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175 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Pharmacodynamics
actions of drug on the body
(what the drug does to the body)
Pharmacokinetics
actions of the body on the drug
(ADME)
What is needed for pharmacodynamics to occur?
drug binding to receptor
drug product
preparations and formulations of drugs
(pills, tablets, capsules)
drug substance
active ingredient
excipients
inactive substances used as a carrier for the active ingredient
-accurate dosage
-stabilize the drug
3 Names of a drug
chemical, generic, trade
Name of drug assigned by the FDA and is public property
generic name
-first letter lower case with same endings in same pharmacological class
Name of drug assigned by company, aka brand name
trade name
-first letter is capitalized
-able to have a lot of trade names for one generic
Prescription Drugs
deemed unsafe without medical supervision
Orphan Drugs
target rare disease or conditions affecting fewer than 200,000 people
Controlled Drugs
classification depends on schedule
Drugs scheduled according to:
-medical use
-abuse liability
-tendency to develop physical and psychological dependence
Dietary Supplement
NOT intended to diagnose, treat, prevent, or cure disease
Investigational New Drug (IND) Application
FDA has 30 days to review
Duties of the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
-scientific merit
-ethical acceptabiltiy
-protection of patient rights
-proper consent process
Basic Elements of Informed Consent
-explanation of purpose and procedures of the research
-description of foreseeable risks and expected benifits
-statement of available alternative procedures or course treatment
-statement on confidentiality of records
-explanation of compenstaion and available medical treatments if injury occurs
-Participation is voluntary
-who to contact
4 Phases of Clinical Trials
Phase I - safety and pharmacokinetics
Phase II - safety and efficacy
Phase III - safety and efficacy
Phase IV - postmarketing studies
Describe Phase I Clinical Trials
-1st time in patients
-6 mo to 1 yr
-20 to 100 HEALTHY volunteers
-evaluating: safety and tolerability; pharmacokinetics and dose range
Describe Phase II Clinical Trials
-assess efficacy and safety
(optimal dose selection and dose schedule)
-100-200 pts with disease or condition
Describe Phase II Clinical Trials
-1000 - 6000 patients
-PROVE safety and efficacy
Describe Phase IV Clinical Trials
-detect rare or long term adverse effects
-larger pt population and longer timescales
Receptors are responsible for drug _________
selectivity
Receptor determine relationship between drug dose and ________ _______
pharmacological effect
What do receptors mediate?
action of agonist and antagonist
Main affect of antagonist binding
prevent agonist from binding and activating
How does the degree of inhibition increase with competitive antagonist?
increase the concentration of competitive antagonist

[Increase conc. of agonist can overcome effect of antagonist]
What does a non-competitive antagonist do to receptor efficacy?
decreases efficacy

-its potency is independent of the agonist dose
Action of an irreversible antagonist
covalently (irreversibly) binds the receptor
-duration of effect is dependent on the turnover rate of receptors
Antagonism
2 drugs produce opposite effects by interacting with two separate receptor systems
What distinguishes an agonist from an antagonist?
intrinsic activity = activates a receptor
Describe the difference between affinity and intrinsic activity
affinity - how well it binds
intrinsic activity - able to produce a measurable effect

~ do not always go hand in hand, ex. antagonist
Axises of Michaelis-Menton graph
X -> substrate concentration
Y -> reaction velocity
Km of Michaelis-Menton kinetics
Km = concentration of substrate needed to reach 1/2 Vmax
-measure of the affinity of the substrate for the enzyme
What does Potency relate to?
drug binding affinity
What does efficacy relate to?
rate and extent of receptor activation after drug binding
What does EC(50) represent?
concentration that produces 50% of the maximal effect
What does the Law of Mass Action represent?
drugs reversible interaction with a receptor
Occupational Theory of drug binding
magnitude of response is directly proportional to the # of receptors occupied or filled up

