• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/502

Click to flip

502 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
State the three objectives of first aid.
Save life, prevent further injury, and prevent infection
State the methods of controlling bleeding.
1. Direct pressure
2. Elevation
3. Pressure points
4. Tourniquet (as a last resort)
Identify an example of a pressure point.
Facial artery.....jaw
Superficial temporal artery.....temple
Subclavian artery.....collar bone
Common carotid artery.......neck
Brachial artery......inner upper arm
Brachial artery......inner elbow
Radial/Ulnar artery.....wrist
Femoral artery.....upper thigh
Iliac artery.....groin
Popliteal artery.....knee
Anterior/posterior tibial artery.....ankle
Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock.
Symptoms include vacant or lackluster eyes, shallow or irregular breathing, cold, pale skin, nausea, and weak or absent pulse. Treatment is to lay the victim down with the feet elevated 6-12 inches. Cover them to maintain body heat.
Describe the three classifications of burns.
First degree - mildest, producing redness, increased warmth, tenderness and mild pain.
Second degree - red and blistered skin; severe pain.
Third degree - destroyed tissue, skin and bone in severe cases. Severe pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed.
State the symptoms and treatment for heat exhaustion.
The skin is cool, moist, and clammy ad the pupils dilated and normal or subnormal body temperature. Usually the victim is sweating profusely. Treatment: Move the victim to a cool or air conditioned area; loosen clothing; apply cool wet cloths to the head, groin, and ankles; fan the victim; do not allow the victim to become chilled; if the victim is conscious, give a solution of one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water and transport to a medical facility.
State the symptoms and treatment for heat stroke.
Symptoms may include hot and/or dry skin, uneven pupil dilation, and a weak, rapid pulse. Treatment: Reduce the heat immediately by dousing the body with cold water. Apply wet, cold towels to the body and move the victim to the coolest possible place. Maintain an open airway. Place the victim on his/her back with shoulders raised slightly. Place cold packs or towels around the victim's shoulders and neck. Place additional cold packs on the ankles and groin area. Use a fan if available. A cold water bath is very helpful.
State the difference between an "open" and "closed" fracture
A "closed" or "simple" fracture is one which is entirely internal, that is, the bone is broken, but there is no break in the skin.
An "open" or "compound" fracture is one in which there is an open wound in the tissue or skin. The bone may be protruding thru the skin.
State the following as applied to electric shock:
personnel rescue
YOU MUST NOT TOUCH THE VICTIM'S BODY, WIRE, OR ANY OTHER OBJECT THAT MAY BE CONDUCTING ELECTRICITY. Look for the switch, first, and turn off the current immediately. If you cannot find the switch, try to remove the wire from the victim with a dry broom, handle, branch, pole, oar, board or other non-conducting object.
State the following as applied to electric shock;
treatment
Administer artificial ventilation immediately after freeing the person from the wire if the electric shock caused breathing to stop. Check the pulse since electric shock may cause the heart to stop. If you feel no pulse start CPR immediately. Get the victim to a medical facility immediately
Describe the methods for clearing an obstructed airway.
Obstruction in the upper airway or throat is often caused by attempting to chew food and talk at the same time. One of the most reliable indications of an airway obstruction is the victim's inability to talk. Other indicators include grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, and the skin turning a bluish color. Your first action upon encountering a victim with this problem is to clear the mouth of any food particles, foreign objects, or loose dentures. If not effective use one of the following methods:
Stand behind the victim and wrap your arms around the victim's waist. Grasp your wrist and place the thumb side of your fist against the victim's abdomen, above the navel and just below the rib cage. Give 4 quick upward thrusts to the victim. (It is recommended 4 thrusts by the American Heart Association and 5 recommended by the American Red Cross). The obstruction should pop out like a cork. If unsuccsssful, repeat until the obstruction is dislodged.

Reclining Abdominal thrusts are used if the victim is laying down. Position yourself for the thrust by either straddling the victim at the hips, straddling one leg, or kneeling at the hips. Place your hands one on top of the other in the area between the lower end of the sternum (breast bone) and the navel, and give 4 quick upward thrusts into the abdomen. (5 thrusts recommended by American Red Cross and 4 thrusts recommended by American Heart Assoc.)
Describe the effects of
hypothermia.
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low or rapidly falling temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. The victim may appear pale and unconscious, and may even be taken for dead. Breathing is slow and shallow, pulse faint or even undetectable. The body tissues feel semi-rigid, and the arms and legs may feel stiff.
Describe the effects of superficial frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Describe the effects of deep frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program
Their primary objective is to preserve human and material resources. The program enhances operational readiness by preserving the resources used in accomplishing the naval aviation mission.
Explain the safety responsibilities of commanding officer.
The CO will require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they are complied with, and that applicable safety precautions are posted. In instances where safety precautions have not been issued, the CO will issue or augment such safety precautions as deemed necessary.
Explain the safety responsibilities of aviation safety officer.
The Aviation Safety Officer is the principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters. He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and management of a Command Aviation Safety Program, maintain appropriate aviation safety records and mishap statistics. He/she will coordinate safety matters among the organization staff.
Explain the safety responsibilities of ground safety officer.
The Ground Safety Officer is the principle advisor to the CO on all ground safety matters. He/she will advise and assist the CO in the establishment and management of a Command Ground Safety Program, maintain appropriate ground safety records and mishap statistics. Additionally, he/she will coordinate safety matters among the organization staff.
Explain the safety responsibilities of department head.
The Department Head coordinates the department's safety program with the unit's Safety Officer and supervise the Department's Division Safety Officer. They ensure that all safety precautions are strictly observed by all persons within the department and all others concerned. He/she will ensure that safety precautions are kept posted and personnel are frequently and thoroughly instructed and drilled.
Explain the safety responsibilities of division officer.
The Division Officer will ensure that personnel comply with all safety instructions. He/she will prepare and submit for publication additional safety instructions deemed necessary for Command safety.
Explain the safety responsibilities of safety petty officer.
The Safety PO will ensure that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions. He/she will be a central point for all safety related matters or concerns within a work center.
Explain the safety responsibilities of all hands.
All personnel will familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions applicable to themselves and their assigned duties. They will comply with established safety standards, and report hazards and mishaps in accordance with their Command Safety Program and OPNAVINST 3750.6.
Explain the functions of the Safety Council/Enlisted Safety Committee.
A Safety Council is formed to set goals, manage assets, and review safety related recommendations. These Councils are formed in activities that are large in number such as an aircraft squadron or air station or larger. A record of meetings is kept. The council will review command plans, policies, procedures, conditions, and instructions for accuracy, content, currency, and responsiveness to corrective recommendations. The ground, aviation, and aeromedical (flight surgeon) safety officers must be standing members of the council. The Enlisted Safety Committee is formed of representatives from each work center and other activities, such as AIMD, Medical, etc. They will meet once a month and discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures.
Discuss how human error contributes to aviation mishaps.
It includes those personnel who may have maintained or repaired equipment or even the worker at the factory where a part was manufactured. Human error involves both physical and mental factors including ergonomics (design of the workplace), physical strength of the individual, physical stress, and mental factors including the person's attitude, behavorial factors, etc.
Discuss how Maintenance and support factors contributes to aviation mishaps.
Maintenance and support factors include improper maintenance, inproper priority assignments on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance. Mishaps may occurr from the way the manufacturer made, assembled, or installed the equipment. Material damage and personnel injury mishaps can result from improperly maintained equipment.
Discuss how administrative and supervisory factors contributes to aviation mishaps.
Reviewing whether regulations and their enforcement by all levels in the chain of command could have contributed to the mishap is essential during a mishap investigation. Mishaps can result from an improper level of supervision or a failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards. They can result from a lack of formal and informal training.
Discuss how material failures or malfunctions contributes to aviation mishaps.
Consider all material failures and malfunctions thoroughly, whether the failures or malfunctions occurred because of faulty design, defective manufacture, or repair. Most mishaps blamed on material failure may really involve maintenance factors or human error.
Discuss how environmental factors contributes to aviation mishaps.
The cause of a mishap may be excessive speed for existing sea conditions or failure to secure for sea. Environmental factors include extreme exposure to heat, cold, vibration, noise, illumination, radiation, or atmospheric contaminants
Define a class "A" mishap.
The resulting total cost of reportable material property damage is $1,000,000 or more; or an injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability
Define a class "B" mishap.
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $200,000 or more, but less than $1,000,000; or an injury or occupational illness results in permanent partial disability; or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
Define a class "C" mishap.
The resulting total cost of reportable material or property damage is $20,000 or more, but less than $200,000; a non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift on which it occurred; or a non-fatal illness or disease that causes loss of time from work or disabilty at any time (lost time case).
State the objective of the Aviation Gas-Free Engineering Program.
The objective of the AVGFE Program is to ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on aeronautical equipment fuel systems. AVGFE requirements are outlined in NA 01-1A-35. An AVGFE technician shall be a QAR or CDQAR and must be a graduate of an AVGFE course. Gas free engineering technical quidance will be provided by the supporting ship, MALS, or station. OMAs not having a sufficient demand for AVFGE and feel an organic technician is impractical, may use the services of the supporting command. IMA AVGFE technicians shall provide support to tenant squadrons not having sufficient demand to maintain their own technician. Insufficient demand is defined as less than 3 GFE requirements in 6 months.
Explain the hazards associated with Radio Frequency (RF) energy.
Radio frequency energy can generate electrical currents and/or voltage large enough to cause life-threatening electric shock, burns, biological changes, and cataracts. Premature or unwanted activation of electro-explosive devices (EED) in ordnance, can cause sparks and arcs which may ignite flammable materials.
State the purpose of the Laser Safety Hazard Control Program.
The program is to design a series of safety factors established when using lasers. These include appointing a Lasar System Safety Officer, establishing safety regulations and standard operating procedures, eyeware, posting warning signs, training, safety surveys, medical surveillance, etc.
State the purpose of a safety stand down.
Safety stand downs are used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of the command safety climate
Discuss the concept of Operational Risk Management (ORM)
Operational Risk Management is a systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available. Its purpose is to increase operational readiness by anticipating hazards and increase the potential for success to gain the competitive advantage in combat. ORM is not just related to naval aviation; it applies across the warfighting spectrum.
Explain the following term as they apply to ORM:
identify hazards
Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps in the operation or operational analysis. Next, conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step in the operational analysis along with possible causes for those hazards.
Explain the following term as they apply to ORM:
assess hazards
For each hazard identified, determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity. Although not required, the use of a matrix may be helpful in assessing hazards.
Explain the following term as they apply to ORM:
make risk decisions
Develop risk control options. Start with the most serious risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk ot a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. With selected controls in place, decide if the benefit of the operation outweighs the risk. If risk outweighs benefit or if assistance is required to implement controls, communicate with higher authority in the chain of command.
Explain the following term as they apply to ORM:
implement controls
The following measures can be used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk. These include: Engineering controls, administrative controls, and personnel protective equipment.
Explain the following term as they apply to ORM:
supervise
Conduct follow-up evaluations of the controls to ensure they remain in place and have the desired effect. Monitor for changes which may require further ORM. Take corrective action when necessary.
Discuss the dual chain of command for operating forces.
An operational chain from the President, through the Secretary of Defense to a commander of a unified or specified command to the assigned operational forces. And an administrative chain through the Secretary of the Navy and the Chief of Naval Operations to the operating forces
Discuss the following as it apply to the operational chain of command:
unified
A unified command is composed of elements of two or more services. It has a broad continuing mission, and has a single commander. The unified commands are:


Joint Forces Command
Transportation Command
Strategic Command
Geographic Commands are as follows:

Northern Command
Southern Command
Central Command
Pacific Command
European Command
Discuss the following as apply to the operational chain of command:
specified
A specified command has a broad continuing mission, but it is composed of forces from one service. They are:
North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD)
Air Mobility Command (AMC)
Discuss the following as it apply to the operational chain of command:
fleet commanders
CINCPACFLT...........Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet; commands all Naval forces in the Pacific theater
CINCLANTFLT..........Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet; commands all Naval forces in the Atlantic theater

CINCUSNAVEUR.........Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces Europe commands all Naval forces in the European theater
Discuss the following as it apply to the operational chain of command:
task force commander
This system, developed during World War II, further divides fleets into forces, groups, units, and elements. Each subdivision has a numbered designation and an appropriate communication call sign. A fleet numbering system is used. The Commander Sixth Fleet, would assign certain numbered task forces. This may include: A striking force, TF 60; an amphibious force, TF 61; a service force, TF 62, etc. Within each task force there may be further subdivisions, called task groups (TG). With this system, the task commander has a task force that is adaptable to any change in size.
Discuss the following as it apply to the operational chain of command:
task unit commander
Task groups may be further subdivided into task units (TU). For example, TG 60.1 (the carrier group), may have a carrier unit designated TU 60.1.1.
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
Currently: Dr. Donald C. Winter as of January 3, 2006

A civilian in charge of the Department of the Navy. SECNAV is responsible for the policies and control of the Department of the Navy, including its organization, administration, operation, and efficiency
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
Currently: Admiral Michael Mullen, USN


The CNO is the senior military officer of the Department of the Navy and outranks all other naval officers (unless a naval officer is serving as chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff). The CNO is the principal advisor to the President and SECNAV on the conduct of war, and he/she is the principal naval advisor and executive of the Secretary of the Navy on conduct of Department of the Navy activities. As the Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the CNO keeps the SECNAV informed on the Joint Chiefs of Staff activities and is responsible to the President and the Secretary of Defense for duties external to the Department of the Navy as prescribed by law. The CNO commands the Chiefs of the Naval Material Command and Bureaus, the operating forces of the Navy, and shore activities as assigned by the SECNAV.
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Fleet Commander in Chief (CINC)
The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CINCPACFLT), commands the Third and Seventh Fleets.
The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CINCLANTFLT), commands the Second Fleet.

The Commander-in-Chief, U.S. Naval Forces, Europe (CINCUSNAVEUR), commands the Sixth Fleet.
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Naval Air Force Commander (Type Commander/Aircraft Controlling Custodian)
The Naval Air Force Commander, U.S. Pacific Fleet (CDRAIRPAC) and Naval Air Force Commander U.S. Atlantic Fleet (CDRSIRLANT), are directly below Commander-in-Chief, Pacific or Atlantic Fleet, in the administrative chain of command. The Commander is usually a Vice Admiral in rank.


