|
What is a group of related fields, all pertaining to the same subject; a person, a thing, or an event called? |
Record |
|
|
What is a collection of related records called? |
File |
|
|
Data files may be stored on or in sequential-access storage, direct-access storage, or what type of storage? |
Random-access |
|
|
What can be defined as any system composed of one or more computers and terminals? |
Network |
|
|
Various machines are linked together within a building or adjacent buildings in what type of network? |
LAN |
|
|
What type of communications channel uses the basic frequency band of radio waves and a coaxial cable? |
Baseband |
|
|
What type of networks provide for global connections and are sometimes referred to as global networks? |
WAN |
|
|
What converts the digital signal produced by your terminal or the computer to an audio signal suitable for transmission over the communications line? |
MODEM |
|
|
What is the physical link or medium that is used to carry (or transmit) data from one location to another? |
Communications channel |
|
|
Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what? |
Handshaking |
|
|
What is the term used for the specific set of rules that govern handshaking and message characters? |
Protocol |
|
|
What is the interface between the user and the computer system? |
I/O control |
|
|
What contains the program name or names and the job or task number under which the job (or system) is to be executed? |
Run sheet |
|
|
What are used to provide application programs with variable information? |
Control Parameters |
|
|
What is the most common type of user support that a technician will deal with? |
Logistical |
|
|
Who are responsible for keeping the AIS facility’s assembly line running as smoothly and efficiently as possible? |
Schedulers |
|
|
Which type of processing includes ensuring that all inputs are received on time according to prearranged schedules? |
Precomputer |
|
|
Which type of processing includes ensuring output products are complete, accurate, and delivered to the user when promised? |
Postcomputer |
|
|
Which personnel act as the liaison between the AIS facility and the user community? |
Production control |
|
|
Which personnel make production commitments for the AIS facility to meet user requirements? |
Scheduling |
|
|
Which personnel handle all incoming work for AIS services along with all types of input media from the user? |
I/O Control |
|
|
Which personnel review all completed output products from data entry and computer operations to determine their accuracy and completeness before releasing them to I/O control personnel for further processing and distribution? |
Quality Control |
|
|
Which personnel examine problems that occur during production to determine if errors were caused by hardware or system/applications software? |
Technical Support |
|
|
Which scheduling phase allows everyone to see where there may be an overloading or underloading of AIS resources? |
Forecasting |
|
|
How many moving parts does the scheduling process have? |
3 |
|
|
Jobs may abort because of system or program processing errors. What is the key to determining what caused the problem? |
Abort code |
|
|
How many different topics can system downtime and nonavailability be categorized under? |
2 |
|
|
How often are inventories normally conducted? |
Annually |
|
|
What is a random-access memory (RAM) buffer that provides high-speed storage capabilities from main memory and makes this data available to the central processor with a private central processor/cache interface? |
Cache memory |
|
|
What amount of increase in processing speeds can be expected from cache memory for average program mixes? |
50% |
|
|
What can occur when you delete a file, leaving, basically a hole in the information on the hard disk, or when you add information to an existing file when there is no contiguous space left next to the file? |
File fragmentation |
|
|
Which priority category for trouble reports means that you cannot work around the problem to continue operating? |
Critical |
|
|
Which priority category for trouble reports means that you can work around the problem, but a resolution is required immediately? |
Urgent |
|
|
Which priority category for trouble reports means that the correction is needed, but you can work around the problem and live with it until it is fixed? |
Routine |
|
|
How many different categories do backup operations fall into? |
2 |
|
|
Which type of saves need to be done before and after the implementation of a software upgrade and during monthly and yearly production runs? |
Special |
|
|
Which disaster recovery item covers what is required to get the facility back online as soon as possible? |
Contingency plan |
|
|
What is the total of all Navy-operated communications installations and services? |
Naval Communications Complex |
|
|
What provides a unified governmental system that links together the communications facilities and components of the various Federal agencies? |
National Communications System (NCS) |
|
|
What combines many of the communication elements of the three military forces into a single communications system? |
Defense Communications System (DCS) |
|
|
What gives operational direction to the Defense Communications System (DCS)? |
Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) |
|
|
What has the mission of providing and maintaining reliable, secure, and rapid communications, based on war requirements, to meet the needs of the Naval operating forces? |
Naval communications |
|
|
What provides electrical and optical communications from the commander in chief and naval commanders down to all naval forces under its command? |
Naval Telecommunications System (NTS) |
|
|
Who is responsible for the operational direction and management control of the assigned elements of the Naval Telecommunications System (NTS)? |
Commander, Naval Computer and Telecommunications Command (COMNAVCOMTELCOM) |
|
|
What serves as the Department of the Navy (DON) manager of leased portions of Navy dedicated and common-user information transmission systems? |
Commander, Naval Computer and Telecommunications Command (COMNAVCOMTELCOM) |
|
|
How many NCTAMSs are there? |
4 |
|
|
How many Naval Communications Areas is the world divided into? |
4 |
|
|
What is the focal point for fleet communications support? |
Fleet Telecommunications Operations Center (FTOC) |
|
|
What is a communications station with the primary responsibility for communications in a large specific area? |
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Station (NAVCOMTELSTA) |
|
|
What is a small telecommunications facility that is assigned a limited, or specialized, mission and has a limited number of personnel and facilities? |
Naval Computer and Telecommunications Detachment (NAVCOMTELDET) |
|
|
What provide AIS services in areas where no NARDACs are located? |
Naval Data Automation Facilities (NAVDAFs) |
|
|
What are responsible for the cryptologic and related functions of the Navy? |
Naval Security Group Departments (NAVSECGRUDEPTs) |
|
|
What provides auxiliary communications to military, civil, and/or disaster officials during periods of emergency? |
Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) |
|
|
Which type of communications are routed up and down the chain of command? |
Vertical |
|
|
Which type of communications are routed to other divisions and departments? |
Horizontal |
|
|
Who is responsible for the communications of the command? |
Commanding Officer (CO) |
|
|
Who is responsible for the organization, supervision, and coordination of the command’s exterior communications? |
Communications Officer (COMM officer) |
|
|
Who is in charge of the communications center? |
Radio Officer |
|
|
Who is responsible to the Communications Officer for ensuring compliance with existing communications directives and monitoring the performance of on-watch personnel and spaces? |
Communications Watch Officer (CWO) |
|
|
Which publication should be consulted for a detailed listing of CWO duties? |
NTP 4 |
|
|
Who is responsible to the CWO for establishing and maintaining required circuits, and initiating action to restore or bypass failed equipment? |
Tech control supervisor |
|
|
What are directives that are issued by naval commanders to subordinates for the purpose of effecting coordinated execution of an operation? |
Operation Orders (OPORDs) |
|
|
How are all messages that are processed in your message center accounted for? |
Logs |
|
|
Which form is used to record messages sent via ship-shore circuits? |
OPNAV Form 2110-15 |
|
|
Which type of message only has one addressee which may be either for action or information? |
Single-address |
|
|
At least how many addressees does a message have to have before it is considered to be a Multiple-address message? |
2 |
|
|
Which type of message is destined for two or more addressees but the drafter doesn’t consider it necessary to inform each addressee of the other addressee(s)? |
Book |
|
|
Which type of message has a wide, predetermined, standard distribution? |
General |
|
|
How many letters do address groups consist of? |
4 |
|
|
Address groups never start with which letter? |
N |
|
|
Which publication contains the address groups? |
ACP 100 |
|
|
Which type of address groups represent two or more commands or activities? |
Collective |
|
|
Which type of address groups have incomplete meanings and must have geographic address groups added to them to denote a specific command or location? |
Conjunctive |
|
|
How many or more specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and/or information addressees do Address Indicating Groups (AIGs) represent? |
16 |
|
|
Which publication contains a complete listing of AIGs by number, cognizant authority, and purpose? |
NTP 3 SUPP-1 |
|
|
Special Operating Groups (SOGs) are not used unless they are specifically authorized by whom? |
CNO |
|
|
Who is responsible for making the required number of copies each subscriber requires and slotting the messages into the appropriate subscriber box? |
Distribution clerk |
|
|
How many envelopes are classified messages placed into? |
2 |
|
|
How many digits does the Date-Time Group (DTG) consist of? |
6 |
|
|
Which zone suffix is used as the universal time for all messages? |
Z |
|
|
What will never be used by Radiomen as the DTG of a message? |
2400Z and 0000Z |
|
|
How many zones is the Earth divided into in the GMT system? |
24 |
|
|
Where does the 0° meridian pass through in the GMT system? |
Greenwich, England |
|
|
How many digits does the Julian date consist of? |
7 |
|
|
Which message precedence category is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but which are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence? |
Routine (R) |
|
|
Which message precedence category is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress? |
Priority (P) |
|
|
What is the highest precedence that is normally authorized for administrative messages? |
Priority (P) |
|
|
Which message precedence category is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace? |
Immediate (O) |
|
|
message precedence category is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency? |
Flash (Z) |
|
|
Who is identified as any user who is authorized to draft, release, and/or process electronically transmitted messages? |
Message user |
|
|
Who is the authority in whose name the message is sent? |
Originator |
|
|
Who is the person who actually composes the message? |
Drafter |
|
|
How many days are messages held in the message center file? |
60 |
|
|
Which word means “It is now mandatory that normal message and telephone traffic be reduced drastically so that vital messages connected with the situation indicated will not be delayed.”? |
MINIMIZE |
|
|
How many words should Flash messages be restricted to at a maximum during minimize conditions? |
100 |
|
|
How many words should Immediate messages be restricted to at a maximum during minimize conditions? |
200 |
|
|
Which type of messages are short, concise messages between communications personnel that have the authority of an official communication and must receive prompt attention? |
Service |
|
|
Which publication contains detailed information on service messages? |
JANAP 128 |
|
|
Which type of messages are sent to determine the reason for excessive delay or nondelivery of a previously sent message? |
Tracer |
|
|
How many days after the original time of transmission for a tactical addressee must tracer action requests be initiated? |
4 |
|
|
How many days after the original time of transmission for a non-tactical addressee must tracer action requests be initiated? |
30 |
|
|
Which publication contains detailed information on tracer messages? |
JANAP 128 |
|
|
Which type of message is sent by ships to establish circuits with a NCTAMS or NAVCOMTELSTA on a limited or full-time basis? |
Termination request |
|
|
How many hours prior to activating the requested termination must a termination request message be sent to the cognizant NCTAMS? |
48 |
|
|
Which publication contains detailed information on termination request messages? |
NTP 4 |
|
|
Which type of messages are required when a command shifts its guard from one broadcast or servicing communications center to another? |
Communications Guard Shift (COMMSHIFT) |
|
|
Which type of service messages are used to request the rerun (ZDK) of missed or garbled messages? |
Broadcast Screen Requests (BSRs) |
|
|
Which type of reports are used to advise of any situation that might cause significant disruption of tactical communications? |
COMMSPOT |
|
|
Which file is the heart of the filing system that contains a copy or filler of every message sent or received by your command? |
Communications Center Master File |
|
|
Which file contains a copy of each Top Secret, SPECAT (less SIOP-ESI), and messages designated for special privacy, regardless of classification? |
Cryptocenter |
|
|
How many parts is the station file divided into? |
2 |
|
|
At which U.S. message level must Foreign Restricted messages be protected for when there is no U.S. equivalent? |
