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101 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The 3 methods of controlling bleeding are direct pressure,elevation, and pressure points. (True\false)?
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True
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What degree of burns leaves the skin red and blistered causing severe pain?se
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Second degree
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Who advises the CO on all aviation safety matters?
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Aviation safety officer
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What class of mishap results in a total cost of reportable material or property damage of $10000 or more, but less than $200000?
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Class C
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How often does a safety committee meet?
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Monthly
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Describe 2 hazards associated with rf energy.
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Burns & electrical shock
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COMLANTFLT commands which fleet?
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2nd fleet
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Criteria for a command to have a cmc billet is based on what number of personnel assigned to that command?
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250
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The P-3 carries MK-48 and MK-50 torpedoes onboard for ASW. (True/False)?
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False
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How many hydraulic pumps are onboard the P-3?
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3
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At what temperature will the APU warning lights glow and warning horns sound?
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400 Degrees F
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How long will an EEBD last for?
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15 Minutes
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Propeller jet blast area extends____ft behind the aircraft.
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1500
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What does DFW stand for?
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Dedicated Field Work
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What section of the landing gear absorbs shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe structure during takeoff, taxiing, and landing?
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Strut
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What does WST stand for?
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Weapons System Trainer
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The ADB will contain maintenance information for the past ___ flights?
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10
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List the Primary missions of the P-3 Orion
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ASW, ASUW, & MIN
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What condition of flight shall all stations be manned for low ASW, Rigging, or Attack?
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Condition 1
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What type of weapon is a MK20?
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Rockeye CBU
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Each T-56-A-14 Turbo Prop engine will produce what max shaft horse power?
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4600
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How many portable oxygen bottles are onboard a P-3?
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7
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Anytime the bomb bay doors are open and hydraulic power is required, an outside observer____be posted to ensure bomb bay area is clear.
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Shall
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What is the wing span on a P-3 Orion?
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99' 8"
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The P-3 bomb bay consist of a maximum of how many stations for loading weapons?
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8
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HAZMAT stowage locations shall be inspected how often?
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Weekly
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What does MSDS stand for?
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Material Safety Data Sheet
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Who is responsible for all phases of the assigned mission except those aspects of flight safety?
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Mission Commander
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Who maintains an accurate record of present and past positions, fly-to-points, geographical positionsw and transmit reports?
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NAV/COMM
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What doe ISAR stand for?
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Iverse Synthetic Apperture Radar
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What type of missile is an AGM-84E?
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SLAM
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The P-3 Orion may be fueled by center-point pressure fuelling only. (True/False)?
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False
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How many EDC's are onboard the P-3 Orion?
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2
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What control surfadce allows the pilot to neutralize any unbalanced condition that may exist during flight without exerting pressure on the control stick or rudder pedals?
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Trim Tabs
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MIMs contain instructions for "I" and "D" level maintenance and servicing of specific model aircraft. (True/False)
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False
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What program identifies water and foreign contaminants in aircraft fuel systems?
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Fuel Surveillance
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A monthly maintenance plan is prepared and distributed when?
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25th of each month
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What doe NALCOMIS stand for?
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Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System
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What is a single line item requisition document?
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DD 1348
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A condition that exists when materials required to complete a maintenance action are not available or on station is called what?
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AWP
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What is a 13 digit stock number assigned by DLSC to identify an item of material in the supply distribution system?
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NSN
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What does IMRL stand for?
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Individual Material Readiness List
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How many categories of HAZMAT exist?
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6
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What type of warfare is the intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people, animals, crops, or deteriorate suppliers?
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Biological Warfare
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What does NATOPS stand for?
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Naval Aviation Training and Operations Procedures Standardization
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The first character for COMNAVAIRPAC TYCOMs will start with what character?
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N-Z
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What is the DTG for May 23, 1999 at Time 2043 ZULU?
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232043ZMAY99
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What page of your service record would you find enlisted qualification?
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Page 4
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What does EDVR stand for and list 3 things you would find on it?