-potency is related to affinity for the receptor
Kd
concentration of drug required to bind 50% of receptor
If Kd is low, binding affinity is _____
high
What is the difference between a full agonist and partial agonist
full agonist - drug that produces full effect in a system

partial agonist - drug that interacts with receptor but is unable to produce full effect
*all relative
Emax represents?
efficacy
-maximum response achieved by an agonist
ED50 represents?
potency
-drug concentration at which 50% of Emax is achieved
What is the graphical representation of potency
further to the Left -> more potent
Chemical Antagonist
-chemical interaction of two substances
-does not require receptor
Pharmacological Antagonist
-binds to receptors, but does not activate signal transduction
What happens to the potency and efficacy when a competitive antagonist is added to an agonist?
reduce potency but does not effect efficacy
(need more of drug to produce the same effect)
What happens to the efficacy and ED50 when in irreversible antagonist is added to an agonist?
decrease Emax => decrease efficacy
- does not affect ED50
What happens to the potency and efficacy when a non-competitive antagonist is added to an agonist?
still have maximum potency but reduced efficacy
Physiological antagonist
-opposing effects by 2 agonists that act on different receptors
(both have intrinsic activity)
Sensitivity of a cell to an agonist depends on ______ ______ and ______ _______ _______
receptor affinity and total receptor concentration
What is the role of spare receptors?
increase sensitivity of target cells to activation by low levels of ligand
What happens in the values of ED50 and Kd with spare receptors?
a greater difference between the 2
(normally they are equal)
-due to greater sensitivity created by the spare receptors
How do spare receptors affect the curve of a non-competitive antagonist?
normally just decrease in the maximal response (decrease in efficacy)
->but see a shift to the Right due to spare receptors
ED50
=drug dose effective in 50% of population
Effective Dose (ED)
LD50
=lethal dose for 50% of the population
Eq for Therapeutic Index
TI = LD50/ED50
-margin of drug's safety
-higher ratio -> more safe/less toxic
Eq for Certain Safety Factor
CSF = LD1/ED99
Concentration of a drug has a _______ effect on the intensity of the effect.
direct
What is required for passive diffusion
concentration gradient
First order process
proportional to the magnitude of the drug concentration across a membrane
-rate dependent on concentration
Eq for partition coefficient
PC = ([drug] in lipid phase)/([drug] in aqueous phase)

-larger the # the greater the rate of transfer across a membrane (more lipid soluble)
Weak acids become highly ionized as pH ________
increases
Weak bases become highly ionized as pH _____
decreases
In general what pH is more conducive to weak acid passage across a membrane?
lower pH
In general what pH is more conducive to weak base passage across a membrane?
higher pH
Henderson-Hasselbalch eq. for a weak acid
pH = pKa + log (ionized/non-ionized)
Henderson-Hasselbalch eq. for a weak base
pH = pKa + log (non-ionized/ionized)
First Pass Effect
metabolism of drug before it reaches systemic circulation
-enzymes of intestinal bacteria
-enzymes of intestinal cells
-liver enzymes on the way to systemic circulation
Why aren't absorption and bioavailability always equal?
first pass effect
Eq for oral absorption extraction ratio
ER = (Ci - Co)/Ci

Ci = conc. in
Co = conc. out
Do transport proteins require ATP?
Yes
P-glycoprotein
aka. MDR1
-best known ATP binding cassette (ABC) protein
Locations of P-glycoprotein
-luminal surface of intestinal cells
-hepatocyte biliary canalicular membrane
-luminal surface of the renal proximal tubular cells
-luminal surface of brain endothelial cells
2 transporters for uptake into hepatocytes (first pass metabolism)
organic anion transporting polypeptide (OATP)
organic cation transporter (OCT)
family of transporters responsible fro renal secretion
organic anion transporter (OAT)
Eq for Bioavailability
Foral = AUC(PO)/AUC(IV)
Issue with chemically equivalent preparations
contain same amount of active ingredient but may not be therapeutically equivalent
-differ in bioavailability -> can not be used as generic substitute
4 areas a generic drug is identical, or bioequivalent to a band name drug
-dosage form
-safety, strength
-route of administration
-quality, performance characteristics and intended use
2 transporters for uptake into hepatocytes (first pass metabolism)
organic anion transporting polypeptide (OATP)
organic cation transporter (OCT)
family of transporters responsible fro renal secretion
organic anion transporter (OAT)
Eq for Bioavailability
Foral = AUC(PO)/AUC(IV)
Issue with chemically equivalent preparations
contain same amount of active ingredient but may not be therapeutically equivalent
-differ in bioavailability -> can not be used as generic substitute
4 areas a generic drug is identical, or bioequivalent to a band name drug
-dosage form
-safety, strength
-route of administration
-quality, performance characteristics and intended use
Volume of Distribution (Vd)
conceptual description of drug distribution
-volume into which the total amount of drug would be uniformly distributed to give the observed plasma concentration
Eq for Volume of Distribution
Vd = dose (D)/ measured plasma conc. (Cp)