Confidential |
|
|
What is the retention period of the broadcast file? |
24 hours |
|
|
What is the retention period for the communications center master file? |
30 Days |
|
|
What is the retention period for the cryptocenter file? |
2 Years |
|
|
What is the retention period for the facsimile file? |
60 Days |
|
|
What is the retention period for the Top Secret control log? |
60 Days |
|
|
Which security measure was designed to protect communications systems against acceptance of false transmissions or simulations by establishing the validity of a transmission, message, or originator? |
Authentication |
|
|
What is defined as any system of communication in which arbitrary groups of symbols represent units of plain text? |
Codes |
|
|
Which system uses electromagnetic transmissions to which equipment carried by friendly forces automatically responds? |
Identification Friend or Foe (IFF) |
|
|
Which division of Electronic Warfare (EW) involves actions taken to prevent or reduce an enemy’s effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum? |
Electronic Attack (EA) |
|
|
Which division of Electronic Warfare (EW) involves actions taken to ensure friendly effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum despite an enemy’s use of electronic warfare? |
Electronic Protection (EP) |
|
|
What must be initiated by a command when it requires additions, deletions, or changes in existing Defense Communications System (DCS) circuits? |
Telecommunications Service Request (TSR) |
|
|
Which publication provides instructions for preparing and submitting Telecommunications Service Requests (TSRs)? |
DISA Circular 310-130-1 |
|
|
What is the authorization to start, change, or discontinue circuits, trunks, links, or systems? |
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) |
|
|
Which term refers to the natural vibrations that occur when a force is applied to a substance? |
Electromagnetic Spectrum |
|
|
What were the first and only two radio frequencies when the radio was invented? |
50 kHz and 1000 kHz |
|
|
The administrator of which organization grants authority for using radio frequencies by Navy and Marine Corps activities within the United States and Possessions (US&P)? |
National Telecommunications and Information Administration (NTIA) |
|
|
Who establishes the overall policy for spectrum management within the Department of the Navy? |
CNO |
|
|
Which word when used with special-handling instructions means a warning by authoritative orders that directs or imposes one to protect an element, usually special message traffic? |
Caveat |
|
|
Which marking is applied to all data concerned with the design, manufacture, or use of nuclear weapons? |
Restricted Data (RD) |
|
|
Which designation is used on official information that doesn’t require a security classification but must be withheld and protected from public release? |
For Official Use Only (FOUO) |
|
|
Which publication contains detailed information on EFTO and FOUO markings? |
NWP 4 |
|
|
How many SPECAT categories are there? |
4 |
|
|
Which classification is always assigned to SPECAT SIOP-ESI messages? |
Top Secret |
|
|
Which precedence is normally used for JCS EAMs? |
Flash |
|
|
Which type of SPECAT message is used only within the naval community for highly sensitive matters, high-level policy, or when politically sensitive information is to be passed only to a particular individual? |
SPECAT EXCLUSIVE FOR (SEF) |
|
|
Which designation is assigned to that group of communications and operational publications designated as part of the publication allowance for the command? |
Naval Warfare Publications Library (NWPL) |
|
|
Who is responsible for the upkeep and maintenance of the Naval Warfare Publications Library? |
NWPL Clerk |
|
|
Who issues NWPL publications to holders and short-term users? |
NWPL Custodian |
|
|
Which form contains a NWPL Catalog Card and is known as the custody file? |
OPNAV Form 5070-11 |
|
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Which color code is used for Confidential U.S. Naval warfare publication binders? |
Yellow |
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The NWPL watch-to-watch inventory may be destroyed after how many days if it is no longer needed for local reference? |
30 |
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Which series provide communications instructions and procedures essential to conducting combined military operations and communications in which two or more allied nations are involved? |
Allied Communications Publications (ACPs) |
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Which publications were developed to coordinate and standardize communications among the U.S. military services? |
Joint Army-Navy-Air Force Publications (JANAPs) |
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Which publication lists the short and long titles, content of each publication, and the current edition of JANAPs and ACPs? |
JANAP 201 |
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What are the main communications publications in use by the U.S. Navy, Coast Guard, and Marine Corps? |
Naval Telecommunications Publications (NTPs) |
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What incorporate the results of fleet tactical development and evaluation programs and fleet and allied (NATO) experience? |
Naval Warfare Publications (NWPs) |
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Which publications are the guiding doctrine of a NCTAMS for the communications area under its jurisdiction? |
Fleet Telecommunications Publications (FTPs) |
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What provide communications operating personnel with communications procedural information applicable to a specific COMMAREA? |
Communications Information Bulletins (CIBs) |
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What involves all the protective measures taken to deny unauthorized person information derived from the possession and study of telecommunications relating to national security? |
COMSEC |
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What was designed to ensure the proper distribution, handling, and control of COMSEC material and to maintain the cryptographic security of communications? |
Communications Security Material System (CMS) |
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Which person is designated by the Commanding Officer in writing to maintain the CMS account for the command? |
CMS custodian |
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Which publication provides details on the responsibilities of the CMS custodian and alternates? |
CMS 1 |
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What is defined as a command or activity that receives its COMSEC material support from a CMS account command? |
CMS local holder |
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Which form will be used to document destruction of COMSEC material? |
SF 153 |
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How many years must Top Secret and Secret COMSEC material destruction reports be kept? |
2 |
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How many different types of CMS inventories are there? |
3 |
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Which type of CMS inventory ensures that all accounts satisfy the national requirements for a semiannual inventory of keymat and an annual inventory of equipment and publications? |
Fixed-cycle |
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Which type of CMS inventory satisfies the Navy requirement to conduct and document the mandatory Change of Command and Custodian inventories? |
Special |
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What is used to record destruction of multiple-copy segments of COMSEC keying material packaged in canisters? |
CMS 25MC |
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Which publication gives complete details on priority destruction of CMS materials? |
CMS 1 |
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What is the maximum time after supersession that any keying material marked “CRYPTO” must be destroyed? |
12 hours |
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What is the maximum time after supersession that any superseded authentication publications and documents must be destroyed? |
5 days |
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How many different categories is COMSEC material that must be destroyed in an emergency divided into? |
3 |
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Which type of keying material must be destroyed first? Keying material that becomes effective in 1 or 2 months or superseded keying material? |
Superseded |
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Which order is keying material always destroyed in? |
Superseded, effective, then reserve |
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Which marking is used on all keying material and associated equipment to protect or authenticate national security-related information? |
CRYPTO |
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What is defined as an element of a cryptosystem that directly affects the encryption and decryption process? |
Cryptovariable |
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Which security measure was designed to protect a communications or command system against fraudulent transmissions or simulation? |
Authentication |
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Which term is used to describe four types of interference that you are likely to experience in a given situation? |
MIJI |
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Which type of interference intercepts and rebroadcasts navigation signals? |
Meaconing |
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Which type of interference is defined as any attempt by an enemy to enter U.S. or allied communications systems and simulate our traffic to confuse and deceive? |
Intrusion |
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Which type of interference is defined as the deliberate radiation, reradiation, or reflection of electromagnetic signals to disrupt enemy use of electronic devices, equipment, or systems? |
Jamming |
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What can unintentionally degrade, disrupt, obstruct, or limit the effective performance of electronic or electrical equipment? |
Interference |
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What are defined as things that can destroy your assets? |
Threats |
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What are defined as weaknesses that can be exploited? |
Vulnerabilities |
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Which process involves assessing risks, determining loss potential estimates, and selecting countermeasures appropriate to prevent, detect, minimize, and recover from successful attacks and adverse events? |
Risk management |
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What provide for the continuation of an activity’s mission during abnormal operating conditions? |
Contingency plans |
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|
How many areas of consideration are there for the Navy’s AIS security program? |
5 |
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Who serves as the primary point of contact for all matters relating to Command AIS security? |
Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM) |
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|
What is the safe rule of thumb that the temperature and humidity of the computer facility should be? |
72° Fahrenheit, ±2°, and a humidity of 55%, ±5% |
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|
What can provide auxiliary power for your equipment in an area where there are frequent brownouts? |
Uninterrupted Power Source (UPS) |
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Within how many feet must fire extinguishers be placed from computer equipment? |
50 |
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Which security mode is a computer system said to be in when the central facility and all of the connected peripheral devices and remote terminals are protected in accordance with the requirements for the highest classification category and type of material then contained in the system? |
System High |
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Which security mode is a computer system said to be in when the central facility and all of the connected peripheral devices and remote terminals are exclusively used and controlled by specific users or group of users having a security clearance and need-to-know for the processing of a particular category and type of classified material? |
Dedicated |
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What imposed numerous requirements upon federal agencies to prevent the misuse of data about individuals, respect its confidentiality, and preserve its integrity? |
Privacy Act of 1974 |
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How many days or less is working copy media retained for? |
180 |
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As a rule of thumb, interception of electromagnetic emanations beyond how many yards is very difficult? |
325 |
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What provide a means of detecting and announcing proximity or intrusion that endangers or may endanger the security of a command? |
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDSs) |
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How often should a security survey of the AIS facility area be conducted by the AIS technical manager? |
Annually |
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How many different types of contingency plans makeup a COOP security program for an AIS facililty? |
3 |
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Which publication provides guidelines for use by all Navy organizations in implementing any security safeguards that they must adopt to implement the Privacy Act? |