Type Commanders are in command of a certain type of squadron. They may be in command of VA, VAW, VS, VR, HS, HC, VX, etc. type commands.
Aircraft Controlling Custodians is the term applied to air commands and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM for exercising administrative control of assignment, employment, and logistics support of certain aircraft and aircraft engines as specified by the CNO. The following ACC's have been designated by CNO: COMANVAIRLANT, COMNAVAIRPAC, CNATRA, COMNAVAIRESFOR, and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Functional Wing Commander
Type Squadron Commanders are responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and support of the naval aviation mission. Additionally, they coordinate the Naval Aviation Maintenance Plan (NAMP) in the operating and training forces.
Discuss the following as it apply to the administrative chain of command:
Type Squadron Commander
Type Squadron Commanders are responsible for the maintenance and material condition of aeronautical equipment assigned to their cognizance for the operation and support of the naval aviation mission. Additionally, they coordinate the Naval Aviation Maintenance Plan (NAMP) in the operating and training forces.
Discuss the role of the following:
Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON)
Currently: Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) (SW/FMF) Joe R. Campa Jr

The MCPON is the Navy's senior enlisted member. Assigned to the office of the CNO for a three-year duty, he or she serves as senior enlisted representative of the Navy and acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO and the Chief of Naval Personnel in all matters pertaining to enlisted personnel.
Discuss the role of the following:
Fleet Master Chief
The Fleet Master Chief serves as the principle enlisted advisor to the Fleet Commander in Chief. He or she keeps the Fleet Commander up-to-date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enliste crew. Presently there are 6 Fleet Master Chiefs. These are: Fleet M/C Pacific Fleet, Atlantic Fleet, Naval Forces Europe, Material Command, Shore Activities, and Naval Education and Training.
Discuss the role of the following:
Force Master Chief
The Force Master Chief serve as principle enlisted advisors to various Force Group Commanders. They keep the Force Group Commanders up-to-date on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enlisted crew. Presently there are 22 Force Master
Discuss the role of the following:
Command Master Chief (CMC)
The criteria for a command to have a CMC is based on the number of personnel assigned to that command. Navy commands with 250 or more personnel assigned are eligible to have a CMC billet. Commands that do not meet this criteria may designate a Master CPO from within the command to serve as a collateral duty CMC. The CMC is the principle advisor on enlisted matters to the Commanding Officer. He or she keeps the CO advised on situations, procedures, and practices that affect the welfare, morale, and well-being of the enlisted crew.
State the six areas of naval doctrine.
1.Naval Warfare, describes the inherent nature and enduring principles of naval forces.
2. Naval Intelligence, points the way for intelligence support in meeting the requirements of both regional conflicts and operations other than war.
3. Naval Operations, develops doctrine to reaffirm the foundation of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps expeditionary maritime traditions.
4. Naval Logistics, addresses the full range of logistical capabilities that are essential in the support of naval forces.
5. Naval Planning, examines force planning and the relationship between our capabilities and operational planning in the joint and multinational environment.
6. Naval Command and Control, provides the basic concepts to fulfill the information needs of commanders, forces, and weapon systems.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Reconnaissance/surveillance
Reconnaissance and surveillance includes the search for and interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy, used in support of military operations and tasks. Certain select commands serve as elements of the Worldwide Airborne Command Post System and provide relay services.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Antisubmarine
Used to locate and destroy submarines.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Amphibious Assault
An amphibious assault involves the taking of an area of land where the land and sea meet. This may include the landing of troops and equipment. Aircraft provide bombardment by missiles, bombs, and other ordnance. Helicopters may be employed to transport troops and their equipment to be moved from the ship to the shore.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Logistics Support
Involves the transport of troops, personnel, and cargo or equipment where needed by the military.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Search and Rescue
Naval aircraft and helicopters may be assigned to search and rescue of downed, stranded, or disabled military personnel either by land or sea. They provide search data and surveillance of an area where the rescue is to take place. Helicopters or aircraft may provide the actual rescue actions required once the member in need is identified. These may include rescue by a rescue swimmer, litter rescue, helicopter hoist, etc.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Mine warfare
The use of ships, aircraft, submarines, and helicopters to locate and destroy enemy mines.
Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the U.S. Navy.
English Parliament passed several tax laws that affected the colonists in a problem known as "taxation without representation". They convened a Continental Congress to discuss these problems. This first congress met in 5 September 1774.
At the meeting, the Congress produced a statement of rights it believed England should grant to the colonists. Then in October of 1774 the statement of rights was presented to the king.
A second Continential Congress convened on 10 May 1775. The colonists appointed George Washington as Commander in Chief of the Continential American army on 15 June 1775. The Continential Congress felt forced to act as the provisional government for the colonies. They issued money, established a postal service, and created a Continential navy.
The U.S. Navy has its birth on 13 October 1775. On this date the Second Continential Congress authorized the purchase of two vessels.
State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies.
Naval forces have been organized for fighting at sea - or from the sea - for more than two thousand years. The qualities that characterize most modern naval forces as political instruments in support of national policies are the same as those that define the essence of our naval Services today. These qualities are readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility. They permit naval forces to be expeditionary - that is, being able to establish and maintain a forward-based, stabilizing presence around the world. Naval expeditionary operations are offensive in nature, mounted by highly trained and well-equipped integrated task forces of the Navy and Marine Corps, organized to accomplish specific objectives. Naval expeditionary forces draw upon their readiness, flexibility, self-sustainability, and mobility to provide the National Command Authorities the tools they need to safeguard such vital national interests as the continued availability of oil from world producers and maintenance of political and economic stability around the globe.
Through these qualities, naval forces reassure allies and friends, deter aggressors, and influence uncommitted and unstable regimes.
State the three levels of war.
There are three levels: tactical, operational, and strategic - each increasingly broader in scope.
The concept of "levels of war" can help us visualize the relative contribution of military objectives toward achieving overall national goals and offer us a way to place in perspective the causes and effects of our specific objectives, planning, and actions.
Although the levels do not have precise boundaries, in general we can say that the tactical level involves the details of individual engagements.
The operational level concerns forces collectively in a theater; and the strategic level focuses on supporting national goals. World War II, for example, a strategic-level and global war, included operational-level combat in the Pacific theater consisting primarily of U.S. led maritime, air, and supporting allied land campaigns. Within each specific campaign were a series of important and often decisive battles.
At the tactical level, each contributed to the achievement of that campaign's objectives. The culmination of these campaign objectives resulted in overall victory in the Pacific theater.
Explain how Naval Intelligence Operations, more than any other service, support peace time operational decision making.
Intelligence is central to the decision making process. Proliferation of technology increases the complexity of joint battlespace information management, and compresses the time cycle for decisionmaking. Space systems rapidly collect and distribute large volumes of information. They also provide services that link widely separated forces and provide an important advantage to naval forces in all areas of the world.
Intelligence estimates, disseminated in a timely fashion, center on the focus of effort, identify critical vulnerabilities, and enhance combat effectiveness.
State the mission of Naval Logistics.
Sustained naval and joint operations are made possible by a logistic support system that has two major components: fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic sustainment assets.
Fleet-based sustainment assets include replenishment ships of the combat logistics force providing direct fleet support, combat service support units, mobile repair facilities, and advanced logistic support hubs.
Strategic sustainment is provided by air and sea assets that are shared by all Services. Successful global response to contingencies depends upon our ability to project and sustain U.S. forces in all theaters of operations.
Integrated support resources in the form of fleet-based sustainment assets and strategic assets provide naval expeditionary forces and joint and multinational forces the ability to operate in peacetime and in war wherever and whenever our national interests demand.
Our ability to move and sustain forces at great distances from our shores is critical to the forward presence component of our military strategy.
State the importance of planning to Naval Operations.
When military action is one of the potential responses to a situation threatening U.S. interests, a plan is prepared using either the joint deliberate-planning process or crisis-action procedures. Although military flexibility demands a capability to conduct short-notice crisis planning when necessary, U.S. military strength is best enhanced by deliberate peacetime analysis, planning, and exercises.
An operation plan is a commander's complete description of a concept of operation. It is based on the commander's preparation of the battlespace, a formal evaluation, supported by intelligence, that integrates enemy doctrine with such factors as physical and environmental conditions.
From this evaluation, the commander identifies the forces and support needed to execute the plan within a theater of operations. Naval forces operation plans are integrated into the complete inventory available to the Joint Force Commander. For execution, plans become operation orders. Operation plans include: the theater strategy or general concept and the organizational relationships; the logistics plan shows ways the force will be supported; and the deployment plan sequences the movement of the force and its logistical support into the theater.
Elements of planning that produce a concept of operations include the commander's estimate, deciding possible courses of action, preparation of the mission statement and it's execution strategy, situation analysis, and formulation of the commander's intent. These elements are applicable up, down, and across chains of command.
Discuss the importance of the following conflict as it relate to naval aviation:
Coral Sea
7-8 May 1942: Thanks to the breaking of the Japanese Navy code, the U.S. was alerted to a large Japanese force moving to the Coral Sea to seize Port Moresby on the southwest coast of New Guinea. It was to be the first step of a planned invasion of Australia.
The Japanese operation centered around three aircraft carriers and dozens of troop transports, but the Americans met them with two carriers of their own. On May 7, the Japanese planes sank two minor ships, while U.S. planes sank an isolated enemy carrier.
The next day, both sides launched all their planes against the other. The aircraft passed each other unseen in the clouds, in the world's first carrier verses carrier battle. One Japanese carrier was damaged. The U.S. carrier Lexington was sunk, and the carrier Yorktown was damaged. After this action, both sides withdrew.
Although a tactical victory, Coral Sea was a strategic set-back for the Japanese who never again threatened Australia.
Discuss the importance of the following conflict as itrelate to naval aviation:
Midway
3-6 June 1942: Midway was the turning point of the Pacific war. The U.S. breaking of the Japanese naval code was again the key element as it had been at Coral Sea a month earlier. A huge Japanese armada of 160 warships was involved, but commander-in-chief Admiral Yamamoto split his force, sending some ships north to the Aleutian Islands in a diversionary attack. The Japanese retained superior numbers approaching Midway which included 4 aircraft carriers and 11 battleships.
At Midway the U.S. had 3 carriers and no battleships. The Americans knew what was coming because of the broken codes, and Admiral Nimitz positioned his 3 carriers, the Hornet, Enterprise, and Yorktown, out of Japanese reconnaissance range.
As the Japanese carriers launched their planes to assault the Midway defenses, the U.S. planes headed for the enemy carriers. It took attack after attack, but finally the U.S. crews got through and sank 3 Japanese carriers. The next day the fourth carrier was sunk. Japanese planes sank the Yorktown.
In one day Japan lost its bid for control of the Pacific.
Discuss the importance of the following conflict as it relate to naval aviation:
Guadalcanal
13-15 November 1942: After three days of bitter fighting, the Japanese naval forces retreated and U.S. Marines were able to secure the island of Guadalcanal. The Japanese lost 2 cruisers and 6 destroyers.
The U.S.S. Juneau was involved in the battle. Navy policy was to place members of the same family on different ships, but the five Sullivan brothers,
from Waterloo, Iowa, insisted on staying together. An exception was made and they all became crewmen onboard the Juneau.
The Juneau was damaged during the battle in a close-range night encounter. As it limped off for repairs, it was torpedoed. The Sullivans along with 700 others were lost.
Because of this tragedy, Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated. A ship
was later named in their honor.
With the fall of the island, the southern Solomons came under Allied control and Australia was in less danger of attack.
Discuss the significance of 8 May 1911, as it applies to naval aviation.
Captain W. I. Chambers prepared requisitions for two Glenn Curtiss
biplanes. One, the Triad, was to be equipped for arising from or alighting on land or water; with a metal tipped propeller designed for a speed of at least 45 miles per hour; with provisions for carrying a passenger alongside the pilot; and with controls that could be operated by either the pilot or the passenger.
The machine thus described, later became the Navy's first airplane, the A-1.
Although these requisitions lacked the signature of the Chief of the Bureau of Navigation, necessary to direct the General Storekeeper to enter into a contract with the Curtiss Company, they did indicate Captain Chambers' decision as to which airplanes the Navy should purchase.
The planes were purchased for $5,500 each.
From this, May 8 has come to be considered the date upon which the Navy ordered its first airplane and has been officially proclaimed to be the birthday of naval aviation.
State the name of the first aircraft carrier.
20 March 1922: U.S.S. Langley.

The Jupiter, a former collier or coal-carrier, was recommissioned after conversion to the Navy's first carrier, the Langley (CV-1).
What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
21 July 1946, FH-1 Phantom
Who was the first naval aviator in space?
5 May 1961: Alan Shepard
AB
Aviation Boatswain Mate
AC
Air Traffic Controller
AD
Aviation Machinist's Mate
AE
Aviation Electrician's Mate
AG
Aerographer's Mate
SK
Storekeeper
AM
Aviation Structural mechanic
AO
Aviation Ordnanceman
AS
Aviation Support Equiptment Technician
AT
Aviation Electronics Tehnician
AW
Airwarefare Systems Operators
AZ
Aviation Maintenance Administrationman
PR
Aircrew Survival Equipmentman
PH
Photographer's Mate
Describe the following term pertaining to motion:
Inertia
The willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue is motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
Describe the following term pertaining to motion:
Acceleration
The rate of change of the speed and/or velocity of matter with time.
Describe the following term pertaining to motion:
Speed
The rate of movement or motion in a given amount of time. Speed is the term used when only the rate of movement is meant
Describe the following term pertaining to motion:
Velocity
The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction.
Define Newton's first law of motion:
According to Newton's first law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until acted upon by an outside force.
Define Newton's second law of motion:
The second law of motion (force) states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion, or acceleration, will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Define Newton's third law of motion:
The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
This law is demonstrated with a balloon. If you inflate a balloon and release it without securing the neck, as the air is expelled, the balloon will move in the opposite direction of the air rushing out of it.
Define Bernoulli's principle.
The principle states that when a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through the constriction is increased and its pressure decreased.
The general lift of an airfoil is dependent upon the airfoil's being able to create circulation in the airstream and develop the lifting pressure over the airfoil surface.

As the relative wind strikes the leading edge of the airfoil, the flow of air is split. Part is deflected upward and aft, and the rest is deflected down and aft. Since the upper surface of the wing has camber or a curve on it, the flow over its surface is disrupted, and this causes a wavelike effect to the wing. The lower surface is relatively flat. Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow across the airfoil.
Discuss the following weather warning and its effect on naval aviation:
Wind warning
1. Small craft
Harbor and inland waters warning for winds, 33 knots or less, of concern to small craft. The lower threshold for issuing such warnings is set by local authority.
2. Gale
Warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 47 knots.
3. Storm
Warning for harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 48 knots or greater.
Discuss the following weather warning and its effect on naval aviation:
Tropical cyclone warnings
1. Tropical depression
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 33 knots or less.
2. Tropical storm
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 34 to 63 knots.
3. Hurricane/typhoon
Warning for land, harbor, inland waters, and ocean areas for winds of 64 knots or greater.
Discuss the following weather warning and its effect on naval aviation:
Thunderstorm/tornado warnings
1. Thunderstorm warning
Thunderstorms are within 3 miles of the airfield, or in the immediate area.
2. Severe thunderstorm warning
Thunderstorms with wind gusts to 50 knots or greater and/or hail of 3/4 inch in diameter or greater is forecast to impact the warning area.
3. Tornado warning
Tornadoes have been sited or detected by RADAR in or adjacent to the warning area, or have a strong potential to develop in the warning area.
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
Lift
The force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. It sounteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
weight
The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything on the aircraft
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
drag
The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the air about the wings, fuselage or body, and all protruding objects on the aircraft. Drag resists motion.
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
thrust
The force developed by the aircraft's engine, and it acts in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to the effects of drag in order for flight to begin or be sustained.
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
longitudinal axis
An imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and tail. The axis about which roll occurrs
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
lateral axis
An imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings and about which pitch occurrs
Describe the following aerodynamic term:
vertical axis
An imaginary reference line running from the top to the bottom of the aircraft. The movement associated with this axis is yaw
State the three primary movements of aircraft about the axis.
a. Pitch - The movement of the aircraft about its lateral axis. The up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft.
b. Yaw - The movement of the aircraft about its vertical axis. The drift, or right or left movement of the nose of the aircraft.

