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1551 Cards in this Set

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Which instruction sets forth the requirements and procedures for Navy commands to professionalize and develop the Navy Information Assurance Workforce (IAWF)?

COMNAVCYBERFORINST 5239.1

Which approach is taken by the DoD in relation to Information Assurance (IA)?

Defense in Depth

What is responsible for overseeing and verifying compliance with government IT security regulations and the Department of Defense (DoD) IA policy as it pertains to people?

NAVCYBERFOR

What percent of Echelon II Command Information Officers (CIOs) subordinate commands must be inspected on an annual basis to ensure IA WIP compliance?

5%

How many working days after the inspection outbrief must Echelon II Command Information Officers (CIOs) forward the results of all IA WIP inspections to CYBERFOR?

10

How many guiding principles support the Navy’s IAWF strategy?

5

Where must standardized IAWF Mission Essential Tasks Lists (METLs) and readiness assessments be documented for use by the Fleet and Operating Force?

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)

Which functions focus on the development, accreditation, operation, management, and enforcement of security capabilities for systems and networks?

IAWF

Who is the official that formally assumes responsibility for operating a system at an acceptable level of risk?

Designated Accrediting Authority (DAA)

Which civilian series is normally held by the DAA at the GS 14/15 level?

2210

Who is the person within a headquarters, acquisition, site, system, etc… who owns the business process and controls funding for the system?

IA Program Manager (IAPM)

Which level must IAPMs be commercially certified up to?

IAM Level III

Which personnel are responsible for the implementation and operation of a DoD Information System (IS) within their environment, enclave, network, or individual computing system level?

IA Manager (IAM)

Which IAM training level are Network Level IAM positions required to train up to?

II

What is the only IAM job that may be carried out on a collateral duty basis?

Level I IAM

The functions of Level I IAMs may be carried out by a higher level authority if the command manpower/personnel structure is less than how many employees?

25

Which personnel are responsible for the maintenance, defense and operation of DoD IS within their environment, enclave, network, or individual computing system level?

Information Assurance Technical (IAT)

Which personnel are responsible to an IAM for ensuring the appropriate operational IA posture is maintained for command, organization, site, or system?

IA Officers (IAOs)

A contractor may not hold the IAO position for which environment level?

III

Which personnel perform the tasks required to analyze, assess, and document IA capabilities and services of DoD Information Systems to establish compliance with IA requirements, identify vulnerabilities, and quantify risk?

Certification and Accreditation

Who acts as the accreditation representative on the local level and approves all C&A packages that go to the DAA?

Certification Authority Representative (CAR)

Who is the official responsible for performing the comprehensive evaluation of the technical and non-technical security features and safeguards of an IT system, application, or network?

Certification Authority (CA)

Which individual is responsible for overseeing the site accreditation package or process?

Certification Agent

Which individual is responsible for assisting in preparation of the site accreditation package?

Validator

Which personnel use data collected from a variety of CND tools to analyze events?

CND-A

Which personnel test, implement, deploy, maintain, and administer the infrastructure systems that manage the CND-SP network?

CND Infastructure Support (CND-IS)

Which personnel investigate and analyze activities related to cyber incidents within the NE or Enclave?

CND Incident Responder (CND-IR)

Which personnel assess systems and networks within the NE or enclave and identify deviations from acceptable configurations or policy?

CND Auditor (CND-AU)

Who provides Enterprise policy for civilian personnel?

Assistant Secretary of the Navy for Manpower and Reserve Affairs (ASN M&RA)

Civilian personnel managers and supervisors must ensure that the Commanding Officer’s appointment letter states that a commercial certification is required to meet the requirements of which publication?

DoD 8570.01-M

How many months do IA professionals have to meet commercial certification requirements after they have been hired before being transferred to a job that doesn’t require them?

6

What provides oversight to IAWF with special focus on education and training?

CYBERFOR

What was established to set standards for National Security Systems?

Committee for National Security Standards (CNSS)

Which publication establishes policy and assigns responsibilities for DoD IA training, certification, and workforce management?

DoD Directive 8570.01

How often must all authorized users of DoD IS receive IA refresher awareness training?

Annually

The status of the DoD Component IA certification and training shall be monitored and reported as an element of mission readiness and as a management review item per which reference?

DoD Instruction 8500.02

Who is responsible for coordinating the integration of IA initiatives with other workforce development and sustainment requirements?

ASD(NII)/DoD CIO

Who is responsible for providing web-based access to current IA policies, techniques, requirements and knowledge resources to support life-cycle enhancement of IA workforce functional competencies?

DISA Director

Who is responsible for providing appropriate IA training for the Defense Acquisition Workforce Improvement Act community?

Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics

Who is responsible for establishing oversight for approval and coordination of certification development and implementation?

Under Secretary of Defense for Personnel and Readiness

Who is responsible for developing, coordinating, and promulgating joint doctrine and IA training policies for DoD Joint and Combined operations?

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff

What must the DoD components ensure that all DoD civilian positions and personnel regardless of OPM series or job title with IA functions use as the Position Specialty Code (PSC) in the Defense Civilian Personnel Data System?

INFOSEC

How many major categories is the DoD IA workforce split into?

2

How many levels do each of the IA workforce categories have?

3

What provide a means to distinguish between different levels of work?

Functions

What provides verification of an individuals’ knowledge and experience through evaluation and approval based on a set of standards for specific profession or occupations’ functional job levels?

Certification

Which human resources transaction and information system supports civilian personnel operations in the Department of Defense and is designed to support appropriated fund, nonappropriated fund, and local national human resources operations?

Defense Civilian Personnel Data System (DCPDS)

What identifies a DoD civilian position or person with IA functions regardless of OPM job title?

Position Specialty Code (PSC)

What is defined as an authorized user who has access to system control, monitoring, administration, criminal investigation, or compliance functions?

Privileged User

What is defined as an independent and focused threat-based effort by an interdisciplinary, simulated adversary to expose and exploit vulnerabilities to improve the security posture of DoD Information Systems?

Red Team

Which instruction established a DoD cybersecurity program to protect and defend DoD information and information technology?

DoDI 8500.01

What will be employed to protect, detect, characterize, counter, and mitigate unauthorized activity and vulnerabilities on DoD information networks?

Cyberspace defense

What must be given to all DoD information in electronic format in the appropriate levels that reflects the importance of both information sharing and protection?

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

What must be used to ensure strong identification, authentication, and eliminate anonymity in DoD IS and PIT systems?

Identity Assurance

Which instruction must the DoD-wide Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) solution be managed in accordance with?

DoDI 8520.02

Which instruction must biometrics that are used in support of identity assurance be managed in accordance with?

DoDD 8521.01

Who is responsible for monitoring, evaluating, and providing advice to the Secretary of Defense regarding all DoD cybersecurity activities and overseeing the implementation of DoDI 8500.01?

DoD CIO

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity policies and capabilities are aligned with and mutually supportive of personnel, physical, industrial, information, and operations security policies and capabilities?

Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (USD(I))

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with in development of cybersecurity-related standards and guidance?

NIST

Who does the DoD CIO coordinate with to ensure that cybersecurity responsibilities are integrated into processes for DoD acquisition programs, including research and development?

USD(AT&L)

What does the DoD CIO appoint for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Enterprise Information Mission Area (MA) (EIEMA)?

PAO

In what grade or the civilian employee equivalent must the candidate be to be appointed as the Defense IA Security Accreditation Working Group (DSAWG) Chair by the DoD CIO?

O-6

How often must the DoD CIO conduct an assessment of the DoD Component cybersecurity programs?

Annually

Who develops or acquires solutions that support cybersecurity objectives for use throughout the DoD via the ESSG process?

DISA Director

In accordance with which instruction does the DISA Director ensure the continued development and maintenance of guidance and standards procedures to catalog, regulate, and control the use and management of Internet protocols, data services, and associated ports on DoD networks?

DoD Instruction 8551.1

In accordance with which publication does the DISA Director develop and provide cybersecurity training and awareness products as well as a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components?

DoD Directive 8570.01

Who does the DISA Director coordinate with to ensure that command cyber readiness inspection guidance and metrics provide a unity of effort among the security disciplines?

USD(I)

Who assists with acquisition-related agreements, and international cybersecurity and cyberspace defense negotiations and agreements?

USD(AT&L)

The USD(AT&L) must ensure that PIT systems included in acquisition programs are designated, categorized, and have their authorization boundaries defined according to the guidelines that are provided in which reference?

DoD Instruction 8510.01

Who exercises oversight responsibility for developmental test planning in support of interoperability and cybersecurity programs acquiring DoD IS and PIT systems in accordance with DoDI 5134.17?

DASD(DT&E)

Who coordinates with the DoD CIO to ensure cybersecurity strategies, policies, and capabilities are aligned with overarching DoD cyberspace policy, and are supportive of policies and capabilities relating to the disclosure of classified military information to foreign governments and international organizations in accordance with DoD Directive 8000.01?

USD(P)

Who supports implementation of cybersecurity requirements for effective manning, management, and readiness assessments of the cybersecurity workforce in accordance with DoD Directive 8570.01 and DoD 8570.01-M?

USD(P&R)

Who evaluates or validates security implementation specifications described in DoDI 8500.01?

DIRNSA/CHCSS

Who develops, implements, and manages the cybersecurity program for DoD non-cryptographic SCI systems, including the DoD Intelligence IS (DoDIIS) and JWICS?

Director, DIA

Who appoints the PAO for DoD ISs and PIT systems governed by the Business Mission Area (BMA)?

Deputy Chief Management Officer (DCMO)

Cybersecurity training and awareness products developed by what will be used to meet the baseline user awareness training that is required by DoD Directive 8570.01?

DISA

Which program ensures that IT can be used in a way that allows mission owners and operators to have confidence in the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT and DoD information, and to make choices based on that confidence?

Defense cybersecurity

What is used by the DoD to address risk management for all DoD ISs and PIT systems?

NIST SP 800-37

From which perspective does tier one risk management address risk?

Organizational

What provides the Tier 1 risk management governance for the DoD?

DoD ISRMC

Which risk management tier addresses risk from a mission and business process perspective?

Tier 2

Which risk management tier addresses risk from an IS and PIT system perspective?

Tier 3

Cybersecurity risk management is planned for and documented in a cybersecurity strategy in accordance with Interim DoD Instruction 5000.02 along with which other reference?