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Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
1)All enlisted personnel assigned 2)Present manning status 3)Future manning status |
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Who is responsible for the overall production and material support of the department?
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MMCO
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A Turnaround inspection is good for how long, provided no flights or maintenance occurs?
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24 hours
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How long does it take for a radio wave to travel out and return back for one mile?
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12.36 MicroSeconds
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Inbound on glideslope approach to runway 22, what is the aircrafts magnetic heading?
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220 Degrees
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TACAN is the primary navigational aid used by carrier based aircraft? (True/False)
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True
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What is the extreme cold temperature and expansion rate of LOX?
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-297 Degrees F/860 To 1
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F-14 Tomcat is belongs to what community?
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VF
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SH-60B Seahawk belongs to what community?
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HSL
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F/A-18 Hornet belongs to what community?
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VMFA
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MG-53 Sea Stallion belongs to what community?
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HM
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EA-6B Prowler belongs to what community?
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VAQ
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HH-60H Blackhawk belongs to what community?
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HCS
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What type of ship replenishes ammunition weapons, oils/fuels, and cargo?
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AOE
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What type of ship is designed to carry, launch, retrieve, and handle combat aircraft quickly and efficiently?
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CV/CVN
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What does CG (as it pertains to a ship) stand for?
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Guided Missile Cruiser
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What flight control surface will decrease wing lift?
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Spoiler
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AOA stands for?
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Angle of Attack
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How many components are there to a basic hydraulic system?
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5 (TRAPS)
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State the safety precaution used when servicing aircraft tires?
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Always approach from fore and aft. Deflate tires before removing from aircraft.
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What type of aircraft uses a turbo fan engine system?
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S-3B Viking
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What type of aircraft uses a turbo shaft engine system?
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HH-60H Blackhawk
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The 5 basic parts of a jet engine are the intake, compressor, combustion, turbine, and exhaust. (True/False)
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True
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What is the flash point and flame spread rate of JP-5?
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140 Degrees F/100 ft. per minute
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What instrument shows height of the aircraft above seal level?
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Altimeter
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What does IFF stand for?
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Identification Friend or Foe
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What force tends to hold an aircraft back?
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Drag
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What force of gravity acts downward on the aircraft and everything on it?
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Weight
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What type of wind warning is put into effect for harbors, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34-47 KNOTS?
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Gale warning
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What primary movement is produced on the longitudinal axis?
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Roll
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What primary movement is produced on the longitudinal axis?
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Roll
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What axis runs form top to bottom of an aircraft?
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Vertical
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Pitch is produced on what axis of an aircraft?
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Lateral
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YAW is produced by what primary flight control?
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Rudder
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Collective Pitch on a HELO will produce what?
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Vertical Movement
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What are the 3 levels of war?
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Tactical, Strategic, and Operational
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What naval battle was the first in which two fleets never saw each other and the battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carrier?
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Battle or Coral Sea
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What was the name of the first aircraft carrier?
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USS Langley
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What was the first jet powered naval aircraft and on what aircraft carrier did it make the first carrier landing?
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FJ-1 Furry/USS Boxer
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What is the rating for Aviation Electrician's Mate?
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AE
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What rate is Aerographer's Mate?
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AG
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What rate is Boatswain's Mate Handler?
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ABH
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What rate is Air Traffic Controller?
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AC
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What rate is Aviation Support Equipment Technician?
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AS
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What rate is Aircrew Survival Equipmentman?
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PR
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What type of motion pertains to the rate of movement or motion ina given amount of time?
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Speed
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What law of motion states that for every action there is an equal or opposite reaction?
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Newton's Third Law
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How many people are required for towing an aircraft?
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6
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What is the normal operating pressure of the hydraulic system?
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2960-3200PSI
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auxilium, -i (n.)
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help, aid
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What is the frequency range for VHF?
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30-300MHZ
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Define the term CCC.
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Command, Control, & Communication
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What are the seven steps in the CRM process?
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1)Decision Making
2)Assertiveness 3)Mission Analysis 4)Communication 5)Leadership 6)Adaptability/Flexibility 7)Situational Awareness |