c. Roll - The movement of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis. The movement of the wing tips; one up and the other down.
Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for:
Fixed wing aircraft
The ailerons provide control about the longitudinal axis, the elevators provide control about the lateral axis, and the rudder provides control about the vertical axis.
Identify and state the purpose of the primary flight controls for:
rotary wing aircraft
The collective stick controls the pitch of the rotor blades which translates to "up and down". The cyclic stick tilts the plane of the rotor blades forward, aft or sideways, giving the helicopter its directional motion. Lateral control is provided using the foot pedals to control the blades on the tail rotor.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
flap
Gives the aircraft extra lift. The purpose is to reduce the landing speed, thereby shortening the length of the landing rollout. They also facilitate landing in small or obstructed areas by permitting the gliding angle to be increased without greatly increasing the approach. The use of flaps during takeoff serves to reduce the length of the takeoff run. Some flaps are hinged to the lower trailing edges of the wings inboard of the ailerons. Leading edge flaps are in use on the Navy F-4, Phantom II.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
spoiler
Used to decrease wing lift. However, the specific design, function, and use vary with different aircraft. On some aircraft, the spoilers are long narrow surfaces, hinged at their leading edge to the upper surfaces of the wings. In the retracted position, they are flush with the wing skin. In the raised position, they greatly reduce wing lift by destroying the smooth flow of air over the wing surfaces.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
speed brakes
Hinged or moveable control surfaces used for reducing the speed of aircrft. On some aircraft, they are hinged to the sides or bottom of the fuselage; on others they are attached to the wings. They keep the speed from building too high in dives. They are also used to slow the speed of the aircraft prior to landing.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
slats
Slats are movable control surfaces attached to the leading edge of the wing. When the slat is retracted, it forms the leading edge of the wing. When open, or extended forward, a slot is created between the slat and the wing leading edge.
High-energy air is introduced into the boundary layer over the top of the wing. At low airspeeds, this improves the lateral control handling characteristics, allowing the aircraft to be controlled at airspeeds below the normal landing speed. This is known as boundary layer control. Boundary layer control is intended primarily for use during operations from carriers; that is, for catapult takeoffs and arrested landings.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
horizontal stabilizer
Provides stability of the aircraft about its lateral axis. This is longitudinal stability. It serves as the base to which the elevators are attached. On some high-performance aircraft, the entire vertical and/or horizontal stabilizer is a movable airfoil. Without the movable airfoil, the flight control surfaces would lose their effectiveness at extrememly high speeds.
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
vertical stabilizer
Maintains the stability of the aircraft about its vertical axis. This is known as directional stability. The vertical stabilizer usually serves as teh base to which the rudder is attached
State the purpose of the following flight control surfaces:
tail rotor
Mounted vertically on the outer portion of the helicopter's tail section. The tail rotor counteracts the torque action of the main rotor by producing thrust in the opposite direction. The tail rotor also controls the yawing action of the helicopter.
Explain the term angle of attack.
The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow of air. Defined as the angle between the chord line of the wing (an imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing) and the relative wind. The relative wind is the direction of the airstream in relationship to the wing.
Explain the term autorotation.
A method of allowing a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power by making use of the reversed airflow up through the rotor system to reduce the rate of descent.
Accomplished by lowering collective pitch lever to maintain rotor rpm while helicopter is decreasing in altitude, then increasing collective pitch at a predetermined altitude to convert inertial energy into lift to reduce the rate of descent and cushion the landing.
State the components of a basic hydraulic system.
a. A reservoir to hold a supply of hydraulic fluid.
b. A pump to provide a flow of fluid.
c. Tubing to transmit the fluid.
d. A selector valve to direct the flow of fluid.
e. An actuating unit to convert the fluid pressure into useful work
Describe and explain the purpose of the main components of landing gear.
a. Shock Strut Assembly - Absorbs the shock that otherwise would be sustained by the airframe.
b. Tires - Allows the aircraft to roll easily and provides traction during takeoff and landing.
c. Wheel brake asembly - Used to slow and stop the aircraft. Also used to prevent the aircraft from rolling while parked.
d. Retracting and extending mechanism - All the necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear.
e. Side struts and supports - Provides lateral strength/support for the landing gear.
State the safety precautions used when servicing aircraft tires on aircraft
Modern aircraft wheels and tires are among the most highly stressed parts of the aircraft.
High tire pressure, cyclic loads, corrosion and physical damage contribute to failure of aircraft wheels. The wheel fragments can be propelled several hundred feet. Always approach the tires from fore and aft.
When inflating, stand off to the side. Deflate when removing from the aircraft.
State the 5 basic sections of a jet engine
a. The intake which is an opening in the front of the aircraft engine that allows outside or ambient air to enter the engine.
b. The compressor which is made of a series of rotating blades and a row of stationary stator vanes. The compressor provides high-pressure air to the combustion chamber (or chambers).
c. The combustion chamber where fuel enters and combines with the compressed air.
d. The turbine section which drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases.
e. The exhaust cone which is attached to the rear of the engine assembly and eliminates turbulence in the emerging jet, thereby giving maximum velocity
Describe the following engine system:
Turbojet
Projects a column of air to the rear at an extremely high velocity. The resulting effect is to propel the aircraft in the opposite or forward direction.
Describe the following engine system:
Turboshaft
Delivers power through a shaft to drive something other than a propeller. The power take off may be coupled directly to the engine, but in most cases it is driven by it's own free turbine located in the exhaust stream that operates independently on the engine. They have a high power-to-weight ratio and are currently used in helicopters.
Describe the following engine system:
Turboprop
Propulsion is accomplished by the conversion of the majority of the gas-energy into mechanical power to drive a propeller. This is done by the addition of more turgine stages. Only a small amount of jet thrust is obtained on a turbo prop engine.
Describe the following engine system:
Turbofan
Basically the same as a turbo prop except that the propeller is replaced by a duct-enclosed axial-flow fan. The fan can be part of the first stage compressor or mounted as a separate set of fan blades driven by an independent turbine depending on the fan design, it will produce somewhere around 50 percent of the engine's total thrust.
State the purpose of an afterburner
Used during takeoff and combat maneuvering to boost the normal thrust rating of a gas turbine engine through additional burning of the ramaining unused air in the exhause section
State the NATO symbol for the following fuel and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of it:
JP4-NATO Code F-40
Has a flamespread rate of 700-800 feet per minute and a low flashpoint of -10 degrees F or -23 degrees C. Never used on ships. Use of JP4 will normally cause an engine to operate with a lower exhaust gas temperature (EGT), slower acceleration, and lower engine RPM.
State the NATO symbol for the following fuel and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of it:
JP5-NATO Code F-44
Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 140 degrees F or 60 degrees C. JP-5 is the only approved fuel for use aboard naval vessels. The lowest flashpoint considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 degrees F. This is the Navy's primary jet fuel.
State the NATO symbol for the following fuel and briefly explain the characteristics and reasons for the use of it:
JP8-NATO Code F-34
Has a flamespread rate of 100 feet per minute, and a flashpoint of 100 degrees F or 40 degrees C.
Describe the 3 hazards associated with jet fuel.
Explosion from fuel fumes, vapor inhalation, and toxic contact with skin, eyes, or swallowing can cause illness or death.
Describe the symptoms of fuel vapor inhalation.
The symptoms include nausea, dizziness, and headaches. Fuel vapor inhalatin can cause death.
Explain the purpose of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU).
These power units furnish electrical power when engine-driven generators are not operating or when external power is not available. Most units use a gas turbine to drive the generator. The gas turbine provides compressed air for air conditioning and pneumatic engine starting. This makes the aircraft independent of the need for ground power units to carry out its mission
Identify the reasons for and methods of Non-Destructive Inspection (NDI)
It is essential that defects be found and corrected before they reach catastrophic proportion. NDI can provide 100 percent sampling with no affect to the use of the part or system being inspected. Methods used may include visual, optical, liquid penetrant, magnetic particle, eddy current, ultrasonic, radiographic, etc.
NDI is the practice of evaluating a part or sample of material without impairing its future usefullness.
Discuss icing and its effects on the performance of naval aircraft
Ice on the airframe decreases lift and increases drag, weight, and stalling speed. The accumultion of ice in exterior movable surfaces affects the control of the aircraft. If ice begins to form on the blades of a propeller, the propeller's efficiency is decreased or further power is demanded of the engine to maintain flight. Most aircraft have sufficient resere power to fly with a heavy load of ice, but airframe icing is a serious problem because it results in increased fuel consumption and decreased range. The possibility always exists that engine system icing may result in loss of power. Icing can cause: loss of engine power, aerodynamic efficiency, loss of proper operation of control surfaces, brakes and landing gear, loss of outside vision, false instrument indications, and loss of radio.
State the purpose of the following:
Pitot-static
The pitot-static system in an aircraft includes some of the instruments that operate on the principle of the barometer. It consists of a pitot-static tube and 3 indicators, all connected with tubing that carries air. The three indicators are the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and the rate-of-climb indicator. Each operates on air taken from outside the aircraft during flight
State the purpose of the following:
Airspeed indicator
The airspeed indicator displays the speed of the aircraft in relation to the air in which it is flying. In some instances, the speed of the aircraft is shown in Mach numbers. The Mach number gives the speed compared to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium (local speed). For example, if an aircraft is flying at a speed equal to one-half the local speed of sound, it is flying at Mach 0.5. If it moves at twice the speed of sound, its speed is Mach 2.
State the purpose of the following:
Altimeters
The altimeter shows the height of the aircraft above sea level. The face of the instrument is calibrated so the counter or pointer displays the correct altitude of the aircraft
State the purpose of the following:
Rate-of-climb
The rate-of-climb indicator shows the rate at which an aircraft is climbing or descending.
State the purpose of the following:
Attitude indicator
A pilot determines aircraft attitude by referring to the horizon. Often, the horizon is not visible. When it is dark, overcast, smokey, or dusty, the earth's horizon may not be visible. When one or more of these conditions exists, the pilot refers to the attitude indicator. It is also called the vertical gyro indicator or VGI. The instrument shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth's horizon.
State the purpose of the following:
Turn and bank indicator
Shows the correct execution of a turn and bank. It also shows the lateral attitude of the aircraft in straight flight. It consists of a turn indicator and a bank indicator. The turn indicator is a gyro mounted in a frame that is pivoted to turn on a longitudinal axis. The direction of the turn is shown on the dial by a pointer. The gyro consists of a glass ball that moves in a curved glass tube filled with a liquid. When the pilot is executing a properly banked turn, the ball stays in the center position. If the ball moves from the center, it shows the aircraft is slipping to the inside or outside of the turn.
State the purpose of the following:
Navigation systems
Navigation systems and instruments direct, plot, and control the course or position of the aircraft. These may include the radios, transmitters, TACAN, LORAN, etc.
State the purpose of the following:
Identification Friend or Foe (IFF)
IFF is an electronic system that allows a friendly craft to identify itself automatically before approaching near enough to threaten the security of other naval units. A transponder in the friendly aircraft receives a radio-wave challenge. The transponder transmits a response to a proper challenge. All operational aircraft and ships of the armed forces carry transponders to give their identity when challenged.
State the purpose of the following:
Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
A radio device used to detect objects at distances much greater than is visually possible. Detectable objects include aircraft, ships, land, clouds, and storms. Radar also shows their range and relative position. Radar works on a echo principle. Sound waves travel out and by knowing the speeds and the time it takes for them to return as an echo, the distance can be measures.
State the purpose of the following:
Magnetic (standby) compass
A direct-reading magnetic compass is mounted on the instrument panel. The face of the compass is read like the dial of a gauge
State the purpose of the following:
Communication systems
Radio equipment does not require interconnecting wires between the sending and receiving stations. It is the only practical means of communication with moving vehicles, such as ships or aircraft. Modern aircraft use navigation aids such as simple radio direction finders to complex navigational systems.
State the purpose of the following armament:
bombs
Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or missile, dropped from an aircraft. Bombs are free-falling explosive weapons and may be unguided or "smart" or guided.
Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce and neutralize the enemy's war potential by destructive explosion, fire, nuclear reaction, etc
State the purpose of the following armament:
rockets
A weapon contraining an explosive section and a propulsion section. A rocket is unable to change its direction of movement once fired. It can be launched from an aircraft without the need of heavy or complex gun platforms and without violent recoil. Since rockets are usually launched at close range, it's accuracy as a propelled projectile is higher than that of a free-falling bomb dropped, from high altitude.
State the purpose of the following armament:
missiles
A vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section, and guidance section. A missile is able to change direction or movement after being fired. Missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission and vehicle type.
State the purpose of the following armament:
mines
An underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, submarines, or aircraft. A mine explodes only when a target comes near or in contact with it. Their primary objective is to effectively defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages and seaward coastal barriers.
State the purpose of the following armament:
torpedoes
Self-propelled underwater missiles used against surface and underwater targets. Torpedoes are the primary weapon employed in antisubmarine warfare. They are designed to search, detect, attack and destroy submarines and surface ships
Explain the purpose of circuit breaker
A protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers can be reset.
Explain the purpose of fuse
A protective device inserted in-line with a circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from its power source to prevent damage.
Explain the following avionics term:
voltage
The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown circuit values. Designated by the letter (E
Explain the following avionics term:
current
The flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance. Designated by the letter (I).
Explain the following avionics term:
resistance
The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases proportionally. Designated by the letter (R).
State the purpose of the following armament:
bombs
Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or missile, dropped from an aircraft. Bombs are free-falling explosive weapons and may be unguided or "smart" or guided.
Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce and neutralize the enemy's war potential by destructive explosion, fire, nuclear reaction, etc
State the purpose of the following armament:
rockets
A weapon contraining an explosive section and a propulsion section. A rocket is unable to change its direction of movement once fired. It can be launched from an aircraft without the need of heavy or complex gun platforms and without violent recoil. Since rockets are usually launched at close range, it's accuracy as a propelled projectile is higher than that of a free-falling bomb dropped, from high altitude.
State the purpose of the following armament:
missiles
A vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section, and guidance section. A missile is able to change direction or movement after being fired. Missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission and vehicle type.
State the purpose of the following armament:
mines
An underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, submarines, or aircraft. A mine explodes only when a target comes near or in contact with it. Their primary objective is to effectively defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages and seaward coastal barriers.
State the purpose of the following armament:
torpedoes
Self-propelled underwater missiles used against surface and underwater targets. Torpedoes are the primary weapon employed in antisubmarine warfare. They are designed to search, detect, attack and destroy submarines and surface ships
Explain the purpose of circuit breaker
A protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers can be reset.
Explain the purpose of fuse
A protective device inserted in-line with a circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from its power source to prevent damage.
Explain the following avionics term:
voltage
The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown circuit values. Designated by the letter (E
Explain the following avionics term:
current
The flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance. Designated by the letter (I).
Explain the following avionics term:
resistance
The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases proportionally. Designated by the letter (R).
State the purpose of the following armament:
bombs
Any weapon other than a torpedo, mine, rocket or missile, dropped from an aircraft. Bombs are free-falling explosive weapons and may be unguided or "smart" or guided.
Designed for release over enemy targets to reduce and neutralize the enemy's war potential by destructive explosion, fire, nuclear reaction, etc
State the purpose of the following armament:
rockets
A weapon contraining an explosive section and a propulsion section. A rocket is unable to change its direction of movement once fired. It can be launched from an aircraft without the need of heavy or complex gun platforms and without violent recoil. Since rockets are usually launched at close range, it's accuracy as a propelled projectile is higher than that of a free-falling bomb dropped, from high altitude.
State the purpose of the following armament:
missiles
A vehicle containing an explosive section, propulsion section, and guidance section. A missile is able to change direction or movement after being fired. Missiles are classified according to their range, speed, launch environment, mission and vehicle type.
State the purpose of the following armament:
mines
An underwater explosive put into position by surface ships, submarines, or aircraft. A mine explodes only when a target comes near or in contact with it. Their primary objective is to effectively defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages and seaward coastal barriers.
State the purpose of the following armament:
torpedoes
Self-propelled underwater missiles used against surface and underwater targets. Torpedoes are the primary weapon employed in antisubmarine warfare. They are designed to search, detect, attack and destroy submarines and surface ships
Explain the purpose of circuit breaker
A protective device that opens a circuit when the current exceeds a predetermined value. Circuit breakers can be reset.
Explain the purpose of fuse
A protective device inserted in-line with a circuit. It contains a metal that will melt or break when current is increased beyond a specified value, thus disconnecting the circuit from its power source to prevent damage.
Explain the following avionics term:
voltage
The "driving force" behind current. Voltage, as applied to Ohm's Law, can be stated to be the base value in determining unknown circuit values. Designated by the letter (E
Explain the following avionics term:
current
The flow of electrons. Ohm's Law states that current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance. Designated by the letter (I).
Explain the following avionics term:
resistance
The opposing force to the flow of electrons. As stated in Ohm's Law, current is inversely proportional to resistance. This means, as the resistance in a circuit increases, the current decreases proportionally. Designated by the letter (R).
Define the term aircraft handling.
Aircraft handling is a general term that describes any movement of aircraft or associated equipment.
State the purpose of standard aircraft taxi signals.
Used by all branches of the Armed Forces so that there will be no misunderstanding when a taxi signalman of one service is signaling a pilot of another.
State the vehicle speed limits on the flight line and around the aircraft.
The speed limit within 50 feet of aircraft is 5 mph. Along runways, taxiways, parking ramps and work areas it is 10 mph.
State the maximum towing speed of an aircraft.
As fast as the slowest walker.
Name the 4 categories of tie down requirements.
a. Initial
b. Intermediate
c. Permanent
d. Heavy weather
State the purpose of the emergency shore based recovery equipment.
In an emergency situation, such as a blown tire, an indication that the landing gear has not locked, the pilot is sick, or any one of the numerous emergencies that could arise-you must arrest the aircraft and stop it in the shortest distance possible. This is to minimize the chance of an accident that could cause injury to the pilot and crew or damage to the aircraft.
State the purpose of the MA-1A overrun barrier.
The MA-1A is an emergency arresting system comprised of a net barrier and cable system.
It is designed to stop aircraft not equipped with tail hooks but the aircraft must have a nosewheel for the barrier to be effective. The MA-1A is always in a standby status, in case there is an aborted takeoff or an emergency overrun landing.
All MA-1A barrier nets are in use by the Air Force. The Navy uses other devices known as E-5, E-28 or M-21 barriers. The MA-1A is no longer available for procurement, and is being replaced.
State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during the following operation:
routine maintenance
The work area shall be assessed as to hazards which may be present. Each worker shall be given and briefed on the use of the proper PPE for that area
State the minimum personal protective equipment required on the flight line and ramp areas during the following operation:
flight operations
All personnel whose duties require them to work on the flight deck shall wear:
a. Cranial
b. Jersey, with the appropriate color as noted by the position of the individual; i.e. Plane Captains wear brown jerseys.
c. Goggles
d. Sound attenuators
e. Flight deck shoes
f. Flotation gear
g. Survival light
h. Whistle
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following:
intakes
The air intake ducts of operating jet engines are an ever present hazard to personnel working near the ducts of the aircraft. They are also a hazard to the engine itself if the area around the front of the aircraft is not kept clear of debris. The air intake duct may develop enough suction to pull an individual or hats, glasses, etc., into the intake. The hazard is greatest during maximum power settings.
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following:
exhaust (engine and APU)
Jet engine exhausts create many hazards to personnel. The 2 most serious hazards of jet engine exhaust are the high temperature and high velocity of the exhaust gases from the tailpipe. High temperatures can be found up to several hundred feet from the tailpipe. The closer you get to the aircraft, the higher the exhaust temperatures. When a jet engine is starting, sometimes excess fuel can accumulate in the tailpipe. When the fuel ignites, long flames shoot out of the tailpipe. Personnel should be clear of this danger area at all times.
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following:
propellers
Personnel should NOT approach or depart an aircraft with the propellers turning. Personnel should walk well around the propeller area at all times
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following:
rotoe blades
Personnel should NOT approach or depart a helicopter while the rotors are being engaged or disengaged.
Identify the safety hazard areas associated with the following:
hot brakes
Never face the side of the wheel, as an explosion of the wheel will follow the line of the axle, which may be outboard depending on the landing gear configuration. Always approach the wheel from fore or aft, never from the side.
Explain the significance of:
Runway numbering system
Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees, i.e. Runway 01: A runway heading of 250 degree is runway 25. If there are 2 runways whose centerline is parallel, the runway will be identified as L (left) and R (right) or 36L or 36R, if there are 3 parallel runways, they are identified as L (left), R (right), or C (center).
Explain the significance of:
Treshold markings
Runways 200 feet wide have 10 stripes marking the landing threshold, each 12 feet wide by 150 feet long. For runways that are less than 200 feet wide, the markings cover the width of the runway less 20 feet on both sides. These markings designate the landing area.
Explain the significance of:
airfield lighting system
Procedures for the operation of airport lighting are in FAA Handbook 7110.65. Operation of the airport lighting at controlled airports is normally the responsibility of the tower. When the airfield is closed, all associated lighting is shut down with the following exceptions:
1. Navigable airspace obstruction lights
2. Rotating beacons used as a visual orientation aid in a metropolitian area.
Explain the significance of:
runway/taxiway marking system
Runway lights are installed to provide visual guidance at night under low-visibility conditions during aircraft takeoff and landing operations. Taxiway lights are blue. Their spacing is variable. Two blue lights, called entrance-exit lights, are spaced 5 feet apart and are placed on each side of a taxiway entrance to or exit from a runway or parking area. The taxi lights are turned on as soon as the pilot of an aircraft is cleared to taxi out. They are turned off when the the aircraft is on the runway or another taxiway. For inbound aircraft, they are turned on as the aircraft approaches the taxiway and turned off when the aircraft is parked.
Explain the significance of:
arm/dearm areas
An area where ordnance is changed from a state of a safe condition to a state of readiness and vice versa. All evolutions are conducted using the individual stores loading manual/checklist. The area ahead of or behind and/or surrounding the aircraft shall be kept clear until all weapons/ordnance are completely safe. When aircraft are being taxied from the landing area to the dearm area, care must be taken to minimize exposure of the armed ordnance to personnel and equipment.
Explain the significance of:
overrun area
Provides a reasonably effective deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft. The area may also serve as an emergency all-weather access for fire-fighting, crash, and rescue equipment. Some are paved and some have yellow chevrons across them. An area with this type marking is a nontouchdown area for aircraft.
Explain the significance of:
parking apron
Required for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft. They are connected to the runways by taxiways or tow ways. Parking sizes are based on the type and number of aircraft to be parked and requirement for squadron integrity.
Explain the purpose of the following:
airfield rotating beacon
When the airport is below VFR weather conditions, the airport rotating beacon is used to identify the airport's location during darkness and daylight hours. Rotation is in a clockwise direction when viewed from above. The beacon is always rotated at a constant speed, which produces the visual effect of flashes at regular intervals. The flashing rate is 12 to 15 flashes per minute.
Explain the purpose of the following:
tower visual communications
A coordination device between the radar controller and the control tower. Visual communication provides a sequence of lights and switches that supplement other circuits on the interphone system and serve to reduce the number of voice contacts between the tower and radar controller
Explain the purpose of the following:
tactical air navigation (TACAN) system
TACAN uses a bearing determining system to determine aircraft position and distance from a TACAN station. The primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft
Explain the purpose of the following:
crash/rescue
Within the ship damage control organization is the Crash, Salvage, and Rescue Team. This team is the flight deck repair team. From its station in the island structure it serves to effect rescue of personnel from damaged aircraft on the flight deck, clear away wreckage, fight fires on and make minor emergency repairs to the flight deck and associated equipment.
Explain the purpose of the following:
compass calibration pad
A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated. A minimum of one area is provided at each airport.
Explain the purpose of the following:
liquid oxygen(LOX) exchange area
A designated area which is used for the servicing of aircraft which require Liquid Oxygen (LOX). Liquid Oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold (-297 degrees F). It has an expansion rate of 860 to 1. It is a strong oxidizer and vigorously supports combustion. The area must be kept free of flammable or combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, oil, or kerosine.
Explain the purpose of the following:
wind indicator
Provides a method for prompt issuance of wind directions and velocities to pilots.
State the primary mission of:
HC
Helicopter Combat Support