SECNAVINST 5239.3 |
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Which publication implements the Privacy Act and personal privacy and rights of individuals regarding their personal records? |
SECNAVINST 5211.5 |
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Who is responsible for administering and supervising the execution of the Privacy Act within the Department of the Navy? |
CNO |
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What is the status accorded to data that requires protection from unauthorized disclosure? |
Confidentiality |
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What is the state that exists when data agrees with the source from which it is derived, and when it has not been either accidentally or maliciously altered, disclosed, or destroyed? |
Integrity |
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How many different categories are the safeguards that provide data protection grouped into? |
3 |
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|
Which publication contains guidelines for identification and access? |
OPNAVINST 5510.1 |
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What are unintentional data-related or intelligence-bearing signals referred to as? |
TEMPEST |
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What is used to determine the vulnerability of a ship, aircraft, shore station, transportable equipment, or a contractor facility? |
Tempest Vulnerability Assessment (TVA) |
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What is used to prevent an enemy from detecting, identifying, and locating friendly forces? |
EMCON |
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Which publication is the authority for the proper handling, storage, accounting, classification, and clearances of NATO material? |
OPNAVINST C5510.101 |
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|
How often at a minimum must the combinations of security containers containing classified information be changed? |
2 years |
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What are records of combinations sealed in? |
SF 700 |
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Which marking is applied to all data concerned with the design, manufacture, or use of nuclear weapons? |
Restricted Data (RD) |
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How many different SPECAT categories are there? |
4 |
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Which classification is always applied to SPECAT SIOP-ESI messages? |
Top Secret |
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Who is responsible for the receipt, custody, accounting, and disposition of Top Secret material in the command? |
Top Secret Control Officer (TSCO) |
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Who is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information processed in the automated system? |
Information Systems Security Officer (ISSO) |
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Fabric typewriter ribbons used in typing classified material may be considered as unclassified when both the upper and lower sections have been recycled through the machine at least how many times in the course of regular typing? |
5 |
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Top Secret, SPECAT/TS, and above material will be destroyed by two witnessing officials. How many years must the destruction records be retained for? |
2 |
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Which publication contains specific procedures on security requirements for handling and storing AIS material? |
OPNAVINST 5239.1 |
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|
How many or more fathoms deep should the sea be prior to jettisoning material during emergency destruction? |
1,000 |
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|
How many areas of emergencies must be covered by emergency plans? |
3 |
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|
Which type of network are the workstations in close proximity to each other, usually within the same building? |
Local Area Network (LAN) |
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|
Which type of network are the workstations basewide as in one command connected to another command or one base connected to another base? |
Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) |
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|
How many primary modes of system operation are there? |
2 |
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How many common situations for rebooting the system are there? |
4 |
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Which term refers to the process of recording events and using that information to detect usage violations or to confirm that network procedures are operating correctly? |
Auditing |
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|
What is defined as a mechanism by which one computing element can get the attention of another element? |
Interrupt |
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|
How many Interrupt Request Lines (IRQs) for hardware interrupts are there in a PC environment? |
16 |
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What is defined as a connection on the back of a computer where you connect peripherals, switches, networks, or other devices? |
Port |
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Which type of hardware connection is used to send data one bit at a time and is very good for sending information over a long distance? |
Serial |
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|
Which names are reserved by DOS to reserve the first serial and parallel ports, respectively? |
COM1 and LPT1 |
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|
During the pinging process what is the ping that is sent out called? |
Echo message |
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What prevents files from being updated by more than one user at a time? |
Data Integrity |
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Which term refers to duplicate hardware and network facility segments that are available at all times? |
Redundancy |
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|
What is the physical arrangement of a LAN’s components called? |
Topology |
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|
What are the three major types of LAN configurations or topologies? |
Star, Bus, and Ring |
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|
Which type of network is each component connected directly to the central computer or network server? |
Star |
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Which type of network are all components or nodes connected to the same cable, and the far ends of this cable never meet? |
Bus |
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Of all the topologies which is the least reliable because it has a single point of failure? |
Star |
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What is the wiring concentrator which allows workstations to be either inserted or bypassed on the ring? |
Multistation Access Unit (MAU) |
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|
What define how networks establish communications between elements, exchange information, and terminate communications? |
Protocols |
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|
How many major functions do protocols have? |
2 |
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Which control procedure sends multiple blocks of data and returns a single acknowledgement for many blocks, thereby increasing the amount of time spent transmitting data? |
SDLC |
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|
What are the two principal network access methods? |
Contention and Token passing |
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|
How many layers does the OSI model consist of? |
7 |
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|
What provides a basis for coordinating the development of standards that relate to the flexible interconnection of incompatible systems using data communications facilities? |
Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model is the physical layer? |
1 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the data link layer? |
2 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the network layer? |
3 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the transport layer? |
4 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the session layer? |
5 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the presentation layer? |
6 |
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Which layer of the OSI model is the application layer? |
7 |
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Which layer of the OSI model addresses the electrical, mechanical, and functional interface to the carrier? |
Physical |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model provides error-free transmission of information over the physical medium? |
Data link |
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Which layer of the OSI model decides which physical pathway the data should take? |
Network |
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Which layer of the OSI model ensures data units are delivered error-free, in sequence, with no losses or duplications? |
Transport |
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Which layer of the OSI model performs the functions that enable two applications to communicate across the network, performing security, name recognition, logging, administration, and other similar functions? |
Session |
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Which layer of the OSI model provides a common representation of data that can be used between the application processes? |
Presentation |
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Which layer of the OSI model provides data encryption for privacy and authentication? |
Presentation |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model represents the services that directly support users and application tasks? |
Application |
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|
What is by far the cheapest type of transmission media? |
Twisted-wire pairs |
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|
What are the two most common types of twisted-pair media? |
22 and 24 gauge |
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|
What is the transmission rate of a T1 line? |
1.5 Mbps |
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|
What is the transmission rate of a T2 line? |
6.3 Mbps |
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|
What is the transmission rate of a T3 line? |
46 Mbps |
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|
What is the transmission rate of a T4 line? |
281 Mbps |
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|
Coaxial cable is used extensively in local-area networks whenever the distance involved is relatively short, generally less than 2 miles for baseband LANs and how many miles for broadband LANs? |
10 |
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|
What is defined as a software package that makes it possible to implement and control a network and enables users to use the resources and services on that network? |
Network Operating System (NOS) |
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|
What are used to secure a Local Area Network from a public network? |
Firewalls |
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|
What can be used to amplify electrical signals? |
Repeaters |
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|
What make it possible to interconnect like LANs? |
Bridges |
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|
What enable networks to communicate using the most efficient path? |
Routers |
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|
What make it possible to interconnect unlike LANs? |
Gateways |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model do repeaters work at? |
1 |
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Which layers of the OSI model do bridges work on? |
1 and 2 |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model do routers work on? |
3 |
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Which layers of the OSI model can a brouter work on? |
2 or 3 |
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|
Which layer of the OSI model do gateways work on? |
7 |
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|
What serves as a termination point for cable running from individual nodes in a network? |
Concentrator |
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Which device serves as a common termination point that can relay signals along the appropriate paths? |
Hub |
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Which type of transmission media is immune to interference caused by electrical or electronic devices? |
Fiber |
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|
Which type of cable refers to the cable that forms the main trunk of a network? |
Backbone |
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|
How many different types of backbone cable are recognized by EIA/TIA-568? |
4 |
|
|
What is the central computer in a network that is responsible for managing the network? |
Server |
|
|
Which type of servers can be used as both a server and a workstation? |
Non-dedicated |
|
|
What are the majority of all network-related problems caused by? |
Operator error |
|
|
How many primary culprits to network malfunctions are there? |
3 |
|
|
How many categories are component failures categorized into? |
2 |
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|
What are the simple set of system checks called that are stored in ROM that are run when the computer is turned on? |
Power On Self Test (POST) |
|
|
Which device can be used to monitor the activity of a network and the stations on it and provides daily summaries or long-term trends of network usage and performance? |