DoD Instruction 8580.1

What provides a disciplined and structured process that combines IS security and risk management activities into the system development life cycle and authorizes their use within the DoD?

Risk Management Framework (RMF)

How many steps does the Risk Management Framework (RMF) have?

6

The reciprocal acceptance of DoD and other federal agency and department security authorizations will be implemented in accordance with procedures in which reference?

DoD Instruction 8510.01

How many conditions must be met for operational resilience?

3

Transmission of DoD information must be protected through the communications security (COMSEC) measures and procedures established in which reference?

DoDI 8523.01

COMSEC monitoring and cybersecurity readiness testing will be conducted in accordance with which reference?

DoD Instruction 8560.01

Which type of model provides people, services, and platforms the ability to discover one another and connect to form new capabilities or teams without being constrained by geographic, organizational, or technical barriers?

Net-centric

What coordinates and facilitates relationships across LE, intelligence, and homeland security communities?

DoD Cyber Crime Center

What is used to ensure strong identification and authentication as well as eliminates anonymity in DoD ISs so that entities’ access and access behavior are visible, traceable, and enable continuous monitoring for LE and cybersecurity?

Identity assurance

Which instruction contains identity assurance policies and procedures regarding identity authentication for ISs?

DoD Instruction 8520.03

What provide standard cybersecurity, such as boundary defense, incident detection, and response, and key management as well as delivering common applications such as office automation and e-mail?

Enclaves

Where must all DoD ISs be registered on the low side?

DITPR

Which reference should be consulted for PIT cybersecurity requirements?

DoD Instruction 8510.01

Which DoD level must all PIT systems be registered?

Component

What consists of IT capabilities that are provided according to a formal agreement between DoD entities or between DoD and an entity external to DoD?

IT Service

Unified capability products will receive unified capability certification for cybersecurity in accordance with which reference?

DoD Instruction 8100.04

All acquisitions of DoD IS will comply with USD(AT&L) Memorandum along with which other reference?

DoD Instruction 8580.1

Which reference will ports, protocols, and services be managed in accordance with?

DoD Instruction 8551.1

Who is responsible for configuring and reviewing the security for IT below the system level for acceptance and connection into an authorized computing environment?

ISSM

Who will oversee the development and acquisition of enterprise solutions for use throughout the DoD that support cybersecurity objectives?

ESSG

Which TPM version or higher if required by DISA STIGs must DoD components ensure that new computer assets procured to support DoD meet?

1.2

Which standards will be used by STIGs developed by DISA?

SCAP

Who ensures that DoD IT is assigned to and governed by a DoD Component cybersecurity program?

DoD SISO

Who performs the DoD risk executive function?

DoD ISRMC

Who are responsible for overseeing and establishing guidance for the strategic implementation of cybersecurity and risk management within their MAs?

PAOs

Who render authorization decisions for DoD ISs and PIT systems under their purview in accordance with DoD Instruction 8510.01?

AOs

Who are responsible for developing and maintaining an organizational or system-level cybersecurity program?

ISSMs

In accordance with which reference must ISSMs ensure that the handling of possible or actual data spills of classified information are handled with?

DoD Manual 5200.01

Who is responsible for implementing and enforcing all DoD IS and PIT system cybersecurity policies and procedures as defined by cybersecurity-related documentation?

ISSO

Authorized users must meet the minimum cybersecurity awareness requirements in accordance with which reference?

DoD 8570.01-M

Who oversees the implementation of DoDI 8510.01 and directs and oversees the cybersecurity risk management of DoD IT?

DoD Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO)

Who develops and provides RMF training and awareness products and a distributive training capability to support the DoD Components?

Director, Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

Who is responsible for coordinating with the DoD CIO to ensure RMFs processes are appropriately integrated with Defense Acquisition System processes for DoD IT acquisitions?

Under Secretary of Defense for Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics (USD(AT&L))

Who reviews plans, execution, and results of operational testing to ensure adequate evaluation of cybersecurity for all DoD IT acquisitions subject to oversight?

Director, Operational Test and Evaluation (DOT&E)

Who ensures that IS security engineering services, when provided to the DoD components, support the RMF?

Director, National Security Agency/Chief, Central Security Service (DIRNSA/CHCSS)

DOD Component heads must ensure that a trained and qualified AO is appointed in writing for all DoD IS and PIT systems operating within or on behalf of the DoD Component in accordance with which reference? (Page 10)

DoD Instruction 8500.01

Who is responsible for ensuring the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) process supports and documents IS and PIT system categorization consistent with DoDI 8510.01? (Page 11)

Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)

Who is responsible for ensuring all products, services, and PIT have completed the appropriate evaluation and configuration processes prior to incorporation into or connection to an IS or PIT system?

Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM)

What are product-specific and document the applicable DoD policies and security requirements, as well as best practices and configuration guidelines?

Security Technical Implementation Guides (STIGs)

What are developed by DISA to provide general security compliance guidelines as well as serving as source guidance documents for STIGs?

Security Requirements Guides (SRGs)

Which approach to cybersecurity risk management as described in NIST SP 800-39 is implemented by the DoD RMF governance structure?

Three-tiered

Which Tier level in RMF addresses risk management at the DoD enterprise level?

Tier 1

Who directs and oversees the cybersecurity risk management of DoD IT?

Department of Defense Chief Information Officer (DoD CIO)

What performs the DoD Risk Executive Function?

DoD Information Security Risk Management Committee (ISRMC)

What is the community forum for reviewing and resolving authorization issues related to the sharing of community risk?

Defense IA Security Accreditation Working Group (DSAWG)

Who oversees the RMF TAG and the online KS?

Department of Defense Senior Information Security Officer (DoD SISO)

What provides implementation guidance for the RMF by interfacing with the DoD component cybersecurity programs, cybersecurity communities of interest (COIs), and other entities to address issues that are common across all entities?

Risk Management Framework Technical Advisory Group (RMF TAG)

What supports RMF implementation, planning, and execution by functioning as the authoritative source for RMF procedures and guidance?

Knowledge Service

Who must monitor and track overall execution of system-level POA&Ms?

Authorizing Officials (AOs)

Who develops, maintains, and tracks security plans for assigned IS and PIT systems?

Information System Owners (ISOs)

PMs must ensure periodic reviews, testing and assessment of assigned IS and PIT systems are conducted at least how often?

Annually

PMs must ensure T&E of assigned IS and IT systems is planned, resourced, and documented in the program T&E master plan in accordance with which reference?

DoDI 5000.02

What reduces redundant testing, assessing and documentation, and the associated cost in time and resources?

Reciprocity

What must PMs and ISOs who are deploying systems across DoD Components post security authorization documentation to in order to provide visibility of authorization status and documentation to planned receiving sites?

Enterprise Mission Assurance Support Service (eMASS)

Which reference contains DoD policy for Unified Capabilities(UC)?

DoDI 8100.04

What is used to deploy identical copies of an IS or PIT system in specified environments?

Type authorization

Which type of systems do not transmit, receive, route, or exchange information outside of the system’s authorization?

Platform Information Technology (PIT)

How many different approaches are described by NIST SP 800-37 when planning for and conducting security authorizations?

3

What must all DoD IS and PIT systems have that provides an overview of the security requirements for the system and describes the security controls in place or planned for meeting those requirements?

Security Plan

How many steps are in the RMF process?

6

What is step one of the RMF process?

Categorize system

What is step two of the RMF process?

Select Security Controls

What is step three of the RMF process?

Implement Security Controls

What is step four of the RMF process?

Assess Security Controls

What is step five of the RMF process?

Authorize System

What is the final step of the RMF process?

Monitor Security Controls

RMF Team members are required to meet the suitability and fitness requirements established in which reference?

DoD 5200.2-R

What is the authoritative source for detailed security control descriptions, implementation guidance and assessment procedures?

Knowledge Service

Which reference identifies vulnerability severity values?

NIST SP 800-30

Who determines and documents in the SAR a risk level for every NC security control in the system baseline?

Security Control Assessor (SCA)

What is used to document the SCA’s findings of compliance with assigned security controls based on actual assessment results?

Security Assessment Report (SAR)

What is used to identify tasks that need to be accomplished to remediate or mitigate vulnerabilities?

POA&M

IATTs should be granted only when an operational environment or live data is required to complete specific test objectives and should expire at the completion of testing (normally for a period of less than how many days)?

90

Who continuously monitors the system or information environment for security-relevant events and configuration changes that negatively affect security posture?

Information Systems Security Manager (ISSM)

What is the authoritative source for RMF guidance and the repository for DoD RMF policy?

Knowledge Service (KS)

Who is responsible for the functional configuration and content management of the KS as well as providing detailed analysis and authoring support for the enterprise portion of the KS content?

Risk Management Framework Technical Advisory Group (RMF TAG)

Which term means "movement through a medium"?

Propagation

What can be defined as a disturbance (sound, light, radio waves) that moves through a medium (air, water, vacuum)?

Wave

What can be defined as a recurring disturbance advancing through space with or without the use of a physical medium?

Wave motion

Which type of waves are water waves known as because the motion of the water is up and down, or at right angles to the direction in which the waves are traveling?

Transverse

Which type of waves are waves in which the disturbance takes place in the direction of propagation?

Longitudinal

What is the vehicle through which the wave travels from one point to the next?

Medium

What is the position called that a particle of matter would have if it were not disturbed by wave motion?

Reference line

What is the distance in space occupied by one cycle of a radio wave at any given instant?

Wavelength

Which unit of measurement are wavelengths expressed in?

Meters

Which wave property gives a relative indication of the amount of energy the wave transmits?

Amplitude

What is a continuous series of waves called having the same amplitude and wavelength?

Wave train

The number of vibrations, or cycles, of a wave train in a unit of time is called the frequency of the wave train and is measured in what?

Hertz

Which term refers to the number of occurrences that take place in one second?

Hertz

Which propagation property is the rate at which the disturbance travels through the medium, or the velocity with which the crest of the wave moves along?

Velocity

What is the time in which one complete vibratory cycle of events occurs?

Period

What is a wave called that is directed toward the surface of the mirror?

Incident

What is the angle between the reflected wave and the normal called?

Angle of reflection

Which law states that “The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection”?

Law of reflection

What is the bending of the wave path when the waves meet an obstruction?