-does not represent a real volume
volume of drug limited to plasma water
3L
volume of drug limited to plasma water and interstitial water (extracellular water)
12L
volume of drug limited to intracellular water
28L
volume of drug found in total body water
40L
What does a very large Vd indicate?
that the drug is not in the plasma
What does Vd indicate?
if the drug resided mainly in the plasma or tissue
Does albumin prefer acidic or basic drugs?
acidic
-plasma binding protein
Does Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) prefer acidic or basic drugs?
basic
Thiopental
drug that redistributes
-transition of a drug from a rapidly perfused tissue to a slowly perfused tissue
What is the limiting factor in duration and intensity of a LS drug?
rate of metabolism
bioactivation
activate a drug via metabolism
-prodrug
Describe what happens in an acetaminophen overdose
-pathway to non-toxic metabolites via glucuronidation and sulfation become saturated
-excess drug metabolized by CYP450 -> produce toxic metabolites -> glutathione becomes depleted -> hepatotoxicity and cellular necrosis
Phase I metabolism
changes drug to a more polar metabolite
-many phase I metabolites not excreted
-metabolites often inactive
Phase II metabolism
-conjugation
-endogenous substrate added to drug by acetylation, glucuronidation or sulfation
-form highly polar, inactive metabolite that is renally excreted
Phase II metabolism reactions
-glucuronidation
-acetylation
-glutathione conjugation
-glycine conjugation
-methylation
2 types of phase I metabolism
-microsomal 'mixed function oxidases'
-microsomal P450 catalyzed oxidations
_______ is involved in the metabolism of ~50% of clinically used drugs
CYP3A4
Where is CYP3A4 and what is it susceptible to?
-found in the liver and intestine
-susceptible to induction and inhibition
(inducer: St. John's Wort)
What does grapefruit juice inhibit?
intestinal CYP3A4
How do polymorphisms of CPY2D6 affect metabolism?
creates is significant difference in effective dose due to the variation in individual metabolization
(poor to ultra-rapid metabolizers)
What class of medications is CPY2D6 greatly involved in?
antipsychotic medications
What is the most frequent phase II reaction
glucuronidation
(addition of a glucuronic acid)
glucuronides
drug that is excreted that has under-gone glucuronidation
What is major function of glutathione conjugation
protection of cells against toxic injury
-protects against free radicals, electrophils, reactive metabolites
Phenobarbital
classic inducer
-increase enzyme level to increase rate of metabolism
autoinduction
an inducer increase the rate of its own metabolism
-tolerance
cimetidine
significant inhibitor of P450 enzymes
Which is more affected by age and disease Phase I or Phase II
Phase I
Clearance
quantitative measure of elimination
-typically a measure of renal excretion
Capacity-limited elimination
clearance varies with concentration
-saturable
-blood concentrations continue to rise with continued doesing
3 drugs that have capacity-limited elimination
ethanol, phenytoin, aspirin
Flow-dependent elimination
drug easily cleared by elimination organ (high extraction)
-primarily dependent on rate of drug delivery to the organ
Elimination
general term for removal of drug from body
-refers to all processes involved
Is a drug with a very large Vd readily removed by Dialysis?
No, because a drug with a large Vd is tightly protein bound or extensively stored or distributed into a tissue
Capacity-limited elimination
clearance varies with concentration
-saturable
-blood concentrations continue to rise with continued dosing
3 drugs that have capacity-limited elimination
ethanol, phenytoin, aspirin
Flow-dependent elimination
drug easily cleared by elimination organ (high extraction)
-primarily dependent on rate of drug delivery to the organ
Elimination
general term for removal of drug from body
-refers to all processes involved
Is a drug with a very large Vd readily removed by Dialysis?
No, because a drug with a large Vd is tightly protein bound or extensively stored or distributed into a tissue
Enterohepatic Recirculation
phase II glucuronide conjugate is excreted via bile into the intestine -> glucuronidase regenerates the drug -> reabsorption of the drug
Glomerular filtration rate
100-120 ml/min
Factors involved with Glomerular filtration
-molecular size is the limiting factor
-protein bound drug is NOT filtered
-non-selective, non-saturable
-dependent on hydrostatic pressure
Back diffusion
drug move from nephron to circulation
-ionization traps drug
In acidic urine what form is the weak acid drug in and what does that mean for reabsorption?
greater [H+] causes a shift to HA -> increase reabsorption
What is the active transporter for organic anions and conjugated metabolites
P-glycoprotein
Active transporter for organic cations
ABC transporters
drug clearance >120 mL/min
must involve tubular secretion
drug clearance < 120mL/min
must involve tubular reabsorption
max CL
~1500 mL/min
-equal to the liver blood flow
Eq. for Clearance
Cl (L/hr) = Rate of elimination (mg/hr) / C (mg/L)
Total systemic clearance
-clearance is additive
CLsystem = CL renal + CL liver + CL other
Eq for the rate of elimination
rate of elimination = CL x C
-First order elimination
Zero order elimination
elimination of constant amount of drug per unit time, independent of concentration
Eq. of Renal Clearance
CLr = (UxV)/(CpxT)
U = urine concentration, V = urine volume
-hypothetical
-amount of plasma that would have to be 100% cleared of drug to obtain that amount in urine
Clearance helps determine what PK parameter
maintenance dose rate
Volume of distribution (Vd) helps determine which PK parameter
loading dose (LD)
Half-life (t1/2) helps determine which PK parameter?
time to steady-state and dosing interval
First Order Kinetics
-elimination rate dependent on drug concentration
-rate of elim. = CL x Cp
-clearance is fixed but rate is variable
Zero Order Kinetics
-elimination rate is independent of drug concentration and constant over time
-as conc. goes up the clearance decreases
-dose change will be reflected in proportional change in plasma concentration
In 1st order kinetics is the half-life dependent on concentration?
No
What occurs with the half-life in zero order kinetics?
half-life becomes longer as the concentration increases

