Comp Exam Review Questions

Front 1

Current density is influenced by

Back 1

Size of electrodes
Distance they are apart

Front 2

Same size electrodes are used. Current density under each will be...

Back 2

the same

Front 3

Unequal size electrodes are used. Current density will be....

Back 3

more concentrated in the smaller electrode

Front 4

Current is more dense in the superficial tissues when the electrodes are...

Back 4

closer to each other

Front 5

Current is more dense in the deeper tissues when the electrodes are...

Back 5

farther apart from each other

Front 6

Standard unit of measure for phase charge

Back 6

Coulomb

Front 7

A PT would like the pt. to extend the involved LE while sitting in the hydrotherapy tank. Which type of tank would NOT allow this?

Back 7

Highboy tank (permits sitting in with water level to chest, hips and knees flexed).

Front 8

Tank used for full body immersion.

Back 8

Hubbard tank

Front 9

Temperature in the Hubbard tank should not exceed

Back 9

100 degrees F

Front 10

Hot packs are stored in water with a temperature between ___ and ____degrees F

Back 10

158-167 F (70-75 C)

Front 11

The handgrip of an axillary crutch should be at the level of the

Back 11

ulnar styloid process

Front 12

How many towel layers should be applied between the skin and the hot pack?

Back 12

6-8

Front 13

Unit used to descrive resistance or electrical impedance.

Back 13

Ohm

Front 14

Unit used to describe the rate of current

Back 14

Ampere

Front 15

3 MHz ultrasound setting is used to treat superficial tissues with a depth of less than

Back 15

2 cms

Front 16

Wheelchair- recommended amount of space between the edge of the seat and the popliteal space

Back 16

2 inches

Front 17

Unit of measure that describes the number of cycles per second when using alternating current

Back 17

Hertz

Front 18

Compression garments- A pressure of ___ to ____ Hg is used to control edema in ambulatory patients

Back 18

30-40 mm Hg

Front 19

Compression garments- A pressure of ___ to ____ mm Hg is used to control scar tissue formation

Back 19

20-30 mm Hg

Front 20

Compression garments- A pressure of ___ to ____ mm Hg is used to prevent DVT in bed bound patients (commonly with off the shelf stockings)

Back 20

16-18 mm Hg

Front 21

Iontophoresis

Negatively charged ion used to treat calcific deposits

Back 21

Acetate

Front 22

Iontophoresis

Positively charged ion used to treat pain and inflammation associated with acute inflammatory conditions

Back 22

Lidocaine

Front 23

Iontophoresis

Positively charged ion used as a muscle relaxant and vasodilator

Back 23

Magnesium

Front 24

Iontophoresis

Positively charged ion used to promote healing, most often with open lesions and ulcerations

Back 24

Zinc

Front 25

Iontophoresis is the process by which ions are introduced into the body through the skin by means of

Back 25

continuous direct current electrical stimulation

Front 26

Mechanical traction- A duration of __ to ___ mins is most often recommended for stretching soft tissue or reducing muscle spasm.

Back 26

20-30

Front 27

Which general rule best determines the length of tx when using ultrasound?

Back 27

5 mins for an area that is 2 times the size of the transducer face

Front 28

Tension in the calcaneofibular ligament contributes to the normal firm end-feel of

Back 28

Dorsiflexion

Front 29

The Lachman test is designed to assess the integrity of the ____________. It is typically performed with the pt. in ______ and the knee flexed _______ degrees.

Back 29

ACL, supine, 20-30 degs

Front 30

Highest spinal cord injury level at which transfers with a sliding board would be feasible

Back 30

C6

Front 31

Special test that requires the pt. to grasp a piece of paper between the thumb and index finger. A + test is indicated by flexion of the terminal phalanx of the thumb, caused by paralysis of the APL. Test is used to assess the integrity of the ulnar nerve.

Back 31

Froment's sign

Front 32

The ___________ reflex is elicited by contact of the ball of the foot with the floor surface when placed into a standing position.