Diffraction

What is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves either toward or away from the listener, or when the listener moves either toward or away from the sound source?

Doppler Effect

How does sound travel through a medium?

Wave motion

In the study of physics, what is defined as a range of compression-wave frequencies to which the human ear is sensitive?

Sound

Which type of sounds are capable of being heard by the human ear?

Sonics

The Navy has set an arbitrary upper limit for sonics at 10,000 hertz and a lower limit at what?

15 hertz

What is it standard practice to refer to sounds above 10,000 hertz as?

Ultrasonic

What are sounds below 15 hertz known as?

Infrasonic

How many basic elements for transmission and reception of sound must be present before a sound can be produced?

Three

Which two general groups may sounds be broadly classified into?

Noise or Tones

Sound has three basic characteristics: pitch, intensity, and what else?

Quality

Which term is used to describe the frequency of a sound?

Pitch

What is a measure of the sound energy of a wave?

Intensity

What is the sensation the intensity (and sometimes frequency) the sound wave produces on the ear?

Loudness

What are the two basic physical properties that govern the velocity of sound through the medium?

Elasticity and Density

What is the ability of a strained body to recover its shape after deformation?

Elasticity

What property of a medium or substance is the mass per unit volume of the medium or substance?

Density

What is the velocity in FPS that sound will travel through air at 32 degrees F?

1,087

What is the science of sound referred to as?

Acoustics

What is the reflection of the original sound wave as it bounces off a distant surface called?

Echo

In empty rooms or other confined spaces, sound may be reflected several times to cause what is known as what?

Reverberation

What is any disturbance, man-made or natural, that causes an undesirable response or the degradation of a wave referred to as?

Interference

What is the most complex sound wave that can be produced?

Noise

What is light a form of?

Electromagnetic radiation

Current light theory says that light is made up of very small packets of electromagnetic energy called what?

Photons

Approximately how many miles per second does light travel?

186,000

What is a large volume of light called?

Beam

What is a narrow volume of light called?

Pencil

Which type of substance is one through which you can see clearly?

Transparent

What are substances called through which some light rays can pass but through which objects cannot be seen clearly because the rays are diffused?

Translucent

Which year did Ole Roemer discover that light travels approximately 186,000 miles per second in space?

1675

How many times in one second can a light beam circle the earth?

7.5

Which term is used to designate the entire range of electromagnetic waves arranged in order of their frequencies?

Spectrum

What is a conductor or a set of conductors used either to radiate electromagnetic energy into space or to collect this energy from space?

Antenna

Which two primary components does an electromagnetic wave consist of?

Electric and Magnetic field

What is the smallest unit of radiant energy that makes up light waves and radio waves?

Photon

Which units are used for measuring the wavelength of light?

Angstrom

What are the primary colors of light?

Red, green, and blue

What are the complementary colors of light?

Magenta, yellow, and cyan

Which two basic fields are associated with every antenna?

Induction and Radiation

Which field is associated with the energy stored in the antenna?

Induction

Which type of antenna has an electrical length equal to half the wavelength of the signal being transmitted?

Half-wave

What is an energy wave called that is generated by a transmitter?

Radio wave

What is the basic shape of the wave generated by a transmitter?

Sine wave

What is the number of cycles of a sine wave that are completed in 1 second known as?

Frequency

The frequencies falling between 3 kHz and what are called radio frequencies (abbreviated rf) since they are commonly used in radio communications?

300 GHz

The usable radio-frequency range is roughly 10 kilohertz to what?

100 gigahertz

What is the VLF frequency range?

3 to 30 KHz

What is the LF frequency range?

30 to 300 KHz

What is the MF frequency range?

300 to 3000 KHz

What is the HF frequency range?

3 to 30 MHz

What is the VHF frequency range?

30 to 300 MHz

What is the UHF frequency range?

300 to 3000 MHz

What is the SHF frequency range?

3 to 30 GHz

What is the EHF frequency range?

30 to 300 GHz

Any frequency that is a whole number multiple of a smaller basic frequency is known as what property of that basic frequency?

Harmonic

What is the property of a radio wave which is simply the amount of time required for the completion of one full cycle?

Period

What is the space called occupied by one full cycle of a radio wave at any given instant?

Wavelength

The velocity (or speed) of a radio wave radiated into free space by a transmitting antenna is equal to the speed of light—which is how many miles per second?

186,000

Where must the receiving antenna be located for maximum absorption of energy from the electromagnetic fields?

Plane of polarization

Troposphere, Stratosphere, along with what else are the three separate regions, or layers that the Earth’s atmosphere is divided into?

Ionosphere

The troposphere is the portion of the Earth's atmosphere that extends from the surface of the Earth to a height of about 3.7 miles (6 km) at the North Pole or the South Pole and how many miles at the equator?

11.2

Which atmosphere layer has relatively little effect on radio waves because it is a relatively calm region with little or no temperature changes?

Stratosphere

The Ionosphere extends upward from about 31.1 miles to a height of about how many miles?

250

What is the most important region of the atmosphere for long distance point-to-point communications?

Ionosphere

What are the two principal ways in which electromagnetic (radio) energy travels from a transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna?

Ground and Sky waves

The surface wave is impractical for long distance transmissions at frequencies above what frequency?

2 megahertz

Which frequency band is used for sky wave propagation?

High Frequency (HF)

What is the process known as of upsetting electrical neutrality?

Ionization

What occurs when the free electrons and positive ions collide with each other?

Recombination

How many layers is the Ionosphere composed of?

Three

Each ionospheric layer has a maximum frequency at which radio waves can be transmitted vertically and refracted back to Earth which is known as what?

Critical frequency

What is the distance from the transmitter to the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth?

Skip distance

What is a zone of silence between the point where the ground wave becomes too weak for reception and the point where the sky wave is first returned to Earth?

Skip zone

What results in the loss of energy of a radio wave and has a pronounced effect on both the strength of received signals and the ability to communicate over long distances?

Absorption

Fading on ionospheric circuits is mainly a result of what?

Multipath propagation

In what practice are two transmitters and two receivers used, each pair tuned to a different frequency, with the same information being transmitted simultaneously over both frequencies?

Frequency diversity

When a wide band of frequencies is transmitted simultaneously, each frequency will vary in the amount of fading. What is this variation called?

Selective fading

The combined effects of absorption, ground reflection loss, and what else account for most of the energy losses of radio transmissions propagated by the ionosphere?

Free space loss

There is little natural interference above what frequency?

30 megahertz

How many main classes can the regular variations that affect the extent of ionization in the ionosphere be divided into?

Four

What are responsible for variations in the ionization level of the ionosphere?

Sunspots

Long distance propagation of hf radio waves is almost totally "blanked out” when what occurs?

Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance (SID)

An ionospheric storm that is associated with sunspot activity may begin anytime from 2 days before an active sunspot crosses the central meridian of the sun until how many days after it passes the central meridian?

Four

For a given angle of incidence and time of day, there is a maximum frequency that can be used for communications between two given locations. What is this frequency known as?

Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF)

Raindrops cause greater attenuation by scattering than by absorption at frequencies above what?

100 megahertz

Fog can cause serious attenuation by absorption at frequencies above what?

2 gigahertz

What is the condtion when layers of warm air are formed above layers of cool air known as?

Temperature inversion

As the lowest region of the Earth's atmosphere, the troposphere extends from the Earth's surface to a height of slightly over how many miles?

7

What region does virtually all weather phenomena occur in?

Troposphere

Radio waves of frequencies below what normally have wavelengths longer than the size of weather turbulences?

30 megahertz

The usable frequency range for tropospheric scattering is from about 100 megahertz to what?

10 gigahertz

A correctly designed tropospheric scatter circuit will provide highly reliable service for distances ranging from 50 miles to how many miles?

500

Which device is designed to guide electrical energy from one point to another?

Transmission line

Which type of line is most often used for power lines, rural telephone lines, and telegraph lines?

Two-wire open line

Which type of line consists of two insulated wires twisted together to form a flexible line without the use of spacers?

Twisted pair

Leakage caused by the condensation of moisture is prevented in some rigid line applications by the use of what?

Inert gas

What was developed to replace rubber and eliminate high-frequency losses associated with rubber insulators?

Polyethylene plastic

The radius of bends in the waveguide must measure greater than how many wavelengths at the operating frequency of the equipment to avoid excessive attenuation?

Two

Line losses may be any of three types— Radiation/Induction, Dielectric, and what else?

Copper

Copper losses can be minimized and conductivity increased in an RF line by plating the line with what?

Silver

Which type of losses occur because some magnetic lines of force about a conductor do not return to the conductor when the cycle alternates?

Radiation

What determines the amount of current that can flow when a given voltage is applied to an infinitely long line?

Characteristic impedance

The characteristic impedance of lines in actual use normally lies between 50 and how many ohms?

600

When a transmission line is "short” compared to the length of the radio-frequency waves it carries, the opposition presented to the input terminals is determined primarily by what?

Load impedance

If a line is not terminated in characteristic impedance, what is it said to be?

Finite

What are voltages called that are moving toward the receiving end of a line?

Incident voltages

Which type of line has no standing waves of current and voltage?

Nonresonant

Which type of line has a finite length and is not terminated in its characteristic impedance?

Resonant

What is the ratio of maximum voltage to minimum voltage on a line called?

VSWR

What are hollow metal tubes used to transfer energy from one point to another?

Waveguides

What are theoretical properties (inductance, resistance, and capacitance) of a transmission line that are lumped into a single component?

Lumped constants

Which two basic classifications are most practical transmitting antennas divided into?

Hertz and Marconi

Which type of antennas operate with one end grounded and are mounted perpendicular to the Earth or to a surface acting as a ground?

Marconi

Hertz antennas are generally used for frequencies above what?

2 megahertz

Which three parts does a complete antenna system consist of?

Coupling device, feeder, and antenna

What is defined as a conductor or group of conductors used either for radiating electromagnetic energy into space or for collecting it from space?

Antenna

What is the interchangeability of the same antenna for transmitting and receiving known as?

Reciprocity

What cannot be used at medium and low frequencies because the electric lines of force are parallel to and touch the earth?

Horizontal polarization

Which frequencies is sky-wave transmission used?

High

From approximately 50 to how many megahertz, vertical polarization results in a slightly stronger signal than does horizontal polarization with antennas at the same height?