-hang over!
Which drugs display dose dependent kinetics
ethanol, aspirin, phenytoin
3 Eq. for clearance
CL = Does/AUC
CL = (F x Dose)/AUC
CL = (0.693 x Vd)/t1/2
Eq. for half-life
t1/2 = (0.693*Vd)/CL
Significance of 5 t1/2
amount of time to reach steady state and amount of time to eliminate drug
3.3 t1/2 =
90%
What are 2 methods to achieve a Plateau of steady state concentrations
-give drug at constant intervals of less than 5 t1/2
-continuous infusion
Eq for steady state drug concentration
Css = infusion rate (R)/ clearance (CL)
What does a faster rate of infusion change and not change
change: steady-state concentration
does not change: time to steady state
Expanded Eq for steady state concentration
Css = (1.44 x F x D x t1/2)/(Vd x T)
Purpose of a loading dose
achieves therapeutic levels with a single dose
Eq for loading dose
Dose(loading) = Css x Vd

For oral: Dose(loading) = (Css x Vd)/Foral
Eq for maintenance dose
Dose(maintenance) = Css x CL

For oral: Dose(maintenance) = (Css x CL)/ Foral
Eq for intermittent dose for the maintenance dose
Dose(maintenance) = Css x CL x Dose interval
2 Eq for dose adjustments
New Dose = t1/2(normal)/t1/2(disease) x maintenance dose

new dose = CL(diseased)/CL(normal) x maintenance dose
2Eq for dose interval adjustment
New interval = t1/2(diseased)/t1/2(normal) x old interval

New interval = CL(normal)/CL(disease) x old interval
Synergistic drug-drug interactions
observed effect of 2 drugs > than additive effect

2+3 = 20
Potentiation of drug-drug interactions
one drug does not cause a effect but combined with another produces a greater effect

0+2 = 10
Idiosyncratic response
genetically determined variable response to a drug
Type II hypersensitivity
immune mediated destruction of RBC
-drug modified RBC induce production of antibodies -> RBC with antibodies are more susceptible to lysis or phagocytosis
Pharmacokinetic Tolerance
-metabolic in nature
(drug does not work as well as it used to -> increase dose to get the same response)
-lower drug conc. at the receptor site
Pharmacodynamic Tolerance
-cellular-adaptive in nature
(receptors adapt sensitivity or increase or decrease number of receptors)
What are the axises of a Quantal Dose Response Curve
x - minimal effective dose
y - frequency of population responding (did they respond, yes/no)
What does a Graded Dose Response Curve represent
difference in intensity of response in an individual
-info on potency, selectivity, maximal efficacy
What does a quantal dose response curve show
distribution of effective doses in a GROUP or Population
-info: potency, selectivity, variability (pharmacodynamic variability in pt pop.)
Graded Dose effect endpoint relates dose to _______ of effect
intensity
Quantal dose effect endpoint relates dose to ________ of effect
frequency
In a quantal dose curve what does a larger standard deviation represent?
greater variability