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601 Cards in this Set

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102 State the three objectives of first aid.
Save lives, prevent further injury, and prevent infection.
102 State the three methods of controlling bleeding.
Direct pressure, elevation, and pressure point. (TOURNIQUET AS LAST RESORT)
102 Identify an example of a pressure point.
Anywhere the body can bend. Total of 22.
102 Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock.
Symptoms - pale skin, weak pulse. Treatments - lay down flat, elevate feet 6 to 12 inches.
102 Describe the three classifications of burns.
1st, 2nd, and 3rd. 1st is most painful.
102 State the symptoms and treatment for heat exhaustion.
Symptoms - cool, wet skin, dialated pupils. Treatment - place wet cloth on head.
102 State the symptoms and treatment for heat stroke.
Symptoms - hot, dry skin. weak, rapid pulse. Treatment - put body in cold water.
102 Difference between open and closed fracture.
Open - bone sticks out. (compound). Closed - bone doesnt stick out. (simple).
102 Describe personnel rescue as related to electric shock.
Dont touch victim, use something non conductive to secure source.
102 Describe treatment as related to electric shock.
Administer artificial ventilation immediately.
102 Describe the methods for clearing an obstructed airway.
Ask permission first. Administer heimlich maneuver. If bigger, slump over a chair.
102 Describe the effects of hypothermia.
General freezing of the entire body.
102 Describe the effects of superficial frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in upper skin layer.
102 Describe the effects of deep frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the deeper ttissue.
103 Describe the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program.
To preserve human and material resources.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Commanding Officer.
Ensure that all personnel know all safety precautions and procedures. Issues safety precautions as necessary.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Aviation Safety Officer.
Advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Ground Safety Officer.
Advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters including the maintenance of mishap statistics.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Department Head.
Ensures all safety precautions are strictly observed by all persons in the department.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Division Officer.
Ensures all personnel comply with all safety instructions.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of the Safety Petty Officer.
Central point for all safety related matters or concerns.
103 Explain the safety responsibilities of All Hands.
To familiarize themselves with the command safety program.
103 Define the 4 classes of mishap.
Class A - (worst) Damage that exceeds $1 million. Class B - 200,000 to 1 million. Class C - 10,000 to 200,000. Class D - (minimal) 10,000 or less.
103 State the objective of the Aviation Gas Free Engineering Program.
To ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems.
103 Explain the hazards associated with Radio Frequency (RF) energy.
Can burn you. Also can mess up males reproductive system.
103 State the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control Program.
To design a series of safety factors established when using lasers.
103 Explain the purpose of a safety stand down.
To increase awareness as far as safety and enhance the command safety climate.
103 Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management (ORM).
Tool used to make the best decision in a potentially hazardous situation. 5 steps, IAMIS.
104 Discuss the dual chain of command for operating forces.
Administrative - Organized in a permanent fashion.
Operational - Organized in a task oriented fashion.
104 Unified/ Specified as it relates to the operational chain of command.
Unified - Composed of forces from two or more services. Specified - From one service.
104 Task Force Commander as it relates to the operational chain of command.
Divides fleets into forces, groups, units, and elements.
104 Task Unit Commander as it relates to the operational chain of command.
Task groups can be further subdivided into task units.
104 Secretary of the navy (SECNAV) as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
(Civilian) In charge of the Department of The Navy.
104 Chief of Naval Operations as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
(Military) Responsible to the President and SECNAV on the conduct of war.
104 Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC) as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
CINCPACFLT commands 3rd and 7th fleet. CINCCANTFLT commands 2nd fleet. CINCUSNAVEUR commands 6th fleet.
104 Naval Air Force Commander (Type Commander/Aircraft Controlling Custodian) as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
Directly below the commander in chief.
104 Functional Wing Commander as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
Responsible for the aircraft material readiness, administration, training, and inspection of squadrons under their command.
104 Type Squadron Commander as it relates to the administrative chain of command.
Responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment.
104 What is the role of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)?
Acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO and the chief of naval personnel in all matters pertaining to enlisted personnel.
104 What is the role of the Fleet Master Chief?
Keeps the fleet commander up to date on anything that affects the enlisted crew.
104 What is the role of the Force Master Chief?
Keeps the force group commander up to date with anything that affects the enlisted crew.
104 What is the role of the Command Master Chief (CMC)?
Keeps the CO advised on anything that affects the enlisted crew.
105 State the six areas of naval doctrine.
COWLIP. Command in control. Operations. Warfare. Logistics. Intelligence. Planning.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Reconnaissance/surveillance
Includes the search for, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Antisubmarine
Used to locate and destroy submarines.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Amphibious Assault
Involves the taking of land where the land and sea meet.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Logistics Support
Transports troops, personnel, and cargo.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Search and Rescue
Provides search data and surveillance of an area where a rescue is to take place.
105 How does naval aviation support the following warfare area: Mine Warfare
Locates and destroys enemy mines.
105 What is the condition that led to the formation of the US Navy.
Taxation without representation.
105 What are the qualities that characterize the Navy/ Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies.
Readiness, flexibility, self sustainability, and mobility.
105 State the three levels of war.
SOT. Strategic, Operational, Tactical.
105 Explain how Naval Intelligence Operations support peace time operational decision making.
Intelligence estimates, disseminated in a timely fashion, enhance combat effectiveness.
105 State the mission of Naval Logistics.
To move and sustain forces at great distances and to operate wherever and whenever our national interests is demanded.
105 What is the importance of the Battle of Coral Sea?
Worlds first carrier vs carrier battle. May 7, 1942
105 What is the importance of the Battle of Midway?
Turning point of World War II. June 4-7, 1942
105 What is the importance of Guadalcanal?
Against navy regulations, Sullivan brothers insisted on serving on the same ship. A torpedo hit the ship and they all died. November 12-15, 1942
105 What is the significance of May 8, 1911?
Birthdate of Naval Aviation.
105 State the name of the first aircraft carrier.
USS Langley.
105 What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
FH1 Phantom.
105 Who was the first naval aviator in space?
Alan Shepard. May 5, 1961
106 AB, AC.
Aviation Boatswains Mate, Air Traffic Controller.
106 AD, AE.
Aviation Machinists Mate, Aviation Electricians Mate.
106 AG, AK.
Aerographers Mate, Aviation Storekeeper.
106 AM, AO.
Aviation Structural Mechanic, Aviation Ordnanceman.
106 AS, AT.
Aviation Support Equipment, Aviation Electronics Technician.
106 AW, AZ.
Air Warfare Systems Operator, Aviation Maintenance Administration.
106 PR, PH.
Aircrew Survival Equipmentman, Photographers Mate (MC)
107 Describe inertia.
Willingness of an object to remain at rest or in motion unless acted on by an outside force.
107 Describe acceleration.
(Knots) The rate of change of the speed or velocity of matter with time.
107 Describe Speed,
The rate of movement in a given amount of time.
107 Describe Velocity.
(mph) The quickness or speed of an object in a given time.
107 Newtons first law.
Inertia.
107 Newtons second law.
An object being pushed at a heavier force will travel faster than if being pushed by a lighter force.
107 Newtons third law.
For every action, there is a opposite or equal reaction.
107 Bernoullis principle.
As a fluid passes through a constriction into an opening, the pressure increases and flow decreases.
107 Describe the following weather warnings. Wind warning: small craft, gale, storm.
Small craft - 33 knots or less.
Gale - 34 to 47 knots.
Storm - 48 knots or greater.
107 Describe the following weather warnings. Tropical cyclone: Tropical depression, tropical storm, hurricane/typhoon.
Tropical depression - 33 knots or less.
Tropical storm - 34 to 63 knots.
Hurricane/ typhoon - 64 knots or greater.
107 Describe the following weather warnings. Thunderstorm/ tornado warnings. Thunderstorm, severe thunderstorm, tornado.
Thunderstorm - Within 3 miles of the airfield.
Severe thunderstorm - Wind gusts 50 knots or greater.
Tornado - Sited or detected by RADAR.
107 Describe lift in aerodynamic terms.
Upward direction.
107 Describe weight in aerodynamic terms.
Force of gravity.
107 Describe drag in aerodynamic terms.
Holds the aircraft back.
107 Describe thrust in aerodynamic terms.
Pushes the aircraft forward.
