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124 Cards in this Set

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Q1. Which of the following terms is
interchangeable with fundamentals of
leadership?
1. Total quality leadership
2. Motivational theory
3. Basic principles of leadership
4. Principles of supervision
Basic principles of leadership
Q2. When you realize you have made a wrong
decision, admit your mistake, accept the
responsibility, and
1. criticize others for the mistake
2. don’t let subordinates know of your
mistake
3. take steps to avoid repeating the error
4. do nothing else
take steps to avoid repeating the error
Q3. An effective leader should recognize that
people as individuals have different values
and beliefs.
1. True
2. False
True
Q4. Which of the following traits is/are common
to all successful leaders?
1. Initiative
2. Dedication
3. Accountability
4. All of the above
All of the above
Q5. What level of human behavior is the most
important?
1. Esteem
2. Safety-security
3. Survival
4. Self-actualization
Survival
When dealing with people, you can NOT
change which of the following human traits?
1. Wants
2. Thought processes
3. Skills
4. Emotional makeup
Emotional makeup
Q7. Not understanding the technical language of
your rate results in which of the following
problems?
1. Poor communication
2. Failure to advance in rate
3. Misinterpretation of official publications
4. All of the above
All of the above
When reporting status to a superior there are
four “B’s” to remember: Be on time, Be
accurate, Be brief, and Be
1. gone
2. courteous
3. formal
4. forceful
gone
Which of the following is not an acceptable
sign of appreciation for a job well done?
1. A simple pat on the back
2. Promising an award
3. Positive counseling sheet
4. Meritorious captain’s mast
Meritorious captain’s mast
What type of feedback is given when job
performance standards are not being met?
1. Positive
2. Constructive
3. Evaluative
4. Disciplinary
Constructive
Q11. Which of the following is not a type of
advising and counseling session?
1. Personal
2. Career
3. Performance
4. Improvement
Improvement
Q13. What is one of the most important challenges
we face as petty officers when dealing with
subordinates
1. Training
2. Scheduling
3. Production
4. Administration
Training
Q14. Which of the following is not a responsibility
of the training petty officer?
1. Develop monthly training schedules
2. Oversee preparation of training materials
3. Maintain training records
4. Assign personnel to fleet and service
schools
Assign personnel to fleet and service
schools
Q15. During a class discussion, what questioning
technique should be used?
1. Yes or no
2. Thought provoking
3. Closed ended
4. Intimidating
Thought provoking
Q16. After instruction, when the trainee is required
physically to repeat the steps in a procedure,
what method of teaching should have been
used by the instructor?
1. Telling
2. Lecturing
3. Demonstrating
4. Discussing
Demonstrating
Q17. Training aids should be in plain view when
classroom instruction begins.
1. True
2. False
False
Q18. After what inactive period of time must
members of the CTT repeat formal training?
1. 12 months
2. 18 months
3. 24 months
4. 30 months
24 months
Q12. Why should improvements under the
continuous improvement program be
standardized?
1. To make the improvement available
to everyone
2. To recognize the individual that came
up with the improvement
3. To reduce expenditures for similar tasks
4. To maintain the improvements within
the command
To make the improvement available
to everyone
Q1. The purpose of EMI is to correct a training
deficiency and deprive normal liberty.
1. True
2. False
False
Q2. EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted on
the Sabbath.
1. True
2. False
True
Q3. Your responsibilities as a petty officer end
when you are on liberty.
1. True
2. False
False
Q4. When placing a person on report, you may
orally notify the COC.
1. True
2. False
True
Q5. Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution
is cited for which of the following areas?
1. Preservation of the accused’s rights
2. Right to see the results of inquiry
3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser
4. Communication with the accuser
Preservation of the accused’s rights
Q6. What is the first step a petty officer must do
when considering a complaint of wrong?
1. Tell the commanding officer
2. Seek advice from someone in authority
3. Put in a request chit
4. Start a preliminary investigation
Seek advice from someone in authority
Q7. Who decides which type of court-martial to
award?
1. Accuser
2. Accused
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
Commanding officer
Q8. Being late for a routine muster is an offense
that must be reported.
1. True
2. False
(2) This type of behavior usually is not
serious enough for placing a person on report.
However, it does require some form of action
by you such as counseling.
Q9. Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea
coat of both male and female Sailors measure
3 1/4 inches wide.
1. True
2. False
True. Although male and female rating badges
are different sizes on other uniforms, the
rating badge on the pea coat is the same size.