Network analyzer |
|
|
What is the simultaneous presence of signals from two nodes on the network referred to as? |
Data collision |
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|
What is the hardware signal that is sent from a potential transmitter to a destination to indicate that the transmitter wishes to begin a transmission? |
Request To Send (RTS) |
|
|
What is the hardware signal that is sent from a receiver to a transmitter to indicate that the transmitter can begin sending? |
Clear To Send (CTS) |
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|
Which term is used to describe the random electrical signals that become part of a transmission, that serve to make the signal component of the transmission more difficult to identify? |
Noise |
|
|
How is the Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) usually expressed? |
dB |
|
|
What can be used to determine how long a cable segment can be before the signal loss is unacceptably high? |
Signal-to-Noise Ratio (SNR) |
|
|
What is defined as the decrease in signal strength, measured in decibels (dB) per 100 feet? |
Attenuation |
|
|
What is defined as interference in the form of a signal from a neighboring cable or circuit? |
Crosstalk |
|
|
What is used to try to eliminate the effects of certain types of distortions on the signal? |
Line conditioning |
|
|
Which device is used to test the integrity of a section of cable before the cable is even unwound? |
Time Domain Reflectometry (TDR) |
|
|
Which type of connector uses two prongs to pierce the cable to make its connection? |
Vampire tap |
|
|
The objective of what is to authorize initial andcontinued access to classified information and/or initial andcontinued assignment to sensitive duties to those persons whoseloyalty, reliability and trustworthiness are such thatentrusting them with classified information or assigning them tosensitive duties is clearly consistent with the interests ofnational security? |
Personnel Security Program (PSP) |
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|
Who is responsible for establishing andmaintaining a PSP in compliance with the provisions of EOs,public laws, NSC, DoD regulations and other security directives regarding trustworthiness standards and the protection ofclassified information? |
SECNAV |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuringthat the DON has an effective PSP and for complying with alldirectives issued by higher authority? |
CNO (N09N) |
|
|
Standards for the classification and safeguarding of national security information are detailed in EO 12958 and further amended by what? |
EO 13292 |
|
|
What provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security matters? |
National Security Council (NSC) |
|
|
Who is a United States cabinet-level official who serves as the head of the Intelligence Community (IC), and is the principal advisor to the President, the NSC, and the Homeland Security Council for intelligence matters related to national security? |
Director of National Intelligence (DNI) |
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|
What has the responsibility for issuing directives as necessary to implement EO 12958 and provides guidance regarding the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, Standard Form (SF) 312? |
Director of the Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO) |
|
|
The Policy Coordinating Committees (PCC) are how many interagency committees established by National Security Presidential Directive (NSPD-1) to coordinate interagency national security policy issues? |
Seventeen |
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|
Who interprets EO provisions in response to questions arising from implementation upon request from the head of an agency or the Director, ISOO? |
Attorney General of the United States |
|
|
What is the single provider of personnel security investigative products for the DoD? |
OPM |
|
|
Who is charged by Title 50 U.S.C. Section 403(g), National Security Act of 1947, with protecting intelligence sources and methods? |
DCI |
|
|
What is the primary internal security agency of the Government with jurisdiction over investigative matters, which include espionage, sabotage, treason and other subversive activities? |
Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) |
|
|
Who is the DON agency head responsible under EO 12968 for establishing and maintaining an effective PSP to ensure that access to classified information by each DON employee is clearly consistent with the interests of national security? |
SECNAV |
|
|
What provides centralized coordination and direction for signals intelligence and communications security for the Federal Government? |
National Security Agency (NSA) |
|
|
What coordinates the intelligence efforts of the Army, Navy and Air Force and is responsible for implementation of standards and operational management of Sensitive Compartmented Information (SCI) for the DoD? |
Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) |
|
|
What administers the DoD Industrial Security Program, DoD's Security Education, Training and Awareness Program, and serves as the Executive Agency for PSP automation, including the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) and DoD’s Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-Qip) program? |
Defense Security Service (DSS) |
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|
What makes personnel security eligibility determinations for individuals in private industry (contractors) who need access to classified information in order to perform their jobs and responds to requests for information regarding contractor personnel security clearance applications? |
Defense Industrial Security Clearance Office (DISCO) |
|
|
What administers due process procedures for Industrial Security Program unfavorable personnel security determinations and provides hearings and appeals support to DoD military and civilian unfavorable personnel security determinations? |
Defense Office of Hearings and Appeals (DOHA) |
|
|
The President, Personnel Security Appeals Board (PSAB) presides over the PSAB, a how many-member panel appointed by CNO (N09N) to review and decide appeals of unfavorable DON CAF determinations? |
Three |
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|
The Director of what reports directly to DIRNCIS and is the personnel security adjudicative determination authority for all individuals affiliated with the DON? |
DON CAF |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring the information technology security for DON Information Technology (IT) systems? |
DON CIO |
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring personnel security requirements for Navy military members are properly identified to JPAS and that matters relating to the DON’s PSP are appropriately coordinated with CNO (N09N2)? |
Chief of Naval Personnel |
|
|
What is responsible for the security management, implementation, and oversight of SCI security programs for CNO(N2)? |
Office of Naval Intelligence (ONI) |
|
|
Who is delegated the authority to approve or disapprove requests for access to or transfer of DON technical data or disclosure of DON classified or sensitive unclassified information to foreigngovernments, international organizations and theirrepresentatives in accordance with national disclosure policy? |
Director, Navy International Programs Office (Navy IPO) |
|
|
Commanding Officers are responsible for day-to-day PSP management and suspending access to classified information for causewhen warranted, notifying the DON CAF within how many days andforwarding all pertinent information to DON CAF for a personnelsecurity eligibility determination? |
10 |
|
|
Programs requiring security measures in addition to thoserequirements for the protection of Top Secret, Secret orConfidential classified information, which are established byand within the DoD are referred to as what? |
Special Access Programs (SAPs) |
|
|
Who is responsible for thecoordination of the approval, administration, support, review,oversight, and reporting of all DON SAPs? |
CNO (N7SP) |
|
|
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for officers (W2-O6)? |
FITREP |
|
|
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for chief petty officers (CPO) (E7-E9)? |
CHIEFEVAL |
|
|
What does the Navy performance evaluation system utilize for for enlisted personnel (E1-E6)? |
EVAL |
|
|
What is the highest grade performance traits are given in the Navy performance evaluation system? |
5.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grade represents performance to full Navy standards? |
3.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grades must be substantiated in the comments, as well as general comments on the remainder of the evaluative blocks? |
1.0 |
|
|
What is the highest promotion recommendation that is allowed for paygrades O1 and O2 (with the exception of Limited Duty Officers)? |
Promotable |
|
|
What publication contains specific direction concerning delegated reporting seniors? |
EVALMAN |
|
|
An enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 and civilians in command positions who hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12 may sign reports on what paygrade and below? |
E5 |
|
|
A CPO or senior chief petty officers (SCPOs) may sign reports on personnel what paygrade and below only? |
E4 |
|
|
Reports for E1 to E9 may be signed by personnel in what grade or their equivalent? |
GS-13 |
|
|
Personnel in what paygrade and below require the signatures of a rater and senior rater, as well as the reporting senior on their EVALs? |
E6 |
|
|
What rank or the civilian equivalent must personnel hold to be the rater for E1-E4 personnel? |
E6 |
|
|
What type of counseling must be provided at the mid-point of the periodic report cycle as well as when reports are signed? |
Performance |
|
|
Who guides the counseling program as well as monitors counselor performance and results? |
CO |
|
|
Who is responsible for the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL and EVAL programs? |
Chief of Naval Personnel |
|
|
What type of reports must cover, day-for-day, all naval service on active duty or in drilling Reserve programs, except for enlisted initial entry training and other limited circumstances? |
Regular |
|
|
What type of reports provide a record of significant performance in an additional duty (ADDU) or temporary additional duty (TEMADD) status? |
Concurrent |
|
|
What performance trait grade is reserved for performance that is far above standards as well as being notable for its exemplary or leadership quality? |
5.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grade identifies sailors that could be promoted two paygrades and still be a standout? |
Superstar Performance – 5.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grade means the sailor is far more than promotion-ready in this trait right now? |
Advanced Performance – 4.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grade means the sailor can handle this aspect of the next higher paygrade? |
Dependable, "Fully-Qualified," Journeyman Performance – 3.0. |
|
|
What performance trait grade means the sailor needs development in this trait but is promotable if overall performance warrants? |
Useful, Promising Performance – 2.0 |
|
|
What performance trait grade means until deficiencies are remedied in this trait the sailor should not be promoted regardless of performance in other traits? |
Disappointing Performance – 1.0 |
|
|
What were summary groups formerly known as? |
Comparison groups |
|
|
Adverse or downgraded FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, and EVALs may not be directed as punishment or used as an alternative to the proper disposition of misconduct under the what? |
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) |
|
|
How long from the ending date of a report does the reporting senior have to submit an administrative change or evaluative supplement for good cause? |
2 years |
|
|
How long must the reporting senior retain copies of FITREPs on all officers and CHIEFEVALs on all CPOs? |
5 years |
|
|
How long must the command retain copies of enlisted EVALs and CHIEFEVALS? |
2 years |
|
|
FITREP/CHIEFEVAL/EVAL ending dates are the last day of the month for officers and what day of the month for enlisted? |
15th |
|
|
If within the past how many months a member has received a graded regular report than a periodic report may be omitted? |
3 |
|
|
MILPERSMAN article 1070-170 along with what other article of the U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990 require that a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL containing adverse matter be referred to the member for a statement before it is placed in the official record? |
1122 |
|
|
What rule as stated in part II of the Manual for Courts-Martial (MCM) contains the principles of judicial independence that FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs must respect? |
104 |
|
|
Who is the reporting senior for members of the United States Navy-Marine Corps Court of Criminal Appeals? |
Judge Advocate General |
|
|
What Act are FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs subject to regarding privacy? |
Privacy Act of 1974 |
|
|
How long must reporting seniors retain copies of FITREPs on officers and CHIEFEVALs on CPOs? |
5 years |
|
|
How long must commands retain copies of EVALs on all enlisted personnel (E1-E9) following the end date of the report? |
2 years |
|
|
What supplies the application programs used to support automated preparation and submission of FITREPs and EVALs? |
NAVPERSCOM |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members name? |
1 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members grade/rate? |
2 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members designator? |
3 |
|
|
How many enlisted warfare/qualification designators can be entered in block 3 when preparing a performance report? |