100

At 30 megahertz, vertical polarization is better for antenna heights below about how many meters?

91

At ordinary antenna mast heights of 12 meters (40 feet), vertical polarization is advantageous for frequencies less than about what?

100 megahertz

Which type of polarization is used by VHF and UHF transmissions?

Horizontal

What is the useful part of the transmitter's signal?

Radiated energy

For the antenna in free space, that is, entirely removed from any objects that might affect its operation, the radiation resistance is how many ohms?

73

For most half-wave wire antennas, the radiation resistance is about how many ohms?

65

What is a plot of the radiated energy from an antenna?

Radiation pattern

What is it known as when antenna sources radiate energy equally in all directions?

Isotropic radiation

Which type of radiators emit (radiate) stronger radiation in one direction than in another?

Anisotropic

What is used to indicate directions of minimum radiation?

Null

The electrical length of any antenna wire can be increased or decreased by what way?

Loading

What is the basic unit from which many complex antennas are constructed?

Half-wave antenna

What term is used to indicate an antenna that is very short compared with the wavelength of the operating frequency?

Doublet

What is the simplest form of a practical antenna?

Doublet

What type of antenna is the shortest antenna that can be used in free space?

1/2 wavelength

What is an ordinary half-wave antenna that has one or more additional conductors connected across its ends?

Folded dipole

What is a parasitic element referred to as when it operates to reinforce energy coming from the driver toward itself?

Director

What is a parasitic element referred to as if it is placed so it causes maximum energy radiation in a direction away from itself and toward the driven element?

Reflector

What designates an array in which the direction of maximum radiation is perpendicular to the plane containing these elements?

Broadside array

What type of array is it when all the elements lie in a straight line with no radiation at the ends of the array?

Collinear

What type of array is it when the principal direction of radiation is along the plane of the array and perpendicular to the elements?

End-fire

What property of an array is the proportion of energy radiated in the principal direction of radiation to the energy radiated in the opposite direction?

Front-To-Back Ratio

What is an antenna that is a wavelength or longer at the operating frequency?

Long-wire

What is a horizontal, long-wire antenna designed especially for the reception and transmission of low-frequency, vertically polarized ground waves?

Beverage antenna

What is one of the most popular fixed-station antennas because it is very useful in point-to-point communications?

Rhombic

What is a half-wave radiator with a reflector?

Corner-Reflector antenna

What is the heating of an insulating material by placing it in a high- frequency electric field?

Dielectric heating

What parts of the human body are highly susceptible to dielectric heating?

Eyes

What is the area of a radiation pattern that is covered by radiation?

Lobe

The optimu gain of a broadside array is obtained when the elements are spaced what distance apart?

0.65 wavelength

Which year was the first practical telegraph established in London, England?

1838

Which year did Marconi demonstrate the first practical wireless transmitter?

1897

Which year was the first successful transatlantic transmissions achieved?

1902

What is the ability to impress intelligence upon a transmission media?

Modulation

What is the mixing two frequencies across a nonlinear impedance known as?

Heterodyning

What is the basic alternating waveform for all complex waveforms?

Sine wave

What is generated by rotating a coil in the magnetic field between two magnets?

Alternating Current

What indicates how much of a cycle has been completed at any given instant?

Phase angle

Which cycle property is the elapsed time from the beginning of a cycle to its completion?

Period

Which sine wave property is determined by its physical length?

Wavelength

The frequencies involved in normal speech vary from a low of about 90 hertz for a deep bass to as high as what for a high soprano?

10 KHz

What is the ability known as to faithfully reproduce the input in the output?

Fidelity

What is the minimum frequency range that can be used for the transmission of speech?

500 to 2,000 hertz

In the modulation process, waves from the information source are impressed onto a radio-frequency sine wave called a what?

Carrier

What is an information wave normally referred to as?

Modulating wave

Output rises and falls directly with the input in which type of devices?

Linear

Which type of impedance is one in which the resulting current is not directly proportional to the change in the applied voltage?

Nonlinear

What is the sum of two individual sine waves?

Complex waveform

What is the process of combining two or more frequencies in a nonlinear impedance which results in the production of new frequencies called?

Heterodyning

How can the heterodyning process be analyzed?

Spectrum analysis

What is the amount of the frequency spectrum that signals occupy known as?

Bandwidth

How many conditions must be met in a circuit for heterodyning to occur?

Two

What refers to any method of varying the amplitude of an electromagnetic carrier frequency in accordance with the intelligence to be transmitted by the carrier?

Amplitude modulation

What is a radio-frequency wave suitable for modulation by the intelligence to be transmitted?

Carrier frequency

What is on-off keying referred to as when applied to a continuously oscillating radio-frequency source?

CW signaling

What was the first type of modulation used?

Continuous wave

What is a system of on-off keying developed for telegraph that is capable of passing intelligence over wire at an acceptable rate?

Morse code

What is one of the best methods for keying amplifier stages in transmitters?

Blocked-grid keying

Which type of transmission has a high degree of clarity under severe noise conditions, long-range operation, and narrow bandwidth?

Continuous-wave

What is required when keying takes place in an intermediate or final amplifier operating at comparatively high power?

Buffer

Oscillators are too unstable for direct frequency control in what type of transmitters?

VHF and UHF

In practice, the multiplication factor (number of times the input frequency is multiplied) is seldom larger than what in any one stage?

Five

Who developed the principles on which modern communications are built?

Alexander Graham Bell

What is an energy converter that changes sound energy into electrical energy?

Microphone

What has the largest voltage output for a given mechanical stress and is the most commonly used crystal in microphones?

Rochelle salt

Crystal microphones are delicate and must be handled with care. Exposure to temperatures above what may permanently damage the crystal unit?

125 degrees F

The dynamic microphone has a uniform response over a frequency range that extends from 40 to what?

15,000 hertz

An AM transmitter can be divided into what two major sections according to the frequencies at which they operate?

RF and AF

What are all of the sum frequencies above the carrier spoken of collectively as?

Upper sideband

What is the resultant wave called when the carrier and sidebands are combined in a single impedance and viewed simultaneously with an oscilloscope?

Modulation envelope

Which agency assigns carrier frequencies for radio stations in the standard broadcast band?

Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

The standard AM broadcast band starts at 535 kilohertz and ends at what?

1,605 kilohertz

How many sidebands accompany a carrier wave which has been modulated by voice or music signals?

Two

What generates unwanted (SPURIOUS) sideband frequencies?

Overmodulation

To measure degrees of modulation less than 100 percent, what can you use to indicate the relative magnitudes of the rf carrier and the audio- modulating signal?

Modulation Factor

Which two categories are modulator circuits usually placed into?

High or Low

What does the FCC define in the Code of Federal Regulations as "modulation produced in the plate circuit of the last radio stage of the system"?

High-Level modulation

What is the simplest modulator available which is also the easiest to adjust for proper operation?

Plate modulation

Which action in the plate modulator effectively changes an audio frequency to a different part of the frequency spectrum?

Heterodyning

What is widely used in portable and mobile equipment to reduce size and power requirements?

Control-grid modulator

What is generally employed when audio power is limited and distortion of the grid-modulated circuit cannot be allowed?

Cathode modulator

Which type of modulation is the angle of a sine-wave carrier varied by a modulating wave?

Angle

What is used in frequency modulation to shift the frequency of an oscillator at an audio rate?

Audio signal

What is used in all single-channel, radiotelegraph systems that use automatic printing systems?

Frequency-shift keying

What is the approximate amount of inherent signal-to-noise ratio improvement of FSK over AM?

3 to 4 dB

Which modulating signal property controls the amount by which the frequency departs from the average?

Amplitude

What is frequency deviation divided by the frequency of the modulating signal called?

Modulation index

What modulates oscillator frequency in direct modulation?

Reactance tube

Multivibrators are limited to frequencies below about what?

1 MHz

What is simply a diode, or pn junction, that is designed to have a certain amount of capacitance between junctions?

Varactor

What is used to calculate the number of significant sidebands existing in the waveform?

Modulation index

What will determine certain capabilities of the pulse-modulation system?

Rest time duration

What is the maximum value of the transmitted pulse?

Peak power

What is the ratio of working time to total time for intermittently operated devices?

Duty cycle

What is the duration of time RF frequency is transmitted known as?

Pulse Width (PW)

Most radar oscillators operate at pulse voltages between 5 and how many kilovolts?

20

What is a pulse-forming network discharged by?

Spark gap

Which type of spark gap uses a trigger pulse to ionize the air between the contacts of the spark gap and to initiate the discharge of the pulse-forming network?

Fixed gap

The hydrogen thyratron modulator is an electronic switch which requires a positive trigger of only how many volts?

150

What is the most common type of radar modulator?

Hydrogen thyratron

In military voice systems the bandwidth for voice signals is limited to 300 to 3,000 hertz, requiring a sampling frequency of what?

8 kilohertz

What is the simplest form of pulse modulation?

Pulse-amplitude

What has the advantage of requiring constant transmitter power since the pulses are of constant amplitude and duration?

Pulse position modulation

What is a method of pulse modulation in which the modulating wave is used to frequency modulate a pulse-generating circuit?

PFM

What refers to a system in which the standard values of a quantized wave are indicated by a series of coded pulses?

Pulse-Code Modulation (PCM)

What is the process of re-creating original modulating frequencies (intelligence) from the RF carrier referred to as?

Demodulation

Which type of modulation consists of on-off keying of a carrier wave?

Continuous-Wave (CW)

Which reception method is highly selective and allows little interference from adjacent cw stations?

Heterodyne

What is used to receive short-wave code signals because it is easy to adjust and has high sensitivity and good selectivity?

Regenerative detector

What refers to any method of modulating an electromagnetic carrier frequency by varying its amplitude in accordance with the message intelligence that is to be transmitted?

Amplitude modulation

What is normally used where large input signals are supplied and a linear output is required?

Series-diode detector

What is often used in receivers to supply an amplified detected output?

Common-Emitter Detector

What is essentially a tank circuit which is tuned to a frequency either slightly above or below the FM carrier frequency?

Slope detector

What uses a double-tuned RF transformer to convert frequency variations in the received FM signal to amplitude variations?

Phase-shift discriminator

The output of the Foster-Seeley discriminator is affected not only by the input frequency, but also to a certain extent by what?