Q10. While in uniform women may wear both a
necklace and a choker.
1. True
2. False
False. While in uniform, women may use one
necklace or choker, but it must not be visible.
Q1. The purpose of quality of life programs is to
promote effective use of human resources.
1. True
2. False
True. The various programs within this system
have been designed to allow individuals a
chance to develop their capabilities to the
maximum.
Q2. The Personal Excellence Program focuses
externally on our nation’s schools through
what grade?
1. 12th
2. 8th
3. 6th
4. 4th
12th. The program focuses internally on Navy
personnel and, where feasible, externally on
our nation’s school age population, pre-school
through twelfth grade.
Q3. The long-term goal of the Personal
Excellence Partnership Program includes an
effort to promote
1. Navy values
2. self-worth
3. responsible citizenship
4. both 2 and 3 above
both 2 and 3 above. The long-term goal of this program is to promote a sense of self-worth and to reinforce
in young people the knowledge, traits,
attitudes, and skills essential for responsible
citizenship and effective participation in the
American work force.
Q4. FSCs are on all bases with which of the
following minimum number of active-duty
personnel?
1. 100
2. 500
3. 1,000
4. 1,500
500. All bases with 500 or more active duty
members have installation Family Service
Centers. They are located throughout the
United States and at many overseas locations.
Q5. FSCs offer programs for married sailors
ONLY.
1. True
2. False
False. The program’s mission is to increase
readiness and retention of service members
by providing information, resources, and
services that support and enrich the lives
of Navy families as well as single sailors.
Q6. Single parents in MFH may receive authority
for live-in housekeepers.
1. True
2. False
True. Upon application to the appropriate
housing office, single parents may receive
authority for live-in housekeepers.
Q2. EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted on
the Sabbath.
1. True
2. False
True
Q3. Your responsibilities as a petty officer end
when you are on liberty.
1. True
2. False
False
Q4. When placing a person on report, you may
orally notify the COC.
1. True
2. False
True
Q5. Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution
is cited for which of the following areas?
1. Preservation of the accused’s rights
2. Right to see the results of inquiry
3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser
4. Communication with the accuser
Preservation of the accused’s rights
Q6. What is the first step a petty officer must do
when considering a complaint of wrong?
1. Tell the commanding officer
2. Seek advice from someone in authority
3. Put in a request chit
4. Start a preliminary investigation
Seek advice from someone in authority
Q7. Who decides which type of court-martial to
award?
1. Accuser
2. Accused
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
Commanding officer
Q8. Being late for a routine muster is an offense
that must be reported.
1. True
2. False
(2) This type of behavior usually is not
serious enough for placing a person on report.
However, it does require some form of action
by you such as counseling.
Q9. Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea
coat of both male and female Sailors measure
3 1/4 inches wide.
1. True
2. False
True. Although male and female rating badges
are different sizes on other uniforms, the
rating badge on the pea coat is the same size.
Q10. While in uniform women may wear both a
necklace and a choker.
1. True
2. False
False. While in uniform, women may use one
necklace or choker, but it must not be visible.
Q1. The purpose of quality of life programs is to
promote effective use of human resources.
1. True
2. False
True. The various programs within this system
have been designed to allow individuals a
chance to develop their capabilities to the
maximum.
Q2. The Personal Excellence Program focuses
externally on our nation’s schools through
what grade?
1. 12th
2. 8th
3. 6th
4. 4th
12th. The program focuses internally on Navy
personnel and, where feasible, externally on
our nation’s school age population, pre-school
through twelfth grade.
Q3. The long-term goal of the Personal
Excellence Partnership Program includes an
effort to promote
1. Navy values
2. self-worth
3. responsible citizenship
4. both 2 and 3 above
both 2 and 3 above. The long-term goal of this program is to promote a sense of self-worth and to reinforce
in young people the knowledge, traits,
attitudes, and skills essential for responsible
citizenship and effective participation in the
American work force.
Q4. FSCs are on all bases with which of the
following minimum number of active-duty
personnel?
1. 100
2. 500
3. 1,000
4. 1,500
500. All bases with 500 or more active duty
members have installation Family Service
Centers. They are located throughout the
United States and at many overseas locations.
Q5. FSCs offer programs for married sailors
ONLY.
1. True
2. False
False. The program’s mission is to increase
readiness and retention of service members
by providing information, resources, and
services that support and enrich the lives
of Navy families as well as single sailors.