Two |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members social security number? |
4 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members duty/competitive status? |
5 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members UIC? |
6 |
|
|
Block 6 of the performance report should match the primary UIC of the reporting senior in what block? |
26 |
|
|
What should be entered for activities to which no UIC is assigned when preparing the performance report? |
00000 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members ship/station? |
7 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members promotion status? |
8 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the date that the member reported? |
9 |
|
|
Which performance report blocks contain the occasion for report? |
10-13 |
|
|
Which performance report blocks contain the period of report? |
14-15 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the space used to put Not Observed Report if it is applicable? |
16 |
|
|
Which performance report blocks contain the type of report? |
17-19 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members physical readiness status? |
20 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members billet subcategory, if any? |
21 |
|
|
Which performance report block names the reporting senior? |
22 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s grade? |
23 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the reporting senior's four-digit officer designator? |
24 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s title? |
25 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s UIC? |
26 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the reporting senior’s social security number? |
27 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains command employment and command achievements? |
28 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members Primary/Collateral/Watchstanding duties? |
29 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the date the member was counseled? |
30 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the name of the members counselor? |
31 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the signature of the individual counseled? |
32 |
|
|
Which performance report blocks contain the members performance traits? |
33-39 |
|
|
What is the maximum promotion recommendation a member may receive if they are given a 2.0 due to a Physical Fitness Assessment failure in military bearing/character/professionalism? |
Promotable |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the individual trait average? |
40 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the career recommendations for the member being counseled? |
41 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the signature of the rater? |
42 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains comments on performance? |
43 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the members qualifications/achievements? |
44 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the individuals promotion recommendation? |
45 |
|
|
What is the highest promotion recommendation that can be given to Ensign and lieutenant junior grade on their FITREPs for designators other than Limited Duty Officer (6XXX)? |
Promotable |
|
|
What is the minimum grade that the Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity (FITREP/EVAL), and Character (CHIEFEVAL) must be evaluated in order to maintain eligibility for advancement and receive a Promotable recommendation? |
3.0 |
|
|
What grade may not be given in any performance trait if a Must Promote or Early Promote recommendation is to be given? |
2.0 |
|
|
What grade may not be given in any performance trait if a Promotable recommendation is to be given? |
1.0 |
|
|
Receiving what grade on any performance trait will terminate Good Conduct medal eligibility for at least 3 years following the end date of the report? |
1.0 |
|
|
What mark given to E7-E9’s, unless they are specifically recommended for retention in the comments, also counts as a recommendation against retention? |
Significant Problems |
|
|
What is the upper limit on Early Promote recommendations for all pay grades except non-Limited Duty Officer O1/O2 for each summary group? |
20% |
|
|
What can Must Promote recommendations be increased by for each Early Promote quota not used? |
One |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the summary? |
46 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the retention recommendation? |
47 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting seniors address? |
48 |
|
|
Which performance report block contains the signature of the senior rater? |
49 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the reporting senior signature? |
50 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the signature of the individual being evaluated? |
51 |
|
|
The reporting senior shall hand write in the signature block of the member “certified, copy provided” if the report is not adverse and if the member is not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how many days (inactive duty)? |
30 |
|
|
Which EVAL performance report block contains the regular reporting senior signature on concurrent reports? |
52 |
|
|
What manual should be used for instructions on mailing classified material? |
SECNAV M-5510.36 |
|
|
Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by an enlisted OIC in the grade of E9 or civilians in command positions who hold the grade of GS-9 through GS-12? |
E5 |
|
|
Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by a CPO or SCPOs? |
E4 |
|
|
Personnel at or below what paygrade may have their reports signed by GS-13’s or their equivalent? |
E9 |
|
|
EVALs for enlisted personnel at or below what paygrade require the signatures of a rater, senior rater, and reporting senior? |
E6 |
|
|
What civilian grade/equivalent must delegated reporting seniors for officer reports be? |
GS-14 |
|
|
The reporting senior authority for officers may be delegated to heads of those components without prior NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval in shore commands having components that are permanently located more than how many miles from the headquarters? |
50 |
|
|
Reports on members in the grade of E5 through E9 including members frocked to E5 may not be delegated below the grade of O4, what civilian grade, or equivalent? |
GS-12 |
|
|
Reports on members in the grade of E4 and below may not be delegated below what military grade? |
E7 |
|
|
The CO must sign any report that withdraws a recommendation for enlisted advancement after advancement authorization for the member has been received. A flag officer may delegate this authority to what grade or above? |
O6 |
|
|
Who assumes the reporting senior responsibility and authority of a subordinate commanding officer that dies, becomes incapacitated, is summarily relieved or detached for cause, or becomes seriously delinquent in submitting reports? |
ISIC |
|
|
What grade should the rater be for E5 and E6 personnel whenever possible? |
E7 |
|
|
What grade can the rater be for E4 and below personnel? |
E6 |
|
|
What type of reports are now considered to be regular reports for both officers and enlisted? |
Special |
|
|
What is the only type of report that provides continuity? |
Regular |
|
|
No more than how many months may be covered by regular reports, including letter-extensions, without NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) approval? |
15 |
|
|
Periodic reports may be omitted if the member received an Observed Regular report ending no more than how many months prior to the Periodic report date? |
3 |
|
|
Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are not required from an interim reporting senior who has been on board for how many months or less if the reporting senior's permanent relief agrees to cover the period in the next Regular report? |
3 |
|
|
Detachment of Reporting Senior reports are optional for personnel in what paygrades? |
E1-E9 |
|
|
Periodic reports may be omitted and added to the next period if Detachment of Reporting Senior reports were submitted for a particular paygrade, and, if the next report is the periodic report but is less than how many days from the previous Detachment of Reporting Senior report? |
90 |
|
|
A Promotion/Frocking EVAL must always be submitted upon promotion or frocking to what paygrade? |
E7 |
|
|
Promotion/frocking reports for officers or enlisted members who have been promoted should not be submitted unless the change in Periodic report dates will result in more than how many months between Regular reports? |
15 |
|
|
A new reporting senior who has not written an ”Observed” report on a member may submit a Special report on an officer or CPO who is eligible before a promotion selection board if the individual has performed significant duties under that reporting senior for at least how many months? |
3 |
|
|
An E6 may receive a Special report for a promotion selection board who has performed duty at a new command for at least how many months who has not yet received an Observed report? |
3 |
|
|
A Special report may not be submitted for the sole purpose of raising what? |
Performance Mark Average |
|
|
A report is considered “declining” when the promotion recommendation is reduced (other than due to summary group size change) or because of a reduction in at least how many trait grades in the same paygrade by the same reporting senior? |
Two |
|
|
What are Detachment of Reporting Senior reports that are optional for E1-E6 submitted as? |
Special reports |
|
|
Special FITREPs for superior performance or recommendations are specifically prohibited for what personnel? |
Officers |
|
|
For up to how many months, unless it was submitted for the reduction-in-rate of an enlisted member, may a Special report be extended for? |
3 |
|
|
What type of report provides a record of significant performance that was not directly observable by the regular reporting senior? |
Concurrent |
|
|
If ADDU or TEMADD requires absence from the permanent duty command for more than how many months, except for duty under instruction or duty in which the individual was accountable only to the permanent duty commander, than a Concurrent report should be submitted? |
3 |
|
|
What may be used as an alternative to a non-mandatory Concurrent report? |
Performance Information Memorandum |
|
|
A period up to how many months may be covered by a Concurrent report (but not a Concurrent/Regular report)? |
15 |
|
|
For what purposes are Concurrent/Regular reports considered to be Concurrent reports? |
Summary group |
|
|
By what means can a concurrent reporting senior extend a Concurrent report? |
Letter |
|
|
Provided the resulting total reporting period does not exceed how many months than a regular reporting senior may extend a Concurrent/Regular report with a copy to the concurrent reporting senior? |
15 |
|
|
Who does the report require an endorsement from when the concurrent reporting senior is a captain (or below) in the same competitive category as a captain who is being reported on? |
Flag officer |
|
|
What block will the regular reporting senior mark to endorse on all Concurrent/Regular printed copies? |
Block 17 |
|
|
What type of reports provide a supplemental record of performance for active duty COs or OICs as observed by their operational commanders? |
Operational Commander |
|
|
In what block (FITREP/CHIEFEVAL) will the operational commander reporting senior fill in the Member’s Trait Average and the Summary Group Average next to the line identifier? |
45 |
|
|
An NOB report is identified by an “X” in what block of the performance report? |
16 |
|
|
What type of reports are used to fulfill reporting requirements when graded reports are inappropriate? |
NOB |
|
|
NOB reports may be submitted for short periods of duty or TEMDU (not to exceed how many months) that is purely for administrative or training purposes, academic duty under instruction, duties that require a member's complete independence from any appearance of command influence, and Regular report periods that have been fully evaluated in a Concurrent or Operational Commander report? |
3 |
|
|
In some cases, it may sometimes be appropriate to evaluate a limited number of traits (no more than how many traits) without making a promotion recommendation. In these cases, submit an Observed report (leaving block 16 blank)? |
Three |
|
|
An Observed report with a “NOB” promotion recommendation cannot be submitted if the member received a 1.0 in any trait, a 2.0 or below in Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity or Character, how many 2.0 trait grades, or contains adverse information in the comments? |
Three |
|
|
What will the applications software produce for all NOB reports having the same reporting senior and ending date? |
Summary letter |
|
|
Briefly give the reason for submitting a NOB report and provide necessary administrative information in block 43 for all reports, other than reports for Annual Training that are greater than 10 days and less than how many days? |
90 |
|
|
When a member is ordered for duty to a civilian (other than what) or foreign activity, the orders will normally designate an assigned reporting senior? |
U.S. Federal government |
|
|
How long before a Periodic report is due are Letter reports desired? |
1 month |
|
|
What format must be used for Letter reports? |
Narrative |
|
|
What manual has a list of UIC’s? |
NAVCOMPT |
|
|
What color ink should be used for signing reports? |
Black or blue-black |
|
|
What are defined as recruit training; veteran, Navy Veteran/Other Service Veteran (NAVET/OSVET) indoctrination; and schools following in direct sequence prior to reporting to first permanent duty station? |
IET |
|
|
If training is expected to exceed what time frame than Regular EVAL continuity should begin as of the date of detachment from the final phase of IET or at the end of the second regular reporting period during IET? |
1 year |
|
|