Back 32

positive support

Front 33

The positive support reflex is typically integrated at

Back 33

2-4 months of age

Front 34

The patellar reflex is innervated at the ________ spinal level

Back 34

L3-L4

Front 35

The medial hamstrings reflex is innervated at the ______________ spinal level

Back 35

L5-S1

Front 36

The lateral hamstrings reflex is innervated at the ______________ spinal level

Back 36

S1-S2

Front 37

The Achilles reflex is innervated at the ______________ spinal level

Back 37

S1-S2

Front 38

Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity

Back 38

Ascites

Front 39

What effect could Digitalis be expected to have on a pt.'s ECG? Why?

Back 39

prolonged PR interval due to increased conduction time through the AV node

Front 40

Max volume of gas that can be exhaled after a max inhalation

Back 40

vital capacity

Front 41

Which muscle of respiration is most active during force expiration?

Back 41

Internal intercostals

Front 42

The main purpose of an arterial line is to measure

Back 42

blood pressure

Front 43

The ADA requires that the minimum width of a door is___, and of a hallway _____

Back 43

32 inches

36 inches

Front 44

The max value for a ramp according to the ADA (%)

Back 44

8.3% (1 inch of rise for every 12 inches of run)

Front 45

Temperature information is transmitted through the _________________ system

Back 45

spinothalamic

Front 46

A PaO2 of less than ______ constitutes hypoxemia

Back 46

80 mmHg

Front 47

Most likely graft (autograft) site for ACL reconstruction?

Back 47

semitendinosus and gracilis

Front 48

Height and weight measurements are on what scale?

Back 48

ratio

Front 49

An increased BUN level can be indicative of

Back 49

dehydration
renal failure
heart failure

Front 50

Brown-Sequard's syndrome most commonly occurs from

Back 50

a stab or bullet wound

Front 51

Tube most commonly used for short-term feeding

Back 51

nasogastric

Front 52

Normal pH of the skin

Back 52

3-4

Front 53

Normal pH of the blood

Back 53

7.35-7.45

Front 54

Gower's sign is associated with what disease?

Back 54

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Front 55

Refers to a state of decreased blood volume, most often a decrease in blood plasma. Often occurs following a burn.

Back 55

hypovolemia

Front 56

The Hoover test is often employed as a gross test for

Back 56

malingering

Front 57

Normal duration of the PR interval

Back 57

0.12 to 0.20 secs

Front 58

Defining feature of first degree AV block

Back 58

prolonged PR interval

Front 59

Treatment time for ice massage

Back 59

5-10 mins

Front 60

Hierarchy of evidence (research)

top to bottom

Back 60

Systematic reviews
RCTs
Cohort studies
Case-control studies
Case series, case reports
Editorials, expert opinion

Front 61

Diagnostic test that uses radioactive isotopes to identify bone areas that are hypervascular or have an increased rate of bone mineral turnover

Back 61

bone scan

Front 62

The probability of obtaining a negative test in individuals without the disease

Back 62

specificity

Front 63

The probability of obtaining a positive test in individuals with the disease

Back 63

sensitivity

Front 64

Most common substitution to exaggerate hamstrings length

Back 64

posterior rotation of the pelvis

Front 65

Frequency is significantly ______________ with sensory level stimulation than motor level stimulation

Back 65

greater

Front 66

Instrument that measures the degree of assistance required by an individual on 10 items of mobility and self-care

Back 66

Barthel Index

Front 67

Focuses on patient performance and the degree of assistance required in 6 categories of basic ADL.

Back 67

Katz index of ADL

Front 68

A major disadvantage of using the Katz index in rehabilitation settings is

Back 68

its failure to include an item on ambulation

Front 69

Can be tested by asking a patient to interpret a common proverb or describe similarities/differences between objects

Back 69

abstract ability

Front 70

Can be tested by asking a patient to copy figures of varying sizes and shapes, or drawing a known item

Back 70

constructional ability

Front 71

Can be tested by asking a patient to count from 1 to 25 in increments of 3

Back 71

attention

Front 72

Location of the anatomical snuff box

Back 72

between the tendons of the EPL and the EPB

Front 73

What bone can be palpated inside of the anatomical snuff box?

