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422 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Who was Phil H. Bucklew?
Who when and where were the Scouts and Raiders created? |
"Father of NSW"
15AUG1942-USA/USN trained at Little Creek Joint Army & Navy operation |
|
Operation Torch
|
NOV1942
-Cut a cable and net barrier across Sebou River(Morocco) -allowed USS Dallas to insert Raiders |
|
Who and when-Navy Combat Demolition Units (NCDU)
|
Est 06JUN1943
LCDR Draper L. Kaufman "Father of NCD" |
|
Operation OVERLORD
|
06JUN1944 (D-DAY)
NCD participated -only one year after creations of NCDU's |
|
What do you know about...
Underwater Demolition Teams (UDT's) |
Est. 23NOV1943 after Marines landing on Tarawa
-30 Officers and 150 Enlisted -First combat 31JAN1944-Operation FLINTLOCK in Marshal Islands -Operation CHROMITE-15SEP1950-mine sweeping for landing at Inchon -12OCT1950-UDT rescued 25 sailors after 2 ships hit mines and sunk. |
|
Creation of SEAL Teams/Seal Delivery Vehicle (SDV) Teams
|
Teams 1&2 est. JAN1962(Kennedy)
01MAY83-All UDT's were re-designated as SEAL Teams or SDV's Team 2 was created first due to time difference. |
|
Global War on Terror
|
NSW had BOG in Afghanistan OCT2001
First Flag-O in Afghan was a SEAL 23 SEALS KIA in Iraq/Afghan 2 MOH recipients Posthumously - LT Michael Murphey (SDVT-1, AFG) -MA2(SEAL) Michael Monsoor (ST-3, IRAQ) |
|
Coral Sea
|
04MAY-08MAY1942
-First battle where ships never saw eachother -TAC victory for JAP-did more damage than took -STRAT victory for Allies-blocked New Guinea invasion |
|
Midway
|
04-07JUN1942
Most important battle of PAC WWII -Turning point of War in PAC JAP lost- 4 carriers and 1 heavy cruiser US lost a carrier and a destroyer |
|
AN/PSC-5D
|
Primary SATCOM Radio
30-512Mhz 20 watt max output Uses havequick and SINCGARS frequency hopping |
|
SINCGARS
|
Single Channel Ground Airborne Radio System
|
|
AN/PRC-150
|
Primary HF Radio
1.6-59.99999 Mhz Low, Medium and High power settings are 1, 5 and 10 watts Low power(1w): 200-400m Med power(5w): 400m-5km High power(10w):5km-10km |
|
AN/PRC-148 (MBITR)
|
Multiband Inter-squad Tactical Radio
Primary inter squad comms 30-512Mhz 5 watts peak power, some vehicles have 20 watt amplifyer(25w total) uses havequick and SINCGARS channel hopping |
|
AN/PRQ-7 CSEL
|
Combat Survivor/Evader Locator
|
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AN/PRN-13 DAGR
|
Defense Advanced GPS Reciever
|
|
GBS
|
Global Broadcast Server
-Recieve only -Used to download imagery and map data as well as live news feeds |
|
BA-5590
|
Battery-Can be connected to PRC-5, PRC-150, PRC-148
-That's the 3 major radios for the teams |
|
Frequency Range (IDW Flash back!!!!!)
|
HF: 3-30Mhz
VHF: 30-300Mhz UHF 300Mhz-3Ghz |
|
DD 1348-6
|
Standard requisitioning form
-used when automated supply is not available |
|
NAVSUP 1250-2
|
Alternate to 1348-6 for requisitioning
|
|
DD 1149
|
Requisition and Invoice/Shipping document
|
|
DD 200
|
Financial liability investigation of property loss.
-Used for items lost, damaged or otherwise unservicable |
|
DD 488
|
Military Intradepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)
-used to request contractual action to another military department |
|
NAVCOMPT 2276
|
used to request contractualy procurement
|
|
DD 1155
|
Contract document used for original purchase orders
|
|
SF 30
|
Contract used to modify original purchase orders
|
|
SF 1449
|
Form used to buy commercial items when simplified procedures are employed.
|
|
ARMY classes of supply
|
I-Food
II-Consumables/Clothing III-Petroleum, Oils, Lubricants IV-Construction Materials V-Ammo VI-Personal Demand VII-Major assemblies (property book stuff) VIII-Medical IX-Repair Parts X-Agricultural and non-military materials not otherwise classified |
|
P300
|
Transportation Program Management publication
|
|
P307
|
Publication which ensures that weight handling ops are conducted safely
|
|
P11200
|
Establish policy/guidance for Naval Construction Force Equiptment Management Program
|
|
OF/346
|
Motor Vehicle License
|
|
11260/2
|
Construction and weight handling equiptment license
|
|
OPNAVINST 1500.75A
|
Safety Policies and Procedures for conducting High Risk Training.
|
|
OPNAVISNT 3120.32C
|
Standard Organization and Regulations of the Navy
-(SORN) |
|
Sig Sauer P226
|
Semi-Auto magazine fed, double/single action
Max range-1800m Max EFFECTIVE range-50m weight-1.65 lbs |
|
M4A1 Carbine
|
gas operated, air cooled, magizine fed, 5.56.
Weight-7.5 lbs. Max range-500m(point) 600m(area) Max EFFECTIVE-3600m |
|
M240G
|
Automatic, gas operated, air cooled, belt fed medium weight machine gun.
Fires from OPEN BOLT position, 7.62 weight: 24.1lbs Rate of fire: 750-950 rounds/minute Max EFFECTIVE-800m(point) 1800m(area) Max range-3750m |
|
M2HB
|
belt fed, recoil-operated, air cooled, crew served machine gun.