Input amplitude

What occurs when an input frequency higher than the center frequency is applied to the discriminator circuit and the current and voltage phase relationships change?

Phase shift

What uses a double-tuned transformer to convert the instantaneous frequency variations of the fm input signal to instantaneous amplitude variations?

Ratio detector

Which type of tuned circuit operates below resonance?

Capacitive

Ratio detectors can operate with as little as how many millivolts of input?

100

In phase modulation (PM) the intelligence is contained in the amount and rate of what in a carrier wave?

Phase shift

What uses the amplitude of a pulse-amplitude modulated (PAM) signal or the duration of a pulse-duration modulated (pdm) signal to charge a holding capacitor and restore the original waveform?

Peak detection

What year was the first official naval radio message sent from ship to shore?

1899

What year was the first radiotelephone used between ships?

1916

In what year were the first superheterodyne receivers installed in the fleet?

1931

In what year were the first successful radio teletypewriter transmissions between ships completed?

1944

In what year did the first successful use of radiophoto (facsimile) occur?

1945

What refers to communications over a distance and includes any transmission, emission, or reception of signs, signals, writings, images, or sounds?

Telecommunications

What is the most important method the Navy has of communicating between widely separated forces?

Radio

What was the first means of radio communications that had military and commercial importance?

Radiotelegraphy

Line-of-sight characteristics limit the usual range of radiotelephone from how many miles?

20 to 25

The Navy uses radio teletypewriter (rtty) mainly for high-speed automatic communications across ocean areas and has a normal speed of operation of how many words per minute?

100

What is the process used to transmit photographs, charts, and other graphic information electronically?

Facsimile (fax)

What is a combination of sets, units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts joined together to perform a specific operational function or several functions?

System

What consists of a unit or units and the assemblies, subassemblies, and parts connected or associated together to perform a specific function?

Set

What is a collection of units, assemblies, subassemblies, and parts?

Group

What is an assembly or any combination of parts, subassemblies, and assemblies mounted together?

Unit

What is a number of parts or subassemblies, or any combination thereof, joined together to perform a specific function?

Assembly

What is one component or two or more components joined together?

Part

What is the frequency range for the extremely high frequency (EHF) band?

30 GHZ - 300 GHz

What is the frequency range for the super high frequency (SHF) band?

3 GHZ - 30 GHz

What is the frequency range for the ultra high frequency (UHF) band?

300 MHZ - 3 GHz

What is the frequency range for the very high frequency (VHF) band?

30 MHZ - 300 MHz

What is the frequency range for the high frequency (HF) band?

3 MHZ - 30 MHz

What is the frequency range for the medium frequency (MF) band?

300 KHZ - 3 MHz

What is the frequency range for the low frequency (LF) band?

30 KHZ - 300 KHz

What is the frequency range for the very low frequency (VLF) band?

3 KHZ - 30 KHz

What is the frequency range for the extremely low frequency (ELF) band?

Up to 300 Hz

What band has the ability to penetrate ocean depths to several hundred feet with little signal loss?

ELF

What type of transmission is normally considered a broadcast, that is, one-way transmission, no reply required?

VLF

What systems are established to communicate over long- distance trunks or links between fixed terminals?

Point-to-point

What is normally a message circuit between two points that are both switching centers or individual message distribution points?

Trunk

What is a transmitter-receiver system connecting two locations?

Link

Frequencies above what are not normally refracted by the atmosphere and ground-wave range is minimal?

30 megahertz

The naval communications system is broken down into what groups?

Strategic and tactical

What type of communications are usually limited to a specific area of operations and are used to direct or report the movement of specific forces?

Tactical

What mode is a method of operation in which telecommunications between stations takes place simultaneously in both directions using two separate frequencies?

Full-Duplex (fdx)

What is the type of operation in which one station transmits information on one or more channels directed to more than one station and/or unit?

Broadcast (bc)

Message traffic is normally sent to the fleet by three methods: broadcast, intercept, and what else?

Receipt

What combines into a single system all the elements that make up the naval communications system and the Army and Air Force equivalent?

DCS

What offers rapid, direct interconnection of DOD and certain other government installations through worldwide telephone exchanges?

DCS AUTOVON

What provides authorized users with a means for exchanging classified information over communications security (COMSEC) circuitry or over other approved circuitry?

AUTOSEVOCOM

Daily capacity of the AUTODIN system is about how many average-length messages?

Five million

What was established for the purpose of integrating the critical intelligence communications (CRITICOMM) and the special intelligence communications (SPINTCOMM) networks into a single automated communications network?

DSSCS

What network provides a voice link between the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and all subordinate commands ashore, afloat, and airborne?

HICOM

What meets our need for a connection between Navy tactical voice systems of the operating forces and the various fixed telephone services ashore?

NORATS

What is the principle use of the continuous wave?

Radiotelegraphy

A cw transmitter requires four essential components. These are a generator, amplifier, keyer, and what else?

Antenna

What is power the product of?

Current and Voltage

What refers to a sine wave quantity (for example, an oscillator output) that has a frequency that is a submultiple of the frequency of some other sine wave quantity it helped make?

Subharmonic

What are special power amplifiers that multiply the input frequency?

Frequency multipliers

What is the elimination of the undesired portions of the signal?

Suppression

What type of transmission is the most common communications mode used today?

Single-sideband

What is generally used whenever special voice communications circuits are necessary between shore activities or between ships and shore activities because it is less susceptible to atmospheric interference than amplitude modulation?

SSB

What is used extensively in naval communications to expand our traffic capabilities?

ISB

What four basic functions must a receiver perform in order to be useful?

Reception, selection, detection, and reproduction

What occurs when a transmitted electromagnetic wave passes through the receiver antenna and induces a voltage in the antenna?

Reception

What is the ability of the receiver to select a particular frequency of a station from all other station frequencies appearing at the antenna of the receiver?

Selection

What is the action of separating the low (audio) frequency intelligence from the high (radio) frequency carrier?

Detection

What is the action of converting the electrical signals to sound waves?

Reproduction

What property is defined by the ability of a receiver to reproduce weak signals?

Sensitivity

What is the limiting factor of sensitivity?

Noise

What is the degree of distinction made by the receiver between the desired signal and unwanted signals?

Selectivity

What property of a receiver is its ability to accurately reproduce, in its output, the signal that appears at its input?

Fidelity

What is the process used to tune two or more circuits with a single control?

Ganged tuning

What are the only two fundamental sections of the fm receiver that are electrically different from the AM receiver?

Discriminator and Limiter

Which circuit in FM circuits is designed to respond to frequency shift variations?

Discriminator

What is the variation in signal strength called at the receiver antenna?

Fading

What is an AGC voltage that is used to cause degeneration by driving the amplifiers toward cutoff referred to as?

Reverse AGC

Which audio amplifier property determines the degree of amplification provided to different frequencies in the sound spectrum?

Frequency response

Treble tones are defined as the audio frequencies above approximately what frequency?

3,000 hertz

Bass tones are defined as the audio frequencies below approximately what frequency?

300 hertz

Which circuits are used in situations where you must accurately control the frequency of an oscillator by some external signal?

Automatic Frequency Control

Which circuit cuts off the output of a receiver when there is no input?

Squelch

What is a signal-producing process through heterodyning and frequency selection?

Frequency synthesis

What provides the capability to transfer remote control station functions and signals to transmitters?

Transmitter transfer switchboard

What is the most widely used code in manual telegraphy?

Morse code

The interval between words is equal to how many dots in morse code?

Seven

The five-unit (five-level) code has been the most commonly used in modern printing telegraphy and is universally used in teletypewriter operation. This is also known as what code?

Baudot

What are the two basic modes of teletypewriter operation?

Asynchronous and Synchronous

What is the most common mode used in teletypewriter operation?

Start-stop

What is the reciprocal of the time in seconds of the shortest signal element?

Baud rate

How many words per minute is the defense communications system standard speed for teletypewriter operation?

100

Which type of circuits make use of the presence or absence of current flow to convey information?

Neutral

Under which condition does the teletypewriter appear to be running because the machine is decoding the constant space as the Baudot character blank and the type hammer continually strikes the type box but there is no printing or type box movement across the page?

Running open

Which two basic radio teletypewriter (ratt) systems does the Navy use?

Tone modulated and Carrier Frequency Shift

Which colors are used on patch panels to identify whether that panel is used for passing secure or nonsecure information?

Red and Black

Which type of equipment is used to encrypt and decrypt tty messages that require security handling?

Cryptographic

What takes the rf signal passed on by the antenna filter and translates it to an audio signal?

Radio receiver

What is a combined, simultaneous display of the amplitude and phase relationships of two input signals?

Lissajous pattern

Which type of communications circuit permits two-way communications between stations?

Half-duplex

What is the simultaneous transmission of a number of intelligible signals (messages) in either or both directions called using only a single rf carrier?

Multiplexing

Which two methods of multiplexing can be used?

Time-division and Frequency-division

What is the normal voice speaking frequency range?

100 to 3,500 hertz

By multiplexing tty circuits, up to how many circuits may be carried in any one of the 3,000 hertz multiplexed channels?

16

Which transmission method is used for transmitting still images over an electrical communications system?

Facsimile

What are compromising emanations (ce) generally referred to as?

Tempest

What includes all measures designed to protect transmission from interception, traffic analysis, and imitative deception?

Transmission security

What occurs when a person comes into contact with a source of rf voltage in a manner that allows rf current to flow through the area of contact?

RF burn

Which device changes dc pulses to mark and space modulation for teletypewriter transmissions?

Keyer

What changes an audio signal back to dc pulses during teletypewriter reception?

Converter

Which device stores a teletypewriter message on a paper tape by punching Baudot coded messages into it?

Perforator

What stores an incoming tty signal on paper tape?

Reperforator

What is the reference color of equipment that passes classified information?

Red

Which year was the first artificial satellite placed in orbit by the Russians?

1957

Score was the first satellite with the primary purpose of communications by the US in which year?

1958

Which year was the first regular satellite communications service used by the Navy?

1960

Which year was the Defense Communications Satellite Program (DCSP) initiated by the Secretary of Defense?

1962

Which type of satellite only reflects received radio signals back to earth?

Passive

What amplifies signals received and then retransmits them back to earth?

Repeater

In general terms, an orbit is either elliptical or which other shape?

Circular

What is a period of orbit that approaches that of the earth called?