Q6. Single parents in MFH may receive authority
for live-in housekeepers.
1. True
2. False
True. Upon application to the appropriate
housing office, single parents may receive
authority for live-in housekeepers.
Q7. Sexual harassment is NOT allowed in which
of the following situations?
1. On or off duty
2. On base/ship
3. Off base/ship
4. All of the above
A7. (4) Sexual harassment is a type of sex
discrimination. Like all discrimination, it
is prohibited. It violates the standards of
honesty, integrity, and impartiality required
of all DON personnel.
Q8. Although the common application of
fraternization applies to the officer-enlisted
relationship, fraternization also includes
improper relationships between officer
members and between enlisted personnel.
1. True
2. False
A8. (1) Fraternization includes improper
relationships between senior and junior
officer members and between senior and
junior enlisted personnel.
Q9. Which of the following responsibilities does a
petty officer have in the prevention of alcohol
and drug abuse?
1. Inform seniors of problems regarding
alcohol and drug use
2. Apply common sense
3. Educate personnel on the pitfalls of drugs
and alcohol
4. All of the above
A9. (4) As a petty officer you have a
responsibility not only to yourself but also
to your shipmates and the Navy to help in
the war against alcohol and drug abuse.
Q10. Which location offers intense and
comprehensive drug and alcohol rehabilitation
for active duty members?
1. Sick bay
2. ATF
3. ARC
4. All of the above
A10. (3) The Navy’s ARCs provide a program of
intensive and comprehensive rehabilitation.
ARCs are for active duty Navy and Marine
Corps personnel who are suffering from
alcoholism.
Q11. To maintain physical readiness, a person
should exercise at least three times a week for
(a) at least how many minutes total duration
and (b) how many minutes of continuous
aerobic activity?
1. (a) 60 (b) 40
2. (a) 50 (b) 30
3. (a) 40 (b) 20
4. (a) 30 (b) 25
A11. (3) All personnel are responsible for
maintaining an acceptable state of physical
readiness at all times. Physical conditioning
program should occur at least three times per
week. The conditioning activities should be
at least 40 minutes in duration of which at
least 20 minutes should be continuous aerobic
activity.
Q12. The Navy’s goal is for what percentage of
participation in stress management awareness
programs?
1. 75%
2. 85%
3. 95%
4. 100%
A12. (4) Stress is a real part of Navy life and
learning to cope effectively is essential. The
goal is for 100 percent participation in stress
management awareness programs.
Q1. Which of the following does the NEC NOT
identify?
1. Skills that are not rating-wide
2. Special knowledge and skills not provided
by rate and rating
3. Special skills and knowledge required for
a specific billet
4. Special skills obtained through OJT
A1. (4) The NEC structure supplements the
enlisted rating structure. It identifies special
knowledge and skills requiring specific
recognition not provided by rates and rating,
skills that are not rating-wide requirements
and those special skills and knowledge
required in a specific billet.
Q2. What is the main purpose of the Petty Officer
Quality Control Program?
1. To ensure that only top-performing petty
officers reenlist
2. To identify career petty officers with
performance or behavior deficiencies
3. To screen the service records of all petty
officers
4. To recommend petty officers for
collateral assignments
A2. (2) The Petty Officer quality Control Program
is an effort by the Navy to ensure that those
personnel with problems that effect the Navy
adversely are counseled and given help to
resolve those problems.
Q3. What is the maximum length of service
allowed for an applicant to the Chief Warrant
Officer Program?
1. 12 years
2. 16 years
3. 20 years
4. 24 years
A3. (4) Applicants for CWO must have completed
at least 12 years but not more than 24 years of
service on 16 January of the year in which
application is made.
Q4. The qualifications for Enlisted Surface
Warfare Specialist can be found in what
publication?
1. Command instruction
2. NAVSEA instruction
3. CNO instruction
4. OPNAV instruction
A4. (4) For details and most up-to-date eligibility
requirements for Enlisted Surface Warfare
Specialist consult OPNAV 1414.1.
Q5. Which of the following personnel is/are
allowed to make entries in your service
record?
1. Immediate supervisor
2. Yourself
3. Authorized personnel
4. Department head
A5. (3) Service record entries are made by those
personnel who are given such authority by
the commanding officer.
Q6. As a retired member with 30 years of service
you may be ordered to active duty by which
of the following personnel?