107 Describe longitudinal axis in aerodynamic terms.
Nose to tail. (roll)
107 Describe lateral axis in aerodynamic terms.
Wing to wing. (pitch)
107 Describe vertical axis in aerodynamic terms.
Tip to bottom. (yaw)
107 State the three primary movements of aircraft about the axis.
Pitch - Lateral - Up and down.
Yaw - Vertical - Left and right.
Roll - Longitude - One goes up, the other goes down.
107 Identify the primary flight controls for fixed wing aircraft.
P3 C130. Ailerons provide control along longitudal axis. Elevators provide control along lateral axis. Rudders provide control along vertical axis.
107 Identify the primary flight controls for rotary wing aircraft.
HELO. Collective stick controls used to tilt aircraft.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Flap.
Gives the aircrafft extra lift.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Spoiler.
Used to decrease wing lift.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Speed brakes.
Used for reducing speed of aircraft.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Slats.
Improves lateral control at low speeds.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Horizontal stabilizer.
Provides stability along lateral axis.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Vertical Stabilizer.
Provides stabiility along vertical axis.
107 State the purpose of the following flight control surface: Tail rotor.
Controls the yawning.
107 Explain the term angle of attack.
The angle at which a body, such as a air foil or fuselage, meets a flow of air.
107 Explain the term autorotation.
Using upward force of air to spin propellers.
107 State the components of a basic hydraulic system.
Reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve, actuating unit.
107 Describe and explain the main components of landing gear.
Tires - Provides traction. Wheels - Slows and stops aircraft. Side struts - Lateral strength and support. Shock strut - Absorbs shock. Retracting and extending - Electrically or hydraulically.
107 State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft tires.
Approach tires from fore and aft. Stand off to the side when inflating,
107 State the five basic sections of a jet engine.
Intake, compress, combustion, turbine, exhaust.
107 Describe the following engine system: Turbojet.
Propels the aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.
107 Describe the following engine system: Turboshaft.
Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller.
107 Describe the following engine system: Turboprop.
Converts majority of the gas energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller.
107 Describe the following engine system: Turbofan.
Same as turboprop except a duct enclosed axial flow fan replaces the propeller.
107 State the purpose of an afterburner.
Adds to the thrust of the engine.
107 NATO symbols for JP4, JP5 and JP8 and briefly explain.
JP4 - F40 - Flame speed rate 700 to 800 fpm. JP5 - F44 - Flame speed rate 100 fpm. JP8 - F34 - Flame speed rate 100 fpm. (4 5 8, 40 44 34)
107 What are the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel?
Skin irritation, vapors, blows up.
107 What are the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation?
Nausea, puking, pass out, severe headache.
107 What is the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?
So a aircraft can be self sufficient.
107 Identify the reasons for and methods of Non Destructive Inspection (NDI).
It is the practice of evaluating a part of material without impairing it. Methods include radiographic, ultrasonic, visual, optical, etc.
107 Discuss icing and its effects on the performance of naval aircraft.
Makes it heavier and messes up the aerodynamics. (Thats why there is deicing.)
107 State the purpose of Pilot-static.
Used as a speedometer.
107 State the purpose of Airspeed indicator.
How fast youre going in knots.
107 State the purpose of Altimeters.
How high you are.
107 State the purpose of Rate-of-climb.
Shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing ascending or descending.
107 State the purpose of Attitude indicator.
Shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the Earths horizon.
107 State the purpose of Turn and bank indicator.
Shows the correct execution of a turn or bank.
107 State the purpose of Navigation systems.
Direct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft.
107 State the purpose of Identification Friend or Foe (IFF).
An electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself.
107 State the purpose of Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR).
Radio device used to detect objects at a distance greater than visually possible.
107 State the purpose of Magnetic (standby) compass.
A direct reading magnetic compass that is mounted on the instrument panel.
107 State the purpose of Communication systems.
Used to communicate with moving vehicles like ships and aircrafts.
107 State the purpose of the following armament: Bombs.
Designed to reduce and neutralize the enemies war potential.
107 State the purpose of the following armament: Rockets.
To have more accuracy than a bomb.
107 State the purpose of the following armament: Missiles.
To change direction after being fired.
107 State the purpose of the following armament: Mines.
Underwater explosive made to explode only when a target comes close or into contact.
107 State the purpose of the following armament: Torpedoes.
Self propelled underwater missile used against surface and underwater targets.
107 What is the difference between a circuit breaker and a fuse?
Circuit breaker is resetable (P3s have these). A fuse has to be replaced.
107 Explain Voltage, Current, and Resistance.
Voltage (E) - The driving force behind current. Current (I) - The flow. Resistance (R) - Opposing force. E=IR
108 Define aircraft handling.
Any movement of aircraft or associated equipment.
108 State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals.
Signals used by all branches so there will be no confusion when a pilot is signaling another.
108 State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line and around the aircraft.
Within 50 feet of the aircraft - 5mph. Along runways, taxiways, parking ramps, and work areas - 10mph.
108 State the maximum towing speed of an aircraft.
As fast as the slowest walker.
108 Name the four categories of tie down requirements.
Initial, intermediate, permanent, heavy weather.
108 State the purpose of the emergency shore based recovery equipment.
To stop a aircraft in the shortest distance possible to minimize the chance of injury/damage to the pilot, crew or aircraft.
108 State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier.
Designed to stop aircrafts equipped with a nose wheel but not a tail hook.
108 State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during routine maintenance.
Once the area is assessed, workers will be briefed on the proper PPE for that area.
108 State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during
Cranial, jersey, goggles, sound attenuators, flight deck shoes, flotation gear, survival light, whistle. (8)
108 Identify the safety hazards associated with Intakes.
It can generate an extreme amount of suction.
108 Identify the safety hazards associated with Exhaust (engine and APU).
High temperature and high velocity of the exhaust gases from the tailpipe.
108 Identify the safety hazards associated with Propellers.
Spinning propellers are a hazard. Walk around them at all times.
108 Identify the safety hazards associated with Rotor blades.
Its a hazard to approach or depart rotors while they are being engaged or disengaged.
108 Identify the safety hazards associated with Hot brakes.
Approach the wheel from the fore or aft, never from the side because the explosion will follow the line of the axle.
108 Explain the significance of the Runway numbering system.
Numbered in relation to their magnetic heading.
108 Explain the significance of Threshold markings.
Designates the landing area.
108 Explain the significance of the Airfield lighting system.
Used to provide vision on the airfield when its closed.
108 Explain the significance of Runway/Taxiway marking system.
Provides visual guidance at night.
108 Explain the significance of Arm/dearm areas.
Where ordnance is changed from a safe condition to a state of readiness and vice versa.
108 Explain the significance of the Overrun area.
Deceleration area for aborting or over shooting aircraft.
108 Explain the significance of Parking apron.
Connected to the runways and are required for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft.
108 Explain the purpose of the Wind indicator.
Tells wind directions and velocities to pilots.
108 Explain the purpose of the Airfield rotating beacon.
Identifies the airports location during darkness and daylight hours.
108 Explain the purpose of Tower visual communications.
Serves as a coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower.
108 Explain the purpose of the Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) system.
Determines aircraft position and distance from a TACAN station.
108 Explain the purpose of Crash/rescue.
Rescues personnel from damaged aircraft, clears wreckage and fights fires.
108 Explain the purpose of the Compass calibration pad.
To calibrate the aircraft compass.
108 Explain the purpose of the Liquid Oxygen (LOX) exchange area.
Designated area used for the servicing of aircraft which require LOX.
109 Identify the mission of AV-8 Harrier, F/A-18 Hornet.
Fighter Attack.
109 Identify the mission of F-14 Tomcat, F-5 Tiger II.
Fighter.
109 Identify the mission of C-130 Hercules, C-20 Gulfstream, C-9 Skytrain, C-12 Huron.
Logistics Support.
109 Identify the mission of C-2 Greyhound.
Carrier Logistics Support.
109 Identify the mission of EA-6B Prowler.
Tactical Electronic Warfare.
109 Identify the mission of E-2 Hawkeye.
Airborne Early Warning.
109 Identify the mission of E-6 Mercury.
Fleet Air Reconnaissance.
109 Identify the mission of H-2 Seasprite, SH-60B Seahawk.
Helicopter Antisubmarine light.
109 Identify the mission of H-3 Seaking, SH-60F Oceanhawk, HH-60H Seahawk.
Helicopter Antisubmarine.
109 Identify the mission of H-46 Seaknight, UH-1N Iroquois, AH-1 Cobra.
Helicopter Combat Support.
