Hematology

Front 1

decrease haptoglobin and increased serum LDH indicate RCB _________.

Back 1

RBC hemoloysis

Front 2

Decrease TIBC, increase ferritin, Increased storage iron in marrow macrophages

Back 2

anemia of chronic disease

Front 3

increased TIBC, decreased ferritin and decreased serum iron

Back 3

iron deficiency anemia

Front 4

______ cells are involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions.

Back 4

Mast cells

bind IgE to membrane

found in tissue

Front 5

cells that are highly phagocytic for antigen-antibody complexes.

Back 5

eosinophils

Front 6

Causes fo eosinophilia (NAACP)

Back 6

Neoplastic
Asthma
Allergic processes
Collagen vascular diseases
Parasites

Front 7

Large, spherical azurophilic primary granules are called

Back 7

lysosomes

contain hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and lactoferrin

Front 8

hypersegment polys are seen in ______ and ______ deficiency.

Back 8

Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.

Front 9

B lymph have CD__ and CD___

Back 9

CD19 and CD20

Front 10

B cells can function as APC via _______ __.

Back 10

MCH II

when antigen is encountered, B cells differentiate into plasma cells and produce antibodies

Front 11

_____ ______ is a plasma cell neoplasm

Back 11

multiple myeloma

Front 12

Which of the following is necessary for endogenous activation of plasminogen

Back 12

tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

Front 13

The FAB designation associated with a monocytic leukemia characterized by the presence of monoblasts, promonocytes and monocytes is

Back 13

M5

Front 14

measures the conversion of fibrinogn to fibrin after the addition of excess thrombin to undiluted plasma.

Back 14

thrombin time

prolonged thrombin time=heparin contamination

Front 15

Abnormal platelet function is the suspected cause of the bleeding problem in a patient who has a normal platelet count. What laboratory procedure provides information that would aid in discovering the cause of the bleeding problem?

Back 15

bleeding time

Front 16

A cellulose acetate electrophoresis revealed a large band of hemoglobin in the hemoglobin S position. This band quantified as 95%. The peripheral smear revealed 70% target cells and the solubility test was negative. This hemoglobin can be classified as

Back 16

Hemoglobin D

Front 17

Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase is usually positive in ______ cells and alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase is useful for identifying blast cells of ______ lineage.

Back 17

granulocytic; monocytic

Front 18

Blue cytomplasmic inclusions in the neutrophiuls and giant platelets are present on a patient's blood smear. You would suspect the presence of

Back 18

May-Hegglin anomaly

Front 19

An adult patient with massive splenomegaly has mild anemia, a slightly elevated WBC and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis. A bone marrow aspiate was attempted but was a "dry tap". Thes findings are most consistent with

Back 19

An adult patient with massive splenomegaly has mild anemia, a slightly elevated WBC and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis. A bone marrow aspiate was attempted but was a "dry tap". Thes findings are most consistent with

Front 20

The presence of CD2. CD5, CD7 and the absence of CD 10 (CALLA) are associated with

Back 20

T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia

Front 21

A young child is admitted to the hospital with chronic steatorrhea. Upon testing, it is noted that the child has a coagulation problem due to a vitamin deficiency. Which clotting factor would this deficiency affect?

Back 21

factors II, VII, IX, X

Front 22

The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with

Back 22

CML

chronic granulocytic leukemia

Front 23

Which of the following red cell morphology is characteristically seen in abetalipoproteinemia?

Back 23

acanthocytes

Front 24

Auer rods are composed of fused ________ granules

Back 24

primary

Front 25

Appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin F:

Back 25

Kleihauer-Betke

Front 26

Appropriate screening test for hemoglobin H is:

Back 26

Heat instability test

Front 27

The most appropriate sreening test for hemoglobin S is:

Back 27

dithionite solubility

Front 28

The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis is:

Back 28

osmotic fragility

Front 29

Te most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is:

Back 29

sucrose hemolysis test

Front 30

thalassemias are characterized by:

Back 30

decreased rate of globin synthesis

Front 31

all staes of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral bloof of a patient w/:

Back 31

chronic granuloctic leukemia

Front 32

serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased in what condition:

Back 32

anemia of a chronic disorder

Front 33

hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of abnormal ________ function

Back 33

abnormal platelet function

Front 34

In chronic myelocytic leukemia, blood histamine concentrations tend to reflect the number of _____ present.

Back 34

basophils

Front 35

hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is caused by a ____ _____ _____ defect.

Back 35

red cell membrane defect

Front 36

in order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly w/ O2, the iron must be in the _____ state.

Back 36

ferrous

Front 37

the genetic defect in thalassemia usually results in a quantitative deficiency in RNA resulting in decreased _______ _____ production

Back 37

decreased globin chain production

Front 38

Hemoglobin H disease results from absence of ___ of 4 alpha genes.

Back 38

3 of 4 alpha genese

Front 39

What is associated w/ May-Hegglin anomaly?