1. Chief of Naval Operations
2. Vice President of the United States
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Vice Chief of Naval Operations
A6. (3) A retired member with 30 years of service
may be ordered to active duty without his or
her consent only by the Secretary of the Navy.
Q1. What article of the Constitution provides that
the executive power shall be vested in a
President of the United States?
1. V
2. II
3. III
4. IV
A1. (2) Article II, section 1, of the Constitution
provides that executive power shall be vested
in a President of the United States.
Q2. Which of the following is the most senior
officer in the armed forces?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
4. Secretary of Defense
A2. (3) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff,
while so serving, holds the grade of general or
admiral and outranks all other officers of the
armed forces.
Q3. Who serves as the spokesman for the
commanders of the unified combatant
commands?
1. Commander of the U.S. Joint Forces
Command
2. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
3. Secretary of the Army
4. Secretary of the Air Force
A3. (2) Subject to the authority, direction, and
control of the SECDEF, the Chairman of the
Joint Chiefs of Staff serves as the spokesman
for the commanders of the unified combatant
commands especially on the operational
requirements of their commands.
Q4. What office monitors and evaluates
congressional proceedings and actions that
affect the Department of the Navy?
1. Office of Information
2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy
3. Office of Program Appraisal
4. Office of Legislative Affairs
A4. (4) The naval officer who heads the Office of
Legislative Affairs also monitors and
evaluates congressional proceedings and
actions affecting the DoN.
Q5. The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is
assigned to what immediate office?
1. Chief of Naval Personnel
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
A5. (2) The MCPON’s assignment is to the
immediate office of the CNO. The MCPON
serves as the senior enlisted representative of
the Navy and acts as the primary enlisted
adviser to the CNO.
Q6. The U. S. Naval Forces Central Command’s
area of responsibility includes which of the
following areas?
1. Mediterranean
2. Middle East
3. Continental United States
4. South America
A6. (2) As of June 1998, the U.S. Naval Forces
Central Command’s area of responsibility
consists of the Arabian Gulf and most of the
Middle East.
Q7. The Pacific Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Arctic Ocean
3. U. S. west coast
4. Both 2 and 3 above
A7. (4) The U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet covers more
than 50% of the Earth’s surface,
encompassing just over 1 million square
miles. Pacific Fleet ships are at sea in the
Pacific, Indian, and Arctic oceans from the
west cost of the United States to the Arabian
Gulf.
Q8. What command plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel to meet manpower requirements?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. CNET
3. DIRSSP
4. COMNAVDOCCOM
A8. (1) CHNAVPERS plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel, including that of the Naval Reserve
to meet manpower requirements determined
by the Chief of Naval Operations.
Q9. What command acquires and disposes of real
estate for the Navy and manages Navy family
housing?
1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
A9. (3) COMNAVFACENGCOM acquires and
disposes of real estate for the Navy and
manages Navy family housing.
Q10. What command is responsible for shore-based
education and training of Navy, certain
Marine Corps, and other personnel?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. BUMED
3. DIRSSP
4. CNET
A10. (4) CNET is responsible for assigned
shore-based education and training of Navy,
certain Marine Corps, and other personnel.
Education and training efforts support the
naval shore establishment, Naval Reserve
program, and interservice training programs.
Q11. What command enhances the war-fighting
capability of the Navy and Marines by arming
our Sailors, Marines, and civilians with the
knowledge they need to save lives and
preserve resources?
1. COMNAVSAFECEN
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
4. ONI
A11. (1) COMNAVSAFECEN arms our Sailors,
Marines, and civilians with the knowledge
they need to save lives and preserve
resources. This mission is accomplished by
investigating and advocating new methods,
technology, and initiatives to improve the
safety process.
Q1. The objective of any safety program is to
improve operational readiness.
1. True
2. False
A1. (1) True. The objective of any safety program
is to improve operational readiness by
reducing personnel deaths and injuries and by
decreasing material loss and damage.
Q2. Who is responsible for mishap prevention
training and maintaining appropriate records?
1. Executive officer
2. Command master chief
3. Division safety petty officer
4. All hands
A2. (3) The division safety petty officer is
responsible for conducting assigned division
mishap prevention training and maintaining
appropriate records.
Q3. What is the purpose of the command safety
council?
1. Mandate safety policy
2. Enforce safety policy
3. Develop recommendations on safety
policy
4. Conduct safety training
A3. (3) On the command level, the safety council
convenes monthly to develop
recommendations for policy on safety matters
and to analyze progress of the overall safety
program.