A detachment of individual concurrent report should be submitted or a Performance Information Memorandum should be furnished to the regular reporting senior in preparing the next Regular report for what regardless of length? |
TEMADDINS |
|
|
Who is the Inactive Duty Training regular reporting senior for all subordinate personnel assigned to the reserve unit? |
Navy Reserve Unit CO |
|
|
Inactive Duty Training Detachment of Individual reports are required on all members who are detached from the unit as a result of what? |
Mobilization |
|
|
Navy Reserve Unit CO will be assigned in an ADDU status to their respective supporting Navy Reserve Echelon what level Commander? |
4 |
|
|
Which member of the Navy Reserve will assume authority for the affected reports if a mobilized CO cannot submit reports in a timely manner? |
ISIC |
|
|
Inactive Duty Training reports should be mailed no later than how long after the ending date of the report? |
30 days |
|
|
NOB/Detachment of Individual reports should be prepared with comments for every period of Active Duty greater than how many days and less than 90 days for reservists? |
10 |
|
|
Successive periods of training at the same command that are separated by gaps of how many days or less may be covered in a single FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, EVAL, or a Performance Information Memorandum for reservists? |
10 |
|
|
Periodic reports may be omitted if reservist members have been on active duty for less than how many months? |
3 |
|
|
What format will be used for Flag officer endorsements? |
Letter |
|
|
What should personnel consider using before using a Performance Information Memorandum in lieu of a Regular report? |
NOB report |
|
|
FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs, along with what else are the preferred reports for significant, observed performance? |
EVAL |
|
|
In place of a Regular FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL report a Performance Information Memorandum may be prepared for Duty, DUINS, TEMDU, or TEMDUINS for a period of how many months or less? |
3 |
|
|
How may a Performance Information Memorandum that only contains administrative or academic information be signed? |
"By direction" |
|
|
Within how many days must Performance Information Memorandum’s be forwarded to the command preparing the Regular FITREP or EVAL report for the covered period? |
15 |
|
|
Only 10 or 12 pitch (12 or 10 point) type should be used at how many lines per inch (standard typewriter spacing) when filling out the comments block on all performance reports? |
6 |
|
|
What types of comments are not allowed in the comments block on all performance reports? |
Handwritten |
|
|
What will not be accepted on the comments block on all performance reports? |
Continuation sheets |
|
|
All performance trait grades of what grade must be specifically substantiated in the comments block on all performance reports? |
1.0 |
|
|
What type of style is preferred when filling out the comments block on performance reports? |
Bullet |
|
|
What should be limited to ensure performance reports are understandable by all current and future readers? |
Acronyms |
|
|
How many months prior to the due date for performance reports should member’s written input be obtained? |
1 |
|
|
What is the highest classification allowed for performance report supplements if classified comments are unavoidable? |
Secret |
|
|
If performance reports are submitted under an assumption of authority by the ISIC or by a General Courts-Martial Convening Authority then the circumstances should be noted at the beginning of EVAL block 43 or what FITREP/CHIEFEVAL block? |
41 |
|
|
How many or more declined trait grades by the same reporting senior define a decline in performance? |
Two |
|
|
A performance trait grade below what in Command or Organizational Climate/Equal Opportunity or Character must be specifically substantiated? |
3.0 |
|
|
What EVAL block are items marked with asterisk (*) reported in? |
44 |
|
|
Civil prosecutions are concluded after a determination is made by what? |
Trial court |
|
|
Court-martials are concluded after what approves the findings and sentence? |
Convening authority |
|
|
How many days do members normally have to appeal NJP punishment? |
5 |
|
|
A female member shall not be given a less favorable report solely because of what? |
Pregnancy |
|
|
What may be typed in place of a signature if no one is available to serve as the rater or senior rater? |
NONE AVAILABLE |
|
|
When only one person is available, that person should sign as the rater rather than senior rater. The same person may not sign more than how many blocks? |
Two |
|
|
The Reporting senior should write “Certified Copy Provided” in the member's signature block and submit the report to the NAVPERSCOM (PERS-311) if the report is not adverse and if the member is not expected to return to or visit the command within 15 days (active duty) or how many days (inactive duty)? |
30 |
|
|
How many days after forwarding performance reports for signature should tracer action be initiated if no reply has been given? |
15 |
|
|
What should be completed if an enlisted member refuses to sign a performance report? |
NAVPERS 1070/613 |
|
|
What is the only way, other than the addition of supplementary material, that a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL may be modified once it has been filed in the Official Military Personnel/field service record? |
Administrative change |
|
|
What type of material is used to clarify, amend, or correct evaluative blocks? |
Supplementary |
|
|
How many years after the ending date of the performance report may the original reporting senior submit supplementary material? |
2 |
|
|
A letter-supplement or what else may be used to submit supplementary information? |
Supplemental report |
|
|
How many pages must a letter-supplement be limited to? |
Two |
|
|
What may a member who discovers an obvious technical error in a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL and is unable to contact the original reporting senior directly submit an administrative change request to? |
NAVPERSCOM |
|
|
What does NAVPERSCOM store the signed record copy of each report in? |
Image file |
|
|
What reports contain the enlisted promotion recommendation that is the CO's official recommendation for or against advancement? |
CHIEFEVAL/EVAL |
|
|
Which mark is not a recommendation either for or against advancement? |
Progressing |
|
|
What is a recommendation against advancement that withdraws any previous advancement recommendation in the current grade? |
Significant Problems |
|
|
What is the PMA awarded for an Early Promote promotion recommendation? |
4.0 |
|
|
What is the PMA awarded for a Must Promote promotion recommendation? |
3.8 |
|
|
What is the PMA awarded for a Promotable promotion recommendation? |
3.6 |
|
|
What is the PMA awarded for Progressing promotion recommendation? |
3.4 |
|
|
What is the PMA awarded for a Significant Problems recommendation? |
2.0 |
|
|
What block of the EVALs being used in the advancement cycle will personnel locate the PMA? |
45 |
|
|
A Performance Information Memorandum may include information that should be recorded on what form? |
NAVPERS 1070/604 |
|
|
For members received from initial entry training, periods of training must be verified from the Enlisted Qualifications History (NAVPERS 1070/604) and what other form? |
NAVPERS 1070/605 |
|
|
What can NAVPERSCOM (PERS-313) request when missing performance reports are urgently needed by selection boards? |
Message summaries |
|
|
Who are responsible for ensuring the continuity of the members FITREP, CHIEFEVAL, or EVAL records? |
Service member |
|
|
What contains original EVALs, supplements, and statements for E4 and below and copies of these documents for E5 to E9? |
Enlisted field service record |
|
|
Which MILPERSMAN article requires upon transfer that the field service record be reviewed in the member's presence at the final destination? |
1070-200 |
|
|
How many months prior to any board convening date should members review their NAVPERSCOM records to allow time to correct discrepancies? |
6 |
|
|
Approximately how many days after performance reports are signed and mailed to NAVPERSCOM should members review their Continuity of Reports on BOL? |
60 |
|
|
What is used to summarize a member’s professional and performance history? |
Performance Summary Record (PSR) |
|
|
A member may not request NAVPERSCOM to change any evaluative mark or comment, or any administrative data that would place the member in another what? |
Promotion Recommendation Summary Group |
|
|
As a minimum, a member should attempt to obtain any missing report covering significant duty in the grades of E5 or above within the past how many years? |
5 |
|
|
How many years after the ending date of the performance report may a member submit a statement to the record about any FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL? |
2 |
|
|
How many pages at a maximum can statements to the record be about any FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL? |
2 |
|
|
How many days does the reporting senior have to endorse and forward statements to the record that members have submitted about any FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL with a copy back to the member? |
10 |
|
|
What box should members mark who desire to make a statement for submission with an EVAL performance report? |
51 |
|
|
What contains the procedures for communicating with enlisted boards? |
NAVADMIN |
|
|
Which U.S. Navy Regulations article provides the authority to request captains mast to raise questions concerning FITREPs, CHIEFEVALs and EVALs with the CO? |
1151 |
|
|
Which U.S. Navy Regulations article allows members to petition the Board for Correction of Naval Records for correction of error or removal of injustice in a FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL? |
1126 |
|
|
Which instruction contains preparation guidance for Privacy Act amendment requests? |
SECNAVINST 5211.5D |
|
|
Under what Public Law may a member of the Defense Acquisition Workforce whose reporting senior is not in the same Defense Acquisition Workforce career field request a review of their reports by a person in the same Defense Acquisition Workforce career field as themselves? |
101-510 |
|
|
What shall be performed at the midpoint of each evaluation cycle, and when the FITREP, CHIEFEVAL or EVAL is signed? |
Counseling |
|
|
Block 1 along with what other blocks must be filled out on counseling worksheets? |
29-32 |
|
|
What pay grade should the rater normally be for E1-E4 personnel? |
E6 |
|
|
For personnel in what paygrades will the counselor normally be the reporting senior or the immediate supervisor who will draft the FITREP or CHIEFEVAL? |
E7-O6 |
|
|
How many major objectives are there to accomplish during counseling sessions? |
Five |
|
|
Deterrence, Forward Defense, along with what else are the three basic pillars that National military strategy rests on? |
Alliance Solidarity |
|
|
What enables us to deny the enemy any advantage through expansion? |
Maritime superiority |
|
|
Deterrence of war has been the sole mission and basic reason for the existence of the fleet ballistic missile submarine since its inception in what year? |
1960 |
|
|
How many Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles (SLBMs) do Trident class submarines carry? |
24 |
|
|
What type of attack is intended to inflict damage to, seize, or destroy an objective? |
Strike |
|
|
What is the key member of a powerful and mobile naval task force? |
Aircraft carrier |
|
|
What type of attack on supply lines is an attempt to destroy railroads, bridges, electric power plants, and so forth, and is used to cripple the support of enemy front lines with minimum effort? |
Interdiction |
|
|
What year did the Chief of Naval Operations order the development of a weapons system capable of launching a missile from a submerged submarine? |
1955 |
|
|
What was the United States first fleet ballistic missile (FBM) submarine launched in June of 1959? |
George Washington (SSBN-598) |
|
|
What type of warfare integrates nearly all types of ships, aircraft, weapons, and landing forces in a concerted military effort against a hostile shore? |
Amphibious |
|
|
What type of warfare is a conflict in which at least one of the opponents is operating from the sea with surface ships, submarines, or sea-based aircraft? |
Naval |
|
|
What are the three major areas involved in Naval warfare? |
Surface, Subsurface, and Air |
|
|
What is the destruction of enemy aircraft and airborne weapons, whether launched from air, surface, subsurface, or land? |
AAW |
|
|
What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines? |
ASW |
|
|
What is the destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships? |
ASUW |
|
|
What type of warfare uses conventional or nuclear weapons in the destruction or neutralization of the enemy targets ashore? |
Strike |
|
|
What type of naval operations are generally accepted as being nonconventional in nature and, in many cases, conducted with secrecy? |
Special warfare |
|
|
What is the assessment and management of information obtained via surveillance, reconnaissance, and other means called? |
Intelligence |
|
|
What provides the means to exercise the authority and direction of naval forces in the accomplishment of their mission? |
NCCS |
|
|
What ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces while determining, reducing, or preventing its use by an enemy? |
Electronic warfare |
|
|
What is defined as resupplying combat consumables to combatant forces during operations? |
Logistics |
|
|
AEGIS can perform search, track, and missile-guidance functions simultaneously with a track capacity of over how many targets? |
100 |
|
|
What is the Navy’s first all-weather, automatic-controlled gun system designed to provide defense against close-in, sea-skimming cruise missiles that penetrate outer defense systems? |
Phalanx |
|
|
What year was the Phoenix air-to-air missile introduced into the fleet with the F-14 aircraft? |