They perform duties such as plane guard, sea-air rescue, mail delivery, and personnel transfer
State the primary mission of:
HCS
Helicopter Combat Support Special Squadron

Provides dedicated deployable combat rescue detachments in support of aircraft carrier and amphibious operations for quick reaction contingencies.
State the primary mission of:
HM
Helicopter Mine Countermeasures

Provides aerial mine hunting and minesweeping by deploying into and towing through the water, sleds designed to detect or clear minefields.
State the primary mission of:
HS
Helicopter Antisubmarine

Used for carrier based anti-submarine warfare, plane guard, search and rescue and logistics.
State the primary mission of:
HSL
Helicopter Antisubmarine Light

Fly smaller helicopters from ships such as DDG's or FFG's. They also perform search and rescue and logistics.
State the primary mission of:
HT
Helicopter Training

Provides basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary wing aircraft
State the primary mission of:
VAQ
Tactical Electronic Warfare

Tactically exploits, surpresses, degrades and decieves enemy electromagineic defensive and offensive systems including communication, in support of air strike and fleet operations
State the primary mission of:
VAW
Carrier Airborne Early Warning

Carrier based and provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft.
State the primary mission of:
VC
Fleet Composite

Perform duties such as utility and air services for the fleet such as simulations and target towing
State the primary mission of:
VF
Fighter

Fighter squadrons are used against aircraft and ground installations to defend surface units. They escort attack aircraft and give close air support to landing forces. They use maximum firepower with speed.
State the primary mission of:
VFA
Strike Fighter

Employed for both fighter and attack missions.
State the primary mission of:
VMFA
Marine Fighter Attack

Marine Corps Strike Fighter squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions.
State the primary mission of:
VP
Patrol

Land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine warfare, anti-submarine warfare, anti-surface warfare, reconnaissance
and mining.
State the primary mission of:
VQ
Fleet Air Reconnaissance
Electronic warfare support including search for, interception,
recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy.
State the primary mission of:
VR
Logistics Support

Transport of personnel and supplies
State the primary mission of:
VRC
Carrier Logistics Support

Transports personnel and supplies including onboard a carrier
State the primary mission of:
VS
Carrier Antisubmarine Warfare

Perform surface search and sea control.
State the primary mission of:
VT
Training

Provide basic and advanced training for student naval aviators and flight officers
State the primary mission of:
VX
Air Test and Evaluation

Tests and evaluates the operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment.They develop tactic and doctrines for their most effective use
State the primary mission of:
VXE
Antarctic Development

Supports operation Deep Freeze.
Identify the mission of:
AV-8 Harrier
Fighter attack
Identify the mission of:
C-130 Hercules
Logistics support
Identify the mission of:
C-2 Greyhound
Carrier logistics support
Identify the mission of:
C-20
Logistics support
Identify the mission of:
C-9 Sky Train
Logistics support
Identify the mission of:
EA-6B Prowler
Tactical electronic warfare
Identify the mission of:
E-2 Hawkeye
Airborne early warning
Identify the mission of:
C-12 Huron
Logistics support
Identify the mission of:
E-6 Mercury
Fleet air reconnaissance
Identify the mission of:
F/A-18 Hornet
Fighter/Attack
Identify the mission of:
F-14 Tomcat
Fighter
Identify the mission of:
H-2 Seasprite
Helicopter antisubmarine light
Identify the mission of:
H-3 Sea King
Helicopter antisubmarine
Identify the mission of:
H-46 Sea Knight
Helicopter combat support
Identify the mission of:
H-53 Sea Stallion
Helicopter mine countermeasures
Identify the mission of:
SH-60B Seahawk
Helicopter antisubmarine light
Identify the mission of:
SH-60F Oceanhawk
Helicopter Anti-Submarine
Identify the mission of:
HH-60H Seahawk
Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR) and Special Warfare (SpecWar) Support
Identify the mission of:
P-3 Orion
Patrol
Identify the mission of:
S-3 Viking
Carrier antisubmarine warfare
Identify the mission of:
TA-4 Sky Hawk
Training
Identify the mission of:
T-2 Buckeye
Training
Identify the mission of:
T-45 Goshawk
Training
Identify the mission of:
UH-1N Iroquois
Helicopter combat support
Identify the mission of:
T-34 Mentor
Training
Identify the mission of:
T-44 Pegasus
Training
Identify the mission of:
F-5 Tiger II
Fighter
Identify the mission of:
AH-1 Cobra
Helicopter combat support
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
AE - Ammunition Ship
They operate with replenishment groups to deliver ammunition and missiles to ships at sea. These ships are handle all types of missiles. They carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
AO/AOE - Oilers/Oiler and Ammunition Support Ships
AO: These ships carry fuel, jet fuel, and other petroleum products. They operate with replenishment groups adn deliver their cargo to ships at sea. They can service from both sides of the ship simultaneously.

AOE: The largest and most powerful auxiliary ship in the Navy. AOE ships carry missiles, fuel, ammunition and general cargo. They can also carry refrigerated cargo and supplies. They carry two H-46 helicopters for vertical replenishment and support
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
CG - Guided Missile Cruiser
These ships serve provide protection against surface and air attacks, and gunfire support for land operations. They have a large cruising range and are capable of speeds over 30 knots. Some cruisers are capable of conducting antiair warfare, antisubmarine warfare, and antisurface ship warfare at the same time. They carry a LAMPS Mk III SH-60B helicopter.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
CV/CVN - Carrier/Nuclear Powered Carrier
Carriers are designed to carry, launch, retrieve and handle combat aircraft quickly and efficiently. It can approach the enemy at high speed, launch planes, recover them, and retire before its position can be determined. Attack carriers are excellent long-range offensive weapons and are the center of the modern naval task force or task group.