109 Identify the mission of H-53 Sea Stallion.
Helicopter Mine Countermeasures.
109 Identify the mission of P-3 Orion.
Patrol.
109 Identify the mission of S-3 Viking.
Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare.
109 Identify the mission of TA-4 Sky Hawk, T-2 Buckeye, T-45 Goshawk, T-34 Mentor, T-44 Pegasus.
Training.
109 State the primary mission of HC.
Sea-air rescue, mail delivery, personal transfer.
109 State the primary mission of HCS.
Provides deployable combat rescue detachments.
109 State the primary mission of HM.
Does aerial mine hunting and minesweeping.
109 State the primary mission of HS and HSL.
HS - search and rescue, logistics, carrier based antisubmarine warfare.
HSL - search and rescue, logistics.
109 State the primary mission of HT.
Basic and advanced traiining.
109 State the primary mission of VAQ.
Exploits and decieves enemy electromagnetic systems.
109 State the primary mission of VAW.
Provides early warning against weather, missiles, aircraft.
109 State the primary mission of VC.
Performs utility and air service duties.
109 State the primary mission of VF.
Used against aircraft and ground installations.
109 State the primary mission of VFA.
Fighter and attack missions.
109 State the primary mission of VMFA.
Same as VFA but for marines.
109 State the primary mission of VP.
Anti submarine/surface warfare, reconnaisance, mining.
109 State the primary mission of VQ.
Electronic warfare support.
109 State the primary mission of VR.
Transports personnel and supplies.
109 State the primary mission of VRC.
Same as VR. Also carrier onboard delivery aircraft.
109 State the primary mission of VS.
Surface search and sea control.
109 State the primary mission of VT.
Basic and advanced training.
109 State the primary mission of VX/VXE.
VX - Evaluates operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment.
VXE - Supports operation deep freeze.
110 Aviation capable ship acronyms: AE, AD, AFS, AS.
AE- Ammunition Ship.
AD - Destroyer Tender.
AFS - Combat Storage Ship.
AS - Submarine Tender.
110 Aviation capable ship acronyms: AO/AOE, CG, CV/CVN, DD/DDG.
AO/AOE - Oilers/ Oiler and Ammunition Support Ships.
CG - Guided Missile Cruiser.
CV/CVN - Carrier (Powered by boiler)/ Nuclear Powered Carrier (Powered by nuclear).
DD/DDG - Destroyer/ Guided Missile Destroyer.
110 Aviation capable ship acronyms: FFG, LCC, LHA, LHD.
FFG - Guided Missile Frigate.
LCC - Amphibious Command Ship.
LHA - Amphibious Assault Ship.
LHD - Amphibious Warfare Ship.
110 Aviation capable ship acronyms: LPD, LPH, LSD, MCS.
LPD - Amphibious Transport Dock.
LPH - Amphibious Assault Ship.
LSD - Dock Landing Ship.
MCS - Mine Countermeasures Support Ship.
111 Non aviation capable ship acronyms: ATF, ARS, ASR.
ATF - Fleet Ocean Tugs.
ARS - Rescue and Salvage Ship.
ASR - Submarine Rescue Ship.
111 Non aviation capable ship acronyms: AR, MCM, MHC.
AR - Repair Ship.
MCM - Mine Countermeasure Ship.
MHC - Coastal Mine Hunters.
111 Non aviation capable ship acronyms: PC, SSBN, SSN.
PC - Patrol Craft (SEALS).
SSBN - Ballistic Missile Submarine (Nuclear Propulsion).
SSN - Submarine (Nuclear Propulsion).
112 Explain chemical warfare.
Intentional use of chemical agents to cause harm on a person or object.
112 Explain biological warfare.
Intentional use of living organisms to destroy or disable other living organisms, crops, etc.
112 Explain radiological warfare.
Deliberate use of radiological weapons to cause injury or death.
112 Describe the purpose of the MCU-2/P protective mask.
Protects face.
112 Describe the purpose of the chemical protective overgarment.
Provides limited protection against some contaminants and does not stop penetration of liquid agents.
112 Describe the purpose of wet weather clothing.
Protects skin.
112 Describe the purpose of Atropine/2 Pam chloride (Oxime) autoinjector.
Used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties.
112 Describe the purpose of the IM-143 pocket dosimeter.
Measures exposure to radiation over a period of time. (Self reading)
112 Describe the purpose of the DT-60 personnel dosimeter.
Determines the total amount of gamma radiation that a wearer has been exposed to. (NOT self reading)
112 List the four types of chemical casualty agents and their physical symptoms.
Choking - Dryness of throat.
Blister - Skin redness, itching, blisters.
Blood - Breathing deeply, violent contractions, heart can stop.
Nerve - Pupils contract, chest tightness, deep breathing.
112 Describe the following type of nuclear explosion: high altitude air burst.
Air burst that detonates at an altitude above 100,000 feet.
112 Describe the following type of nuclear explosion: air burst.
A intensely hot fireball that does not touch the Earth.
112 Describe the following type of nuclear explosion: surface burst.
Worst fallout. Fireball touches the ground.
112 Describe the following type of nuclear explosion: shallow underwater burst.
Smaller than a air burst and is normally not visible. Expels steam, gas and debris with great force.
112 Describe the following type of nuclear explosion: deep underwater burst.
Like shallow but impact is absorbed under water.
112 Describe the effect of the following nuclear explosion: blast.
Causes primary and secondary injuries. Primary is direct action of the air shock wave to the body. Secondary is like a building falling or debris hitting you.
112 Describe the effect of the following nuclear explosion: flash burns/blindness.
Primary - Direct result of thermal radiation. Secondary - Result of fires caused by explosion.
112 Describe the effect of the following nuclear explosion: radiation.
Effects the inside of the body such as making it impossible to have kids.
112 Describe the effect of the following nuclear explosion: Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP).
Can cause permanent damage to electrical equipment.
112 Describe the effect of the following nuclear explosion: Blackout.
Loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack.
Define/discuss Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP).
4 levels. Defines the amount of protective CBR to wear at what time. 1 - Gas masks issued. 2 - Gas masks carried. 3 - Don chemical protective overgarment. 4 - Don gas mask, gloves and secure hood.
113 What is the purpose of the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Program.
Its a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and reducing aircraft mishaps.
113 Explain general aircraft prestart precautions.
A - Set parking brakes. B - Install intake screens. C - Inspect intakes and surrounding ground. D - Tie down plane if stationary. E - Have personnel with fire fighting gear readily available when engine is started.
113 State the meaning of warning as applied to NATOPS.
Condition that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed.
113 State the meaning of caution as applied to NATOPS.
Condition that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed.
113 State the meaning of note as applied to NATOPS.
Condition that must be emphasized.
113 State the meaning of shall as applied to NATOPS.
A procedure that is mandatory.
113 State the meaning of should as applied to NATOPS.
A procedure that is recommended.
113 State the meaning of may as applied to NATOPS.
A procedure that is optional.
113 State the meaning of will as applied to NATOPS.
Indicates futurity.
113 State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation.
Intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance.
113 State the purpose of the Naval Flight Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS).
The single source document for recording flight data.
113 State the purpose of master flight files.
The only official flight record of naval aircraft.
113 Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs): COMNAVAIRLANT, COMNAVAIRPAC, CNATRA.
Provides aircraft markings to identify a aircraft from another.
COMNAVAIRLANT - A to M and A to Z.
COMNAVAIRPAC - N to Z and A to Z.
CNATRA - A to G and no 2nd character.
114 What are the duties of the CO, XO, and CMC.
CO - Responsible for his command and their actions.
XO - Responsible for good order and discipline.
CMC - Enlisted advisor of the command.
114 What are the duties of the Department Head, Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer (CMEO)/ Equal Opportunity Program Specialist (EOPS), and Division Officer.
Department Head - Representative of the CO to his department.
CMEO/ EOPS - Provides equal opportunity training.
Division Officer - Responsible for the duties assigned to the division.
114 What are the duties of the Leading Chief Petty Officer (LCPO)/Leading Petty Officer (LPO), Work Center Supervisor, and Command Career Counselor (CCC).
LCPO assists the DO, LPO assists LCPO and DO.
Work Center Supervisor - Resposible for the personnel under his supervision.
CCC - Runs the career counseling program.
114 What are the duties of the Ombudsman, Financial Specialist, and Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA),
Ombudsman - The link between the command and their families.
Financial Specialist - Provides financial counseling.
DAPA - Advises the approaches to cope with drug and alcohol problems within the command.