Near Synchronous

All satellites orbit the earth in which type of orbits?

Elliptical

What is the point in the orbit called when it is the greatest distance from the center of the earth?

Apogee

What is the angle between the equatorial plane of the earth and the orbital plane of the satellite called?

Angle of inclination

A satellite orbiting in any plane not identical with the equatorial plane is in which type of orbit?

Inclined

Which type of orbit is defined by a satellite orbiting in a plane that coincides with the equatorial plane of the earth?

Equatorial

A satellite in a circular orbit at a height of approximately how many nautical miles above the earth is in a synchronous orbit?

19,300

A satellite in a circular orbit from approximately 2,000 miles to how many miles above the earth is considered to be in a medium altitude orbit?

12,000

About how many solar cells mounted on the surface of the satellite do newer communications satellites have?

32,000

Generally speaking, how many sizes of parabolic-type antennas are currently in use at earth terminal sites?

Three

Depending on the type used and the operational requirements, transmitters used in earth terminals have output power capabilities that vary from 10 watts to how many kilowatts?

20

Which table provides the coordinates of a satellite or a celestial body at specific times during a given period?

Ephemeris

What is the period of time called for one earth terminal to yield control to another as a satellite moves out of its area of coverage?

Hand over

The smallest terminal in the defense communication systems network has effectively an 18-foot antenna and weighs how many pounds?

19,500

Which year did the Department of the Navy establish the Naval Space Command?

1983

Which year was the first DSCS Phase III satellite launched into orbit?

1984

Which publication was written to concisely explain the role of the Navy in the Defense Communications Satellite Program?

NTP-2

What is the zone called where the satellite can be seen by both the up- and down-link earth terminals?

Zone of mutual visibility

The frequency range from ELF to SHF is from below 300 hertz up to how many gigahertz?

30

What is a nonradiating device called that absorbs the rf and has the impedance characteristics of the antenna?

Dummy load

What is a small building called that is physically separated from the transmitter location that contains antenna loading, coupling, and tuning circuits?

Helix house

Which type of antenna is a special form of a rhombic-arranged monopole array that is designed to transmit from a particular location?

Triatic

Communications systems in which portion of the radio frequency spectrum use line-of-sight propagation?

1 to 10 gigahertz

The distance between microwave system hop points ranges from 50 to 150 kilometers (31 to how many statute miles)?

95

The tropo system uses the turbulence in the layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere to bounce signals back to earth and has a transmission range up to 800 kilometers (how many statute miles)?

500

HF has a hop distance (skywave) of about how many miles?

1,400

The distance of one hop for a line-of-sight system is between 31 and how many miles?

95

What was developed by the U.S. Navy as a command tool for commanders in tactical combat situations?

NTDS

How many separate data transmission links does NTDS use to maintain tactical data communications between tactical units?

Three

What provides high-speed, computer-to-computer transfer of tactical information, command orders, and unit status to all tactical data systems?

Link 11

What provides a means of transmitting track information to those units not capable of participating in the link 11 network?

Link 14

What permits the computer to take control of the autopilot in an equipped aircraft?

Link 4A

What is the international distress frequency?

500 Kilohertz

What is the survival craft communications frequency?

8,364 kilohertz

What take energy at (or near) the visible light spectrum and convert it to a very narrow and intense beam in the same region?
Lasers
Which color of communications lasers could possibly penetrate the ocean to great depths?
Blue-green
What is a type of two-equipment installation where one unit can be substituted for another in the event of failure?
Doubling up
What acts as a coil and is used with variable inductors for impedance matching of high-power transmitters?
Helix
What are conductors or optical waveguides called that readily pass light?
Fiber optics
Input impedance of the voltmeter should exceed the impedance of the circuit by a ratio of at least what?
10 to 1
The average value of a dc waveform can vary from 63.6% of peak value for a rectified full sine wave to what percent of peak value for a triangular wave?
50%
The Simpson 260 analog multimeter is capable of measuring both ac and dc voltages of up to how many volts?
5,000
When performing measurements with any analog multimeter, remember that the most accurate readings are taken with the pointer at what location?
Midscale
What is defined as the apparent displacement of the position of an object because of the difference between two points of view?
Parallax
What are primarily designed for waveform observation and are typically less accurate than other pieces of test equipment used to measure dc voltages?
Oscilloscopes
Most analog voltmeters (that use D’Arsonval meter movements) in common use today are accurate to approximately what percent of full-scale reading?
+/- 2%
The digital multimeter in most cases provides an accuracy of at least what percent?
±0.1%
In standard oscilloscopes, the vertical amplifier input impedance is generally greater than what, making it possible to measure voltages in high-impedance circuits?
1 megohm
Most commonly used oscilloscopes have a frequency response from dc up to what?
100 megahertz
The upper frequency limitations of digital multimeters vary from 20 kilohertz to over what?
300 kilohertz
What method of measuring ac voltage is the most accurate of the common measurement techniques?
Differential voltmeter
Most analog multimeters cannot be used for measuring ac current and are only accurate to within what percent on dc ranges?
±2%
The Fluke 8000A digital multimeter is accurate to within ±0.3% when measuring dc current and what percent when measuring ac current?
±1%
What is designed to indicate the presence of current and the relative magnitude of one source of current as compared to another?
Current tracer
Current probes can be divided into three basic types: passive, active, and what else?
Hall Effect
Meggers produce the large voltages that are required to measure resistances as high as what?
10,000 megohms
The Fluke 893 ac-dc differential voltmeter can be used for measuring extremely high resistances from 10 megohms to 106 megohms with a typical accuracy of what?
±5%
What is that property of a circuit that produces an electrostatic field when two conducting bodies separated by a dielectric material have a potential applied to them?
Capacitance
What is the basic measurement of capacitance?
Farad
What is the amount of current flow maintained at 1 ampere that passes a given point of a circuit in 1 second?
Coulomb
Capacitance measurements are usually accomplished by either a bridge-type or a what other type of capacitance meter?
Reactance-type
What is the ratio of the energy dissipated to the energy stored in a capacitor)?
Dissipation factor
What is the ability of a coil to function as a storehouse of energy in magnetic form and is determined by the shape and dimensions of the coil?
Inductance
The Hay bridge is used for inductors with low losses low D dial reading or high Q) at what?
1 kilohertz
What measures inductance by comparing it with a capacitance and (effectively) two resistances?
Maxwell bridge
In equipment that uses vacuum tubes, faulty tubes are responsible for more than what percent of all electronic equipment failures?
50
If the average receiving vacuum tube is not overdriven or operated continuously at maximum rating, it can have a life of at least how many hours before the filament opens?
2,000
Klystron tubes that remain inoperative for more than how many months may become gassy?
6
How many hours or more of reduced voltage operation may be required for klystrons that have been inoperative for periods in excess of 6 months?
Eight
When the twt is installed, you can usually measure the collector current and voltage and check the power output for various inputs. Any deviation greater than what percent from normal specifications may be considered to be an indication of a defective tube?
10%
Transistor circuits, other than pulse and power amplifier stages, are usually biased so that the emitter current is from 0.5 milliampere to 3 milliamperes and the collector voltage is from 3 to how many volts?
15
A back-to-forward resistance ratio on the order of what or greater should be obtained for the collector-to-base and emitter-to-base measurements?
100 to 1
Many ohmmeters are designed such that on the R × 1 range, how many milliamperes or more can flow through the electronic part under test?
100
Ohmmeter ranges that require a current of more than what in the test circuit are not to be used for testing transistors?
1 milliampere
What should not be used to furnish power for transistor equipment because they have poor voltage regulation and, possibly, high ripple voltage?
Battery eliminators
What is created whenever two substances (solid or fluid) are rubbed together or separated?
Static electricity
An MOS field-effect transistor (MOSFET) can be damaged by a static voltage potential of as little as how many volts?
35
When moving an ESDS device or assembly, always touch (with your bare skin) the surface on which it rests for at least how long before picking it up?
1 second

Transistors are capable of operating in excess of how many hours at maximum ratings without appreciable degradation?

30,000

What is a three-element, solid-state device in which the forward resistance can be controlled?

SCR

What device is designed to switch from a blocking state to a conducting state for either polarity of applied voltages and with either positive or negative gate triggering?

Triac

What is a solid-state, three-terminal semiconductor that exhibits stable open-circuit, negative-resistance characteristics?

Unijunction Transistor (UJT)

What must never be used in testing MOSFETs?

VTVM

What constitute an area of microelectronics in which many conventional electronic components are combined into high-density modules?

Integrated Circuits (ICs)

The most frequently used ICs are manufactured with either 14 or how many pins?

16

What are spring-loaded devices that are designed to clip onto a dual-in-line package IC while the IC is mounted in its circuit?

Logic clips

What is designed to detect faulty, in-circuit-DIP ICs by comparing them with ICs that are known to be good (reference ICs)?

Logic comparator

What can immediately identify whether a specific point in the circuit is low, high, open, or pulsing?

Logic probes

Some logic probes have a feature that detects and displays high-speed transient pulses as small as how many nanoseconds wide?

5

What provides various functions that can assist you in maintenance, testing, and troubleshooting of equipment using digital circuitry?

Logic analyzer

Most logic analyzers have crt displays that can monitor up to how many timing signals at the same time?

32

A specific gravity reading between 1.275 and what indicates a full-charge condition and assures you that the lead acid type battery is in good condition?

1.300

What series of battery testers incorporate a multiple-range voltmeter, battery-loading resistors, multiplier resistors, and a jack-switching arrangement that connects the load resistors across the voltmeter for a total of 32 different voltmeter-load resistor combinations?

TS-183/U

What are the two types of nickel-cadmium batteries?

Vented and Nonvented

The voltage at the terminals of a NICAD will normally be between 1.25 and how many volts in an open-circuit condition?

1.30

What are used to attenuate rf signals in incremental steps?

Decade attenuators

The core of Fiber is usually made of plastic, glass, or what else?

Plastic-Clad Silica (PCS)

What type of fiber optic cores have high attenuation (25 dB/km), require precision tools and connectors, and are extremely susceptible to mechanical damage?

Glass

What injects a short, intense laser pulse into the fiber and monitors reflections caused by breaks, inclusions, microcracks, and discontinuities?

OTDR

What is used with an OTDR to provide visual evidence of fiber faults, connector and splice locations, and attenuation locations?