Single and Auto, .50 caliber Weight:84lbs Rate of Fire-450-650 rounds/min Max EFFECTIVE-2000yds Max Range-7400yds |
|
President
|
Hon. Barack Obama
|
|
Vice President
|
Hon. Joe Biden
|
|
Secretary of Defense
|
Hon. Chuck Hagel
|
|
Secretary of the Navy
|
Hon. Ray Mabus
|
|
Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff
|
GEN Martin Dempsey
|
|
Chief of Naval Operations
|
ADM Greenert
|
|
CENTCOM Commander
|
General James J. "MadDog" Mattis
|
|
ISAF/USFOR-A CDR
|
General Joseph F. Dunford, Jr.
|
|
Joint Special Operations Command CDR
|
VADM William H. McRaven
|
|
NAVCENT CDR
|
VADM Miller
|
|
SOCCENT CDR
|
BG Ken Tovo
|
|
CJSOTF-A CDR
|
COL Mark Schwartz
|
|
SOTF-SE CDR
|
LTC Sulivan?
|
|
TU-Trident CDR
|
LCDR Wynn?
|
|
NSW Commander
|
RDML Sean Pybus
|
|
NSW Group 2 CDR
|
CAPT Szymanski?
|
|
SEAL Team 4 CDR
|
CDR Croley?
|
|
MCPON
|
MCPON Stevens
|
|
FLTCM 5th FLT
|
FLTCM DeLozier
|
|
NSW FORCM
|
FORCM?
|
|
What is the concept of ORM?
|
Minimizes risk to acceptable levels, commensurate with mission accomplishment.
|
|
What are the 5 steps of ORM?
|
Identify Hazards
Assess Hazards Make risk decisions Implement controls Supervise |
|
Order of preference for implementing controls?
|
Engineering Controls
Admin Controls PPE |
|
What report is required for a negligent weapons discharge?
|
OPREP-3
|
|
Noises great than _____db require double hearing protection?
|
104 db
|
|
Ear plugs or ear muffs are requried for noises greater than ___ and peak noises greater than ____?
|
84dbA and 140dbA
|
|
Whose responsibility is it to organize, train, equip, prepare and maintain readiness of the United States Navy?
|
Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
Who is overall responsible for a command’s Enlisted Warfare Qualification Program?
|
Command Master Chief
|
|
OPERATION PLAN (OPLAN)
|
is a detailed statement of a course of action to be followed to accomplish a future mission
|
|
OPERATION ORDER (OPORD)
|
Puts OPERATION PLAN (OPLAN) into effect
|
|
WARNING ORDER (WARNORD)
|
Platoons receive mission details such as specified uniforms, including any camouflage and identification measures and specific weapons, ammunition, and equipment requirements
|
|
Executive Officer (XO)
|
primarily responsible under the Commanding Officer for the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command.
|
|
What document provides a permanent historical record at the Bureau of Naval Personnel (BUPERS) of an activity’s personnel account for statistical uses and overall Navy manning?
|
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR)
|
|
Enlisted Service Record Page 2 – NAVPERS 1070/602
|
Person(s) to be notified in case of emergency or death.
Person(s) to receive the death gratuity when no spouse or child exists. Person(s) to receive unpaid pay and allowances (arrears of pay) including money accrued during a missing or captured status, unused leave, travel, per diem, transportation of family members, transportation of household goods, and savings deposits found due from Department of the Navy. Dependents of member to receive allotment of pay if member is missing or unable to transmit funds. Commercial insurance companies to be notified in case of death. National Service Life Insurance, Servicemen’s Group Life Insurance, and Veterans Group Life Insurance in effect. |
|
Which report do ships utilize as they come in to port to pass information on about the ship and to request services from the port?
|
Logistics Request (LOGREQ)
|
|
who are noncombatants
|
Civilians
medical personnel chaplains |
|
Who initiated America’s first sea-based offensive against the British?
|
General George Washington
|
|
The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?
|
Bureau of Yards and Docks
|
|
Seabee’s celebrate March 5th, 1942 as?
|
the day permission was granted to use the name Seabee
|
|
Mobile Explosive Investigative Units (MEIU) were instrumental in the clearance of explosive hazards both on land and at sea and were later renamed...?
|
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Units.
|
|
Who is appointed by the President as the head of the Department of the Navy?
|
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
|
|
Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is?
|
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
|
|
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is to...?
|
Provide oversight and command and control of anti- terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary- type forces within the Navy.
|
|
Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are...?
|
Port Security Units (PSU)
|
|
Teams, which provide protection to MSC ships such as maritime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews
|
Embarked Security Teams (EST)
|
|
The ________________ is the administrative and operational commander for six Naval Construction Regiments and two Seabee Readiness Groups
|
First Naval Construction Division
|
|
During North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) operations what vehicle markings will be placed on the front and rear of the vehicle to indicate US ownership?
|
Solid black five-point star
|
|
The purpose of the MPF (Maritime Prepositioning Force)
|
to rapidly establish a MAGTF ashore so that it is prepared to conduct subsequent operations ranging from humanitarian assistance to all levels of armed conflict.
|
|
Pronounceable words or phrases that have been assigned meaning to expedite message handling on R/T circuits are...
|
Prowords
|
|
A whistle signal of three long blasts repeated several times usually indicates ...
|
Hostile aircraft or mechanized vehicle
|
|
The three types of intelligence:
|
Strategic, Operational, Tactical
|
|
The five steps in the intelligence cycle
|
1. Planning and Direction
2. Collection 3. Processing 4. Production 5. Dissemination |
|
The Navy’s system for providing proper safeguards on telecommunications via encryption is known as
|
Communications Security (COMSEC)
|
|
What is Two Person Integrity (TPI)?
|
the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals.
|
|
Define Clearance
|
a formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program.
|
|
BEADWINDOW:
|
A real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NONSECURE circuit.
|
|
Factors that affect the range of radio equipment:
|
• Weather
• Terrain • Antenna • Power • Location of the radio |
|
Eight core elements that make up an expeditionary camp team?
|
1. Security
2. Intelligence 3. Supply/Logistic 4. Training 5. Administration 6. Medical 7. Operations 8. Maintenance |
|
Five basic phases of an expeditionary camp layout?
|
Phase I - Planning (4 types of camp)
Phase II - Site Survey/Security Phase III - Camp Establishment Phase IV - Camp Maintenance Phase V - Camp Teardown |
|
What are the three camp layout considerations?
|
1. Key Terrain (KOCOA)
2. Security/Defensive Posture 3. Health & Sanitation |
|
What are the four types of camps?
|
1. Logistics Hub
2. Unit 3. Base 4. Expeditionary |
|
Considerations of expeditionary camp layout phase one?
|
1. Reason for the camp
2. Type of camp 3. Terrain 4. Climate 5. Threat level |
|
What are the three different teams used during expeditionary camp layout phase two?