114 What are the duties of the Security Manager and the Career Information Program Management (CIPM) Program Manager.
Security Manager - Keeps the CO/XO advised on all matters of security.
CIPM - Acts as divisional career counselor.
114 Discuss the purpose/ general rule for Personnel Counseling.
Should be handled by specialists such as the chaplain, legal, and/or medical officer.
114 Discuss the purpose/ general rule for Performance counseling.
To counsel personnel on a regular basis to let them know how they are doing and where they need to improve.
114 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Types of discharges.
5 Types: Honorable, General (under honorable conditions), Other Than Honorable, Bad Conduct, Dishonorable.
114 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Advancement.
Single most important factor in determining who will be selected for advancement.
114 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Good Conduct Awards.
Given every 3 years. Not awarded to NJPs, court martials, or evalustion marks below 3.0
114 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Eligibility for Reenlistment.
Members with marks under 3.0 will not normally be able to reenlist but decision weighs on the discretion of the CO.
114 Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following: Assignment.
Certain assignments require good evaluations where an overall 3.0 average is required and approval is at the discretion of NMPC.
114 Explain the use of a Naval Message.
The principal means by which commanders communicate.
114 Explain the use of a E-mail.
The method of corresponding electronically by computers.
114 Explain the purpose of the following message component: Date Time Group (DTG).
Expressed in 6 digits. For a message sent out on 31 October 1998 at 0800 zulu time. In DTG, it would be 310800Z OCT 98.
114 Explain the purpose of the following message components: From line, To line, Info line.
From - Originators or drafters PLA.
To - Who the message is going to.
Info - Information purposes, does not need to reply.
114 Explain the purpose of the following message components: Classification/declassification line, Standard Subject Identification Code (SSIC).
C/D - Whether the message is TS, S or C.
SSIC - 4 or 5 digit number that describes the subject.
114 Explain the purpose of the following message components: Subject line, Passing instructions, Reference line.
Subject - Main topic of the message.
Passing - Assists in the automatic internal routing of messages.
Reference - alternative to repeating lengthy reference material.
114 Explain the purpose of the following message components: Amplifying information line, Narrative information line, Text.
Amplifying - Used to amplify or supplement the data text.
Narrative - Used to provide amplifying information that pertains to the data text.
Text - The body of the message.
114 Explain what the following enlisted service record page is and what entry is made: Page 2.
Record of emergency data. Used as a reference for data in case a service member dies.
114 Explain what the following enlisted service record page is and what entry is made: Page 4.
Enlisted Qualification History. A chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and communications.
114 Explain what the following enlisted service record page is and what entry is made: Page 13.
Administrative Remarks. Serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries.
114 State the purpose and discuss the contents of Enlisted Distribution Verification Report (EDVR).
To provide a monthly statement of an activities enlisted personnel. Lists all people assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status. Gives the individuals name, rate, date assigned, NECs, billet assigned to, date reported, PRD, etc.
114 Explain the use of a Report and Disposition of Offense. (NAVPERS Form 1626/7).
Court Memorandum. Page 7 of the enlisted service record. Used to record court martial and NJP which affect pay.
114 Discuss the purpose of the Operational Report (OPREP).
Has the highest precedence. Used to provide immediate notification of any accidental or unauthorized incident involving a possible detoration of a nuclear weapon.
114 Discuss the purpose of Movement Report (MOVEREP).
To account for all ship and command movements.
114 Discuss the purpose of Logistical Requirements (LOGREQ).
Submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of its logistic requirements while visiting that particular port.
114 Discuss the purpose of Status of Requirement and Training Support (SORTS).
Reports the ships status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conduct operations.
114 Discuss the purpose of Situation Report (SITREP).
Submitted when reporting violent crimes, when bomb threats have been evaluated as a hoax, discrimination, suicide, attempted suicide, etc.
115 State the objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP).
To help standardize operations of any naval aviation command. The CNO is in charge.
115 Describe the 5 volumes of the NAMP.
I - Concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and organizational and intermediate level maintenance.
II - Depot level Maintenance.
III - Maintenance Data Systems (MDS).
IV - Aviation 3M data processing requirements.
V - Standard operating procedures.
115 Describe the 3 levels of aviation maintenance.
Organiztaional - Maintenance done on a day by day basis.
Intermediate - Maintenance done by designated activities.
Depot - Maintenance done at specific establishments.
115 What is the responsibility of the Maintenance Officer (MO)?
Responsible for the accomplishment of the department mission.
115 What is the responsibility of the Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)?
Assistant head of the maintenance department.
115 What is the responsibility of the Maintenance Control Officer (MMCO)?
Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department.
115 What is the responsibility of the Material Control Officer?
Responsible to the MMCO for managing the tool control program.
115 State the basic responsibilities of maintenance/production control.
Maintenance - Strives to maintain full mission capable aircraft. Production - Strives to process items recieved in a timely fashion.
115 Responsibility of the maintenance adminstration division.
Provides all administrative functions of the maintenance department.
115 What is the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.
Scheduled - Periodic prescribed inspections.
Unscheduled - Sudden repairs, tests, etc that were not scheduled.
115 Discuss the following inspections: Daily, Turnaround.
Daily - In depth inspection to catch anything that turnaround missed.
Turnaround - Conducted between flights.
115 Discuss the following inspections: Special, Conditional.
Special - Inspection with a prescribed interval.
Conditional - Inspection done under unscheduled conditions.
115 Discuss the following inspections: Phase, Acceptance.
Phase - Divides scheduled requirements into smaller intervals.
Acceptance - Perfomed when getting a new aircraft or one is returned.
115 Discuss the following inspections: Transfer, Aircraft Service Period Adjustment (ASPA).
Transfer - Performed when aircraft or support equipment is being transferred.
ASPA - Depot level evaluation of the aircrafts general condition.
115 What is the purpose of the Functional Check Flight (FCF).
To ensure the airframe, powerplant, accessories and equipment are functioning within standards.
115 What is the purpose of the Weight and Balnce Program?
Provides service activities with a standard system.
115 What is the purpose of the aircraft logbook?
To have a record containing the history of the aircraft.
115 Who is authorized to sign aircraft logbook entries?
CO, O/I/D level director of operations, CMD officer,
115 Who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight?
MO, MMCO, or Maintenance Control Officer.
115 Discuss the following Planned Maintenance System (PMS) publication: Maintenance Requirement Cards (MRCs).
Provides instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks.
115 Discuss the following Planned Maintenance System (PMS) publication: Periodic Maintenance Information Cards (PMICs).
Used to identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals.
115 Define the following as applied to aviation maintenance: Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB).
Contains information required for ordering and identifying parts.
115 Define the following as applied to aviation maintenance: Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs).
Identifies each maintenance task to the responsible maintenance level.
115 Discuss the Workcenter Supervisors responsibilities.
To keep maintenance control constantly notified hour by hour.
115 Define the concept of Quality Assurance (QA).
Prevention of the occurence of defects.
115 Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel: Quality Assurance Representative (QAR).
Ensures safety of flight.
115 Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel: Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR).
Mainly temp, but can be permanent fill ins for relief of QARs.
115 Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel: Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI).
Inspects all work in relation to QA.
115 Explain the purpose of the following QA audit: Special.
Evaluates specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs.
115 Explain the purpose of the following QA audit: Quarterly/work center.
Evaluates quarterly, the overall quality performance of each work center.
115 Discuss the two functions of the Central Technical Publication Library (CTPL).
Ensuring manuals are updated and determining the technical manuals required to support the reciept and distribution control of manuals.
115 Discuss a Successful Foreign Object Damage (FOD) Program.
It identifies, corrects, and elimates casual factors which are a command responsibility.
115 State the primary objective of the Tool Control Program.
Reduces the potential for FOD and reduces tool loss.
115 State the purpose of Fuel Surveillance.
To maintain a record of when and which tanks were sampled.
115 State the purpose of Navy Oil Analysis.
Monitors aeronautical equipment without removal.
115 State the purpose of Aviators Breathing Oxygen (ABO) Surveillance.
For all persons in the program to be familiar with the characteristics of ABO, LOX, and the need for quality standards.
115 State the purpose of Hydraulic Contamination Control.
To achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems.
115 State the purpose of Tire and Wheel Maintenance.
To train personnel on the hazards of handling tires/wheels.
115 State the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP).
A training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians.
115 Explain the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP).
Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
115 Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge (ESD) program.