1974 |
|
|
What is an all-weather submarine-launched or surface combatant-launched antiship or land-attack cruise missile? |
Tomahawk |
|
|
What is defined as the ability of a force, a unit, a weapons system, or an equipment to deliver the output for which it was designed? |
Readiness |
|
|
What is designed to turn a materially ready and manned ship into a ship that is fully capable of performing its assigned mission? |
Refresher training |
|
|
Which instruction outlines the basic bills that all ships base drills on? |
OPNAVINST 3120.32B |
|
|
What is the most important type of drill held aboard ships? |
General Quarters |
|
|
What type of inspection tests the ability of the crew and ship to operate in battle under wartime conditions? |
ORI |
|
|
What type of inspection determines the adequacy of the administrative and operating procedures directly related to the propulsion plant and the capability of assigned personnel to maintain equipment and systems? |
PEB |
|
|
Naval ships should be examined by INSURV at least once every how many years if practical? |
3 |
|
|
Division personnel and material readiness should be assessed daily at a minimum and in more detail at least how often? |
Weekly |
|
|
Work habits, knowledge, along with what else will be the three areas looked at while assessing worker performance? |
Attitude |
|
|
What does each division or department use to make formal supply inventories? |
OPTAR Log |
|
|
Which log describes deficiencies and missing equipment in each space? |
Equipment Deficiency Log (EDL) |
|
|
What is the computer printout of the number of personnel in each rate aboard the command? |
EDVR |
|
|
What lists the planned operations, assist visits, inspections, and ports of call for the fiscal year? |
Annual Employment Schedule |
|
|
What is the most effective way to inform subordinates of their standing in the division? |
Counseling |
|
|
What are used to note discrepancies, recommend solutions to problems, and provide a follow-up date for reevaluation? |
Counseling sheet |
|
|
What identifies a number of discrepancies individually and gives recommended solutions in addition to dates for reevaluation? |
Letter of Instruction |
|
|
What is the administrative remarks page of the enlisted service record used to provide a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries not provided on other pages of the record? |
Page 13 |
|
|
What should be used to prepare written input from yourself to the responsible party in your chain of command via your division officer and department head? |
Memorandum |
|
|
How many types of recognition can subordinates be recommended for? |
Five |
|
|
What format should subordinates’ accomplishments be in to make them stronger? |
Bullet |
|
|
What are the two categories of authority? |
General and Organizational |
|
|
What should be used when the CO delegates signature authority in writing? |
Titles |
|
|
How do subordinates usually sign documents under delegated authority? |
By direction |
|
|
What instruction gives specific guidance on signature authority? |
SECNAVINST 5216.5C |
|
|
How many different types of naval communications are senior petty officers required to compose? |
Two |
|
|
What is used for urgent communication where speed is of primary importance? |
Naval message |
|
|
What type of message is sent to one addressee only and may be either for action or information? |
Single-address |
|
|
Which type of message is sent to two or more addressees, each of whom is aware of the other addressee(s)? |
Multiple-address |
|
|
What type of message is sent to two or more addressees and is of such a nature that no addressee needs to know who the others are? |
Book |
|
|
What type of message has a wide standard distribution to all commands in an area under one command or to types of commands and activities? |
General |
|
|
What is the authority (command or activity) in whose name messages are sent? |
Originator |
|
|
Who is responsible for validating message content, affirming message compliance with message-drafting instructions, and for determining whether the draft of the message should be released as a message or as a NAVGRAM? |
Releaser |
|
|
What is the title of the message composer? |
Drafter |
|
|
How many common precedence categories are messages divided into? |
Four |
|
|
Which publication contains message precedence information? |
NTP-3 |
|
|
Which message precedence is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence? |
Routine |
|
|
Which message precedence is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress? |
Priority |
|
|
What is the highest message precedence normally authorized for administrative messages? |
Priority |
|
|
Which message precedence is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace and require immediate delivery to addressees? |
Immediate |
|
|
What prosign identifies Immediate message precedence? |
O |
|
|
Which message precedence is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency? |
Flash |
|
|
Which prosign identifies messages with Flash precedence? |
Z |
|
|
How many digits followed by a time-zone suffix does a DTG consist of? |
Six |
|
|
What phrase is used to denote the format and ordinary language spelling of command short titles and geographical locations used in message addresses? |
Plain Language Address |
|
|
What are single-address, alphabetically sorted, common-interest groups called? |
Collective Address Designators |
|
|
What are used to represent predetermined lists of specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and information addressees or both? |
Address Indicating Groups |
|
|
What are used as alternatives to the repeating of lengthy references within the text of the message? |
Reference lines |
|
|
What process is used to transmit a message to an activity that was not an addressee of the message as it was originally drafted? |
Message readdressal |
|
|
How many days following the release date, except under certain circumstances, are all message directives automatically canceled? |
90 |
|
|
What condition imposed by proper authority is used to reduce and control electrical message and telephone traffic? |
Minimize |
|
|
Which instruction contains regulations and guidance for classifying and safeguarding classified information? |
OPNAVINST 5510.1H |
|
|
What is a brief form of a naval letter on which an official recommends action or makes comments, forwards a letter, redirects a misaddressed letter, or endorses a letter back to the originator for further information? |
Endorsement |
|
|
What are used for urgent communications between department of defense (DOD) addressees? |
NAVGRAMs |
|
|
What provide a standard system of numbers used throughout the Navy to categorize, subject classify, and identify directives, letters, messages, forms, and reports? |
Standard Subject Identification Codes (SSICs) |
|
|
How many major subject groups does the SSIC system consist of? |
14 |
|
|
What means that when you use a coordinating conjunction (and, but, nor, yet), nouns, adjectives, dependent clauses, and so on, should match in each part of the sentence? |
Parallelism |
|
|
Generally, sentences should be restricted to how many words or less? |
20 |
|
|
“It is” along with what other phrase hurt naval writing more than anything else? |
“There are” |
|
|
What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action? |
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) |
|
|
From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be observed? |
Personnel and Administration |
|
|
What team evaluates command members knowledge about equal opportunity? |
Command Assessment Team (CAT) |
|
|
What team assesses command compliance with the Navy’s equal opportunity objectives as a whole? |
Command Training Team (CTT) |
|
|
What means are used for determining what people actually do or how they behave and interact? |
Observations |
|
|
How many methods can be used by commands to enforce equal opportunity? |
Three |
|
|
Which article of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) grants Commanding Officers the power to award punishment for minor offenses without the intervention of a court-martial? |
Article 15 |
|
|
What publication contains details concerning required premast advice to an accused? |
Judge Advocate General (JAG) Manual |
|
|
Who is responsible for collecting all available facts concerning the offense itself and the background of the accused? |
PIO |
|
|
How many types of punishment under article 15 of the UCMJ, under appropriate circumstances, can be imposed by Commanding Officers? |
Nine |
|
|
What is the least severe form of liberty denial? |
Restriction |
|
|
What is the physical restraint of persons during duty or nonduty hours, or both called? |
Correctional custody |
|
|
How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels? |
3 |
|
|
How many days is the maximum duration that confinement sentences on bread and water may be imposed on nonrated personnel attached or embarked on vessels? |
3 |
|
|
What is considered to be the most severe form of NJP? |
Reduction in grade |
|
|
What is the maximum number of hours per day that extra duty can be assigned? |
2 |
|
|
Detention of pay may not exceed how many years and may not extend beyond the expiration of the member’s current enlistment? |
1 year |
|
|
Up to how many days may Commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody if the needs of the naval service dictate such deferment? |
15 |
|
|
How many days do members have to appeal NJP punishment to a higher authority? |
5 |
|
|
What has become the most valuable drug detection and deterrence tool used by the Navy? |
Urinalysis |
|
|
Natural and synthetic morphine-like drugs that are derived from what source are the most effective pain relievers known? |
Opiates |
|
|
What is a white or brown powder known to the addict as H, horse, caballo, white stuff, white lade, Harry, joy powder, doojee, sugar, stag, or smack? |
Heroin |
|
|
How many times more potent than morphine is heroin? |
10 |
|
|
What year was Methadone invented by German chemists? |
1941 |
|
|
What type of substances produce excitation, increased activity, and an ability to go without sleep for extended periods? |
Stimulants |
|
|
Which drug induces euphoria, excitation, anxiety, a sense of increased muscular strength, and talkativeness? |
Cocaine |
|
|
What is street cocaine that is mixed with baking soda and water to remove impurities called? |
Crack |
|
|
What type of substance distorts the user’s perception of objective reality? |
Hallucinogens |
|
|
What is the number one drug problem in the United States today? |
Alcohol |
|
|
Which instruction provides the Navy’s policy on drug and alcohol abuse? |
OPNAVINST 5350.4B |
|
|
The first consistent changes in mood and behavior appear at blood-alcohol levels of approximately what percent? |
0.05 |
|
|
Voluntary motor actions-hand and arm movements, walking, and sometimes speech-become clumsy at what blood-alcohol level? |
0.10% |
|
|
A blood-alcohol level of what percent measurably impairs the controls of the entire motor area of the brain as well as that part of the brain that guides emotional behavior? |
0.20 |
|
|
Drinking large amounts of alcohol for an extended length of time reduces the brain’s sensitivity to the alcohol. Therefore, a person must drink greater amounts of alcohol to feel its effects. What is this change in the sensitivity of the brain called? |
Tolerance |
|
|
What process do our bodies use to transform drugs into other substances and eventually eliminate them through normal bodily functions? |
Metabolic |
|
|
How many times more often among alcoholics as among nonalcoholics does Cirrhosis of the liver occur? |
Eight |
|
|
People with blood-alcohol levels of what percent have a reduced white blood cell mobilization as great as that in people suffering from severe shock? |
0.15 to 0.25 |
|
|
How many different levels does the Navy provide alcohol abuse prevention and rehabilitation programs on? |
Three |
|
|
What is the maximum time allotted for members to a Level II alcohol abuse counseling program? |
4 weeks |
|
|
Residential rehabilitation for alcohol abuse involves a multidisciplinary therapeutic approach that normally lasts how many weeks? |
6 |
|
|
How many days do persons remain in an "aftercare" status following a successful completion of a Level II or III alcohol abuse program before they return to their command? |
180 |
|
|
Who is the command representative responsible to the commanding officer for carrying out the NADAP? |
DAPA |
|
|
What is a nonresidential facility providing counseling services, clinical screebubg/referral, and local outreach programs for commands in the immediate geographic area? |
CAAC |
|
|
What are the two distinct types of authority? |
General and Organizational |
|
|
Which Standard Organization and Regulations of the United States Navy article contains the general responsibilities and duties of all officers and petty officers in the Navy? |
141.1 |
|
|
What type of authority held by all officers and petty officers is derived from each person’s assigned billet within a particular command? |
Organizational |
|
|
Which Navy Regulations article grants petty officers at each level the necessary authority for the performance of their duties? |
Article 1037 |
|
|
What grants the right to require actions of others? |
Authority |
|
|
Withholding of privileges along with what else are two of the most common measures used to correct military duty deficiencies? |
Extra Military Instruction (EMI) |
|
|
EMI will not normally be assigned for more than how many hours per day? |
2 |
|
|
The authority to assign EMI is normally not delegated below what level? |
CPO |
|
|
What is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual? |
Privilege |
|
|
Depriving an individual of liberty or privileges as a punishment for any offense or substandard performance of duty is illegal, except as specifically authorized under the what? |
UCMJ |
|
|