CV's use boilers for their power plant, while CVN's use nuclear reactors.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
DD/DDG - Destroyer/Guided Missile Destroyer
Multipurpose ships used in any kind of naval operation. Fast ships with a large variety of armament and little or no armor. They depend on their speed and mobility for protection. They operate offensively and defensively against subs and surface ships. They can take defensive action against air assaults. They provide gunfire support for amphibious assaults. They can preform patrol, search and rescue missions, if needed. They can accomodate two SH-60B or 2 SH2G helicopters.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
FFG - Guided Missile Frigates
Frigates are used for open-ocean escort and patrol. They resemble destroyers in appearance, but are slower, have only a single screw, and carry less armament. They can carry two SH-60B helicopters.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LCC - Amphibious Command Ship
Provides accomodations and command and communication facilities for various commanders and their staffs. They can serve as a command ship for an amphibious task force, landing force, and air support commanders during amphibious operations. They are the most modern and capable command facilities afloat.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LHA - Amphibious Assault Ship
These ships are able to embark, deploy, and land a Marine battalion landing team by helicopters, landing craft, amphibious vehicles, and combinations of these methods. They are versatile and combine the same features of the Amphibious Assault ship (LPH), Amphibious Transport Dock (LPD), Amphibious Cargo Ship (LKA), and Dock Landing Ship (LSD) in a single ship.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LHD - Amphibious Warfare Ship
They are designed based on that of an Amphibious Assault Ship, but are intended to be convertible from an Assault Ship to an Anti-submarine Warfare ship with Harrier fighters for ground assault.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LPD - Amphibious Transport Dock
Combines the features of a Dock Landing Ship (LSD), with the features of an Amphibious Assault Ship (LPH). They can transport troops and equipment in the same ship. It has facilities for 8 helicopters.
These are among the largest amphibious ships in the world.
They are primary landing ships, resembling small aircraft carriers, designed to put troops on hostile shores.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
MCS - Mine Countermeasures Support Ship
They provide command, control and support ship for mine countermeasures operations.
There is only one of these in the naval inventory - the USS Inchon.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LPH - Amphibious Assault Ship
Designed to embark, transport, and land 1,800 troops and their equipment via transport helicopterss in conjunction with a beach assault. They can also assist with antisubmarine warfare.
State the mission of the following aviation capable ships:
LSD - Dock Landing Ship
Dock Landing Ships support amphibious operations including landings via Landing Craft Air Cushion (LCAC), conventional landing craft and helicopters, onto hostile shores.
In order to launch craft, the LSD must have the well flooded for the craft to move out on their own power. It has one CH-53 helicopter landing spot.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
ARS - Rescue and Salvage Ship
Render assistance to disabled ships, provide towing, salvage, diving, firefighting and heavy lift capabilities.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
AD - Destroyer Tender
Despite their title, destroyer tenders service a variety of ships besides destroyers. Destroyer tenders provide a mobile base and intermediate level maintenance support facilities for destroyers, cruisers and frigates.
Ship used to provide base facilities for destroyer type combat vessels. Provides, accommodation for flag staff, ships crews, light repair, training and resupply facilities.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
AFS - Combat Stores Ship
Provides a mixture of combat stores (ammunition and the like) and general stores such as food.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
ATF - Fleet Ocean Tugs
Provide the U.S. Navy with towing service, and when augmented by Navy divers, assist in the recovery of downed aircraft and ships.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
ASR - Submarine Rescue Ship
Serve as surface support ships for deep submergence rescue vehicles (DSRV's) during submarine rescue operations
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
AR - Repair Ship
A conversion of a ship that has been modified to provide structural repairs to a damaged vessel.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
AS - Submarine Tender
Ship used to provide base facilities for submarines. Provides, accommodation for flag staff, ships crews, light repair, training and resupply facilities
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
MCM - Mine Countermeasures Ship
Avenger class MCM ships are designed as mine hunter-killers capable of finding, classifying and destroying moored and bottom mines. The last three MCM ships were purchased in 1990, bringing the total to 14 fully deployable, oceangoing Avenger class ships
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
MHC - Coastal Mine Hunters
These ships use sonar and video systems, cable cutters and a mine detonating device that can be released and detonated by remote control. They are also capable of conventional sweeping measures.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
PC - Patrol Craft
These ships provide coastal patrol and interdiction surveillance. These ships also provide full mission support for Navy SEALs and other special operations forces.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
SSBN - Ballistic Missile Submarine (Nuclear propulsion
Strategic deterrence has been the sole mission of the fleet ballistic missile submarine (SSBN) since its inception in 1960. The SSBN provides the nation's most survivable and enduring nuclear strike capability.
Identify the primary mission of the following non-aviation capable ships:
SSN - Submarine (Nuclear propulsion)
Attack submarines are smaller than ballistic missile submarines and do not, as a rule, stay at sea as long. The mission of these fast and silent SSNs include attacking enemy ships-- both surface and submarine and in supporting land-based campaigns.
Explain Chemical warfare.
Intentional use of lethal or nonlethal chemical agents to produce casualties; harass or temporarily incapacitate, and demoralize personnel; or contaminate or destroy areas, equipment, and supplies
Explain Biological warfare.
Intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people or their domestic animals, to damage their crops, and/or to deteriorate their supplies.
As of this writing, large-scale biological warfare attacks by an enemy are as yet an untried weapon. As far as is it known, there has been no open attempt by any country to use this form of attack.
Explain Radiological warfare.
Radiological warfare is the deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce injury and death in man.
Describe the purpose of:
MCU-2/P protective mask
The mask, or gas mask, is the most important piece of protective equipment against CBR agents. It protects your face, eyes, nose, throat and lungs. Inhaling CBR agents is much more dangerous than getting them on the outside of the body. Without filtration, a large amount of contamination could be inhaled in a short time. The mask filters the air, removing particles of dust that may be radioactive or contaminated; and it purifies the air of many poisonous gases. The mask does not provide oxygen, protection against smoke or against toxic gases such as carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and ammonia; however, it may be used for emergency escape as a last resort.
Describe the purpose of:
Chemical protective overgarment
The overgarment is treated with chemicals that neutralize blister agent vapors and sprays, but do not stop penetration by liquid agents. It also gives limited protection against other types of CBR contaminants. The suit consists of trousers, hip-length jumper with attached hood, and associated gloves and foot coverings. Except in unusual circumstances, you do not have to wear outer wet-weather clothing over the CBR suit. The danger of heat prostration is significantly reduced. Wear wet-weather clothing during heavy seas. Wear the CBR suit for up to one hour in engineering spaces. Gloves afford hand protection against nerve and blister agent liquids and gases. Foot covers are worn over your own shoes. Boots come in 2 sizes and can be worn on either foot. They are made of black butyle rubber, are impermeable, and have a non-slip rubber sole.
Describe the purpose of:
Wet-weather clothing
Worn over other types of clothing, wet-weather clothing protects impregnated and ordinary clothing and skin from penetration by liquid agents and radioactive particles. It also reduces the amount of vapor that penetrates to the skin. Wet-weather gear, which includes a parka, trousers, rubber boots, and gloves, is easily decontaminated.
Describe the purpose of:
Atropine/2 Pan chloride (Oxime) autoinjector
Used for specific therapy for nerve agent casualties. Issued in automatic injectors for intramuscular injection self-aid or first aid.
Describe the purpose of:
IM-143 pocket dosimeter
The self-reading pocket dosimeter is an instrument about the size and shape of a fountain pen and comes in several ranges: 0 to 5, 0 to 200, and 0 to 600 roentgens; and 0 to 200 millroentgens. These instruments measure exposure to radiation over a period of time, not dose rates at any given time. By holding the dosimeter up to a light source and looking through the eyepiece, the total radiation dose received can be read directly on the scale. After each use, the dosimeter must be recharged and the indicator line set to zero.
Describe the purpose of:
DT-60 personnel dosimeter
Is in the Nonself-reading catagory; the DT-60 is the high-range casualty dosimeter, which must be placed in a special radiac comptuer-indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed. Its range is 0 to 600 roentgens.
Describe the symptoms of this type of chemical casualty agent:
chocking agents
these agents produce an action on the respiratory system that results in the accumulation of fluid in the lungs. This effect may lead to death. Exposure can produce immediate dryness of the throat, coughing, choking, tightness in the chest, headache, nausea, and watering of the eyes.
A mild exposure accompanied by immediate symptoms can cause fluid to accumulate in the lungs within 2 to 24 hours after exposure.
Describe the symptoms of this type of chemical casualty agent:
nerve agents
As a group, nerve agents are probably the most effective because only small doses are needed to produce death.
Even in low concentrations, the pupils of the eyes may contract. Tightness of the chest may be noticed, which will increase deep breathing. Liquids penetrate the skin, and poisons the body.
Describe the symptoms of this type of chemical casualty agent:
blood agents
Blood agents interfere with the distribution of oxygen by the blood.
Symptoms of blood agents depend on the concentration of the agent, and duration of exposure. Typically either death occurs rapidly or recovery takes place within a few minutes after removal from the contaminated area.
After inhaling a blood agent, the victim begins to breathe deeply and has violent contractions after only 20 to 30 seconds. The heart can stop after only a few minutes.
Describe the symptoms of this type of chemical casualty agent:
blister agents
Immediate exposure to blister agents produces no noticable symptoms. But exposure for more than half hour produces a gritty feeling in the eyes, then soreness, and a bloodshot look. Eyelids become red and swollen, and infections are frequent.
Burns caused by blister agents are particularily bad in moist areas of the body, such as in the armpits, groin, bends of elbows and knees. Intense itching and blisters may occur accompanied by swelling and stiffness.
Describe the following type of nuclear explosions:
High altitude air burst
One in which the point of detonation is at an altitude in excess of 100,000 feet. Above this level, air density is so low that interaction of the weapon energy with the surroundings is markedly different from that at lower altitudes and varies with the altitude. High-altitude nuclear explosions create spectacular visible effects that can be seen both locally and at great distances. Detonation causes widespread disturbances in the ionosphere, which effects the propagation of radio waves and similiar electromagnetic radiations of relatively long wavelengths (EMP).
Describe the following type of nuclear explosions:
Air burst
Immediately after a nuclear explosion, a huge, intensely hot fireball is formed. An airburst is one in which the fireball does not touch the earth's surface. All materials within the fireball are vaporized. As the fireball rises, it cools to the point where the vapor condenses to form a highly radioactive cloud. At sufficiently low altitudes, the rising fireball creates strong circulating winds that suck up dust and other debris from the surface. This debris combines with the condensed vapor to form the familiar mushroom-shaped cloud. Detonation of the nuclear bomb creates a blast wave that travels out in all directions at an initial speed greater than the speed of sound. When the wave strikes the earth's surface, another wave is formed by reflection. At some distance from ground zero, the primary and reflected waves combine to form a reinforced blast wave. Pressure at the wave front, called overpressure, is many times that of normal atmospheric pressure and is what causes most of the physical damage. Overpressure decreases as distance from the blast increases. Initial radiation occurs within the first minute after an explosion; residual radiation occurs thereafter. The greatest danger from residual radiation is fallout or the return to earth of radioactive particles of the cloud. In an airburst, most of the particles are carried high into the air where they are scattered by the winds and returned to the earth slowly. Fallout from low-altitude airburst presents a greater hazard because the heavy particles of debris picked up from the surface settle rapidly and are highly radioactive, but the hazard is not so great as that from surface and subsurface bursts.
Describe the following type of nuclear explosions:
Surface burst
Produces the worst fallout. The fireball touches the ground. Vast amounts of surface material is vaporized and taken into the fireball. As the fireball rises, the debris is sucked up by the strong afterwinds. Much of this debris returns to earth as radioactive fallout. The area endangered by fallout is much larger than the area affected by heat and shock.
Describe the following type of nuclear explosions:
Shallow underwater burst
A fireball is formed, but is smaller than an airburst and normally is not visible. The explosion creates a large bubble or cavity which, upon rising to the surface, expels steam, gases, and debris into the air with great force. Water rushing into the cavity is thrown upward in the form of a hollow column that may reach a height of several thousand feet. When the column collapses, a circular cloud of mist, called the base surge, is formed around the base of the column. Practically all thermal radiation is absorbed by the surrounding water, but a highly destructive shock wave is formed and is many times greater than the blast wave from an airburst. large water waves are created, some reaching heights of 90 feet within a few hundred feet of the blast.
Describe the following type of nuclear explosions:
Deep underwater burst
Produce the same effects as the shallow underwater burst, but with more of the impact absorbed by the deep ocean currents. The visual effects will be less, but the amount of contaminated water will be greater.
Describe the following effect of nuclear explosions:
Blast
Injuries caused by blast can be divided into primary injuries and secondary injuries. Primary blast injuries result from the direct action of the air shock wave on the body. The greater the weapon's size, the greater the blast wave's effective range will be, with an increase in casualties. Secondary blast injuries are caused by collapsing buildings and by timber and other debris flung about by the blast. Personnel may be hurled against objects or thrown to the ground. At sea, the shock wave produced by an underwater burst, can produce various secondary injuries.
Describe the following effect of nuclear explosions:
Flash burn/blindness
Burns caused by a nuclear explosion are primary and secondary. Primary burns are a direct result of the thermal radiation from the bomb. Secondary burns are the result of fires caused by the explosion. Flash burns are likely to occur on a large scale as a result of an air or surface burst of a nuclear weapon. Thermal radiation travels in straight lines, so it burns primarily on the side facing the explosion. Under hazy atmospheric conditions a large proportion of the thermal radiation may be scattered, resulting in burns received from all directions. Depending on the size of the weapon, second-degree burns may be received at distances of 25 miles or more. The intense flash of light that accompanies a nuclear blast may produce flash blindness at a range of several miles. Flash blindness is normally of a temporary nature, though, as the eye can recover in about 15 minutes in the daytime and 45 minutes at night. A greater danger lies in receiving permanent damage to the eyes caused by burns from thermal radiation, which may occur 40 miles or more from the nuclear weapon
Describe the following effect of nuclear explosions:
Radiation
Radiation hazards are alpha and beta particles, gamma and neutron radiation. Alpha particles have little skin penetrating power and must be taken into the body through ingestion or cuts. Beta particles can present a hazard to personnel if the emitters of these particles, such as dust or dirt, come in contact with the skin or inside the body. Beta particles with enouth intensity will cause skin burns.
Gamma rays, which are pure energy, are not easily stopped. They can penetrate every region of the body. Gamma rays can pass right through a body without ever touching it. Gamma rays that do strike atoms in the body cause ionization of these atoms, which may result in any number of possible chemical reactions that damage the cells of the body.
Neutrons, which have the greatest penetrating power of the nuclear radiation hazards, create hazards to personnel when the neutron is captured in atoms of various elements in the body, atmosphere, water or soil. As a result of this neutron capture, the elements become radioactive and release high-energy gamma rays and beta particles. Initial radiation contains both gamma and neutron radiation. Residual radiation, our greatest concern, contains both gamma and neutron radiation.
Describe the following effect of nuclear explosions:
Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP)
Produced by high altitude, air and surface bursts. The initial nuclear ionizing radiation will ionize the atmosphere around the burst point and produce the EMP, which will contain frequency components in the range from a few to several hundreds of kilocycles per second. The EMP has magnetic and electric field components which exist for only fractions of a second. The magnetic field component is significant inside the radius of the ionized atmosphere and can induce large currents in cables and long-lead wires. These large transient currents may burn out electronic or electrical equipment. The electric field component may also produce transient signal overloads and spurious signals on communication nets and in computer-driven systems. At ranges where ships suffer minor damage from other weapon effects, the major effect of the EMP is expected to be the tripping of circuit breakers and blowing of fuses in protective circuits. At close ranges, there is a good probability of permanent damage to electronic and electrical equipment. EMP can totally destroy entire phone and communication systems, radios, vehicle ignition systems, etc. Conventional aircraft exposed to it can lose all navigation, communication, and electronic flight control systems.
Describe the following effect of nuclear explosions:
Blackout
The loss of lights or electrical power failure during a nuclear attack.
Define/discuss Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP).
Defines the amount of protective CBR gear to wear or have readily availabe. There are several levels of protection.
MOPP 1-4
Explain MOPP 1.
Gas masks are issued to all hands and are kept at battle station. The gas masks are fitted for immediate use. An inventory of stowed chemical/biological defense equipment and supplies is conducted.
Explain MOPP 2.
Gas masks are carried by each person onboard. Per-position decontamination supplies at decontamination stations. Set material condition ZEBRA (modified).
Explain MOPP 3.
New filters are installed on the gas masks. Don Chemical Protective Overgarment smock with hood down, trousers, and overboots. Stow personal decontamination kit in the mask carrier. Stow chemical protective gloves and medical supplies in the jumper cargo pocket. Go to General Quarters. Set material condition ZEBRA. Fill pre-positioned canteens with potable water. Activate decontamination stations and Contamination Control Station (CCA) for operability. Post detection and monitoring teams. Post and monitor detection equipment materials in accordance with the ship's Chemical, Biological, Radiological bill. Activate the CMWD, Counter Measure Washdown System, intermittently.
Explain MOPP 4.
Don gas mask and secure the hood over the head and around the mask. Don gloves. Initiate continuous monitoring of detection equipment. Set condition Circle William (security of air vents). Activate CMWD system continuously.
The levels are set to protect against overheating from wearing protective gear for long periods of time.
Discuss the purpose of the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) Program.
The NATOPS program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps. It is issued by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO). NATOPS instructions prescribe general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities.
Explain general aircraft prestart precautions.
a. Before starting an engine, the wheels of the aircraft shall be chocked and the parking brake set unless a deviation from this requirement is specifically authorized by the applicable model NATOPS manual.
b. Where applicable, intake screens shall be installed on jet aircraft.
c. Prior to starting jet engines, intakes and surrounding ground/deck shall be inspected to eliminate the possibility of Foreign Object Damage (FOD).
d. When an engine is started by nonpilot personnel for testing and warmup purposes on aircraft other than transport and patrol class equipped with parking brakes, the plane shall be tied down.
e. Whenever an engine is started, personnel with adequate fire extinguishing equipment, if available, shall be stationed in the immediate vicinity of the engine but safely clear of intakes or propellers
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Warning
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed.
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Caution
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Note
An operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Shall
Means a procedure that is mandatory.
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Should
Means a procedure that is recommended.
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
May
"May" and "need not" mean procedure is optional.
State the meaning of the following term as it applies to NATOPS:
Will
Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.
State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation.
The standard operating procedures prescribed in NATOPS manuals represent the optimum methods of operating various aircraft and related equipment. The NATOPS evaluation is intended to evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherence to NATOPS procedures.
State the purpose of the naval Flight Records Subsystem (NAVFLIRS).
The NAVFLIRS, OPNAV 3710/4, also known as the "yellow sheet", provides a standardized Department of the Navy flight activity data collection system.
NAVFLIRS is the single-source document for recording flight data and is applicable in specific areas to aircraft simulators. The form shall be prepared for each attempt at flight of naval aircraft or training evolution for simulators.
The NAVFLIRS is a single-source document that collects flight activity data in support of the maintenance data system (MDS).
Data collected includes:

1. A statistical description of the flight pertaining to the aircraft and crewmembers.
2. A record of all logistic actions performed during the flight.
3. A record of weapons proficiency.
4. A record of training areas utilized and other miscellaneous data.
State the purpose of master flight files.
The master flight files shall be the only official flight record of naval aircraft and shall be maintained in accordance with OPNAVINST 3710.7 by every reporting custodian of naval aircraft as defined in OPNAVINST 5442.2.
Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs):
COMNAVAIRLANT - Commander, Naval Air Force US Atlantic Fleet
The first character shall be "A through M"; second character "A through Z".
Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs):
COMNAVAIRPAC - Commander, Naval Air Force US Pacific Fleet
The first character shall be "N through Z";
second character "A through Z".
Explain the aircraft visual identification system for the following Type Commanders (TYCOMs):
CNATRA - Commander, Naval Air Training Command
Ther first character shall be "A through G"; there is no second character.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Commanding Officer (CO)
The duties and responsibilities of the Commanding Officer are established by U.S.Navy Regulations, general orders, customs, and tradition. The authority of the Commanding Officer is commensurate with his responsibility, subject to the limitations prescribed by law and U.S. Navy regulations. The CO is ultimately responsible for those under his or her command and their actions.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Executive Officer (XO)
Is the direct representative of the Commanding Officer. The XO is primarily responsible for the organization, performance of duty, and good order and discipline of the entire command. All orders issued by him will have the same force and effect as though issued by the CO.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Command Master Chief/Senior/Chief
Is the enlisted advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of policies pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, utilization and training of all enlisted personnel.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Department Head
Is the representative of the CO in matters pertaining to the department. All persons assigned to the department will be subordinate to him and all orders issued by him will accordingly be obeyed by them.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Command Managed Equal Opportunity Officer(CMEO)/Equal Opportunity Program Specialist(EOPS
Provides equal opportunity training to the command. This includes the education and emphasis on giving equal opportunity to all members regardless of race, creed, or religious preference.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Division Officer
Is responsible under the Department Head, for the duties assigned to the division and for the conduct of subordinates, following regulations and orders of the Commanding Officer and other superiors.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Leading Chief Petty Officer(LCPO)/Leading Petty Officer(LPO)
The CPO and LPO designated by the Division Officer. Normally will be the senior CPO/LPO in the division. The LCPO assists the Division Officer in administering, supervising, and training division personnel. The LPO will assist the LCPO and Division Officer.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Work Center Supervisor
His or her primary job is to respond to the hour-by-hour work center functions. This requires constant communication throughout the chain of command. The W/C supervisor is responsible for the personnel under his supervision.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Command Career Counselor
Runs the ship or squadron's career counseling program, and makes sure that current programs and opportunities are available to all crew members.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Ombudsman
The Ombudsman is the link between the command and families of command personnel. The CO appoints the Ombudsman after consultations with various advisors. The Ombudsman performs varied services, such as keeping the CO informed about family morale and problems families are facing. They assist families needing different services.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:wing
Financial Specialist
Provide financial counseling to members in their command. This may include budgets, financial planning, investment opportunities, debt consolidation, etc.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Drug and Alcohol Program Advisor(DAPA)
Advises the CO/XO on drug and alcohol abuse aboard ship and the approaches necessary to cope effectively with the problem. He or she will also coordinate Navy policies and procedures on drug and alcohol education, rehabilitation, identification, and enforcement.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Security Manager
Keeps the CO/XO advised as to all matters of security. Works in close relation with Squadron Duty Officers and the entire duty section.
Discuss the organizational structure and the duties of the following personnel:
Career Information Program Management(CIPM) Program Manager
Provide career information to the squadron, work centers, and divisions. They act as divisional career counselors.
Discuss the purpose and general rules for the following type of counseling:
Personnel
There are times when a person has special problems that will require special help. These problems should be handled by specialists such as the chaplin, legal, and/or medical officer. Effective personal counseling will recognize situations in which referral is necessary. Your first duty in counseling is to recognize whether the problem is beyond your ability to help or not. This can be determined during counseling.
Discuss the purpose and general rules for the following type of counseling:
Performance
Counsel your personnel on a regular basis to let them know how they are doing and where they need to improve.
Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
Types of discharges
The basis for determining the type of discharge received by the member is called the type discharge. Honorable requires at least an average of 2.7, conduct 3.0 average, otherwise a "general" discharge is awarded.
Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
Advancement
Single most important factor in determining who will be selected for advancement. Eval marks are as follows:

4.0 = Early Promote
3.8 = Must Promote
3.6 = Promotable
3.4 = Progressing
2.0 = Significant Problems
Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
Good conduct awards
There can be no performance mark below 2.0 in any trait subsequent to, (after), 1 January 1996.
The member can have no convictions by court martial, no prior Non-Judicial Punishment (NJP), and no civil convictions or offenses involving moral turpitude (shameful acts).
The award is given every 3 years
Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
Eligibility for reenlistment
A member with marks under 3.0 will not normally be able to reenlist. Decision weights on the discretion of the CO
Describe the effects of enlisted evaluations on the following:
Assignment
Certain assignments require good evaluations. Some of these assignments may be Instructor duty, Recruit Company Commander, Formal Schools, etc. However, an overall 3.0 average is required and approval is at the discretion of Naval Military Personnel Command (NMPC).
Explain the use of the following:
Naval message
The principal means by which commanders communicate is the Naval message. Messages are written thoughs, ideas, or information expressed briefly and to the point. It is transmitted electronically to avoid delays to that of the normal mailing system.
Explain the use of the following:
E-mail
The method of corresponding electronically by computers. E-mail can be used within individual activities and between activities
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Date Time Group
Includes the date and time expressed in Greenwich Mean Time. The DTG is expressed in 6 digits. The first 2 digits being the day. The next 4 digits being the time, followed by a zone suffix, usually expressed in Zulu, or Greenwich time. The last part is the date and year.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
From line
The first line of the address component and contains the originator or drafter's plain language address. Note: a message MUST have only ONE originator
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
To line
Contains the address of the person or command who the message is going to.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Info line
Contains the addresses of those who you would like to look at or send the message for information purposes
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Classification/declassification line
The first line of text which must give the message's classification. It is listed as Top Secret, Secret, or Confidential
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Standard Subject Identification Code(SSIC)
The 4 or 5 digit number that stands for the subject of a document. SSIC's are required on all Navy and Marine Corps messages. The use of SSIC's provides a tested method for filing correspondence documents consistently and retrieving them quickly. There are 14 SSIC groups dealing with particular subjects.

Example, the "1000" series deals with personnel matters.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Subject line
The main topic of the message is listed here. These are always written in capital letters.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Passing instructions
Navy automated message processing system relay for the most part on certain elements at the beginning of the text such as flagwords, codewords, subject lines, and outgoing or incoming message references. These guides assist in the automatic internal routing of messages.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Reference line
An alternative to repeating lengthy reference material within the text of a message. References are always lettered and used in the order that they are referred to. They are written:
"As per reference (a), ....."
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Amplifying information line
Used to amplify or supplement the data text
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Narrative information line
Used to provide amplifying information which pertains to the data text.
Explain the purpose of the following message components:
Text
That part of the message known as the "body" or that part which contains the thought or idea the drafter desires to communicate; the reason for the existence of all other parts of the message.
Explain what the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on it:
Page 2
Record of Emergency Data; Used as a reference for beneficiary data should the servicemember die while on active or reserve duty.
Explain what the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on it:
Page 4
Enlisted Qualifications History, for enlisted members. It is a chronological history of occupational and training related qualifications, awards, and commendations. Entries should made as events occur.
Explain what the following enlisted service record pages are and what entries are made on it:
Page 13
Administrative Remarks; Serves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere or where detailed information may be required to clairify entries elsewhere in the service record.
State the purpose and discuss the contents of the Enlisted Distribution Verification Report(EDVR).
A monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel. Lists all individuals assigned and provides a summary of the present and future manning status. Used heavily by the Command Master Chief and detailers for billet assignment. Gives the individual's name along with his rate, date assigned, Naval Enlisted Classifications (NECs), billet assigned to, date reported, projected rotation date, etc.
Explain the use of a Report and Disposition of Offense(s)(NAVPERS Form 1626/7).
Court Memorandum; Page 7 of the enlisted service record. It shall be used to record court-martial and nonjudicial punishment which affect pay.
Discuss the purpose of the following:
Operational Report(OPREP)
Used by any unit to provide the National Comand Authorities (NCA) and appropriate naval commanders with immediate notification of any accidential or unauthorized incident involving a possible detonation of a nuclear weapon which could create the risk of outbreak of nuclear war. This message has the highest precedence
Discuss the purpose of the following:
Movement Report(MOVEREP)
A MOVREP is the primary source of location information concerning ships. A properly filed MOVREP will assist the chain of command all the way up to National Command Authority in the knowledge of locations/tracks/destinations of all vessels for emergency or operational use. Movement Report Centers and Movement Report Offices are part of the movement report systems. Their task is to account for all ship and command movements.
Discuss the purpose of the following:
Logistical Requirements(LOGREQ)
A LOGREQ is submitted by a ship prior to entering a port to notify the proper commands of its logistics requirements while visiting that particular port. It should be transmitted to arrive at the destination port no later than 48 hours prior to the ship's arrival
Discuss the purpose of the following:
Status of Requirement and Training Support(SORTS)
Reports the ship's status of conditions of readiness in all warfare areas in our ability to conducr operations
Discuss the purpose of the following:
Situation Report(SITREP)
Used by any unit commanding officer, officer-in-charge, or other commander to provide appropriate operational commanders and higher authority with timely notification for any incident not meeting OPREP-3 special incident reporting criteria. Submitted: When directed, when considered appropriate, when bomb threats have been evaluated as a hoax, when reporting violent crime, including assault, robbery, abuse, etc by active or dependent personnel, discrimination or sexual harassment, and incidents of suicide or attempted suicide
State the objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program(NAMP).
The aircraft maintenance department supports naval operations by the upkeep of aircraft and associated Support Equipment (SE) to the assigned level of maintenance. This support is accomplished by complying with the NAMP. Principles of the NAMP are found in volumn 1 of the OPNAVINST 4790.2 series. Since all maintenance activities have similarities in mission, operation, and administration, these areas have standardized organization and administration. The NAMP helps to standardize operations of any naval aviation command. The Chief of Naval Operations is in charge of the NAMP.
State the title of VOL. 1 of the NAMP.
Concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and Organizational and Intermediate Level Maintenance
State the title of VOL. 2 of the NAMP.
Depot Level Maintenance
State the title of VOL. 3 of the NAMP.
Maintenance Data Systems (MDS).
State the title of VOL. 4 of the NAMP.
Aviation 3M data processing requirements
State the title of VOL. 5 of the NAMP.
Standard operating procedures.
Describe the Organizational level of aviation maintenance.
Maintenance which is performed by an operating unit on a day-by-day basis in support of its own operations. The O-level mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and aeronautical equipment in a full mission capable status while continually improving the local maintenance process. Some O-level functions include servicing, inspections, handling, on-equipment corrective and preventive maintenance, record keeping, reports preparation, etc.
Describe the Intermediate level of aviation maintenance.
Maintenance which is the responsibility of, and performed by, designated maintenance activities in support of using organizations. Their mission is to enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability of supported activities by providing quality and timely material support at most approximate location with the lowest practical resource expenditure. I-level maintenance consists of on and off equipment material support.
Describe the Depot level of aviation maintenance.
Maintenance performed at naval aviation industrial establishments to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems during subsequent operational service periods or Special Depot Level Maintenance (SDLM) inductions. They preform what is commonly referred to as "overhaul" maintenance. They also perform maintenance on material requiring major overhaul, rebuilding of parts, assemblies, subassemblies, and end items. They provide rework and repair of engines, components, weight and balance, etc.
Discuss the general responsibilities of the following personnel:
Maintenance Officer (MO
The Maintenance Officer is responsible for the accomplishment of the department mission. He or she shall administer procedures in accordance with the NAMP, employ sound management practices in handling of personnel, facilities, and material. He/she shall define and assign responsibilities, functions, and operations
Discuss the general responsibilities of the following personnel:
Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)
Assistant head of the maintenance department. He/she shall assist the MO in the performance of duties and keep the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department. He receives the same training, and is qualified under the same guidelines as the MO.
Discuss the general responsibilities of the following personnel:
Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO)
Responsible for the overall production and material support of the department. General responsibilities include coordinating and monitoring the department workload, maintaining liaison between supported activities and supply, reviewing Maintenance Data Reports, etc.
Discuss the general responsibilities of the following personnel:
Material Control Officer
Supply corps officers assigned to a deployable squadron will be assigned as the MCO. Responsible to the Maintenance Material Control Officer for managing the Tool Control Program. Supports and disseminates information to command personnel on the BOSS III Program and Price Challenge Hotline. The BOSS Program is a partnership in which the Navy seeks to reduce supply support costs by improving reliability and maintainability of NAVICP managed items in fielded weapon or support systems. Used to reduce costs and improve readiness.
State the basic responsibilities of maintenance/production control.
Maintenance control will strive to maintain full mission capable aircraft. Production Control will strive to process items received to keep all non-mission capable and partial-mission-capable parts processed and back to the respective command in a timely fashion.
Discuss the basic responsibilities of the maintenance administration division.
Maintenance Administration will provide all administrative functions of the Maintenance Department including the preparation of messages, processing of incoming messages and reports, maintaining Instructions, etc.
Describe the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance.
Scheduled maintenance is the program for formally ensuring timely discovery and correction of defects. These are periodic prescribed inspections and servicing of equipment, done on hours, cycles or landings, calandar or mileage basis