It transfers electrostatic charge between objects at different potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field.
116 What is the function of the NAMP in relation to NALCOMIS?
To improve mission capability to satisfy DOD program requirements.
116 What functional requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activitys NALCOMIS?
Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Maintenance.
Collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Flight.
Collects and processes flight related data.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Logs/records.
Maintains profiles for engines/aircraft and Aesr records.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Personnel.
Used to monitor qualifications.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Assets.
Processes inventory and inspection criteria.
116 Describe the purpose of the following NALCOMIS subsystem: Data analysis.
Approves or Disapproves MAFs and NAVFLIRS for upline submission.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Reports.
Selects and produces various reports.
116 Describe the purpose of the following organizational NALCOMIS subsystem: Ad hoc query.
Creates user specific needed or requested reports.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Maintenance activity.
Allows maintenance personnel to document maintenance actions, order parts, and request inquiries.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Configuration status accounting,
Contains 3 sections: aircraft engines, support equipment, and technical directives.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Personnel management.
Contains info on assigned military and civilian personnel.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Asset management.
Contains the functions required to maintain inventory and utilization data.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Material requirement processing,
Covers material requirements generated by maintenance customers at the O and I level.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: System support.
Permits the user to see a list of the on screen messages that are awaiting action.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Data off/on load.
Used to generate files and documents for it.
116 Describe the purpose of the following intermediate NALCOMIS subsystem: Technical publications.
Provides an automated technical library tracking system.
116 Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form (MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.
Used to document maintenance action and related items.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Work Unit Code (WUC).
Identifies the system or subsystem being worked on.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Job Control Number (JCN).
Used for maintenance date reporting and maintenance control procedures.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Maintenance Action Form (MAF) Control Number (MCN).
Same as JCN, except 7 alpha/numeric code.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Discrepancy block.
A description of a reported discrepancy.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Corrective action block.
A description of the corrective action taken on a discrepancy.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: When Discovered (W/D) code.
Indicates when the need for maintenance was discovered.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code.
Identifies the type of equipment being worked on.
116 Explain the following on a MAF: Type Maintenance (T/M) code.
Used to describe the type of work being performed.
116 Discuss security considerations in reference to NALCOMIS log in and password.
A) Protect it. B) Dont share, loan, or write down. C) Protect from unauthorized viewing. D) Log off. E) Know who the security personnel are.
117 State the function and responsibilities of material control.
To provide material support.
117 Discuss the following Operating Target (OPTAR) funding: Flight Operations Fund (OFC-01), Aviation Fleet Maintenance (AFM) Fund.
FOF - Covers things not in direct support of maintenance.
AFM - Covers supplies and services in direct support of maintenance.
205 What is the squadron mission statement?
To provide maritime patrol sevices to the fleet in support of national interests.
205 State the commands opertional chain of command.
CO - CDR Bradley Rosen.
XO - CDR Molly Boron.
CMC - MC Kirby.
205 Define the term ASU.
Anti Surface Warfare - The destruction or neutralization of enemy surface combatants and merchant ships.
205 What is the role of the P3 on an ASU mission.
To effectively conduct OTH-Targeting and a coordinated strike with dissimilar OTH strike platforms.
205 What are the sensors employed by a P-3 on an ASU mission.
RADAR, IFF, ESM, IRDS, SASP, AVX or visual.
205 What weapons are employed by a P-3 on an ASU mission?
Harpoon, bombs, and maverick.
205 Define the term ASW.
Anti Submarine Warfare - To effectively conduct an assigned area to detect, localize, track and attack a diesel/nuclear submarine.
205 What sensors are employed by a P-3 on an ASW mission?
SASP, ESM, IRDS, MAD, IFF, and RADAR.
205 What weapons are employed by a P-3 on an ASW mission?
MK-46/MK-50 Torpedoes.
205 Define the term CCC.
Command Control and Communication. Ensures the coordination of all warfare efforts.
205 What is the role of the P-3 on a CCC mission?
To conduct a search of an assigned area for surface targets, fire control, and tracking radars.
205 What are the sensors employed by a P-3 on a CCC mission?
RADAR, ESM, IFF and IRDS.
205 Define the term EW.
Electronic Warfare - Ensures the effective use of the electromagnetic spectrum by friendly forces.
205 What is the role of the P-3 on an EW mission?
To conduct passive/active detection of surface/airborne/land targets.
205 What sensors are employed by a P-3 on an EW mission?
RADAR, IFF, ESM and IRDS.
205 Define the term INTEL.
Intelligence - The assessment and management of information.
205 What is the role of a P-3 on an INTEL mission?
To collect, analyze and record pertinent data about enemy forces.
205 What sensors are employed by the P-3 on an INTEL mission?
Electro-optics, RADAR, IFF, ESM, IRDS and SASP.
205 Define the term MIW.
Mine Warfare - The use of mine and mine countermeasures to control sea or harbor areas.
205 What is the role of the P-3 on a MIW mission?
To effectively conduct aerial mine lying.
205 What sensors are employed by a P-3 on an MIW mission.
Visual and RADAR.
205 What weapons are employed by a P-3 on an MIW mission?
MK62, 63, 64 (quick kill mines)
MK60 (captor)
205 Define the term MOB.
Mobility - ensures the ability of US forces to deploy at anytime, anywhere.
205 What sensors are employed by a P-3 on an MOB mission?
All systems being available make the P-3 valuable to any deploying forces.
205 Discuss the role of the P-3 on a MOB mission.
Ensures the re supply of combat consumable to combatant forces during operations.
204 Discuss bomb bay weapons stations.
Consists of a maximum of 8 stations for loading weapons.
204 Discuss wing weapons stations: Pylons, Bomb rack.
Pylons - Suspends launchers or bombs from the aircraft wings, fuselage or bomb bay.
Bomb rack - Aircraft bombs, torpedoes, mines, missiles and other stores are suspended internally or externally from pylons by bomb racks.
204 Explain the following search store delivery subsystem: internal launch tubes.
Consists of 3 pressurized tubes for launching sonobuoys.
204 Explain the following search store delivery subsystem: external launch tubes.
Consists of 48 non pressurized tubes for launching sonobuoys.
204 Explain the following search store delivery subsystem: free fall chute.
Consists of a single chute located aft of the 3 PSLTs.
204 Explain the following countermeasure equipment: AN/ALE-29 dispenser module.
Designed to provide protection for the P-3C from missle attacks.
204 What special safety precautions apply to: bomb bay doors operation.
The bomb bay switch should be placed to match the door position before any further action is taken.
204 What special safety precautions apply to: sonobuoy safety switch.
Prior to walking under external SLTs, ensure sono safety switch door is open, roller switch is fully extended, and SONO DISABLED light in cockpit is illuminated.
204 What special safety precautions apply to: countermeasure dispenser.
Safe the MCDs prior to securing power to the MWS to preclude a possible inadvertent command countermeasure signal from dispensing a countermeasure.
203 State the purpose of the following communication equipment: Intercommunication System (ICS).
Provides intercommunication functions for crewmembers.
203 State the purpose of the following communication equipment: Ultra High Frequency (UHF).
UHF-1 control box used for plain voice, cipher voice, and UHF-DF.
UHF-2 control box capable of plain voice, cipher voice, tele-type, data link, sonobuoy command, and lacs.
203 State the purpose of the following communication equipment: Very High Frequency (VHF).
Allows communication with civilian and military agencies, civilian maritime units, and tactical military units.
203 State the purpose of the following communication equipment: High Frequency (HF).
Radios capable of transmitting in the range of 2 to 29.9999 MHz.
203 State the purpose of the following navigation equipment: Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
Provides accurate velocity, attitude, and heading data to a digital data processing system.
203 State the purpose of the following navigation equipment: Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN).
Primary navigation aid for carrier based aircraft.
203 State the purpose of the following navigation equipment: Global Positioning System (GPS).
A all weather positioning system that provides a fixed position readout.
203 State the purpose of the following navigation equipment: Automatic Direction Finder (ADF).
Frequencies between 100 and 1750 KHz.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: On Top Position Indicator (OTPI).
Enables the OTPI reciever to provide bearings to a selected sonobuoy channel.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Tactical computer.
Real time multipurpose digital computer.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Acoustic audio sensors.
Reciever system consisting of 31 fixed tuned recievers that recieves RF inputs from 2 antennas.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR).
Radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Identification Friend or Foe (IFF).
Allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching other naval units.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Magnetic Anomaly Detector (MAD).