Q4. Which of the following items promotes safety
awareness?
1. Posters
2. Caution signs
3. Inspections
4. All of the above
A4. (4) You can promote safety through the use of
posters, periodic safety patrols or inspections,
and through the use of warning and caution
signs.
Q5. The number of tag-out logs required depends
on the size of the ship.
1. True
2. False
A5. (1) True. The number of tag-out logs required
depends on the ship size. For instance, larger
ships may require a separate log for each
department while a minesweeper may only
require one tag-out log for the whole ship.
Q6. After the tags are cleared and the record sheet
is filled out, where should you place the
sheet?
1. At the front of the tag-out log
2. At the back of the tag-out log in the
cleared section
3. In the index/audit record
4. In the documentation file
A6. (2) After the tags have been cleared and the
record sheet is properly filled out for the
removal of the tags, place the sheet in the
back of the tag-out log in the cleared section
for destruction at a later time.
Q7. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
passed a regulation that requires all
civilian and military employees of the federal
government to comply with what regulation?
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
2. HazardMaterial and Refuse Management
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
A7. (3) The Hazard Communication Standard was
passed to ensure the safety of every civilian
and military employee of the federal
government.
Q8. When personnel are working with hazardous
material, supervisors are NOT responsible for
ensuring that approved personal protective
clothing and equipment are maintained.
1. True
2. False
A8. (2) False. As a supervisor you are responsible
for the welfare and safety of your personnel.
When handling HAZMAT, protective clothing
and equipment must be used and maintained.
Q9. When working with solvents, which of the
following actions should you take?
1. Make sure the space in which you are
working does not have adequate
ventilation
2. Remove protective clothing if it gets too
hot
3. Leave spilled solvents on the deck
4. Check the labels on all containers of liquid
A9. (4) Check the labels on all containers. In
dealing with the hazards involved in solvents,
you should always follow all safety
precautions that pertain to hazardous material.
Q10. Most cleaning compounds do NOT contain
toxic substances.
1. True
2. False
A10. (2) False. Most solvents are toxic, and with a
few exceptions, are flammable.
Q11. Absorbents used in cleaning, applying, or
packing hazardous materials will be treated
and disposed of using the same precautions
followed for the material they absorbed.
1. True
2. False
A11. (1) True. Absorbents used in cleaning,
applying, or packing HAZMATS should be
treated using the same precautions followed
for the hazardous material they absorbed.
Q12. MOPP procedures used to establish levels of
readiness for a chemical agent attack are
flexible.
1. True
2. False
A12. (1) True. MOPP procedures allow the CO to
adapt the requirements for protective clothing
and equipment to the degree of the threat and
working conditions at any given time.
Q13. The command decision to implement each
level of MOPP must be the result of a risk
assessment.
1. True
2. False
A13. (1) True. Risk is the assessed difference
between the threat level and the activation of
appropriate levels of shipboard
countermeasures.
Q14. The risk of a CBR threat can be categorized
into how many levels of probability?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
A14. (4) There are four MOPP levels of
probability.
Q15. The term MOPP stands for Mission
Organization Protective Plan.
1. True
2. False
A15. (2) False. MOPP stands for Mission Oriented
Protective Posture.
Q16. Readiness condition III (wartime steaming) is
set during what MOPP level?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
A16. (1) A collective activity during MOPP level 1
is to set readiness condition III.
Q17. Each decontamination station is divided into
how many parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
A17. (2) Each decontamination station is divided
into two parts: (1) a contaminated or unclean
section and (2) a clean section.
Q18. The closure log is maintained at all times.
1. True
2. False
A18. (1) True. The closure log is maintained at all
times, whether the ship is in port or under
way.
Q19. DCPOs are responsible for maintaining
damage control fittings and equipment.
1. True
2. False
A19. (1) True. DCPOs are charged with ensuring
that the material condition of spaces assigned
to them is maintained according to the
command’s damage control, fire fighting, and
defense procedures.
Q1. How many digits in the NSN designate the
FSC?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 9
4. 13
A1. (2) The first 4 digits of the NSN make up the
FSC. In 5330 00 010 4960 the first 2 digits of
the FSC are called the FSC group, and the last
2 digits are called the class.
Q2. What is the most common number used to
identify material?