|
1. Site survey/preparation team
2. Site security team 3. Camp setup team |
|
What are five services that should be provided when carrying out phase three of expeditionary
camp layout? |
1. Billeting activities
2. Food service 3. Shower and head facilities 4. Field Armory 5. First Aid Station 6. Combined Maintenance Engineering Logistics (CMEL) 7. Laundry service 8. An administrative services 9. A fire fighting team 10. Facilities for MWR activities 11. A resident unit ministry team |
|
Briefly describe the purpose of a leach field
|
. A leach field is a series of drain lines that allow
the effluent from the septic tank to drain over a large area of ground. Leaching fields are an integral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system. |
|
What form is filled out when a trouble desk attendant receives a trouble call?
|
Emergency/Service authorization (ESA)
|
|
What are the four priority work classifications?
|
1. Safety
2. Function 3. Preventive 4. Appearance |
|
What is potable water suitable for?
|
Drinking, cooking, and personal use.
|
|
Define plain/simple chlorination?
|
Plain or simple chlorination is the single application of chlorine as the only treatment before discharge to the [water] distribution system.
|
|
What are the three standard gear issue categories?
|
1. Fighting/load carrying
2. Bivouac 3. Protective |
|
The standard 782 gear issue consists of what?
|
• Pistol belt with two magazine pouches
• Pack, usually a medium size • H-harness or suspenders |
|
Name the three fighting positions.
|
1. Hasty Position
2. Improved one man 3. Improved two man |
|
What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an
improved one-man fighting position? |
Less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and
shelling. |
|
Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or
camouflage netting? |
Natural cover
|
|
What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?
|
Hit the deck.
|
|
What does “KOCOA” stand for?
|
• Key Terrain
• Observation and Fields of Fire • Concealment and Cover • Obstacles to Movement • Avenues of Approach |
|
Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.
|
1.When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line.
2.Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned. 3.For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line. |
|
What does “BAMCIS” stand for?
|
• Begin planning
• Arrange recon • Make recon • Complete the plan • Issue the order • Supervise |
|
What does “SMEAC” stand for?
|
• Situation
• Mission • Execution • Administration and Logistics • Command and Signal |
|
What are the three sub-paragraphs of the Situation paragraph of a five paragraph order?
|
• Enemy forces
• Friendly forces • Attachments and detachments |
|
When is a “SALUTE” report used?
|
When observed enemy activities do not pose a
threat. |
|
What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?
|
Information gathering
|
|
What are some considerations when creating a fire plan?
|
•Sectors or Zone of Fire
•Individual fighting positions •Crew Served Weapons •Rifleman positions •Terrain Features •Fire Team Leader |
|
What are the two types of fire limits?
|
Lateral and Forward
|
|
Name the four types of fire team formations
|
1. Column
2. Wedge 3. Skirmishers (right and left) 4. Echelon (right and left) |
|
How many Articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
|
6
|
|
What are the four THREATCON levels?
|
1. Alpha
2. Bravo 3. Charlie 4. Delta |
|
What are three types of wire entanglements?
|
1. Tactical
2. Protective 3. Supplementary |
|
Describe Challenge and Reply.
|
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation.
|
|
What are the three types of waterborne security zones?
|
1. Assessment
2. Warning 3. Threat |
|
Things addressed by an effective ATFP plan.
|
• Concept of operations
• Preplanned responses • Tactics • Crisis management procedures • Consequence management procedures • Baseline security posture • Measures to increase security posture • Reporting procedures • Command and control procedures. |
|
Name the five types of waterborne threats.
|
1. Small Boats
2. Deep Draft Boat 3. Subsurface 4. Swimmer 5. Floating Mines |
|
Escalation of Force or Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level 1:
|
LEVEL ONE
- Blue Lights, Sirens, Horn - Waving of hands - Hail on VHF MARBAND radio, Loud Hailer - Aggressive driving toward Contact of Interest (COI) - Spotlight at night - Weapons Ready (Unpin Crew Serve weapons and maintain positive control) |
|
Escalation of Force or Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level 2:
|
LEVEL TWO
- Shoot flare across bow of COI - More aggressive Hail - Herding of COI - Surface Action, PORT/STBD (Condition One weapon, train on COI) |
|
Escalation of Force or Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level 3:
|
LEVEL THREE
- Warning shots from Crew Serve weapons across bow of COI |
|
Escalation of Force or Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOF) level 4:
|
LEVEL FOUR
Open Fire (Disabling or Destructive fire) |
|
What is the ideal width of security zones surrounding a waterborne High Value Asset (HVA)?
|
500 meters
|
|
Name three things that affect waterborne security zone size/location?
|
• UN restrictions.
• Geography. • Threat Areas. • Capabilities of U.S. security forces. • Proximity of targets |
|
What is the principal task of security forces with respect to waterborne vessels?
|
To determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible.
|
|
What are the minimal and ideal number of boats used for a moving security zone?
|
Two (minimum) and Four (ideal)
|
|
Historically, Maritime Interception Operations have been defined as what?
|
Peacetime measures designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by the UNSC, national authority, or other
regional organization. |
|
What is the purpose of the Marine Safety Office (MSO)?
|
To ensure the safety, security, and
environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas. |
|
What is the specific purpose of a chemical agent?
|
Intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel.
|
|
Define Biological warfare
|
The use of biological agents (pathogens or toxins) as a weapon.
|
|
Name two routes of entry for nonpercutaneous hazards.
|
•Respiratory tract
•Open wounds •Eyes •Ingestion |
|
The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit
Technology (JSLIST) may be laundered how many times? |
6
|
|
What are the two auto injectors commonly issued to personnel as a for CBR treatment?
|
2 PAM Chloride & Atropine
|
|
What is the primary purpose of IM series dosimeters?
|
Measure and indicate the accumulated dose of X–ray and gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed.
|
|
What are the three types of chemical warfare agents?
|
1. Casualty agents
2. Non-lethal incapacitating agents 3. Harassing agents |
|
What are the three types of nuclear explosions?
|
1. Air burst
2. Surface burst 3. Sub-surface burst |
|
Of the four types of nuclear radiation what two are the most dangerous to personnel?
|
Gamma rays and neutrons
|
|
When at MOPP Level two overboots are?
|
Worn
|
|
Chemical marker signs are...
|
Yellow and Red
|
|
Biological marker signs are...
|
Blue and Red
|
|
What is M-9 paper used to detect?
|
Liquid nerve and blister agents
|
|
What are the three possible colors M-8 paper can turn when it has a positive reading?