Equipment that utilizes the principle that a metallic submarine disturbs the magnetic lines of force of the Earth.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Electronic Support Measures (ESM).
204 Gathers intelligence from the enemies electronic devices and makes the devices ineffective.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Infrared Detection System (IRDS).
Displays targets images in a television type display.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar (ISAR).
Processing System that generates two dimensional images of any selected ship target.
203 State the purpose of the following special mission equipment: AVX-1 Electro-Optical System (EOS).
Provides high resolution photography and video.
203 State the purpose of the following special mission equipment: APG-66 RADAR.
Designed to provide all weather detection of airborne and surface targets.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Aircraft battery.
Provides a reserve source of electricla power for select electrical systems.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Main alternating current (ac) generator.
Four interchangeable brushless generators that supply 120 volt, three phase power at 400 Hz.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Transformer Rectifier.
The heart of the DC power system.
203 State the purpose of the following tactical mission equipment: Supervisory panel.
To provide overvoltage, undervoltage, off frequency, and feeder fault protection to their respective generators.
203 State the purpose of the Multiple Aircraft Electrical Bus system.
To provide power to nonessential equipment.
203 State the purpose of the following aircraft exterior lighting system: Strobe lights.
Provides anti collision warning to other aircraft.
203 State the purpose of the following aircraft exterior lighting system: Wing tip lights.
Used for identifying the heading of approaching aircraft in flight.
Port is red.
Starboard is green.
203 State the purpose of the following aircraft exterior lighting system: Tail lights.
Located on the bottom of the aft fuselage and the top forward section in the MAD boom.
203 State the purpose of the following aircraft exterior lighting system: Landing lights.
Used during take off, approach and landings.
203 State the purpose of the following aircraft exterior lighting system: Taxi lights.
Used during taxiing.
202 Explain the engine: Power section.
Consists of an aerial flow compressor, a combustion chamber, a multi stage turbine, and an exhaust.
202 What is the function of the engine: Torque meter.
Electronically measures the torsional deflection (twist).
202 What is the function of the engine: Reduction Gear system.
Reduces the engine rpm within the range of efficient propeller rpm.
202 What is the function of the Propeller blades.
Provides an efficient and flexible means of converging engines SHP to thrust.
202 What is the function of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).
Makes aircraft self sufficient.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Fuel cells/tanks.
Four integral wing tanks and an auxillary tank carry the fuel supply for the engines.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Vents.
Prevents overpressurization and overflow.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Fuel boost pumps.
The scavenge section routes fuel into a surge box while the boost section pumps fuel from the surge box to the engine driven pump.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Fuel transfer pumps.
Boost section pumps fuel from the fuselage cell to any wing tank.
Scavenge section pumps fuel to the fuselage cell from the bottom of the center section tank.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Explosion suppressant foam.
Installed in the four integral wing tanks. Designed to prevent fuel tank explosions.
202 What is the function of the fuel system: Control panels.
Enables the pressure fueling valves to be checked before fueling begins.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Power Section.
Compromises the combustion section.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Torquemeter.
Primary support structure between the power unit and reduction gear box.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Reduction Gear system.
Reduces the engine rpm within the range of efficient propeller rpm.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Propeller.
Maintains a preselected rpm automatically.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Fuel cells/tanks.
Four integral wing tanks and an auxillary tank carry the fuel supply for the engines.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Vents.
Prevents overpressurization and overflow or siphoning during maneuvering.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Pumps.
Supplies fuel flow for cross feeding.
202 How does the following component achieve the systems function: Control panel.
The control center for fueling and defueling.
202 What is the P-3C total fuel capacity in US gallons.
9,200.
202 How does the ambient air temperature influence the operation of the fuel system?
Temperature and fuel density tolerances causes the fuel weight to change with a constant quantity.
202 How does the fuel system interface with the following: propulsion system.
Each of the four wing tanks can supply fuel to its respective engine.
202 How does the fuel system interface with the following: hydraulic system.
Provides a means of cooling for hydraulic pumps and requires a minimum of 1000 lbs.
202 What safety precautions must be observed during fueling operations?
Allow atleast 3 minutes following refueling before using the dipstick and verify positive fuel tank venting.
201 Explain the fuselage sections: Forward, Midbody, and aft fuselage.
Forward - includes the flight station.
Midbody - The midsection of the aircraft.
Aft fuselage - Includes the tail cone.
201 Explain the wing center section.
Consists of a box type beam which is an assembly of the front and rear spars, top and bottom skin panel, and ribs.
201 Explain the left and right wing outer panel.
Consists of wing flaps, leading and trailing edges, wingtips, ailerons, and engine nacelles.
201 Explain the tail sections: horizontal and vertical stabilizers.
Horizontal - Up and down.
Vertical - Left and right.
Provides stability of the aircraft.
201 Explain the flight control/ surface section: flaps.
Take offs and landings.
201 Explain the flight control/ surface section: Ailerons.
Helps turn plane side to side. (moves opposite)
201 Explain the flight control/ surface section: Rudder.
Pedals used to move aircraft on a vertical axis. (moves same)
201 Explain the flight control/ surface section: Elevators.
Control stick forward - Aircraft climbs.
Control stick aft - Aircraft dives/ descends.
201 Explain the flight control/ surface section: Trim tabs.
Enables pilot to ease through any unbalanced condition.
201 Explain the landing gear: Strut.
Absorbs the shock during take off and landing.
201 Explain the landing gear: Brakes.
Stops the aircraft.
201 Explain the landing gear: Wheels.
Made from magnesium or aluminum alloys. 2 general types (divided and demountable)
201 Explain the hydraulic system: Pumps.
There are 3 electrically driven, variable displacement type hydraulic pumps.
201 Explain the hydraulic system: Reservoirs (2).
1) max - 5.6 US gallons
2) max - 1 gallon
201 Explain the hydraulic system: Booster assemblies.
Allows pilot to have a normal feel of controls without considerable force.
201 Explain the hydraulic system: Actuators.
Transforms hydraulic fluid pressure into mechanical force.
201 Explain the following airframe component: Forward radome.
Serves as support for the hinges, latches, and aligning pin receptacles.
201 Explain the following airframe component: Aft radome.
Used as housing for the aft radar antenna, the MAD equipmenr, and two sensors for the missle warning system.
201 Explain the following airframe component: Bombay.
Transports weapons and cargo.
201 Explain the following Cabin Pressurization system: Engine Driven Compressor (EDC).
One of the ways to get air conditioning.
201 Explain the following Cabin Pressurization system: Cabin exhaust fan.
Air is drawn through the aircraft by the cabin exhaust fan.
201 Explain the following Cabin Pressurization system: Outflow valve.
Depressurize - Open.
Pressurize - Closed.
201 Explain the following Air Conditioning system: Refrigeration turbine.
Cooled by rapid expansion.
201 Explain the following Air Conditioning system: Heat exchanger.
80% of the cooling.
2 heat exchanger fans (primary and secondary)
201 Explain the following High Rate of Discharge (HRD) bottles: engine.
Equipped with 2 indpendent fire extinguishing systems.
201 Explain the following High Rate of Discharge (HRD) bottles: APU.
At a temp of 400 degrees, warning light glows, warning horns sound, and APU shuts down.
201 Explain the one of the two types of oxygen bottles: walkaround.
7-22 minutes at its best. 5-10 if not.
201 Explain the one of the two types of oxygen bottles: Main.
3 (P, CP, FE) Supplies 3 ppl for 3-5 hours at an altitude of 25,000 feet.
201 State the purpose of the aircraft foul weather system.
Enables the aircraft to perform its mission under various weather conditions.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: ice detector.
Indicates if structural icing conditions exist.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: Angle of Attack (AOA) heat.
Prevents ice formation on the AOA probe..
201 Describe the following foul weather system: engine ice control.
Prevents ice formation on the engine air scoop, torque meter shroud, and compressor.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: propeller ice control (prop deice)
As long as the system is operating, continuous heat anti icing is appled to the front spinners.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: wing deice.
Removes ice from the wing leading edges.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: Empennage ice control (EMP deice)
The horizontal and vertical stabilizer leading edges are electrically heated.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: windshield heating.
Prevents icing.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: windshield wipers.
Controlled by the P or CP.
201 Describe the following foul weather system: pitot heat.
The two pitot tubes are anti iced by an integral heating element.
201 Explain the following component: Structure.
Composed of 3 major components: forward, center, aft.