Unscheduled maintenance is maintenance on discrepancies and deficiencies found during operations. It consists of fault isolation or troubleshooting, repair, replacement, test, and calibration.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
Daily Inspection
Conducted to inspect for defects to a greater depth than the turnaround or postflight inspections. It is valid for 72 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing is performed. Aircraft may be flown for 24 hours without another daily. This 24 hour period begins with the first launch following accomplishment of the daily inspection. The 24 hours cannot exceed the 72 hour expiration of the daily unless the expiration occurs during a mission. Turnaround requirements are not included in the daily inspection and must be accomplished separately. Accomplishment of a turnaround does not affect the 72 hour validity of the daily inspection.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
Turnaround Inspection
Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of the aircraft for flight, verify proper servicing, and detect degradation that may have occurred during the previous flight. Good for 24 hours, provided that no flight occurs during this period and no maintenance other than servicing was performed.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
special inspection
Inspection with a prescribed interval other than daily, calandar or phase. Special inspections always have a number in them; i.e., 14 day, 2000 landing, 2000 hour inspection, etc. These intervals are specified in the Periodic Maintenance Information Card deck.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
conditional inspection
Unscheduled conditions requiring an inspection such as a bird strike inspection, lightening strike inspection, hard-landing inspection, Foreign Object Damage (FOD) inspection, etc.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
Phase Inspection
Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any source, and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance. Includes an inventory of equipment listed in the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR), verification of cartridge actuated devices (CADs), escape propulsion systems, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid sampling, daily inspection, and complete functional check flight.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
acceptance inspection
Performed at the time a reporting custodian accepts a newly assigned aircraft, from any source, and on return of an aircraft from SDLM or other major depot level maintenance. Includes an inventory of equipment listed in the Aircraft Inventory Record (AIR), verification of cartridge actuated devices (CADs), escape propulsion systems, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid sampling, daily inspection, and complete functional check flight.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
transfer inspection
Performed at the time a reporting custodian transfers an aircraft or support equipment. It includes an inventory of all items listed on the AIR, configuration verification, hydraulic fluid sampling, and daily inspection.
Discuss the purpose of the following inspection:
aircraft service period adjustment
A depot level evaluation of the aircraft's general material condition. Performed by certified ASPA evaluators and consists of record and logbook analysis, and physical examination of the aircraft.
State the purpose of the Functional Check Flight (FCF).
Used to determine whether the airframe, powerplant, accessories and equipment are functioning in accordance with predetermined standards which subjected to the intended operating environment. Conducted at the completion of SDLM, acceptance, after engine system installation, reinstallation, flight control surface component replacement, attitude system component replacement/adjustment, certain Phase inspections, or for any time the aircraft has not flown for 30 days or more regardless of the reason. Other conditions are determined necessary by the Commanding Officer.
State the purpose of the Weight and Balance Program.
Provides service activities with a standard system of field weight and balance control. It also gives the maximum operating weights, center of gravity restrictions and method of loading that is satisfactory for safe flight. Modifications are utilized in updating aircraft records. Provides flight crews with accurate base line weight and center of gravity data.
State the purpose of the aircraft logbook.
The logbook is a hard cover, loose-leaf binder containing the history of the aircraft and includes the following sections: Non-aging record, flight time, inspection records, repair and rework sections, Technical Directive section, Miscellaneous history, preservation and depreservation record, installed explosive devices section, inventory record, assembly service record, equipment history record, scheduled removal components cards (SRCs), aviation life support equipment records, seat survival kit records,and Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs). AESR records are kept on items that have their own inspections, etc, such as engines, auxiliary power units, propeller assemblies, etc.
The logbook is a hard cover, loose-leaf binder containing the history of the aircraft and includes the following sections: Non-aging record, flight time, inspection records, repair and rework sections, Technical Directive section, Miscellaneous history, preservation and depreservation record, installed explosive devices section, inventory record, assembly service record, equipment history record, scheduled removal components cards (SRCs), aviation life support equipment records, seat survival kit records,and Aeronautical Equipment Service Records (AESRs). AESR records are kept on items that have their own inspections, etc, such as engines, auxiliary power units, propeller assemblies, etc.
Anyone designated in writing by the Commanding Officer.
State who is authorized to release aircraft safe for flight.
The signature and rank rate of the Maintenance Officer, Maintenance Material Control Officer, or maintenance control officer certifying safe for flight condition of the aircraft. Other persons may sign the record if authorized and designated in writing by the CO. The material condition of an aircraft which, condidering mission requirements and environmental conditions, permits it to be launched, flown, and safely landed, and ensures the aircrew has the operable equipment for safe flight requirements
Discuss the following Planned Maintenance System(PMS) publications:
Maintenance Requirement Cards(MRCs)
Provides instructions required for the efficient performance of scheduled maintenance tasks. Each card contains tasks related to a particular system, subsystem, area, or component using a logical sequence for accomplishment. Identifies the recommended rating of the person to perform the maintenance, performance time, and work area or zone involved. List what support equipment is needed, consumables, replacement parts, and assistance requirements for task performance. MRCs do not include instructions for repair, adjustment, calibration, or procedures for correcting defects.
Discuss the following Planned Maintenance System(PMS) publications:
Periodic Maintenance Information Cards(PMICs)
The use of PMICs is to identify scheduled or forced removal items and their replacement intervals. They contain component or assembly removal and replacement, airframe structural life limits, maintenance requirements system indexes such as MRCs, conditional inspections, phase change inplementation cards, etc.
Define the following as applied to aviation maintenance:
Illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB
Contains illustrations and part numbers for all parts of the aircraft or equipment on which it is issued. The IPB contains information required for ordering parts, and for identifying parts and arrangements of parts in assemblies.
Define the following as applied to aviation maintenance:
Maintenance Instruction Manuals (MIMs)
Contains instructions for "O" and "I" level maintenance and servicing of a specific model aircraft. Identifies each maintenance task to the responsible maintenance level.
Discuss the Workcenter Supervisor's responsibilities
Primary job of the W/C supervisor is the hour-by-hour maintenance situation. This requires constant communication between the work center and Maintenance Control. Keep Maintenance Control constantly notified
Define the concept of Quality Assurance (QA).
The concept of QA is that of the prevention of the occurrence of defects. The achievement of QA depends on prevention, knowledge, and special skills.
Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel:
Quality Assurance Representative (QAR)
When performing inspections, they are considered to be the direct representative of the CO for ensuring safety of flight of the item concerned. They certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them, that it has been properly completed, and is in accordance with current instructions and directives
Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel:
Collateral Duty QAR (CDQAR)
Assigned on a temporary or permanent basis in accordance with OPNAV 4790.2 series. Temporary CDQARs may be assigned when temporary severe shortages of skills will not support the assignment of a QAR in one of the billets or to relieve QARs during short periods of absence such as leave, temporary assigned duty periods, hospitalization, etc. Permanent CDQARs may be assigned for Aircrew Personal Protective or Survival Equipment billet, and Armament billet when the activity has a minimal ordnance delivery in the assigned mission, for Egress/Environmental Systems when the activity does not have ejection seats, to supplement multiple work shifts, and on certain detachments or activities with 4 or less planes.
Explain the responsibilities of the following QA personnel:
Collateral Duty Inspector (CDI)
Assigned to production work centers to inspect all work and comply with the QA inspections required during all maintenance actions performed by their respective work centers. They will spotcheck all work in progress. They are monitored by QA and QA will establish minimum qualifications for personnel selected for CDI. They are given a written exam. An oral exam may be used.
Explain the purpose of the following QA audits:
Special Audit
Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs. They may be requested by the work center at any time or when a new work center supervisor is assigned. Maintained copies of audits are held for one year.
Explain the purpose of the following QA audits:
Quarterly/Work Center Audit
Conducted quarterly to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center. All areas of the work center are evaluated including personnel, monitored and managed programs, logs and records, licenses, etc.
Discuss the two functions of the Central Technical Publications Library (CTPL).
QA manages the CTPL program. This function includes the determinationof technical manuals required to support the maintenance organization, receipt and distribution control of manuals, and for ensuring manuals are updated throughout the maintenance organization. Internal control and distribution of the NAMP is a responsibility of the CTPL.
Discuss the elements of a successful Foreign Object Damage(FOD) Program.
The FOD prevention program identifies, corrects, and eliminates causal factors which are a command responsiblilty and must be a part of the maintenance program. QA will monitor the FOD program. All work centers will institute procedures for compliance.
State the primary objective of the Tool Control Program.
This program provides a means to rapidly account for all tools after completing a maintenance task, thus reducing the potential for FOD. A secondary benefit is reduced tool loss.
Explain the purpose of the following program:
Fuel Surveillance
Free water and foreign contaminants in aircraft fuel systems, singularly or in combination, constitute a hazard in naval aircraft. Harmful affects of water, particles, and microbiological growth include erratic or incorrect fuel quantity indications, icing of filters, valves and other fuel system components. Fuel samples will be monitored and sampled. QA will monitor this program. A record of when and which fuel tanks were sampled will be maintained.
Explain the purpose of the following program:
Navy Oil Analysis
Provides a diagnostic technique to monitor aeronautical equipment without removal or extensive dissembly. QA will ensure samples are taken from engines and accessories at intervals established in appropriate MRCs and MIMs. Results will be maintained and trends highlighted.
Explain the purpose of the following program:
Aviators Breathing Oxygen(ABO) Surveillance
All persons in the ABO program will be thoroughly familiar with the characteristics of ABO, Liquid Oxygen (LOX), gaseous havards, and the need for quality standards. Operations involving the handling of LOX or gaseous oxygen will be preformed by 2 or more qualified persons. They shall be thoroughly trainied and monitored
Explain the purpose of the following program:
Hydraulic Contamination Control
The prime objective of this program is to achieve and maintain a satisfactory level of fluid purity in hydraulic systems, thereby providing for safe and efficient operation of naval aircraft and support equipment. Navy standard class 5 (aircraft) and Navy standard class 3 (support equipment) classes or cleaner contamination levels will be maintained.
Explain the purpose of the following program:
Tire and Wheel Maintenance Safety
Persons handling tires and wheels shall be properly trained and aware of the safety hazards. They shall handle tires and wheels with the same care as that given to live ordnance. All persons trained will be familiar with all applicable manuals.
State the purpose of the Maintenance Training Improvement Program (MTIP).
A training management system which evaluates the technical knowledge levels of aviation technicians. Comprehensive diagnostic testing in specific systems or subsystems identifies deficiencies which are targeted for refresher training. Training is concentrated on technical knowledge, deficiencies, and overall activity capabilities.
Explain the purpose of the Monthly Maintenance Plan(MMP).
Provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work. It is prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month. It is used by supervisors to be aware of upcoming requirements. It includes the following minimum information: flight hours, dates of scheduled inspections, training, qualifications, chain-of-command, calibration schedules, Technical Directive compliance dates, etc.
Discuss the importance of the Electro-Static Discharge(ESD) Program.
ESD is the transfer of electrostatic charge between objects at different potentials caused by direct contact or induced by an electrostatic field. The ESD program provides protected areas for material, equipment, and procedures required to control and minimize electrostatic discharges. ESD protected areas are required when handling ESD parts, assemblies, and equipment outside of their ESD protective covering or packaging.
What functional requirements of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program(NAMP) are satisfied by the organizational maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
To improve mission capability, improve aircraft maintenance and supply support. To improve upline reporting to satisfy Department of Defense program requirements, and modernize management support
What functional requirements of the NAMP are satisfied by the intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS?
Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing system users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required by the organization.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Maintenance
Collects and processes maintenance related data and provides data to other subsystems on the data base. Used extensively by Maintenance Control.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Flight
Collects and processes flight related data.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Logs/records
Establishes and maintains configuration profiles for engines, aircraft, and any Aeronautical Equipment Service Record (AESR) records.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
personnel
Reserved for future use. Can be used to monitor qualifications. Not in use at this time.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
assets
Processes inventory and inspection criteria for support equipment and Aviation Life Support Systems (ALSS).
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
data analysis
Approves or disapproves Maintenance Action Forms (MAF's), Naval Flight Records (NAVFLIRS), for upline submission.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
reports
Selects and produces various reports.
Describe the purpose of the following organiztional maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
ad hoc query
Creates user-specific needed or requested reports.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Maintenance activity
Allows maintenance personnel to document maintenance actions, order parts, maintain individual component repair list data, and request inquiries. Actual documentation requirements such as validation specifications, form descriptions, and field entry requirements are contained in this and other instructions. Any NALCOMIS IMA specific documentation requirements are covered in the detailed description of each function or screen.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Configuration status accounting
Contains 3 sections: Aircraft Engines, Support Equipment, and Technical Directives
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Personnel management
Contains information on assigned military and civilian personnel. The information is used for workload management and to verify authorization for discrepancy signoffs, QA inspections, MAF reviews, and other job related functions.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Asset management
Contains the functions required to maintain inventory and utilization data for Support Equipment and IMRL items
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Material requirement processing
Covers material requirements generated by maintenance customers at the O-level and I-level. These requirements include repairable components, consumable repair parts, and indirect material support items.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
System support
Permits the user to see a list of the on-screen messages that are waiting action. It uses on-line functions to review the requests for reports, and to release them for subsequent printing.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Data off-load/on-load
Used to generate files, reports, and documents for data off-load/on-load. These items accompany temporarily transferred Support Equipment and personnel and permanently transferred SE, either to or from organizations.
Describe the purpose of the following intermediate maintenance activity's NALCOMIS subsystem:
Technical publications
provides an automated technical library tracking system.
Explain the purpose of a Maintenance Action Form(MAF) as applied to NALCOMIS documentation.
Used to document maintenance actions to on-equipment maintenance actions. Used to document maintenance as preventative maintenance, such as corrosion prevention and treatment. Also used to document the removal/installation, and processing of a repairable component or item to an Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department (AIMD) or On Site Storeroom (OSS).
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Work Unit Code (WUC)
Identifies the system or subsystem being worked upon.
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Job Control Number (JCN)
A 9, 10, or 11-character code. Serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reporting (MDR) and maintenance control procedures.
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Maintenance Action Form (MAF) Control Number (MCN)
A 7-character alpha/numeric code assigned by the system that serves as a base for Maintenance Data Reports and maintenance control procedures. Tracks MAF's through the maintenance process
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Discrepancy block
A narrative description of a reported discrepancy
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Corrective action block
A narrative description of the corrective action taken on a discrepancy.
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
When Discovered (W/D) code
A single alpha-character, indicating when the need for maintenance was discovered
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Type Equipment (TYPE EQUIP) code
Identifies the type of equipment being worked on.
Explain the following block on a MAF to be utilized as data fields in NALCOMIS:
Type Maintenance (T/M) code
A one-character alpha or numeric code used to describe the type work being performed.
What is a Special Maintenance Qualification(SMQ)?
Used to screen the levels of security. It determines which screens or parts of NALCOMIS an individual has access to
Discuss the security considerations that apply to an individual's NALCOMIS log in and password.
a. Protect your password. b. Do not share, loan, or write down your password. c. Protect passwords from unauthorized viewing. d. Do not leave your terminal or computer while logged in; always log off when complete. e. Know who the security personnel are.
State the function and responsibilities of material control.
The responsibility of Material Control is to provide material support to their cognizant organizations and coordinate indirect material requirements to ensure the material ordered is the material required and delivered to the work centers. Material Control shall: (1) Establish delivery/pickup points for material ordered.
(2) Maintain liaison with the supporting ASD on maintenance material matters to ensure the material needs of the organization are satisfied. (3) Prepare documents for material required for operational support, for example, aviation fuel, lube oil, flight clothing, and material carried in service market outlets.(4) Furnish information to the Supply activity on the identity and quantity of material. (5) Establish procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms and the performance of tool inventories.(6) Ensure surveys are prepared in the event of loss, damage, or destruction of accountable material.(7) Perform memorandum OPTAR funding, accounting, charting, and budgeting of costs. A separate material control register is maintained for each OPTAR held.(8) Maintain adequate accountability of material and equipment on custody.(9) Maintain inventory control of authorized allowances of material listed in the IMRL and authorized allowance lists.(10) Validate NMCS/PMCS requisitions daily and maintain (by aircraft BUNO) current NMCS/ PMCS status records.(11)Perform an inventory of aircraft, with technical assistance, upon receipt or transfer to ensure inventory log entries are made, and inventory shortage listings are prepared and forwarded to Maintenance Control for inclusion in the AIR.
Discuss the following Operational Target (OPTAR) funding and give examples of items procured with it:
Flight Operations Fund(OFC-01)
(a) Aviation fuels consumed in flight operations. (b) Initial and replacement issues of authorized items of flight clothing and flight operational equipment for pilots and flight crews. (c) Consumable office supplies for aviation squadrons.
(d) Aerial film, recording tape, and chart paper consumed in flight. (e) Flight deck shoes and safety shoes used by squadron personnel directly involved in the readiness, launch, and recovery of aircraft.