|
Red, Yellow and Green
|
|
M-291 and M-295 are used to do what?
|
Decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment and prior to entering the Contamination Control Area.
|
|
The Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG) Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit
Technology (JSLIST) has a wear life of how long in a contaminated environment? |
24 hours
|
|
What are the three types of decontamination?
|
1. Immediate
2. Operational 3. Thorough |
|
What device is used in conjunction with the CP-95 radiac computer indicator and what is its
range? |
DT-60 dosimeter with a range of 10 to 600 Roentgens.
|
|
What does COSAL stand for?
|
Consolidated Shipboard Allowance List
|
|
What does COSBAL stand for?
|
Consolidated Shore Based Allowance List
|
|
Name things that the COSAL/COSBAL provide?
|
• Lists the items required to support the equipment and mission
• List of items to be stocked to support equipment • It specifies all equipment to be onboard your ship |
|
What is the first process in relation to the COSAL?
|
Validating
|
|
Who receives a listing of outstanding requisitions monthly?
|
Department Head
|
|
What is the unit cost for plant property?
|
$100,000+
|
|
What is the minimum unit cost for minor property?
|
$2500
|
|
What four applications are applied to prevent or mitigate workplace hazards?
|
Ventilation
Isolation Substitution Administrative Controls. |
|
What are two types of Ventilation?
|
Local Exhaust Ventilation (LEV) and general or dilution ventilation.
|
|
Define Substitution
|
Reducing the risk of injury or illness by substituting a known hazard (process or material) with a less hazardous process or material.
|
|
What are Administrative Controls with regards to safety?
|
Control method that mitigates hazards through the implementation of effective operating procedures that reduce the exposure of individuals to chemical or physical hazards.
|
|
What training is required for all new employees regardless of their position?
|
Safety Orientation Training
|
|
What are things that should be done to support the launch and retrieval of a small boat?
|
• Inspect all equipment before use
• Conduct an operations and safety briefing • Conduct a boat inspection • Keep non-essential personnel away from the davit area. |
|
Small boats should be fueled when?
|
Day time and while in the water if possible
|
|
Boat crew members must be at least what class swimmer?
|
Class II
|
|
What does the “Rule of Good Seamanship” require?
|
Requires boats to give way to ships and seaplanes.
|
|
Maximum boat capacity should be reduced when?
|
During extreme weather conditions
|
|
What does the acronym “FOD” stand for?
|
Foreign Object Damage
|
|
FOD is any object that may be what?
|
Disturbed by the wind across the deck or rotor wash.
|
|
Personnel should avoid approaching within ____ feet of a helicopter with rotating blades, unless
necessary |
50
|
|
Whenever personnel are required to approach or leave a helicopter with rotating blades they
should do so in a _________ position. |
Crouched
|
|
What type of equipment is considered “ELECTRICAL”?
|
• generators
• electrically powered machinery and mechanisms • power cables • controllers • transformers • associated equipment |
|
What type of equipment is considered “ELECTRONIC”?
|
• radars
• sonars • radios • power amplifiers • antennas • electronic warfare equipment • computers • associated controls and peripherals. |
|
What is considered “portable electrical equipment”?
|
Devices that may be plugged into the ship’s electrical power (outlets).
|
|
What must be done prior to energizing any equipment that has been tagged out?
|
The tag must be properly cleared.
|
|
What are ways to prevent electrical fires?
|
• Keep electric motors clean
• Ensure proper maintenance is performed • Report overheating or arcing electrical equipment • Keep air filters clean • Do not overload circuits |
|
What are symptoms of an electrical shock victim?
|
• Victim possibly very pale or “bluish”
• Pulse is extremely weak or entirely absent • Unconsciousness is complete • Burns are usually present • Victim’s body may become rigid or stiff. |
|
What is the first step that should be attempted during electrical shock victim rescue?
|
Secure power
|
|
Define “preventive maintenance” as it pertains to electronic equipment.
|
Alignment, adjustment, tuning, or testing of operational equipment to ensure performance within published
maintenance requirement card and/or technical manuals/procedures. |
|
Freelance corrective maintenance on energized electronic equipment can be performed with the permission of whom?
|
The Commanding Officer
|
|
What flag is flown during ordnance cargo handling operations?
|
BRAVO
|
|
When eliminating or minimizing hazards through the use of engineering controls is not possible what is the Navy’s policy?
|
That activities provide, use, and maintain PPE when its use is necessary to lessen the likelihood of occupational injuries and/or illnesses.
|
|
What does PPE provide for the user?
|
A last line of defense against hazards.
|
|
What does the acronym PPE stand for?
|
Personnel Protective Equipment
|
|
Define First Aid
|
First Aid is the emergency care and treatment of a sick or injured person before medical services are obtained.
|
|
Initial Assessment
|
• Scene: Determine if scene is safe for you to enter and render aid
• Mechanism of Injury: Can tell you what happened and how bad the injury is, i.e. a person laying in the field, but their car is tied around a tree. • Medical Alert device: Tell you if a person has a pre-existing medical condition, i.e. diabetes. • Number of casualties: Do not get blinded to 1st injured, there could be more and they may be in greater need of your help. |
|
What are the three primary purposes of First Aid?
|
1. To save life
2. Prevent further injury 3. To minimize or prevent infection. |
|
With regards to First Aid what does A.B.C. stand for?
|
• Airway
• Breathing • Circulation |
|
Define shock
|
The failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain blood flowing to the vital organs of the body.
|
|
What is the correct position of a patient being treated for shock?
|
Patient should be placed on his or her back, with legs elevated 6 to 12 inches.
|
|
What are the two types of fractures?
|
Open and Closed
|
|
Splints should be long enough so that they reach the joint _______ and _____ a fracture.
|
above and below
|
|
What are symptoms of a second degree burn?
|
• Affects the first layer of the skin
• Skin blistered and weeping • Pain is moderate to severe |
|
A fracture or separation of the ribs from the breastbone may produce a free-floating segment called a ________?
|
Flail Area or Flail Chest
|
|
T/F?
Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage. |
True
Most injuries to the abdomen require surgery to repair the internal damage. |
|
What are the symptoms of heat stroke?
|
Hot dry skin, constricted pupils, very high body temperature.
|
|
What are the two types of cold injuries?
|
Frostbite and Hypothermia
|
|
What are the symptoms of hypothermia?
|
Shivering
dizziness numbness confusion possible unconsciousness signs of shock frozen extremities |
|
What does line five of a nine line medevac indicate?
|
Number of patients by category
Ambulatory, Litter or Escort |
|
USSOCOM is made up of how many organizations?
|
4
|
|
What does “MARSOC” stand for?
|
U.S.M.C. Forces Special Operations Command
|
|
What date was MARSOC established?
|
24FEB2006
|
|
What does “AFSOC” stand for?
|
AIR FORCE SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
|
|
How many units carry out the AFSOC mission around the globe?
|
11
|
|
How many commands are under NAVSPECWARCOM?
|
7
|
|
What does “USASOC” stand for?
|
U.S. ARMY SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND
|
|
What does CSSD stand for?
|
Combat Service Support Detachment
|
|
What officer is the department head for MCD?
|
Communications Officer
|
|
Naval Special Warfare Group One exercises operational and administrative control over all SEAL Teams located where?
|
West Coast
|
|
What does NSWTG stand for?
|
NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE TASK GROUP
|
|
Where is NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE UNIT ONE located and based at?
|
Agana, Guam
|
|
Where is NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE UNIT TWO located and based at?
|
Stuttgart, Germany
|
|
Where is NAVAL SPECIAL WARFARE UNIT THREE located and based at?
|
Manama, Bahrain
|
|
What type of maintenance is used to discover functional failure?
|
preventative maintenance
|
|
What is the max threshold dollar amount for the purchase card?
|
$3,000
|
|
What does the acronym TOA stand for?
|
Table Of Allowance
|
|
What does TOA outfit the Naval Mobile Construction Battalion with?
|
The capability to perform construction operations under contingency conditions for 90 days 1800 hours) without resupply.
|
|
What does OPTAR stand for?
|
Operating Target
|
|
What form is an alternate form of the DD 1348-6?
|
NAVSUP 1250-2
|
|
What form is known as the financial liability investigation of property loss/survey?
|
DD 200
|
|
What is the primary NSW HF Manpack Radio?
|
AN/PRC-150(C).
|
|
What is the maximum power output of the AN/PRC-150(C)?
|
20 Watts
|
|
What type of batteries do the AN/PRC-150 and the AN/PSC-5D utilize?
|
BA-5590 series
|
|
What manpack radio is primarily used for SATCOM operations?
|
AN/PSC-5D
|
|
What is the frequency range of the AN/PSC-5D manpack radio?
|
30-512 Mhz (Megahertz)
|
|
What frequency hopping modes are the AN/PSC-5D and the AN/PRC-148 capable of?
|
Havequick and SINCGARS
|
|
What is the primary handheld tactical radio used for intra/inter team communications?
|
AN/PRC-148 MBITR (Multi-Band Intra-squad Tactical Radio)
|
|
What is the frequency range of the MBITR radio?
|
30-512 Mhz (Megahertz)
|
|
What is the AN/PRQ-7 (CSEL) utilized for?
|
Handheld survival radio.
|
|
What does CSEL stand for?
|
Combat Survivor/Evader Locater
|
|
What communications system provides base station capabilities for up to 12 UHF/SATCOM circuits and 2 HF circuits?
|
JBS(Joint Base Station) TSC-135 V2D
|
|
Which two deployable communications systems provide the Task Unit with SIPR/NIPR and JWICS connectivity?
|
SDN-TCV (SOF Deployable Node Transit Case Variant) and SDN-Medium.
|
|
Describe the basic capabilities of the SDN-Lite?
|
64K capable INMARSAT terminal that provides SIPR or NIPR and RED and Black phones.
|
|
What deployable communications system provides high-speed receive capability at 23 Mbps (Mega Bytes per Second) for weather, map imagery, intel-data, and UAV Feeds?
|
GBS (Global Broadcast Service)
|
|
What is the AN/PSN-13A (DAGR)?
|
Tactical Handheld GPS Receiver.
|
|
List three methods of alternate communications
|
• Messenger.
• Whistle Signals. • Hand Signals. • Rifle Shots • IR Strobes. |
|
What must be taken into consideration when using Special Signals?
|
Must be predetermined and practiced before used
|
|
What are the steps that Vehicles must go through to be prepared for air or sea movement?
|
Cleaned, Mechanics inspect, Reduce height for aircraft (ROPS), mobile load, weighed and marked for center of balance, staged
|
|
What steps must cargo go through to be prepared for air or sea shipment?
|
Inventoried, palletized, 463L pallet, containerized with proper container (ISO), weighed, marked, staged.
|
|
What is the primary cargo pallet used for air lift?
|
463 L
|
|
How much does the 463 L weigh?
|
290 Lbs
|
|
What is the max load you can put on a 463 L pallet?
|
10,000 Lbs
|
|
What is the size of the 463 L pallet and what are the height requirements?
|
88 inches X 108 inches (84” X 104” useable) max build height is 96 inches
|
|
What color are the side cargo nets for 463 L pallet, and how may do you use per pallet?
|
Green, 2
|
|
What color is the top net of the 463 L pallet, and how many do you use per pallet?
|
Yellow, 1
|
|
What do can you use to secure your pallet for flight if there are no cargo nets available?
|
Use seven 5K Lb Cargo straps, 4 in one direction, three in the other.
|
|
How many pieces of dunnage (4X4) do you put under the 463 L pallet?
|
Three
|
|
What does the acronym TPFDD mean?
|
Time Phased Force Deployment Data
|
|
What does TPFDD do? How is it used?
|
Time Phased Force Deployment Data
It is the information used to plan and execute the movement of personnel and equipment to support OPLANS. It shows the detailed flow of forces by date into the theater, this will include # of passengers, exact debarkation and the amount of gear they are bringing in Short Tons. |
|
What does the Acronym JOPES mean?
|
Joint Operations Planning and Execution System
|
|
How is JOPES used?
|
It is the program used to input a unit’s data for movement. It can also be used as a C2 tool to track units in theater
|
|
What does the Acronym TUCHA Data mean?
|
Type Unit Characteristics Data
|
|
What is TUCHA Data?
|
The Data file for each unit in the military and the units different configurations (i.e. Special Boat Team, SEAL Team, EOD) ** It can be revised annually by commands to reflect changing mission/ organization. This information consists of # of personnel and amount of gear ( size & weight) for that configuration.