Oscilloscope

What measures the input versus the output of light in an optical fiber?

Optical ohmmeter

What is test equipment designed to evaluate the operational performance of a piece of equipment or printed circuit board (pcb)?

Automatic Test Equipment (ATE)

What provides on-site screen testing and fault isolation of digital pcb’s and modules?

AN/USM-465

What is a versatile troubleshooting tool used to statically test resistors, capacitors, inductors, diodes, transistors, multiple-component circuits, and integrated circuits?

Huntron Tracker 2000

Testing components by what method is the most preferred method for troubleshooting?

Comparison

What are impedance-measuring instruments that determine the ratio of reactance to resistance of capacitors or inductors and resistors?

Q meters

What are among the most accurate types of measuring devices used in the measurement of impedance?

Bridges

What are used in bridge circuits to control the application of operating power to the bridge and to complete the detector circuit?

Switches

What is recommended for the indicating device in bridges used for the measurement of very high resistances?

Electronic multimeter

Commercially manufactured Kelvin bridges have accuracies of approximately what percent for resistance ranges from 0.001 ohm to 25 ohms?

2%

What is a commonly used type of bridge for the measurement of capacitors and dielectric losses?

Schering bridge

What property of a capacitor is defined as the reciprocal of the dissipation factor, which is the ratio of the capacitor's dielectric constant to its conductivity at a given frequency?

Q

What type of bridge is used for the measurement of inductance and the Q of the inductor?

Hay

A typical range of values that can be measured with the Hay bridge is from 1 microhenry to 100 henries. The accuracy of the measurements made with this bridge is about what percent?

2%

What type of bridge is used for the measurement of inductance and inductive Q but can measure higher ranges than the Hay bridge?

Maxwell

Typical commercial impedance angle meters, operating at 2 MHz, are accurate to within what percent for impedances of from 10 to 500 ohms?

4%

What is used to determine the ratio of power changes or to indicate the power level in a circuit with respect to either 0 or a standard reference level?

Decibel

What meters are useful for making measurements where direct indication in decibels is desired?

dB Meter

What is used to measure power taken from ac or dc power sources?

Electrodynamic wattmeter

The maximum current range of electrodynamic wattmeters is normally restricted to about how many amperes?

20

Wattmeters used as laboratory standards have an accuracy of 0.1%, high-grade portable wattmeters an accuracy of 0.2% to 0.25%, and high-grade switchboard wattmeters an accuracy of what percent of full-scale value?

1%

Iron-core wattmeters are primarily used as what instruments and employ the induction principle?

Switchboard

What are used for direct, small power measurements or for power measurements at frequencies beyond the range of electrodynamometer-type instruments?

Electronic wattmeters

The frequency range of the electronic wattmeter can be extended up to how many megahertz by using pentodes instead of triode tubes?

20

What can be used in a bridge circuit so that small resistance changes can be easily detected and power measurement can be accomplished by the substitution method?

Bolometer

An air-mounted bolometer provides a power sensitivity how many or more times greater than that provided by static calorimetric devices?

100

Typical dimensions of a thermistor bead used for microwave measurements are 0.015 inch along its major axis and what size along its minor axis?

0.010 inch

What is the standard power meter used in the Navy that is an automatic self-balancing instrument employing dual-bridge circuits?

Hewlett-Packard 431 C

What are the most accurate of all instruments for measuring high power?

Calorimeters

Power measurement with true calorimeter methods is based solely on temperature, mass, and what else?

Time

Calorimeters are classified as static (nonflow) and what other types?

Circulating (flow)

What is the most common type of static calorimeter?

Adiabatic

What provides a method of using two calorimetric bodies thermally shielded against ambient temperature variations and improves sensitivity?

Twin calorimeter

What frequency standard maintained by the U.S. National Bureau of Standards has long-term stability and an accuracy of 1 part in 10^12, using an atomic clock?

Primary

What is generally used in conjunction with the measurement of the rotational speed of a teletypewriter or facsimile motor?

Tuning fork

Stroboscopes generally have a high- and low-range switch. The typical low range is from 600 to 3,600 rpm, and the upper range is from 3,600 to how many rpm?

15,000

The most common instruments available for the measurement of audio frequencies are oscilloscopes and what else?

Frequency counters

Radio-frequency measurements are primarily made with what?

Frequency counters

Most oscilloscopes are limited in use to approximately what frequency?

100 MHz

Frequency meters are capable of measuring frequencies in the range of 1 to how many gigahertz?

40

What are calibrated resonant circuits used to measure frequency?

Wavemeters

The three basic kinds of wavemeters include the following: Absorption, Reaction, and what other type?

Transmission

What is the ratio of the maximum voltage or current to the minimum voltage or current at any point along a transmission line?

Standing-Wave Ratio (SWR)

What method permits measurement of the standing-wave ratio without actually measuring the standing waves?

Bridge

The Hewlett-Packard Model 415E swr meter is designed to be operated at a mean center frequency of what?

1,000 hertz

What property of insulating material is probably the manufacturer’s most important consideration and is the primary factor that affects the size of the coaxial cable?

Dielectric constant (K)

What occurs when two or more frequencies become mixed across a nonlinear device?

Intermodulation distortion

What occurs when a signal from an adjacent channel crosses over into a second channel and modulates the frequency of the second channel?

Cross modulation

What occurs when regenerative feedback is sufficient to cause a circuit to oscillate, even though it is not designed to oscillate?

Parasitic generation

What is a term used by technicians and engineers alike that generally signifies dissatisfaction with the shape of the wave processed by an amplifier?

Distortion

Attaining 100% amplitude modulation of an rf carrier with a sine wave requires a modulating power equal to what amount of the rf carrier power?

Half

An increase in the power output of an AM transmitter is indicated by an increase in what?

Antenna current

What is widely used as an amplitude-modulation monitor and measuring instrument?

Oscilloscope

What are the two types of modulation patterns provided by the oscilloscope, depending upon the hookup used?

Wave-envelope and Trapezoidal

What type of modulation is a form of amplitude modulation in which only one sideband is transmitted with a suppressed carrier?

Single-sideband

Deviation in frequency is usually expressed in what?

Kilohertz

Typical accuracies for a modulation analyzer are within what percent?

±1%

What is an analysis of a complex waveform, prepared in terms of a graphic plot of the amplitude versus frequency known as?

Spectrum analysis

What three axes of degree are important when considering varying frequency?

Amplitude, time, and frequency

Present-day spectrum analyzers can measure segments of the frequency spectra from 0 hertz to as high as what when used with waveguide mixers?

300 gigahertz

Complex waveforms are divided into what two groups?

Periodic and Nonperiodic

The modulation energy in an amplitude-modulated wave is contained entirely within the what?

Sidebands

The amount by which the frequency departs from the average is controlled by the amplitude of the modulating signal. What is this variation referred to as?

Frequency deviation

What is used to pulse-modulate the constant frequency rf carrier to produce the pulse radar output?

Rectangular wave

What is the term for distinguishing a signal from other signals near it?

Resolving

Modern spectrum analyzers have been refined to the degree that IF bandwidths are less than what?

1 hertz

What is a testing and measurement technique that has found increasing usefulness in testing transmission lines (both metallic and fiber-optic), cables, strip lines, connectors, and other wideband systems or components?

Time-domain reflectometry

What is the ratio between the minimum and maximum swr values is then taken as the system?

Figure of Merit

What testing is used to determine the bandwidth, alignment, frequency response, impedance matching, and attenuation in various circuits, systems, and components?

Swept-Frequency

What is basically a sweep generator in which the sweep rate is matched to that of the spectrum analyzer?

Tracking generator

Circuit impedance is measured conveniently by using what principle?

Reflectometer

What is one of the more common and useful applications for using the swept-frequency technique?

Antenna system testing

The measured vswr (within the operating frequency range) of any broadband antenna should not exceed a vswr of what?

2.5 to 1

The vswr for any single-tuned antenna should not exceed what at the tuned frequency?

1.5 to 1

The first mechanical adding machine (calculator) was invented by Blaise Pascal (French) in what year?

1642

What is designed to perform a specific operation and usually satisfies the needs of a particular type of problem?

Special-purpose computer

The computers of the first generation (1951-1958) were physically very large machines characterized by what?

Vacuum tube

The computers of the second generation (what years), were characterized by transistors instead of vacuum tubes?

1959-1963

Third generation computers (1964-1970), many of which are still in use, are characterized by what?

Miniaturized circuits

What is a modern shipboard computer system designed to support shipboard and intermediate level maintenance, supply, financial, and administrative functions?

SNAP II

What is a listing of the repair parts that are allowed to be kept onboard ship, at all times?

COSAL

What is the reference for stock numbers, part numbers, and quantity allowed onboard for a specific system?

APL

What is a listing of all work to be performed by a certain work center during a given time period?

Ship’s force work list

What provides shipboard maintenance managers with a consolidated listing of deferred maintenance to manage and control its accomplishment?

CSMP

What manages the computer and allows you to run application programs like word processing or recordkeeping programs?

Operating System

Components or tools of a computer system are grouped into one of what two categories?

Hardware or Software

What is the brain of the computer?

CPU

What transform the digital computer into a system that is more than a high- speed adding machine?

Logic instructions

What is the process by which instructions and data are read into the computer called?

Loading

What type of memory consists of a very thin crystal made of semiconductor material?

Bubble

What type of computer memory retains all the data and instructions even when the computer is powered down and is usually programmed from the manufacturer?

ROM

What is the working memory of the computer and is volatile (loses its data when the computer powers down)?

RAM

What type of memory has the advantages of ROM with the additional flexibility to program the memory to meet a unique need?

PROM

What type of memory has the advantages of ROM but also allows you the flexibility to change programs to include improvements or modifications in the future?

EPROM

The storage capacities of magnetic drums range from 20 million to more than how many characters (or bytes) of data?

150,000 million

A high average speed for keyboard operation is how many characters per second?

2-3

What printers have the most professional-looking, pleasing-to-the-eye print of all the printers in the character-at-a-time impact printer class?

Daisy-wheel

The speeds of daisywheel printers range from 30 to how many characters per second (cps)?

60

Dot-matrix printers are faster than the daisy-wheel printers with speeds ranging from 60 to how many cps, but their print quality is not as good?

350

Ink jet printers can print up to how many cps?