201 Explain the following component: flight control/ surface.
Operated from the flight station through conventional cable systems.
201 Explain the following component: hydraulics.
Operated from independent 3000 psi hydraulic systems No.1 and No.2
201 Define the following terms: Anti icing, Deicing.
Anti icing - Prevents ice formation.
Deicing - Removes ice build up.
201 What are the 3 methods that generate air conditioning?
1 - EDCs.
2 - Air multiplier.
3 - Ambient air.
What type of aviators breathing oxygen is used on P-3 aircraft?
Type I - Gaseous oxygen.
Type II - Liquid oxygen.
107 What is the purpose of the following: aircraft cabin pressurization, air conditioning.
Pressurization - So the aircrew can breathe.
Air conditioning - Avionics cooling.
107 What is the purpose of aircraft oxygen systems?
To keep ppl alive long enough for them to land.
106 What are the corrosion prone areas of the P-3?
Anywhere there is metal on metal contact.
106 Whats the purpose of the Aircraft Automatic Flight Control system?
Autopilot.
106 State the type and model of the P-3C engine.
T56-A-14 turboprop.
106 Whats the purpose of the constant speed propeller?
To maintain a pre selected rpm automatically.
106 What are the P-3 aircraft fueling methods?
1 - Center point pressure fueling (normal fueling method)
2 - Over wing gravity feed.
106 What type of construction is used by the P-3 aircraft?
All metal construction.
106 What type of landing gear is used by the P-3 aircraft?
Fully retractable tricycle.
105 Explain Inter Deployment Training Cycle (IDTC)
The cycle of training between deployments.
105 Explain Operational Readiness Evaluation (ORE)
An evaluation done 45-60 days before a deployment.
105 Explain Tactical Proficiency Course (TPC)
Evaluates crew coordination, tactical awareness, and flight standardization.
105 Explain Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP)
Identifies training deficiencies to enhance technical knowledge levels and improve existing training programs.
105 Explain AW Training Improvement Program (AWTIP)
Written examination used to improve deficiencies.
105 Explain Aircrew Coordination Training (ACT)
Improves mission effectiveness and reduce aircraft mishaps.
105 Explain Weapons System Trainer (WST)
Provides a more realistic operating environment for all crewmembers and further develops crew coordination.
105 What is the difference between crew qual and crew currency?
Qual - Demonstrates the ability to coordinate.
Currency - Ensures proficiency is maintained.
105 What is the purpose of the Squadron Planning Board For Training (PBFT)
To coordinate planning within all departments.
105 State the highest and lowest levels of readiness.
Lowest - T4. Not combat ready.
Highest - T1. Combat ready.
104 What is the purpose of search stores?
SEARCHES FOR and localizes submarine targets.
104 What is the purpose of kill stores?
PROVIDES PROTECTION using torpedoes, mines, bombs, rockets, and guided missles.
104 Define the following acronym as associated with ordnance: AGM.
Air to Ground Missle. P-3 uses 3 types of missles. Harpoon, Maverick, and slam missles.
104 Define the following acronym as associated with ordnance: ATM.
Air Launched Training Missle.
104 Define the following acronym as associated with ordnance: CATM.
Captive Air Training Missle. Has both tactical and training components.
104 What is the purpose of the following: MK 20.
Rockeye. Used against armored vehicles, personnel or small craft. Max - 10.
104 What is the purpose of the following: BDU-45.
572lb practice bomb. Max - 10. MK-82 also used as a practice bomb.
104 What is the purpose of the following: MK 80 series.
Depth Bombs. Used when max effectiveness is desired.
104 What types of air-land mines are utilized by the P-3 aircraft?
MK52 - 8. MK56 - 6. MK62 - 10. MK63 - 8. MK65 - 6.
104 What is the purpose of the following missile: AGM-84 Harpoon.
All weather anti ship attack weapon.
104 What is the purpose of the following missile: AGM-65 Maverick.
Used against fortified ground installation, armored vehicles, and surface combatants.
104 What is the purpose of the following missile: AGM-84E Slam.
Stand off land attack missile. Designed for use against land targets.
104 What types of torpedoes are utilized by the P-3 aircraft?
MK46/54 and MK50.
104 What are the 3 basic types of sonobuoys?
Passive -
Active~
Special Purpose :) <3
104 What is the purpose of a MK 84 Signal Underwater Sound (SUS) device?
Used to communicate with a submerged submarine.
104 What are the 3 types of deployable countermeasures?
Chaff, Flares, Jammers.
104 What is a pyrotechnic device?
Produces bright lights or smoke for signaling.
104 What are the two types of marine location markers?
MK-25 (lasts 10-20 min)
MK-58 (lasts 45-55 min)
104 State the purpose of the following: Bomb rack.
Suspends aircraft bombs, torpedoes, mines, missiles, etc.
104 State the purpose of the following: Pylon.
Suspends launchers or bombs from the aircraft wings, fuselage or bomb bay.
104 State the purpose of the following: LAU-117 missile launcher.
Used to mount the AGM-65F Maverick missle onto the P-3.
104 State the purpose of the following: Sonobuoy Launch Tubes (SLTs)
The 48 tubes located in the aft of the aircraft used to load and launch sonobuoys.
104 State the purpose of the following: Pressurized Sonobuoy Launch Tubes (PSLTs)
Loads and launches sonobuoys through 3 pressurized tubes from inside the aircraft.
103 What are the 7 primary mission areas of Maritime Patrol Aircraft (MPA)?
ASU - Anti Surface Warfare.
ASW - Anti Submarine Warfare.
C2W - Command and Control Warfare.
CCC - Command, Control, Communications.
INT - Intelligence.
MIW - Mine Warfare.
MOB - Mobility.
103 Describe the basic purpose of the following common flights related to aircraft flight proficiency: Instrument training.
So pilots can use instruments for navigation if they cant see from out of the window,
103 Describe the basic purpose of the following common flights related to aircraft flight proficiency: Dedicated Field Work (DFW)
Enhances piloting skills.
103 Describe the basic purpose of the following common flights related to aircraft flight proficiency: NATOPS instrument evaluation.
Administered to pilots and NFOs.
103 Describe the basic purpose of the following common flights related to aircraft flight proficiency: Airways training.
Like roadways in the sky.
103 Describe the basic purpose of the following common flights related to aircrew operational proficiency: crew training, NATOPS evaluation flight.
CTF is like teaching.
NATOPS is like evaluating what was taught.
103 Whats the purpose of a Magnetic Anomaly Detection Compensation (MADCOMP) check.
Confirms the repair of prvious MAD discrepencies and determines the need for MAD compensation.
103 What is condition 5 of the NATOPS conditions of flight?
Take off/landing.
103 What is condition 4 of the NATOPS conditions of flight?
Aircraft inspections.
103 What is condition 3 of the NATOPS conditions of flight?
Equipment inspections.
103 What is condition 2 of the NATOPS conditions of flight?
High altitude ASW, transit, surveillance.
103 What is condition 1 of the NATOPS conditions of flight?
Low altitude ASW, mining, rigging, battle.
102 Define the following acronym: RADAR, SONAR.
Radio Detection and Ranging.
Sound Navigation and ranging.
102 Define the following acronym: IFF.
Identification Friend or Foe.
102 Define the following acronym: ADF.
Automatic Direction Finder.
102 Define the following acronym: TACAN.
Tactical Air Navigation.
102 Define the following acronym: IRDS.
Infrared Detector System.
102 Define the following acronym: MAD.
Magnetic Anomaly Detector.
102 Define the following acronym: ESM.
Electronic Support Measures.
102 Define the following acronym: ISAR, SAR,
Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar.
Synthetic Aperture Radar.
102 What is the importance of the Aircraft Static Dissipation system?
To disperse static electricity away from the aircraft.
102 Whats the purpose of the P-3 Electrical Power Supply system.
To provide AC (Alternating Current) and DC (Direct Current) power.
101 Describe the physical characteristics of a P-3 aircraft.
Wing Span - 99' 8"
Length - 116' 10"
Height - 34' 3"
Weight - 135,000
101 What is the all weather capabilities of the P-3 aircraft?
Anti icing.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Mission Commander, Patrol Plane Commander (PPC)
MC - OIC.
PPC - Most qualified pilot.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Patrol Plane Pilot (PPP), Patrol Plane Copilot (PPCP)
PPP - Most unqualified.
If you have a PPP, you must have a PPCP.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Flight Engineer, Second Flight Engineer.
FE - Brains.