|
|
Camp facilities and utilities should be dispersed by how many meters?
|
35
|
|
In a camp the heads should be at least how far from a natural water source?
|
100 yards
|
|
What are the dimension specifications for a camp burn pit?
|
4’X 4’ hole, 4 feet deep per 100 Troops per day.
|
|
The following are considered camp layout essentials:
|
Entry Control Point(s)
Barriers and obstacles Leach fields MWR tent |
|
Camp generators must be:
|
sheltered
grounded contained |
|
What does ROWPU stand for?
|
Reverse Osmosis Water Purification Unit
|
|
ROWPU site selection must be how far upstream of a usable water source?
|
75 ft
|
|
A ROWPU is powered by what?
|
30 KW generator
|
|
A ROWPU can purify how many gallons per hour of soiled water?
|
600
|
|
What publication ensures that weight handling operations are conducted safely?
|
P307
|
|
Which license gives the authority to operate construction equipment?
|
11260/2
|
|
A vehicle not able to perform its intended function should be placed in?
|
Deadline
|
|
__________is used for CESE required only for contingency, emergency, or occasional use and, consequently, have extended periods of non use.
|
Live Storage
|
|
A NSWTG is a provisional NSW task organization that does what?
|
Plans, conducts, and supports SO in support of joint force SOC and/or fleet commanders.
|
|
Who normally commands an NSWTU?
|
A SEAL Lieutenant Commander or senior Lieutenant
from a deployed NSWRON |
|
What does JSOTF stand for?
|
Joint Special Operations Task Force
|
|
A JSOTF is composed of whom?
|
Special operations units from more than one service.
|
|
When is a SEAL team designated as an NSWRON?
|
Six months prior to deployment
|
|
A SEAL Task Unit normally consists of how many SEAL platoons?
|
2
|
|
The 11 meter RHIB can carry:
-1 CRRC -3 crew members -how many SEALs? |
8 SEALS
|
|
The 82ft MK V SOC carries:
-2 CRRCs -16 SEALs -how many CREW MEMBERS? |
5 Crew members
|
|
Define Terrorism
|
"the calculated use of UNLAWFUL VIOLENCE or threat of unlawful violence TO INCULCATE FEAR; intended to COERCE or to INTIMIDATE governments or societies in the PURSUIT of goals that are generally POLITICAL, RELIGIOUS OR IDEOLOGICAL"
|
|
The Elements of a Terrorist Group are:
|
Ideology, Goals, Characteristics, Organization
|
|
Goals of a Terrorist Group:
|
• Recognition
• Elimination of Western influence • Attainment of money or equipment • Freedom of prisoners • Satisfying vengeance |
|
The typical characteristics of Terrorist Groups are:
|
Urban-based, Highly mobile, Well-trained, Covert
|
|
The Cells normally found in well organized Terrorist Groups are:
|
Planning and Preparation
Administration and Logistics Intelligence and Surveillance Operations Combat Cell |
|
What are types of terrorist operations?
|
• Assassination
• Raids or attacks on facilities • Bombing • Hostage taking,Hijacking or skyjacking • Kidnapping • Sabotage • Seizure of important buildings or assets • Arson • Information warfare • Employment of weapons of mass destruction |
|
Terrorist Attack Preparations (in order):
|
1. Target options
2. Selection surveillance 3. Target selection 4. Detailed surveillance 5. Training and preparation 6. Attack |
|
Terrorist Threat Levels and definitions:
Low |
No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is nonthreatening.
|
|
Terrorist Threat Levels and definitions:
Moderate |
Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity.
The operating environment favors the host nation / United States. |
|
Terrorist Threat Levels and definitions:
Significant |
An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and their preferred method of operation is to attack personnel;
OR the terrorist group’s preferred method of operation is to execute large casualty producing attacks but has limited operational activity. The operating environment is neutral. |
|
Terrorist Threat Levels and definitions:
High |
An anti-U.S. terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation.
Substantial DOD presence and the operating environment favors the terrorist. |
|
FPCON NORMAL
|
applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
|
|
FPCON ALPHA
|
applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable.
These measures must be capable of being maintained indefinitely. |
|
FPCON BRAVO
|
applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists.
Sustaining these measures for a prolonged period may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities. |
|
FPCON CHARLIE
|
applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely.
Prolonged implementation of these measures may create hardship and affect the activities of the unit and its personnel. |
|
FPCON DELTA
|
applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent.
Normally, this FPCON is declared as a localized condition. These measures are not intended to be sustained for substantial periods. |
|
Used to standardize watch turnover between on-coming and off-going personnel is known as?
|
Guard Mount procedures
|
|
Profuse sweating, nervous muttering, and unseasonable dress are typical indicators of?
|
Suicide bombers
|
|
The four type of questioning used in interview techniques?
|
Neutral, relaxing, control, and symptomatic
|
|
What is your name is an example of what type of question?
|
Neutral
|
|
Are you nervous about something is an example of what type of question?
|
Symptomatic
|
|
Obstacles and Barriers are used to?
|
Disrupt
Channel turn or block the movement of personnel or vehicles |
|
The three priority areas of a vehicle search?
|
1. Trunk/engine compartment
2. interior 3. underneath |
|
Anti-swimmer patrols are designed to?
|
Deter swimmers on or near the surface
|
|
A __________ are small units able to function separately to accomplish the mission.
|
Control Force
|
|
The negotiating team is used for?
|
Assists in hostage situations that may accompany a disturbance.
|
|
What are the three functions of a control force?
|
1. Isolate the area
2. Protect likely targets 3. Exert control |
|
As boat coxswain, you must be familiar with and utilize which guiding principles?
|
International/ Inland Rules of the Road
|
|
Which of the following is not considered a Vessel Restricted in Ability to Maneuver?
|
A ship at anchorage
|
|
While underway you encounter another boat in a head on situation. What is your correct response?
|
Alter course to starboard
|
|
Boat sidelights are what colors?
|
Red to port, green to starboard
|
|
Name three environmental conditions which effect small boat operation?
|
Wind, seas, current
|
|
Cavitation of a propeller occurs due to _______ mixing with water, which can reduce thrust.
|
Air
|
|
Define Mean High/ Low Water
|
Average high/ low water level over 19 yr period
|
|
Spring and Neap tides occur when?