300

Laser printers can print up to how many cps?

26,666

The major grouping of keyswitches on a keyboard will be in one of what two styles of a typewriter keyboard arrangement?

QWERTY or DVORAK

What is defined in terms of the number of picture elements that can be displayed on the horizontal line without overlapping or running into each other?

Horizontal resolution

Gas plasma displays use approximately 200 volts to charge the electrodes, and electroluminescent displays require only how many volts?

20

What is the memory outside the main body of the computer (cpu) where we store programs and data for future use?

Secondary storage

What is the heart of any computer system?

Operating System

UNIX is a trademark of what company?

AT&T

What eliminate the need for programmers to write new programs when all they want to do is copy, print, or sort a data file?

Utility programs

What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order?

Sorting

What is the combining of two or more ordered files into one file?

Merging

What are used to generate programs to print detail and summary reports of data files?

Report Program Generators (RPG)

What allow the programmer to write a single instruction that is equivalent to a specified sequence of machine instructions?

Macroinstructions

What type of languages were developed to allow a programmer to work in a language that is close to English or mathematical notation?

Procedure-oriented

What was designed as a teaching language to help beginning programmers write programs?

BASIC

What is being used by many colleges and universities to teach programming because it is fairly easy to learn; yet is a more powerful language than BASIC?

PASCAL

What is a modern general-purpose language designed with the professional programmer in mind and has many unique features to aid in the implementation of large scale applications and real-time systems?

Ada

What is the process of planning the computer solution to a problem?

Programming

What is one method of pictorially representing a procedural (step-by-step) solution to a problem before you actually start to write the computer instructions required to produce the desired results?

Flowcharting

Within a flowchart, what are used to specify arithmetic operations and relational conditions?

Graphic symbols

What is the fundamental element in program preparation?

Instruction

What instructions allow comparison between variables, or between variables and constants?

Logic

Errors caused by faulty logic and coding mistakes are referred to as what?

Bugs

What is a collection of related elements or items, that when properly coded into some type of input medium, can be processed by a computer?

Data

Using an 8-bit code, it is possible to represent how many different characters or bit combinations?

256

What provides an internal means for checking the validity, the correctness, of code construction?

Parity bit

What represents the smallest unit of data?

Bit

Eight bits are equal to one what?

Byte

What is a group of related bytes that are treated as a single addressable unit or entity in memory known as?

Word

What is one or more related characters that are treated as a unit of information known as?

Field

What is a group of related fields, all pertaining to the same subject; a person, a thing, or an event called?

Record

What is a collection of related records called?

File

Data files may be stored on or in sequential-access storage, direct-access storage, or what type of storage?

Random-access

What can be defined as any system composed of one or more computers and terminals?

Network

Various machines are linked together within a building or adjacent buildings in what type of network?

LAN

What type of communications channel uses the basic frequency band of radio waves and a coaxial cable?

Baseband

What type of networks provide for global connections and are sometimes referred to as global networks?

WAN

What converts the digital signal produced by your terminal or the computer to an audio signal suitable for transmission over the communications line?

MODEM

What is the physical link or medium that is used to carry (or transmit) data from one location to another?

Communications channel

Whenever data is transferred between devices, it also involves an exchange of prearranged signals known as what?

Handshaking

What is the term used for the specific set of rules that govern handshaking and message characters?

Protocol

What is the interface between the user and the computer system?

I/O control

What contains the program name or names and the job or task number under which the job (or system) is to be executed?

Run sheet

What are used to provide application programs with variable information?

Control Parameters

What is the most common type of user support that a technician will deal with?

Logistical

Who are responsible for keeping the AIS facility’s assembly line running as smoothly and efficiently as possible?

Schedulers

Which type of processing includes ensuring that all inputs are received on time according to prearranged schedules?

Precomputer

Which type of processing includes ensuring output products are complete, accurate, and delivered to the user when promised?

Postcomputer

Which personnel act as the liaison between the AIS facility and the user community?

Production control

Which personnel make production commitments for the AIS facility to meet user requirements?

Scheduling

Which personnel handle all incoming work for AIS services along with all types of input media from the user?

I/O Control

Which personnel review all completed output products from data entry and computer operations to determine their accuracy and completeness before releasing them to I/O control personnel for further processing and distribution?

Quality Control

Which personnel examine problems that occur during production to determine if errors were caused by hardware or system/applications software?

Technical Support

Which scheduling phase allows everyone to see where there may be an overloading or underloading of AIS resources?

Forecasting

How many moving parts does the scheduling process have?

3

Jobs may abort because of system or program processing errors. What is the key to determining what caused the problem?

Abort code

How many different topics can system downtime and nonavailability be categorized under?

2

How often are inventories normally conducted?

Annually

What is a random-access memory (RAM) buffer that provides high-speed storage capabilities from main memory and makes this data available to the central processor with a private central processor/cache interface?

Cache memory

What amount of increase in processing speeds can be expected from cache memory for average program mixes?

50%

What can occur when you delete a file, leaving, basically a hole in the information on the hard disk, or when you add information to an existing file when there is no contiguous space left next to the file?

File fragmentation

Which priority category for trouble reports means that you cannot work around the problem to continue operating?

Critical

Which priority category for trouble reports means that you can work around the problem, but a resolution is required immediately?

Urgent

Which priority category for trouble reports means that the correction is needed, but you can work around the problem and live with it until it is fixed?

Routine

How many different categories do backup operations fall into?

2

Which type of saves need to be done before and after the implementation of a software upgrade and during monthly and yearly production runs?

Special

Which disaster recovery item covers what is required to get the facility back online as soon as possible?

Contingency plan

What is the total of all Navy-operated communications installations and services?

Naval Communications Complex

What provides a unified governmental system that links together the communications facilities and components of the various Federal agencies?

National Communications System (NCS)

What combines many of the communication elements of the three military forces into a single communications system?

Defense Communications System (DCS)

What gives operational direction to the Defense Communications System (DCS)?

Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

What has the mission of providing and maintaining reliable, secure, and rapid communications, based on war requirements, to meet the needs of the Naval operating forces?

Naval communications

What provides electrical and optical communications from the commander in chief and naval commanders down to all naval forces under its command?

Naval Telecommunications System (NTS)

Who is responsible for the operational direction and management control of the assigned elements of the Naval Telecommunications System (NTS)?

Commander, Naval Computer and Telecommunications Command (COMNAVCOMTELCOM)

What serves as the Department of the Navy (DON) manager of leased portions of Navy dedicated and common-user information transmission systems?

Commander, Naval Computer and Telecommunications Command (COMNAVCOMTELCOM)

How many NCTAMSs are there?

4

How many Naval Communications Areas is the world divided into?

4

What is the focal point for fleet communications support?

Fleet Telecommunications Operations Center (FTOC)

What is a communications station with the primary responsibility for communications in a large specific area?

Naval Computer and Telecommunications Station (NAVCOMTELSTA)

What is a small telecommunications facility that is assigned a limited, or specialized, mission and has a limited number of personnel and facilities?

Naval Computer and Telecommunications Detachment (NAVCOMTELDET)

What provide AIS services in areas where no NARDACs are located?

Naval Data Automation Facilities (NAVDAFs)

What are responsible for the cryptologic and related functions of the Navy?

Naval Security Group Departments (NAVSECGRUDEPTs)

What provides auxiliary communications to military, civil, and/or disaster officials during periods of emergency?

Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS)

Which type of communications are routed up and down the chain of command?

Vertical

Which type of communications are routed to other divisions and departments?

Horizontal

Who is responsible for the communications of the command?

Commanding Officer (CO)

Who is responsible for the organization, supervision, and coordination of the command’s exterior communications?

Communications Officer (COMM officer)

Who is in charge of the communications center?

Radio Officer

Who is responsible to the Communications Officer for ensuring compliance with existing communications directives and monitoring the performance of on-watch personnel and spaces?

Communications Watch Officer (CWO)

Which publication should be consulted for a detailed listing of CWO duties?

NTP 4

Who is responsible to the CWO for establishing and maintaining required circuits, and initiating action to restore or bypass failed equipment?

Tech control supervisor

What are directives that are issued by naval commanders to subordinates for the purpose of effecting coordinated execution of an operation?

Operation Orders (OPORDs)

How are all messages that are processed in your message center accounted for?

Logs

Which form is used to record messages sent via ship-shore circuits?

OPNAV Form 2110-15

Which type of message only has one addressee which may be either for action or information?

Single-address

At least how many addressees does a message have to have before it is considered to be a Multiple-address message?

2

Which type of message is destined for two or more addressees but the drafter doesn’t consider it necessary to inform each addressee of the other addressee(s)?

Book

Which type of message has a wide, predetermined, standard distribution?

General

How many letters do address groups consist of?

4

Address groups never start with which letter?

N

Which publication contains the address groups?

ACP 100

Which type of address groups represent two or more commands or activities?

Collective

Which type of address groups have incomplete meanings and must have geographic address groups added to them to denote a specific command or location?

Conjunctive

How many or more specific and frequently recurring combinations of action and/or information addressees do Address Indicating Groups (AIGs) represent?

16

Which publication contains a complete listing of AIGs by number, cognizant authority, and purpose?

NTP 3 SUPP-1

Special Operating Groups (SOGs) are not used unless they are specifically authorized by whom?

CNO

Who is responsible for making the required number of copies each subscriber requires and slotting the messages into the appropriate subscriber box?

Distribution clerk

How many envelopes are classified messages placed into?

2

How many digits does the Date-Time Group (DTG) consist of?

6

Which zone suffix is used as the universal time for all messages?

Z

What will never be used by Radiomen as the DTG of a message?

2400Z and 0000Z

How many zones is the Earth divided into in the GMT system?

24

Where does the 0° meridian pass through in the GMT system?

Greenwich, England

How many digits does the Julian date consist of?

7

Which message precedence category is assigned to all types of traffic that justify electrical transmission but which are not of sufficient urgency to require a higher precedence?

Routine (R)

Which message precedence category is reserved for messages that furnish essential information for the conduct of operations in progress?

Priority (P)

What is the highest precedence that is normally authorized for administrative messages?

Priority (P)

Which message precedence category is reserved for messages relating to situations that gravely affect the national forces or populace?

Immediate (O)

message precedence category is reserved for initial enemy contact reports or operational combat messages of extreme urgency?

Flash (Z)