Back 73

scaphoid bone

Front 74

This type of catheter inserts into the R atrium and permits removal of blood samples, administration of meds and monitoring of central venous pressure.

Back 74

Hickman catheter

Front 75

Monitoring device that is inserted into an artery and attached to an electronic monitoring system; used to measure BP and obtain blood samples

Back 75

arterial line

Front 76

Plastic IV tube used to measure pressure in the R atrium or the superior vena cava (specifically, it measures pressure associated with the filling of the R ventricle)

Back 76

central venous pressure catheter

Front 77

Soft, flexible catheter that is inserted through a vein and into the pulmonary artery. Used to provide continuous measurements of pulmonary artery pressure.

Back 77

Swan-Ganz catheter

Front 78

This 11-question measure assesses 5 areas of cognitive function: orientation, registration, attention/calculation, recall and language.

Back 78

MMSE

Front 79

What is the minimum score necessary to be obtained in the MMSE in order to avoid being classified as cognitively impaired?

Back 79

24

Front 80

A pt. with a properly fitted walker should exhibit ____ to ____ degrees of elbow flexion

Back 80

20-25

Front 81

Reflex seen in males. May be absent with upper/lower motor neuron lesions or spinal injuries at the level of L1-L2.

Back 81

cremasteric reflex

Front 82

The normal degree of toe-out during free-speed walking should be approx.:

Back 82

7 degrees

Front 83

Borg's RPE scale

60% of the heart range corresponds to an RPE of

Back 83

12-13 somewhat hard

Front 84

Borg's RPE scale

70% of the heart range corresponds to and RPE of

Back 84

14-15 between somewhat hard and hard

Front 85

Could a patient with a C6 spinal cord injury be able to drive an adapted van?

Back 85

yes

Front 86

Often the first sensation compromised with peripheral neuropathy

Back 86

vibration sense

Front 87

Pts. with ______ hemisphere damage often are described as cautious, anxious and disorganized. They often have difficulty communicating and processing information in a sequential manner.

Back 87

LEFT

Front 88

Pts. with _______ hemisphere damage often are quick when performing mobility tasks. They are impulsive and tend to overestimate their abilities.

Back 88

RIGHT

Front 89

At what time of the day should compression stockings be applied?

Back 89

In the morning when swelling is minimal, leave on the rest of the day

Front 90

Karvonen's formula for target HR

Back 90

[(HR max - HR rest) x 0.60 and 0.80] + HR rest

Front 91

With a platelet count of _________ or less, the patient is thrombocytopenic. Precautions include restricting chest percussion due to increased risk of bleeding.

Back 91

50,000 ul or less

Front 92

Characterized by flexion of the PIP joint and extension of the MCP and DIP joints.

Back 92

Boutonniere deformity

Front 93

Caused by a rupture of the central tendinous slip of the extensor hood (hand).

Back 93

Boutonniere deformity

Front 94

Hamstrings muscles whose tendons become visible when performing a leg curl

Back 94

Semitendinosus and Biceps femoris

Front 95

Minimum space required to turn 180 degrees in a standard wheelchair

Back 95

60 inches

Front 96

A score of 18 or less in the Braden scale means

Back 96

pt. is deemed at risk for pressure ulcers

Front 97

A score of 16 or less in the Norton Risk assessment scale means

Back 97

pt. is at risk for pressure ulcer

Front 98

What is the critical cut-off score for the Gosnell Pressure Sore Risk Assessment?

Back 98

16

Front 99

To detect an S3 heart sound, it would be best to place the stethoscope at:

Back 99

the 5th mid-clavicular intercostal space on the L

Front 100

With ACL tears swelling is ___________, with meniscal tears it is__________

Back 100

immediate, delayed