1. Navy item control number
2. Local item control number
3. National stock number
4. NATO stock number
A2. (3) All material purchased and maintained by
the federal government is maintained by
national stock number.
Q3. Is the cognizance symbol a part of the
national stock number?
1. Yes
2. No
A3. (No) Although NOT part of the stock number,
the cognizance symbol may be prefixed to the
stock number in some supply publications.
However, the cog symbol is not prefixed to
the stock number on supply documents,
forms, and records.
Q4. Which of the following items would require a
SMIC?
1. Office supplies
2. Firefighting equipment parts
3. Parts designed for nuclear plants
4. Aircraft engine parts
A4. (3) Items specially designed, manufactured,
and tested for use in nuclear reactor plants,
which require special handling, machining,
and so forth before being installed and used
require a SMIC.
Q5. The COSAL is both a technical and supply
document.
1. True
2. False
A5. (1) Its technical nomenclature operating
characteristics, technical manuals, and so
forth are described. It is a supply document
in that the COSAL provides a complete list of
parts required to operate and maintain the
equipment.
Q6. Cryptographic, or cryptologic items are listed
in the ML-N.
1. True
2. False
A6. (2) The ML-N omits cryptographic and
cryptologic items which are listed in security
classified catalogs produced by the respective
DoD agencies.
Q7. MILSTRIP is used for which of the following
transactions?
1. Requisitioning material
2. Issuing material
3. Cancellation of material requests
4. All of the above
A7. (4) As the name implies, MILSTRIP is used
for all transactions from requisitioning of
material to issuing the material.
Q8. Which of the following forms is/are used to
order material?
1. DD Form 1348
2. DD Form 1348-6
3. DD Form 1149
4. All of the above
A8. (4) All of the listed documents are MILSTRIP
requisitioning documents used to order
material.
Q9. If the NSN is not available for a repair part,
what form should you use to requisition the
part?
1. NAVSUP Form 1250-1
2. DD Form 1348
3. DD Form 1348-6
4. DD Form 1149
A9. (3) The bottom section of the DD Form
1348-6 permits the inclusion of all available
technical or descriptive data. This data will
assist the supply source in the identification
and procurement of the requisitioned item.
Q10. The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators.
1. True
2. False
A10. (2) The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators.
Q11. What is the lowest two-digit priority
designator?
1. 01
2. 11
3. 13
4. 15
A11. (4) The priority designator is based on a scale
of 01 to 15 with 01 being the highest and 15
being the lowest priority.
Q12. Cannibalizing inoperative equipment is an
authorized practice to obtain replacement
parts.
1. True
2. False
A12. (2) Do not cannibalize components you might
use sometime in the future.
Q1. What is the minimum number of paragraphs
for a unit of information in naval
correspondence?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
A1. (1) No rule exists about the number of
paragraphs one unit of information should
contain. No matter how many paragraphs you
write, be sure to follow the rules for
organization and continuity.
Q2. The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position is not required to personally sign
which of the following documents?
1. Those which establish policy
2. Those which change policy
3. Ship’s deck log
4. Special liberty chit
A2. (4) The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position must sign the following documents:
those which establish policy, those which
center on changes to the command’s mission,
and those required by law for regulation such
as the ship’s deck log.
Q3. When is the POOW the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD?
1. At sea
2. In port
3. On watch on the bridge
4. On watch in battle conditions
A3. (2) The POOW is the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD when the ship is in port.
The POOW assists the OOD in carrying out
the ship’s daily routine and ensuring the
security and safety of the ship.
Q4. At times deck logs may be used in which
of the following legal actions?
1. Naval courts
2. Admiralty proceedings
3. Civilian courts
4. All of the above
A4. (4) A ship’s deck log has both historical
importance and legal standing. It may be
used at times in naval, admiralty, and civil
courts. In an incident involving the ship, the
log may be the only available evidence upon
which to base a legal decision.
Q5. The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the
1. OOD
2. JOOD
3. POOW
4. CDO
A5. (1) The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the OOD. OODs must sign the
deck log at the end of the watch to show relief
of the watch and validity of entries.
Q6. In the case of a bomb threat what is the key
to disarming the situation and avoiding
catastrophe?
1. Information
2. Knowledge
3. Security force
4. MAA force
A6. (1) In the case of a bomb threat, information
is the key to disarming and avoiding
catastrophe. Information such as who, what,
when, and most certainly, where, should be
obtained.