SFE - Backup FE (only required in flights more than 6 hours)
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Tactical Coordinator (TACCO), Navigator/Communication (NAV/COMM) Officer.
TACCO - Employs appropriate procedures to effectively carry out mission.
NAV/COMM - Communications (deals with radars)
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Acoustic Operator, Electronic Warfare Operator.
AO - 182 non acoustic. 3 acoustic.
EWO - Detects/analyzes targets.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Safety of Flight RADAR Operator (SOFRO)
SOFRO - Provides weather, terrain, and aircraft avoidance.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Ordnanceman, Ordnance Qualified Crewmwmber.
O - Acts as visual observer and performs the unloading and loading of the 3 PSLTs and free fall launch procedures. OBTAINS.
OQC - Same as O. ENSURES.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Assistant Ordnance Qualified Crewmwmber.
Assists primary as needed.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: In-Flight Technician (IFT)
Does preflight checks and in flight repairs of all equipment.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Observer.
Performs basic safety of flight duties.
101 Describe the purpose of the following aircrew position: Radio Operator.
Maintain HF communications, transmits emergency messages, maintains radio logs, acts as observer.
101 State the maximum number of ditching stations.
23, but usually 21.
101 State the purpose of engine loiter operations.
Conserves gas.
101 Describe the general arrangement of the P3 aircraft.
Entry on the port side of the fuselage. Flight station entered from the cabin. Folding ladder used for loading and unloading.
101 Discuss the maritime patrol history of your squadron.
Birth - November 1, 1946.
VP62 -> VP16.
Commisioned in 1946.
Transitioned to P-3 in early 60s.
119 Define the following: oily waste, waste oil.
Oily waste - Oil mixed with water.
Waste oil - Oil considered unsuitable for further use.
119 What legislation governs the discharge of oily waste into the ocean?
The clean water act.
119 What actions are required for oil spills within the US contiguous zone?
Notify the correct organizations, take immediate actions to limit the effects, follow up with a naval message.
119 What actions are required for oil spills outside the US contiguous zone?
Take immediate action to limit the effects, notify the appropriate ppl by naval message, implement the applicable response plan.
119 Explain the management requirements for blige water, oil, oily waste, and shipboard pollution abatement.
Minimize oil contamination of blige water. Use mechanical seals and and proper segregation on oily and non oily wastee water.
119 Discuss the oily waste discharge limitations.
If equipped with OCM, discharge less than 15 parts per million oil. Ships must use OWS or BWPT if they have it.
119 What data is found on MSDS?
Describes the chemical , safety and health hazards, safe handling, use and disposal.
119 Discuss Work Center Supervisor responsibilities as they pertain to HMC&M.
Ensure that proper PPE is maintained, used and thtat personnel are trained on the standards.
119 Discuss all hands respnsibilities as they pertain to HMC&M.
Proper use and handling, report spills, properly return or stow material.
119 Discuss proper stowage procedures for HMC&M.
Return surplus material to proper stowage place.
119 Discuss proper marking of HM containers.
Manufactures name, address, and nature of the hazard.
119 Discuss flammable material stowage requirements.
Seperate from oxidizers. Not allowed in machinery areas.
119 Discuss the precautions observed when handling flammables.
Avoid accumulation of vapors and to control sources of ignition.
119 State the location and contents of the oil spill containment kit.
Shovels, gloves, coveralls, buckets, absorbent, and sufficient quantities of containers and labels at the hazardous waste accumulation facility.
119 Describe required task for the following ORM as related to petroleum product evoulution: Identifying hazards.
Conduct a hazard analysis by listing hazards and their causes.
119 Describe required task for the following ORM as related to petroleum product evoulution: Assessing hazards.
Determine the associated degree of risk.
119 Describe required task for the following ORM as related to petroleum product evoulution: Making risk decisions.
Decide if the operation outweighs the risk.
119 Describe required task for the following ORM as related to petroleum product evoulution: Implementing controls.
Use measures to eliminate or reduce the risk of hazards.
119 Describe required task for the following ORM as related to petroleum product evoulution: Supervising.
Conduct follow up evaluations.
118 Define the term HM.
Hazardous Material. Any material that may pose a substantial hazard to the environment or human health when released or spilled.
118 Define the term HW.
Hazardous Waste. Any discarded material (liquid, solid, gas).
118 Define the term HM.
Hazardous Material. Any material that may pose a substantial hazard to the environment or human health when released or spilled.
118 Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.
Inspect weekly and quarterly for tightness, corrosion, leakage, improper labeling, and expired shelf life,
118 Define the term HW.
Hazardous Waste. Any discarded material (liquid, solid, gas).
118 Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.
Inspect weekly and quarterly for tightness, corrosion, leakage, improper labeling, and expired shelf life,
118 State the information contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Technical bulletins containing info about materials like composition, chemical, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe and handling use.
118 State the information contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Technical bulletins containing info about materials like composition, chemical, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe and handling use.
118 What are the six categories of HM?
1 - Flammable or combustible materials.
2, 3, 4 -Toxic, Corrosive, Oxidizing materials.
5 - Aerosol containers.
118 What are the six categories of HM?
1 - Flammable or combustible materials.
2, 3, 4 -Toxic, Corrosive, Oxidizing materials.
5 - Aerosol containers. 6 - Compressed gases.
118 What are the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered? (11)
A) Discovery. B) Notification. C) Initiation of Action. D) Evaluation. E) Containment. F) Damage Control. G) Dispersion of gases/vapors. H) Cleanup and decontamination. I) Disposal. J) Certification for re entry. K) Follow up reports.
118 State the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW.
Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves.
118 Discuss the disposal limitations for the following: Adhesives, Waste oils, paint/paint thinners..
Dispose of onshore.
118 Discuss the disposal limitations for the following: Grease.
Throw overboard if beyond 50 nautical miles.
118 Discuss the disposal limitations for the following: Hydraulic fluid.
Keep synthetic fluids away from other tyoes of fluids.
118 Discuss the disposal limitations for the following: Fuels.
Keep synthetic and petroleum lubricants seperate.
118 Describe required training for all hands for the HM/HW program.
Types, disposal methods, MSDS info, protective measures, emergency procedures.
118 What is the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container?
Use only approved containers and ensure labeling is correct.
118 Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL).
To have a current inventory of HM chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM.
117 Define and explain the following term: ICRL.
Individual Component Repair List: Component Repair Capability.
117 Define and explain the following term: CRIPL.
Consolidated Remain In Place List: Authorized remain in place items.
117 Define and explain the following term: NMCS.
Not Mission Capable Supply: Cannot continue due to supply shortage.
117 Define and explain the following term: PMCS.
Partial Mission Capable Supply: Cannot continue due to supple shortage.
117 Define and explain the following term: NSN.
National Stock Number: 13 digits used to identify an item.
117 Define and explain the following term: NIIN.
National Item Identification Number: Last 9 of NSN.
117 Define and explain the following term: AVDLR.
Aviation Depot Level Repair: Depot level repair.
117 Define and explain the following term: AWP.
Awaiting Parts: Materials required for maint are not available.
117 Define and explain the following term: IMRL.
Individual Material Readiness List: Shows Items required for material readiness.
117 Define and explain the following term: AIR.
Aircraft Inventory Records: Establish accountability for equipment installed or used on aircraft.
117 Define and explain the following term: EXREP.
Expiditious Repair: Processing for repair of repairables or consumables.
117 Define the acronym for MILSTRIP and state its purpose.
Miltary Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedure - Established by DOD to govern requisition and issue material within standard priorities.
117 State the procedures for accomplishing the following action: Ordering parts and materials.
Recieve requirements from w/c, date and time, approve or disapprove indirect material requirements.
117 State the procedures for accomplishing the following action: Reciept and delivery of parts and materials.
Everything is documented on a DD 1340. Date and time recieved as well as w/c signature.
117 State the procedures for accomplishing the following action: Turn in defective components.
Turned in when replacement is requested unless CRIPL.
117 Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists in relation to mission sustainability.
It lists the equipment and material to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition.
117 State the purpose of the following forms and reports: Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200), Missing/Lost/Stolen Report.
DD Form 200 - Used when government property is lost, damaged or destroyed.
Report - Done by completing a DD Form 200.
117 What is a flight packet used for?
Instructions used to obtain material or services that may be necessary for continuation of an extended flight.
117 What is the purpose of Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R codes)?
Provides source for spares, and the levels of maintenance authorized to maintain, repair, or dispose of all equipment.