Back 39

Dohle bodies and giant platelets

Front 40

What is associated w/ Chediak-Higashi syndrome:

Back 40

membrane defect of lysosomes

Front 41

all stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral bloof of a patient w/:

Back 41

chronic granuloctic leukemia

Front 42

serum iron is decreased, transferrin saturation is decreased, TIBC is normal or decreased in what condition:

Back 42

anemia of a chronic disorder

Front 43

hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of abnormal ________ function

Back 43

abnormal platelet function

Front 44

In chronic myelocytic leukemia, blood histamine concentrations tend to reflect the number of _____ present.

Back 44

basophils

Front 45

hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is caused by a ____ _____ _____ defect.

Back 45

red cell membrane defect

Front 46

in order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly w/ O2, the iron must be in the _____ state.

Back 46

ferrous

Front 47

the genetic defect in thalassemia usually results in a quantitative deficiency in RNA resulting in decreased _______ _____ production

Back 47

decreased globin chain production

Front 48

Hemoglobin H disease results from absence of ___ of 4 alpha genes.

Back 48

3 of 4 alpha genes

Front 49

What is associated w/ May-Hegglin anomaly?

Back 49

Dohle bodies and giant platelets

Front 50

What is associated w/ Chediak-Higashi syndrome:

Back 50

membrane defect of lysosomes

Front 51

normal PT time and a prolonged PTT time. THe PTT corrects ot nromal when the incubation time is increased.

Back 51

Fletcher factor deficiency (prekallikrein)

Front 52

Acute DIC is characterized by:

Back 52

hypofibrinogenemia

Front 53

Coag factors affected by coumadin are:

Back 53

II, VII, IX, X

Front 54

Factor ___ differentiates sever liver disease & accompanying secondary fibrinolysis from DIC.

Back 54

Factor VIII activity

Front 55

lab findings associated with Factor XIII deficiency?

Back 55

clot solubility in a 5 Molar urea solution

Front 56

a hemophiliac male and a normal female can produce:

Back 56

a female carrier

Front 57

most common cause of abnomality in hemostasis?

Back 57

quantitative abnormality of platelets

Front 58

CML can transition into _____

Back 58

ALL

Front 59

classic von Willebrand's disease shows a decreased platelet aggregation to ________

Back 59

ristocetin

Front 60

The majority of iron in an adult is found as a constituent of ______.

Back 60

hemoglobin

Front 61

platelet satellitosis is usually due to ______

Back 61

abnormal proteins

Front 62

irregular clumping of platelets is usuallly due to:

Back 62

inadequate mixing of blood and anticoag

Front 63

when platelets concentrate at feathered end and edges of smear, it is usually due to a:

Back 63

poorly made wedge smear

Front 64

erythropoietin acts to stmulate _______ synthesis of erythroid cells

Back 64

RNA synthesis of erythroid cells.

Front 65

secondary granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte appear first at the ______ stage.

Back 65

myelocyte stage

Front 66

elevation of the total granulocyte count above 9 x 10 3/ul is termed:

Back 66

absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis

Front 67

elevation of the total white cell count above 12x 10 9/ul is termed:

Back 67

leukocytosis

Front 68

elevation of lymph % above 47% is termed:

Back 68

relative lymphocytosis

Front 69

election of the granulocyte percentage above 75% IS TERMED:

Back 69

relative neutrophilic leukocytosis

Front 70

Decreaed or absent bone marrow iron stores is characteristics of _______ ______.

Back 70

polycythemia vera

Front 71

thrombocytopenia is a characteristic of _____ _____ _______.

Back 71

May-Hegglin anomaly

Front 72

If prolonged PTT is corrected w/ fresh normal plasma, adsorbed plasma, and aged serum it is most likely a deficiency o f ?

Back 72

Factor XI

Front 73

The abnormal PTT was corrected by normal and adsorbed plasma, but not aged serum?

Back 73

Facor V

Front 74

vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of:

Back 74

niemann-Pick disease

Front 75

clumped plateles may interfere w/ the:

Back 75

WBC count

Front 76

cold agglutinin results in an ______ MCV and _____ RBC/

Back 76

increased MCV and decreased RBC

Front 77

Blood in EDTA undgergoes what changes if kept at room temperature?

Back 77

increased hematocrit and MCV

Front 78

Glanzmann's thrombasthenia is associated w/ absence of _____ __________.

Back 78

clot retraction

Front 79

the bone marrow in the terminal stage of erythroleukemis is often indistinguishable from _________.

Back 79

AML

Front 80

Significant feature of erythroleukemia (Di Guglielmo's syndrome)?

Back 80

megaloblastoid erythropoiesis

Front 81

teardrop cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen in what diease state?

Back 81

myeloid metaplasia

Front 82

most useful differentiating hemophilias A and B?

Back 82

mixing studies

Front 83

membrane of RBC contains the _____-___________ antiport.