Q7. When the pistol has a lanyard attached, what
must be done during exchange of the pistol to
the next watch stander?
1. Keep the lanyard around your neck until
your relief has positive control of the pistol
2. Keep the lanyard at your side so it won’t
get in the way
3. Keep the lanyard in your hand that doesn’t
hold the pistol
4. Detach the lanyard from the weapon
during the exchange
A7. (1) If the pistol has a lanyard attached to it,
keep the lanyard around your neck until your
relief has positive control of the pistol. Then
remove the lanyard from around your neck
and place it around the neck of your relief.
This effort prevents the pistol from being
dropped and damaged.
Q8. Which of the following activities is NOT
considered a special evolution?
1. Weapons handling
2. Refueling
3. Diving operations
4. Mess operations
A8. (4) Special evolutions involve many out of
the routine events that occur aboard ship.
Q9. Side boys are NOT paraded during which
of the following times?
1. Between sunset and 0800
2. Meal hours
3. General drills
4. All of the above
A9. (4) Side boys are not paraded on Sunday or
on other days between sunset and 0800 or
during meal hours of the crew, general drills
and evolutions, and periods of regular
overhaul, except in honor of civil officials and
foreign officers.
Q10. The heavy weather bill will be placed in
effect if the forecast indicates a hurricane
approaching.
1. True
2. False
A10. (1) In any periods of actual or forecasted high
winds and seas, hurricanes, or tidal waves, the
heavy weather bill will be in effect.
Q11. When handling a thermometer, touching the
lower part of the glass containing the liquid
will not affect the temperature reading.
1. True
2. False
A11. (2) The heat from your body can affect the
height of the liquid column and give an
erroneous temperature reading.
Q12. Winds at 39 to 54 miles per hour indicate
what warning condition?
1. Small craft
2. Gale
3. Storm
4. Hurricane
A12. (2) Winds measured at 39 to 54 miles per
hour constitute a gale warning.
Q13. As the Petty Officer of the Watch you are
NOT responsible for personnel throwing trash
over the side into the water in your presence.
1. True
2. False
A13. (2) As the POOW, you are responsible for
reporting any kind of pollution.
Q14. How many minutes before sunset should the
ship’s anchor lights be tested?
1. 60
2. 30
3. 20
4. 15
A14. (2) To ensure the lights are working properly,
all lights must be checked 30 minutes before
sunset.
Q15. Which of the following factors will determine
if a PO3 is assigned as a section leader?
1. Size of the command
2. Number of personnel assigned to your
duty section
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Number of the departments in the
command
A15. (3) Depending on the size or class of the ship,
you may not be assigned as a section leader
until you become a second class petty officer.
Aboard larger ships with large sections you
may have to wait until you become a first
class petty officer. Therefore, being assigned
as a section leader depends upon the size of
command and number of personnel in your
section.
Q16. Which, if any, of the following
responsibilities belong to the police petty
officer?
1. Apprehending violators
2. Keeping the quarterdeck clear of
unauthorized personnel
3. Serving as court liaison
4. None of the above
A16. (4) The police petty officer’s duties
encompass areas such as cleanliness of
divisional berthing and stowage areas, holding
reveille, maintaining silence after taps and
maintaining order.
Q17. After apprehending members of the opposite
sex, what should be done as soon as possible?
1. Communicate immediately with
headquarters for instructions
2. Request a member of the same sex
to make apprehension
3. Request a member of the same sex
to interrogate
4. Interrogate apprehended member
yourself
A17. (1) Any time you apprehend a member of the
opposite sex, communicate immediately with
headquarters for instructions.
Q18. Which of the following entities make up a
platoon?
1. Two or more squads
2. Platoon headquarters
3. Guide
4. All of the above
A18. (4) A platoon consists of two or more squads,
a platoon headquarters, and a guide.
Q19. For quick time, at the command MARCH,
step off smartly with the left foot and
continue the march in steps of what length in
inches?
1. 25
2. 30
3. 35
4. 40
A19. (2) Quick time is cadence at 120 steps (12,
15, or 30 inches in length) per minute.
Q20. As you face a formation, the tallest person
should be in which of the following
positions?
1. Middle of the formation
2. On your right
3. On your left
4. End closest to where the inspecting party
will arrive
A20. (3) Usually, the tallest person will be on your
left as you face the formation.
Q21. An inspection is more informal than quarters.
1. True
2. False
A21. (2) Quarters is a little more informal than an
inspection.