|
During new, first quarter, last quarter and full moon.
|
|
The velocity of current is commonly called?
|
Drift
|
|
The front and rear end of a boat are known as?
|
Bow and stern
|
|
The beam of a vessel is located?
|
Amidships
|
|
The compass error, which results from the offset of true geographic north to magnetic north, is_________?
|
Variation
|
|
Deviation error is caused by?
|
Ship acting as a magnetic
|
|
On a compass rose the inner circle indicates?
|
Magnetic North
|
|
A ship's position is known as a _________?
|
Fix
|
|
Name items required to be onboard a F-470 (CRRC) prior to getting underway.
|
• Anchor and line
• First aid kit • Flare kit • Foot pump and hose • Compass • Paddles •VHF radio |
|
A reaction boat operates in which defensive zone?
|
Threat
|
|
Which boat formation is warranted when there is a suspicion the area is mined?
|
Column
|
|
Who issues fire commands onboard a boat?
|
Coxswain
|
|
Check Fire command means what?
|
gunners cease fire temporarily to check effect
|
|
Weapons Free command indicates...?
|
firing is at gunners discretion
|
|
Who is responsible for the planning and preparation of a convoy?
|
Convoy Commander or Ground Forces Commander(GFC)
|
|
Who render medical treatment and supervise evacuations and casualties.
|
Combat Life Savers and Medics
|
|
Who is responsible for sectors of fire?
|
Crew Served Weapons Operator
|
|
During convoy operations, who is responsible for standard equipment requirements such as:
-food -ammunition -fuel -and water? |
Vehicle Commander
|
|
Who can fill the any position in the convoy when in duress?
|
Security Personnel
|
|
Which vehicle formation allows for greater headlight coverage?
|
Staggered
|
|
________ and ________ vehicle formations limit 3rd party vehicle infiltration.
|
Inverted T & Diamond
|
|
What are the three elements of a strip map?
|
1. check points
2. starting points 3. critical points |
|
During convoy operations what technique is used to physically BLOCK the road from oncoming traffic?
|
Blocking
|
|
____________has the second vehicle take the off ramp to observe the top of an overpass
|
Deliberate high clear
|
|
Who takes control of the steering wheel in the downed driver battle drill?
|
Vehicle Commander
|
|
While performing the In-stride vehicle recovery who hooks up the tow and release straps?
|
Driver/Vehicle Commander
|
|
Who makes the call for a Dismount/Re-mount?
|
Vehicle Commander
|
|
In the blow Thru drill you should?
|
• Speed up
• Signal direction of enemy • Return fire • Move to rally point • Establish 360 degree security • Report • Continue mission |
|
When are Dismount/Re-mount procedures used?
|
when not in contact, but in proximity of persons who may pose a threat.
|
|
Define Hasty Vehicle Recovery
|
the vehicle Commander hooks up the disabled vehicle, steers, brakes and moves to a rally point to set up more stable means of towing.
|
|
In a vehicle, who monitors the 0900-1100 field of fire?
|
Driver
|
|
The Vehicle commanders observations is?
|
1100-1500
|
|
What does CEOI stand for and how is it classified?
|
Communications-Electronics Operating Instructions
It is classified according to the highest classification of its contents |
|
What things are contained in CEOI?
|
• General cryptographic instructions
• Passwords/challenge • General authentication instructions • Effective cryptographic key lists and authentication tables • General communications instructions • Call sign assignments • Frequency assignments |
|
What does JSOI stand for?
|
Joint Signals Operating Instructions
|
|
The __________ section of the SMEAC contains the WHO, WHAT, WHERE, WHEN, WHY.
|
Mission
|
|
The ________ section of the SMEAC contains the Use of Force Actions.
|
Execution
|
|
The _________ section of the SMEAC contains Call Signs.
|
C2 or Command & Signal
|
|
Explain Convoy Troop Leading Procedures in the order of execution.
|
1. Receive the mission.
2. Issue the warning order (WARNO). 3. Make a tentative plan. 4. Initiate movement. 5. Reconnoiter. 6. Complete the plan. 7. Issue the convoy brief. 8. Supervise. |
|
What does SMEAC allude to/ What is it used to plan?
|
Five-Paragraph Order
|
|
A RAVEN Plan is used for?
|
Aircraft
|
|
COA stands for?
|
Course of Action
|
|
What is the primary purpose of a Combat Operations Center (COC)?
|
Provides the battalion commander centralized command and control facilities for all combat, tactical and operational operations conducted under his or her command.
|
|
What are the normal functions of a Combat Operations Center (COC)?
|
• Receiving and recording operational reports from subordinate elements and companies
• Maintaining current plots of the friendly and enemy situations and displaying this information within the COC • Preparing and submitting operational reports to higher headquarters • Providing dedicated communication channels for tactical and operational reporting • Transmitting orders and tactical decisions of the battalion commander to companies subordinate elements, and higher headquarter as required |
|
What is the purpose of the COC Watch Officer?
|
Keeps current on the tactical situation,makes routine decisions, and notifies Operations Officer of incidents of an unusual nature.
|
|
What are some of the factors that must be considered when establishing a COC?
|
• Adequate light must be provided
• Light-proof for night operations • Collocate all situation boards • Use remote equipment for radios • Security post to control access • Communications wiring must not impede foot traffic |
|
How is the terrorist threat level for a particular area determined?
|
By the presence or absence of threat factors.
|
|
What are the four DOD threat level assessment factors?
|
1. Operational Capability
2. Intentions 3. Activity 4. Operating Environment |
|
If you are only a “witness” are you responsible for the proper security and control of CMS?
|
Yes
|
|
Who is/are responsible for training all personnel involved with COMSEC material with regards to its handling and security?
|
The CMS Custodian and alternates.
|
|
Can COMSEC material be stored with non-COMSEC material?
|
No IDW Warrior, it can't
|
|
What does “TPI” stand for?
|
Two person integrity
|
|
What two types of Emergency Destruction are there?
|
Precautionary Destruction & Complete Destruction
|
|
If not using secure voice communications equipment you must assume what?
|
That everything you say when using R/T is being intercepted.
|
|
List three circuit techniques you should use when using voice communications.
|
• Listen before transmitting.