What is defined as something that a person is expected or required to do by moral or legal obligation—an action or task required by one’s position? |
Duty |
|
|
What is the commanding officer’s summary of personnel duty assignments and stations called? |
Watch, Quarter, and Station (WQS) bill |
|
|
Who is responsible for maintaining the ships master WQS bill? |
Executive Officer |
|
|
What is used for transferring information from the battle bill and ship’s bills to the WQS bill? |
Division notebook |
|
|
What is probably the most important of all the shipboard bills? |
Emergency bills |
|
|
Which bill organizes the crew to handle the effects of a major emergency or disaster aboard ship? |
General emergency bill |
|
|
Which PQS section covers the basic knowledge needed to understand the specific equipment or duties and provides an analysis of those fundamentals that broadly apply? |
Fundamentals (100 series) |
|
|
Which PQS section breaks down the subject equipment or duties into smaller, more easily understood sections called systems? |
Systems (200 Series) |
|
|
Which PQS section tests the trainee’s readiness to perform a designated task? |
Watch Station/Maintenance Action (300 Series) |
|
|
PQS oral examination boards could have as few as two or as many as how many members? |
Eight |
|
|
What is normally the minimum paygrade required to be a PQS qualifier? |
E-5 |
|
|
Who introduces trainee’s to the PQS program and recommends and monitors the goals for each individual? |
Work Center Supervisor |
|
|
Who qualifies personnel for watch stations and equipment/systems operations? |
Department head |
|
|
Which side of the service record folder is the actual service record on? |
Right |
|
|
What are used to verify a members ability to perform tasks required by occupational standards (OCCSTDs)? |
PARs |
|
|
What are the primary enlisted-to-officer programs sponsored by the Navy that do not require a college education? |
Limited Duty Officer and Chief Warrant Officer |
|
|
CWO candidates must have completed at least 12 years, but not more than how many years, of active service on 16 January of the year in which application is made? |
24 |
|
|
LDO candidates must have completed at least 8 years but not more than how many years of active naval service on 16 January of the year in which application is made? |
16 |
|
|
CPOs and SCPOs with at least how many years, but not more than 16 years, of naval service may apply for LDO and CWO in the same application year, but only one designator for each program may be requested? |
12 |
|
|
An active service obligation of how many years will be incurred by ECP selectees? |
6 |
|
|
To be eligible, ECP applicants must be at least 22 years of age, able to complete degree requirements, and commissioned before reaching what age? |
33 |
|
|
Which program provides 16 weeks of officer indoctrination training for enlisted personnel who possess a baccalaureate degree or higher? |
OCS |
|
|
OCS applicants must be at least 19 years old and not have reached what age by their commissioning date? |
29 |
|
|
Who ensures that personnel are trained to operate and maintain their equipment and related systems? |
TPO |
|
|
Quarters for muster and inspection are held each workday before what time depending upon the type of ship and its operating schedule? |
0800 |
|
|
Who is the most important person aboard the ship while in port next to the Captain and the Executive Officer? |
OOD |
|
|
What publication should be used by all watch standers as a general guide for standards that should be met? |
SORN |
|
|
What occurs when watch conditions change within the ship? |
Setting the watch |
|
|
Who supervises the quarterdeck watch, anchor watch, fog look-outs, brow and dock sentries? |
POOW |
|
|
What is the term for taking a person into custody? |
Apprehension |
|
|
What is the term for the moral or physical restraint of a person’s liberty? |
Restraint |
|
|
What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order which directs the person to remain within specified limits of an area? |
Restriction in lieu of arrest |
|
|
What is the term for restraining a person by an oral or written order that is not imposed as punishment and directs the person to remain within the specified limits of an area? |
Arrest |
|
|
What is the term for depriving a person of his or her freedom pending the disposition of offenses by means of physical restraint that is imposed by order of competent authority? |
Confinement |
|
|
What is the official daily record of a ship maintained by watches? |
Deck log |
|
|
How many months are deck log copies retained onboard prior to being destroyed? |
12 |
|
|
Who is responsible for examining the ship’s deck log daily to ensure it is properly kept? |
Navigator |
|
|
What type of visit refers to visits on board by individuals or specific groups as differentiated from the general public? |
Casual visiting |
|
|
What are the normal shipboard general visiting hours? |
1300-1600 |
|
|
What is the maximum visitor group size that departmental personnel should be responsible for when they are detailed to act as shipboard tour guides? |
15 |
|
|
How long before the scheduled commencement of general visiting should the chief master-at-arms muster sentries and guides for inspection and instruction? |
30 minutes |
|
|
What hours are officers normally permitted to have personal guests come onboard? |
1600-2200 |
|
|
After what time and until the expiration of visiting hours on Sundays and during general visiting are Chief petty officers permitted to entertain guests in their messroom and lounge? |
1100 |
|
|
Who is responsible for authorizing classified ship visits? |
CNO |
|
|
Who is directly responsible to the commanding officer for the posting of all security watches and sentries? |
OOD |
|
|
What name is given to the 1600-1800 and the 1800-2000 watches aboard ship? |
Dog watch |
|
|
Which instruction encompasses all safety disciplines? |
OPNAVINST 5100.23 |
|
|
Which instruction provides general shipboard safety precautions? |
OPNAVINST 5100.19 |
|
|
Which instruction outlines the safety program and the safety organization? |
OPNAVINST 3120.32 |
|
|
Which instruction provides motor vehicle safety policy and guidance? |
OPNAVINST 5100.12 |
|
|
How many types of safety observations can be used? |
Three |
|
|
Which type of safety observation occurs when safety hazards are noticed without deliberately taking time to look for them? |
Incidental |
|
|
Which type of safety observation do observers intentionally pause in whatever they are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely? |
Deliberate |
|
|
Which type of safety observation is deliberately scheduled to watch for safety violations by a person performing a specific job? |
Planned |
|
|
What makes command safety program recommendations? |
Enlisted Safety Committee |
|
|
What acts as a roving inspector for hazards and risks (unsafe work practices) that could result in injury to personnel or damage to equipment? |
MAA/Safety Force |
|
|
Which program specifically addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the work place? |
NAVOSH |
|
|
Personnel working in hazardous noise areas must be entered in a hearing test program when they are exposed to sound levels greater than 84 dB or peak sound pressure levels exceeding what level? |
140 dB |
|
|
What type of strain is placed on the body as it attempts to regulate its temperature as a result of any combination of air temperature, thermal radiation, humidity, air flow, and work load? |
Heat stress |
|
|
Heat stress surveys must be conducted in work areas when the watch or work station’s dry-bulb temperature exceeds what temperature? |
100°F |
|
|
Any person found to have vision in one eye of what level or worse to be visually impaired by Naval standards? |
20/200 |
|
|
How often should tag-out system audits be performed? |
Every 2 weeks |
|
|
Navy Regulations along with which Code of Conduct article give the senior person in a survival situation the authority to take charge? |
Article IV |
|
|
What permits personnel to see without being seen? |
Camouflage |
|
|
How many yards can enemy observers see under favorable conditions in open woods? |
100 |
|
|
Who made the defiant reply “I have not yet begun to fight”? |
John Paul Jones |
|
|
Prevention, minimization, along with what else make up the three basic objectives of shipboard damage control? |
Restoration |
|
|
Who is responsible for carrying out command damage control requirements including training? |
Executive Officer |
|
|
Who is the senior member of the underway watch team and is the primary assistant to the commanding officer on the bridge? |
Officer Of the Deck (OOD) |
|
|
How many months do DCPOs normally serve? |
6 |
|
|
Who maintains a list of all the personnel assigned to repair parties? |
DCA |
|
|
What material condition is used for maximum protection in battle? |
Zebra |
|
|
What coordinates setting material condition Zebra for X-ray and Yoke fittings that were previously logged as open in the damage control closure log? |
DCC |
|
|
What provides personnel immediately to fight fires during action? |
Repair parties |
|
|
How many battle dressing stations at a minimum do most ships have that are equipped for emergency handling of battle casualties? |
Two |
|
|
Who takes charge of damage repair at the immediate scene and is directly in charge of the fire-fighting party? |
On-scene leader |
|
|
Who is responsible for training and organizing the at-sea fire party? |
DCA |
|
|
How many principles of investigation should be considered during damage investigation? |
Four |
|
|
What is the nominal distance from the point of impact that damage should spread if the underwater protective system is initially intact? |
Fifty feet |
|
|
CO2 flooded compartments should not be opened for at least how many minutes after they have been flooded except in case of emergencies? |
15 |
|
|
What temperatures cause the decomposition of Halon 1301? |
900°+F |
|
|
How many gallons per minute (gpm) of water will a hole in the hull, with an area of only 1 square foot, 15 feet below the surface admit? |
13,900 |
|
|
What refers to a compartment that is completely filled with water from deck to overhead? |
Solid flooding |
|
|
What are the bulkheads and decks called that restrict the partially flooded area from the flooding boundary? |
Flooding boundaries |
|
|
What are used as the primary means of communications during battle or while combating damage? |
Sound-powered telephones |
|
|
Which circuit is the main damage control circuit that is common to the damage control station and all repair parties? |
2JZ |
|
|
Which circuit connects the conn, pilot house, interior communications (IC) room, combat information center (CIC), and damage control central (DCC)? |
JA (Captain’s battle circuit) |
|
|
Which circuit connects the pilot house, bridge wings, main engine control, forecastle, fantail, steering gear room, IC room, and DCC? |
JV (Maneuvering circuit) |
|
|
Which circuit connects all the machinery spaces, engineer log room, IC room, emergency diesel generator space, main distribution switchboards, smoke watch, fueling station, and DCC? |
2JV (Engineer’s circuit) |
|
|
Which circuit provides a means of rigging communication lines between vital stations during an emergency condition? |
X-40J (Casualty communication circuit) |
|
|
What is the damage control intercom system circuit? |
4MC |
|
|
What is emergency treatment of the sick or injured before regular medical or surgical attention can be obtained called? |
First aid |
|
|
Up to how many miles from the burst can an air blast from a nuclear detonation can general damage? |
10 |
|
|
What name is given to the pressure pulse created in water as a result of an explosion on or below the water surface? |
Underwater shock |
|
|
Over how many feet in height can waves from a surface or underwater burst be? |
100 |
|
|
Up to how many minutes can flash blindness from a nuclear attack last? |
30 |
|
|
Over what distance is the casualty range of from the initial radiation of a normal kiloton burst? |
1 mile |
|
|
Alpha, Beta, along with what else are the three types of ionizing nuclear radiation that can be emitted from radioactive contamination? |
Gamma |
|
|
What type of radiation has a range in the air of only a few feet and has limited penetrating power? |
Beta |
|
|
Which type of radiation has an effective range in the air of many hundreds of feet and is highly penetrating? |
Gamma |
|
|
Which type of warfare intentionally uses living infectious microorganisms (germs) to reduce or destroy the military effectiveness of personnel? |
Biological |
|
|
Up to how many hours can it take for results to show from BW agents? |
72 |
|
|
Which agents are intended for use in military operations to kill, injure seriously, or incapacitate people through physiological effects? |
Chemical warfare (CW) |
|
|
Which type of agents produce temporary physiological or mental effects that render individuals incapable of performing their assigned duties? |
Incapacitating |
|
|
Which type of agents produce temporary irritating or incapacitating effects when contact is made with the eyes or when inhaled? |
Riot control |
|
|
Which type of agents are considered to be the most dangerous because of their ability, even in small amounts, to cause casualties? |
Nerve |
|
|
Unless under the direct supervision of medical personnel, what is the maximum number of 2-PAM chloride injections that can be given? |
Three |
|
|
Which type of agents smell of garlic, fish, or geraniums and may appear as colorless to dark brown oily liquid or droplets? |
Blister |
|
|
How many minutes after exposure to blister agents do personnel have to perform effective treatment? |
2 |
|
|
Which type of agents smell like freshly mown hay or grass? |
Choking |
|
|
Which type of agents are colorless but may have a slight odor of bitter almonds? |
Blood |
|
|
What is a flexible system of protection against chemical agents that is used in chemical warfare defense? |
MOPP |
|
|
How many phases are disaster relief operations normally conducted in? |
Five |