Back 83

chloride-bicarbonate

allows the RBC to transport CO2 from the periphery to the lungs for elimination.

Front 84

CD3 marks ____

Back 84

T lymphocytes

Front 85

Protein C and Protein S inactivates what two factors?

Back 85

Va and VIIIa

vitamin K dependant

Front 86

Antithrombin III inactivates what?

Back 86

thrombin, IXa, Xa, and Xia

activated by heparin

Front 87

tPA generates ______.

Back 87

plasmin, which cleaves fibrin

Front 88

CEA is a tumor marker found in :

Back 88

colorectal and pancreatic cancers

also produced by gastic & breast cancer

carcinoembryonic antigen

Front 89

a-fetoprotein is a tumor marker of:

Back 89

hepatocellular carcinomas

tumors of the testis

Front 90

target cells are commonly found in what 4 conditions:

Back 90

HbC disease, Asplenia, Liver disease, thalassemia

Front 91

burr cells are seen in what 2 conditions:

Back 91

HUS/TTP

Front 92

vitamin B12 deficiency is associated with ______ problems unlke folate deficiency.

Back 92

neurologic

Front 93

decrease serum iron, increased TIBC, and decreased ferritin is associated with:

Back 93

iron deficiency

Front 94

decreased TIBC, increased ferritin, and increase storage iron in marrow macrophages indicates what condition?

Back 94

Anemia of chronic disease

Front 95

decrease serum haptoglobin and increase serum LDH indicatd:

Back 95

RBC hemoloysis

Front 96

Sickle cell anemia is a single amino acid replacement in the ____ chain.

Back 96

Beta chain

substitution of normal glutamic acid with valine

Front 97

substitution of a lysine residue for glutamic acid residue at the 6th position of the ß-globin chain results in:

Back 97

hemoglobin C disease

Front 98

In B-thalassemia major the B chain is _____.

Back 98

B-chain is absent

fetal hemoglobin in compensatorily increased but inadequate

Front 99

In B-thalassemia minor the B chain is __________.

Back 99

B-chain is underproduced

fetal hemoglobin in compensatorily increased but inadequate

Front 100

In a-thalassemia, the a-globin chain is _________.

Back 100

underproduced

there is NO compsensatory increase of any other chains.

Front 101

________ lacks 3 alpha-globin genes, B4-tetramers.

Back 101

HgH

Front 102

_______ lacks all 4 a-globin genes and results in hydrops fetalis & death.

Back 102

Hb Barts

Front 103

a-thalassemia is prevalent in _____ and _______.

Back 103

Africa and Asia

Front 104

b-thalassemia is prevalent in ___________.

Back 104

Mediterranean populations

Front 105

Increased serum bilirubin and increased reticulocytes are seen in ______ anemia.

Back 105

hemolytic anemia

Front 106

Autoimmune hemolytic anemias are _______ positive.

Back 106

DAT

direct Coombs' positive

Front 107

Herediatry spherocytosis is due to a ____ or ______ defect.

Back 107

spectrin or ankyrin

increased MCHC and RDW

osmotic fragility test to confirm

Front 108

autoimmune anemia is mostly _________ hemolysis.

Back 108

extravascular hemolysis

accelerated RBC destruction in liver Kupffer cells and spleen.

Front 109

PNH causes _______ hemolysis.

Back 109

intravascular hemolysis

increased sensitivity of RBC to lytic activity of complement

Front 110

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria results in increased urine ________.

Back 110

hemosiderin

Front 111

increased PPT, PT, fibrin split products (D-dimers), decreased platelet counts all indicate what condition:

Back 111

DIC

activation of coag cascade leading to microthrombi nd global consumption of platelets, fibrin, and coag factors.

helmet cells and schistocytes on blood smear

Front 112

Extrinsic coag pathway monitors factors ___,___,____, and ____.

Back 112

2, 5, 7, and 10

PT

Front 113

Glanzmann's thrombasthenia is a defect of platelet ___________.

Back 113

platelet aggregation

Decreased GP IIb-IIIa

Front 114

Bernard-Soulier disease is a defect of platelet _________.

Back 114

platelet adhesion

decreased GP Ib

Front 115

Reed-Sternberg cells are seen in __________ disease.

Back 115

Hodgkin's disease

Front 116

older adults;lymphadenopathy; hepatosplenomegaly;few symptoms; indolent course; increase of smudge cells in peripheral smear:

Back 116

CLL

Front 117

Philadelphia chromosome (t9:22),bcr-abl)myeloid stem cell proliferation; presents w/ increased neutrophils and metamyelocytes; splenomegaly; may accelerate to AML; very low LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) vs. leukemoid reaction.

Back 117

CML

Front 118

auer rods are peroxidase-positive cytoplasmic inclusions in _______ and ________.

Back 118

granulocytes and myeloblasts

primarily seen in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

Front 119

heparin must be followed with ______ test.

Back 119

PPT

Front 120

warfarin must be following with _____ test

Back 120

PT