• Speak clearly and slowly. • Use standard pronunciation. • Speak in a moderately strong voice. |
|
What are the two types of tactical circuits?
|
Short and Long range
|
|
Define “administrative circuits”
|
Any voice circuit that is neither tactical nor operational are included in the administrative category.
|
|
What are the two types of circuit nets?
|
Directed and Free
|
|
What type of net requires stations to obtain permission from the Net Control Stations prior to communicating with other stations on the net?
|
Directed
-You have to be DIRECTED to communicate |
|
What are the two types of “Execution Methods”?
|
Delayed and Immediate
|
|
Define high risk training
|
Training that exposes students and instructors to the risk of death or permanent disability if safety precautions are not instituted and adhered to during execution
|
|
What is required for high risk training?
|
An Emergency Action Plan
|
|
What is included in and Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?
|
• Emergency phone numbers
• Radio channels with call signs • Location of emergency equipment • Equipment shut down procedures • Back-up communication • Muster site for non affected students • Procedures to follow in the event of an emergency |
|
What are the three basic features of effective unit training?
|
1. Compatibility
2. Evaluation and Instruction 3. Analysis and Improvement |
|
What are the requirements for effective training?
|
• Dynamic Instruction
• Quality Control • Technical Support • Positive Leadership • Personal Interest • Regular Schedule |
|
What is PB4T?
What is it responsible for? |
Planning Board for Training
-It is responsible for developing the unit training program |
|
The PB4T board is composed of whom?
Who chairs the PB4T? |
• XO (Chairs)
• CMC • Department Heads • Training Officer • 3MC • ESO • Legal Officer • DCA • Medical |
|
What is the long range training plan used for?
|
To inform personnel of training goals and operating schedules.
Provides the framework for developing the short range training plan |
|
What are some examples that would be listed on the long range training program?
|
• Annual employment schedule
• List of all required inspections/certifications • List of all TYCOM required exercises • School and NEC requirements • Lectures and seminars appropriate to each training group |
|
When is the quarterly training schedule given out to the Department Heads?
|
The month prior to that quarter
|
|
How is the monthly training plan developed?
|
using the quarterly training plan as a guide.
Each training group submits a proposed training plan to the cognizant Department Heads |
|
When is the Quarterly Training Plan due to the Department Heads?
|
No later than the last week preceding the upcoming month
|
|
Who approves the quarterly training plan?
|
Department Head
|
|
Who can approve changes to the weekly training plan?
|
Department Head
|
|
What does the JARB Stand for?
|
Joint Acquisition Review Board
|
|
What is a JARB not?
|
funding process
|
|
Name the Supply Classes:
I II III IV V VI VII VIII IX X |
I-Food
II-Clothing/Consumables III-Petroleum/Oils/Lubricants (POL's) IV-Contruction Materials V-Ammo VI-Personal Demands/Hygiene VII-Property book items (signed for) VIII-Medical IX-Repair parts (includes batteries) X-Misc./Non-Mililtary |
|
What is the JFUB?
|
JOINT FACILITIES UTILIZATION BOARD
|
|
A smoke hand grenade fuse safety lever held in place with what?
|
A cotter pin/pull ring
|
|
A smoke hand grenade should be thrown at least how far from all personnel?
|
30 feet
|
|
A smoke hand grenade will produce smoke for how long?
|
50-90 seconds
|
|
An Illumination Ground Signal Kit will produce a __________display at a minimum altitude of _____ft
for minimum of ___seconds. |
An Illumination Ground Signal Kit will produce a
-GREEN STAR display at a minimum altitude of -250FT for minimum of -4.5 seconds. |
|
The 40MM star parachute is fired from what two launchers?
|
M79 & M203
|
|
The 40MM star parachute will provide visual light for about how long while descending?
|
40 seconds
|
|
The max burst height of a 40MM star parachute is how high when fired at an 85 degree angle?
|
550 ft
|
|
What is Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI)?
|
EEFIs identify specific items of information which, if revealed, that is correlated with other information, would degrade the unit disclosing an EEFI.
|
|
What are the EEFI codes?
|
EEFI Codes:
1. Position: Friendly or enemy position, movement or intended movement 2. Capabilities: Friendly or enemy capabilities or limitations: force composition or identity 3. Operations: Friendly or enemy operations, intentions, progress or results 4. Electronic Warfare: Friendly or enemy EW/EMCON intention, progress or results |
|
Nine-Line MEDEVAC Request
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1. Location (grid coordinates)
2. Frequency and Callsign 3. Number of Patients by Precedence A - Urgent B - Urgent Surgical (No longe used) C - Priority D - Routine E - Convenience 4. Special Equipment A - None B - Hoist C - Extraction Equipment D - Ventilator 5. Number of Patients by Type A - Ambulatory B - Litter (E - Escort) 6. Security of Landing Zone N - No Enemy Troops P - Possible Enemy Troops E - Confirmed Enemy Troops X - Engaged with Enemy 7. Marking of Landing Zone A - Panel B - Pyrotechnics signal C - Smoke signals D - None E - Other 8. Patient Nationality A - U.S. Military B - U.S. Civilian C - Non-U.S. Military D - Non-U.S. Civilian E - EPW 9. NBC (Wartime) or Terrain during Peacetime N - Nuclear B - Biological C - Chemical |
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Code of Conduct
Article I |
I am an American, fighting in the forces that guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give up my life in their defense.
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Code of Conduct
Article II |
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
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Code of Conduct
Article III |
If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
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Code of Conduct
Article IV |
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information nor take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.
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Code of Conduct
Article V |
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
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Code of Conduct
Article VI |
I will never forget that I am an American fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America.
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1ST General Orders of a Sentry
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1. To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
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2ND General Orders of a Sentry
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2. To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert, and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing.
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3RD General Orders of a Sentry
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3. To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce
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4TH General Orders of a Sentry
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4. To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guard house than my own.
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5TH General Orders of a Sentry
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5. To quit my post only when properly relieved.
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6TH General Orders of a Sentry
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6. To receive, obey and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the Commanding Officer, Command Duty Officer, Officer of the Deck, and Officers and Petty Officers of the Watch only.
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7TH General Orders of a Sentry
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7. To talk to no one except in the line of duty
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8TH General Orders of a Sentry
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8. To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
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9TH General Orders of a Sentry
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9. To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instructions
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10TH General Orders of a Sentry
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10. To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased
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11TH General Orders of a Sentry
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11. To be especially watchful at night, and, during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post and to allow no one to pass without proper authority
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