(f) Liquid and gaseous oxygen consumed during flight by the aircrew. (g) Nitrogen used in aircraft and weapon systems. (h) Aircraft maintenance costs and repair parts when obtained from any other military source. (i) COG 1I forms when not directly used in support of maintenance. (j) Consumable ASW operations center supplies when consumed in flight. (k) Publications (other than those of a recreational nature) used to impart technical and professional knowledge to officers and enlisted personnel of the command. (l) Plaques for the CO and XO offices only. (m) Special identification clothing, for example, flight deck jerseys and helmets, used by squadron personnel in the readiness, launch, and recovery of aircraft.
Discuss the following Operational Target (OPTAR) funding and give examples of items procured with it:
Aviation Fleet Maintenance(AFM)Fund
1) Paints, wiping rags, towel service, cleaning agent, and cutting compounds used in preventive maintenance and corrosion control of aircraft. (2) Consumable repair parts, miscellaneous material, and Navy stock account parts used in direct maintenance of aircraft, including repair and replacement of FLRs, AVDLRs, and related SE. (3) Pre-expended, consumable maintenance material meeting requirements of NAVSUP Publication 485 and NAVSUP Publication 567 used in maintenance of aircraft, aviation components, or SE.
(4) Aviation fuel used at I-level in test and check of aircraft engines during engine buildup, change, or during maintenance. Oils, lubricants, and fuel additives used at both O-level and I-level. (5) Allowance list items (NAVAIR 00-35QH-2) used strictly for maintenance, such as impermeable aprons, explosive handlers coveralls, industrial face shields, gas welders gloves, industrial goggles, and nonprescription safety glasses. (6) Fuels used in related SE (shipboard only). (7) Replacement of components used in test bench repair. (8) Maintenance or equipment replacement of aircraft loose equipment listed in the AIR. (9) Consumable hand tools used in the readiness and maintenance of aircraft, maintenance and repair of components, and related equipment. (10) Safety and flight deck shoes used in maintenance shops. (11) Repair and maintenance of flight clothing and pilots and crew equipment. (12) Authorized decals used on aircraft. (13) Replacement of consumable tools and IMRL allowance list items. (14) Items consumed in interim packaging and preservation of aviation fleet maintenance repairables. (15) Items, such as MAFs, MAF bags, equipment condition tags, and COG 1I forms, and publications, used in support of direct maintenance of aviation components or aircraft. (16) Authorized special purpose clothing for unusually dirty work while performing maintenance of aircraft. (17) Civilian labor only when used in direct support of AFM (requires ACC/TYCOM approval prior to use). (18) Costs incurred for IMRL repair. (19) Replacement of general purpose electronic test equipment allowance items which are missing or unserviceable (COG Z). (20) Oils, lubricants, and fuel additives consumed during flight operations.
(21) Navy stock account repairable material (non-AVDLR) used in direct maintenance of aircraft component repair, or related SE. (22) The requisitioning of material incidental to TD installation, for example, fluids, epoxies, and shelf life items, not to exceed one thousand dollars per TD per squadron. 23) IMRL/TBA replenishment/replacement
State the procedures for accomplishing the following:
Ordering parts and material
(1) Receive requirements from work centers and support areas (O-level). (2) Use appropriate automated procedures to provide data to the ASD (O-level). (3) Enter date and time ordered in the register to reflect the exact time of submission to ASD. This time is required for determining accurate NMCS start time and conducting follow-up inquiries (O-level). (4) Approve or disapprove indirect material requirements from work centers by reviewing message mailbox (I-level).
State the procedures for accomplishing the following:
Receipt and delivery of parts and material
(1) Receive the material and a DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document (DD 1348) (or facsimile form) from the ASD MDU. (2) Sign the DD 1348 copy as receipt.(3) Enter the date and time the material is delivered to the specified delivery point on the DD 1348. (4) Determine if the component is ASR, EHR, or SRC card trackable and that the appropriate ASR, EHR, or SRC card is with the component before forwarding it to the work center. If the appropriate record or card is not received with the component and a replacement RFI component is not available, contact COMNAVAIRSYSCOM (AIR-3.6.2.3) for reconstruction or disposition directions. (5) Distribute received material to the appropriate work center. (6) Obtain signature of work center personnel receiving material on DD 1348. (7) Turn in defective repairable CRIPL components within 24 hours of receipt.
State the procedures for accomplishing the following:
Turn-in of defective components
a. Repairable material will be removed from an aircraft and made available for turn-in when a replacement is requested, unless specifically authorized to remain in place by the CRIPL. When the replacement CRIPL item is received, turn-in of the old item must be made within 24 hours. Supporting Supply activities shall strictly enforce the one-for-one exchange of repairables using the CRIPL to identify the authorized exceptions.
b. All defective repairable components shall be wrapped using a cushioning material, cellular plastic film (bubble wrap) PPP-C-795, class 1 or class 2, for short term protection of equipment from handling and shock when the component is turned in to Supply.
Define the acronym MILSTRIP and state its purpose.
Military Standart Requistioning and Issue Procedure - A uniform procedure established by DOD for its own use to govern requistion and issue of material within standard priorities.
Define and explain the following term:
ICRL (Individual Component Repair List)
A detailed statement of IMA's component repair capability that contains existing repair capability data on items previously processed by the IMA. It also identifies items that are capable of repair or for which future repair is not planned.
Define and explain the following term:
CRIPL (Consolidated Remain-In-Place List)
A listing of all authorized remain in place items which is published by NAVICP and approved by the TYCOMs and COMNAVAIRSYSCOM.
Define and explain the following term:
NMCS (Not Mission Capable Supply)
Material condition of and aircraft that is not capable of preforming any of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage.
Define and explain the following term:
PMCS (Partial Mission Capable Supply)
Material condition of and aircraft that can perform at least one but not all of its mission because maintenance required to correct the discrepancy cannot continue due to a supply shortage
Define and explain the following term:
NSN (National Stock Number)
A 13 digit stock number assigned by the Defense Logistics Services Center (DLSC) to identify an item of material in the supply distribution system. It consists of a four digit federal supply classification (FSC), and a nine digit national item identification number (NIIN).
Define and explain the following term:
NIIN (National Item Identification Number)
A 9 digit number that consists of a two digit national codification bureau (NCB) code and seven digits which, in conjunction with the NCB code, uniquely identify each NSN item in the federal supply distribution system.
Define and explain the following term:
AVDLR (Aviation Depot Level Repair)
AVDLRs are financed by the NWCF. Under this process, the end user finances the D-level repair and procurement of 7R COG repairables through the local replenishment of these repairables to replace BCMd, lost, or missing components. Although the squadron usually initiates repairable demands, the IMA has primary control over whether these transactions would result in an AVDLR NWCF charge. Thus, the IMA or station will retain control of the AVDLR replenishment OPTAR and corresponding accounting responsibilities.
Define and explain the following term:
AWP (Awaiting Parts)
The condition that exists when materials required to complete a maintenance action are not available on station/ship. AWP is that time when no work can be performed on the item being repaired due to a lack of ordered parts. Parts are not considered to be ordered until the demand has been forwarded to the Supply Response Section of the Supply Department. The time when AWP occurred and the length of time it lasted is recorded in the Maintenance/Supply Record Section. Items which cause AWP during on-equipment work are identified in the Removed/Old Item Section. Items which cause AWP during off-equipment work are identified in the (H-Z) Failed/Required Material Section.
Define and explain the following term:
IMRL (Individual Material Readiness List)
A consolidated list that shows items and quantities of certain SE required for material readiness of the aircraft ground activity to which the list applies.
Define and explain the following term:
AIR (Aircraft Inventory Records)
The AIR is used to establish a formal, continuous chain of accountability for specific equipment and material installed on or designated for use on any aircraft of a specified T/M/S. An AIR is applicable to all aircraft of a specified T/M/S and lists selected material and equipment accountable by all Navy or Marine Corps organizations that are assigned or physically possess operational aircraft.
Define and explain the following term:
EXREP (Expeditious Repair)
The processing for repair of NIS or NC components (repairable or consumable) which must be in support of, or related to, an NMCS or PMCS situation.
Explain the importance of the aeronautical allowance lists in relation to mission sustainability.
Lists of equipment and material determined from known or estimated requirements as necessary to place and maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition. In the case of aerological and photographic material, the requirement is extended to all applicable naval activities.
State the purpose of the following form:
Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss(DD Form 200)
A form used to document the report of survey and certify the survey process when government property is lost, damaged, or destroyed. This form is the official document to support establishment of debts, relief from accountability, and adjustment to accountable records for Supply System Stock and Property Book Material
State the purpose of the following form:
Missing/Lost/Stolen Report
Reports of missing, lost or stolen items are made by a completed copy of a Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (DD Form 200) or Report of Discrepancy (ROD) (SF Form 364). If you are required to complete a DD Form 200 to adjust plant or minor property or inventory records, the completed form becomes the vehicle for the MLSR submission. The ROD becomes the reporting vehicle if the shipper denies credit for reported non receipt or shortages on supply requisitions. MLSR report number will be assigned for each reported incident and shall be numbered sequentially for each calendar year. Example: 1992/001-INITIAL. Losses and gains resulting from stock record adjustments will not be reported as MLSR unless the item(s) qualify under other criteria.
What is a flight packet used for?
Supply officers or Material Control officers of aviation activities will be responsible for flight packets for issue to pilots making extended flights. These flight packets will contain instructions to assist pilots of aircraft involved in extended flights to obtain material or services which may be necessary for the continuation of a flight. Custody and issue control of flight packets will be as prescribed by the CO. Flight packets will be inventoried by the Supply Officer or Material Control Officer when returned after each extended flight and at least weekly. Strict accountability will be established for control of the Purchase Order/Invoice/Voucher (SF 44) by the preprinted number on the document. Each aircraft making an extended flight will be provided with a flight packet containing, as a minimum, the following listed items.
What is in a flight packet?
(a) DOD Single Line Item Requisition System Document (DD 1348) (6 part) to requisition repair parts and other materials for in-plane servicing during extended flights.
(b) Purchase Order/Invoice/Voucher (SF 44) to procure supplies and services from commercial concerns and government sources.
(c) DD 1896 (white identaplate) or DD 1897 (purple identaplate) to procure jet fuel or aviation gasoline from commercial airports holding DLA into-plane refueling contracts and most DOD activities.
(d) Instructions for safeguarding and shipping damaged aircraft.
(e) Instructions for procuring services and supplies.
(f) Statement of Witness (SF 94).
(g) Claim of Damage or Injury (SF 95).
(h) VIDS/MAF (OPNAV 4790/60).
(i) Applicable daily and turnaround inspection MRCs.
(j) Fuel Sample Log Sheets.
(k) At least three oil sample results for aircraft on extended cross country flights.
Explain the purpose of Source, Maintenance, and Recoverability (SM&R)codes.
SM&R codes are used to communicate maintenance and supply instructions to various logistic support levels and using commands for the logistic support of systems, equipment, and end items. These codes are made available to their intended users by means of technical publications, such as allowance lists, IPB manuals, MIMs, and supply documents. SM&R codes are assigned to each supported item based on the logistic support planned for the end item and its components.

The primary objective is to establish uniform policies, procedures, management tools, and means of communication to promote interservice and integrated material support within and among military services. Thus, the establishment of uniform SM&R codes is an essential step toward improving overall capabilities for more effective interservice and integrated support.
Define the term Hazardous Material (HM).
Any material that, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled.
Define the term Hazardous Waste (HW).
Any discarded material (liquid, solid, or gas) which meets the definition of HM and/or is designated as a hazardous waste by the Environmental Protection Agency or a State authority
Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.
Stowage locations shall be inspected weekly and quarterly, inspect for tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, imporper or inadequate labeling, and expired shelf-life
State the purpose and information contained on the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
MSDS are technical bulletins containing information about materials, such as composition, chemical, and physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling and use. They are located with the HM/HW Coordinator at Medical, Supply Officer, Work Center, and the HM container
What are the 6 categories of HM?
(a) Flammable or combustible materials(b) Toxic materials(c) Corrosive materials (including acids and bases) (d)Oxidizing materials (e)Aerosol container
(f)Compressed gases
Explain the general procedures to be followed when a HM/HW spill is discovered.
a. Discovery
b. Notification
c. Initiation of action.
d. Evaluation
e. Containment
f. Damage control
g. Dispersion of Gases/vapors
h. Cleanup and decontamination
i. Disposal
j. Certification for re-entry
k. Follow-up reports
State the personal protection equipment required when handling HM/HW.
Eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves.
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Adhesives
Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore.
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Grease
Oily solid materials such as contaminated rags, absorbents, and oil filters can be thrown overboard beyond 50 nautical miles off shore. If within 50 nautical miles containerize for shore disposal. Keep petroleum lubricants separate from synthetic lubricants.
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Hydraulic fluid
Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore. Keep synthetic fluids separate from other types of fluids.
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Fuels
Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore. Keep synthetic and petroleum lubricants separate
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Waste Oils
Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore.
Discuss the disposal limitations for the following:
Paint/paint thinners
Store as per applicable manuals, and dispose of onshore
Describe required training for all hands with respect to the HM/HW program.
a. Types of HM in their work area and aboard ship.
b. What HMs are and how they are disposed of.
c. How to read and interpret hazard warning labels.
d. What an MSDS is, how to read it, and where a copy is available to review. General information on HM handling, stowage, use, and disposal.
e. Protective measures when handling HM.
f. Emergency procedures.
Describe the purpose of secondary labeling of HM when removed from the original container.
Use only approved containers, ensure that existing precautionary labeling is retained and that subsequent containers are marked with appropriate precautionary labeling
Discuss the purpose of the HM Authorized Use List (AUL).
A current inventory of HM, chemical substances, or components known or suspected to contain HM used for local acquisition and use. Local workcenters or codes should maintain a current inventory of items authorized for local use and keep it current.
Define the following:
Oily waste
Oil mixed with water or other fluids such that the mixture is no longer useful
Define the following:
Waste oil
Oil whose characteristics have changed markedly since being originally refined and has become unsuitable for further use, and is not considered economically recyclable.
Discuss the legislation that governs the discharge of oily waste into the ocean.
The Clean Water Act authorizes the Department of Defense to issue regulations governing the design, construction, operation of marine sanitation devices on board vessels owned and operated by the government.
Describe the actions required for oil spills within the U.S. contiguous zone.
a. In Navy ports, the ship’s commanding ofticer shall:
(1) Notify the shoreside NOSC/cognizant facility commanding officer by the most expeditious means possible. For environmentally significant spills, see paragraph 19-9.2.8.

(2) Notify the National Response Center (NRC) by telephone at (800) 424-8802.

(3) Take, insofar as practical, immediate actions to mitigate the effects of the spill.

(4) Follow up by submitting a naval message. Appendices H and I provide formats for OHS spill reports.

b. In non-Navy ports (and elsewhere within the contiguous zone), the ship’s commanding officer shall:

(1) Notify the appropriate shoreside NOSC and cognizant shore facility commanding otlcer specified in the shoreside NOSC contingency plan. For environmentally significant spills, see paragraph 19-9.2.8.

(2) Notify the NRC by telephone at (800) 424-8802.

(3) Take, insofar as practical, immediate actions to mitigate the effects of the spill. Rapid action by the ship’s crew can result in containment and collection of the spill. Shipboard personnel shall use available means to clean up minor spills before requesting assistance from shore-based personnel.

(4) Follow up by submitting a naval message.
Describe the actions required for oil spills outside the U.S. contiguous zone.
a. Initiate immediate action to mitigate the effects of the spill.

b. Notify the predesignated fleet Navy On Scene Coordinator, NOSC, by naval message.

c. The fleet NOSC shall implement the applicable fleet NOSC Oil and Hazardous Sub stance Spill Response Plan.

OHS Spill Response in Waters of Foreign Countries.
Ships shall take the following action for an Oil or Hazardous Substance, OHS, spill in these waters:

a. The ship’s commanding officer shall initiate immediate action to mitigate the effects of the spill.

b. The ship’s commanding officer shall immediately notify the predesignated fleet NOSC and/or shoreside NOSC (as defined in governing contingency plans) by naval message.

c. The fleet and shoreside NOSC shall implement the applicable NOSC Oil and Hazardous Substance Spill Response Plan
Discuss the oily waste discharge limitations in geographic zones and waters other than those of the United States.
If equipped with OCM, discharge less than 15 parts per million oil. Ships with Oil Water Separator (OWS) or Bilge Water Processing Tank (BWPT) but no Oil Content Monitor, must process all machinery space bilge water through OWS or BWPT
Define and discuss data found on an Material Safety Data Sheets, MSDS.
Composition, chemical, physical characteristics, health and safety hazards, and precautions for safe handling, use and disposal.
Discuss Work Center Supervisor responsibilities as they pertain to HMC&M.
(a) Ensure that approved personal protective clothing and equipment are maintained and used.

(b) Ensure that prior to initial use or handling any HM, workcenter personnel have been trained on the hazards associated with that material and are familiar with what an MSDS is, what it contains, and where a copy is available for review.
Discuss all hands responsibilities as they pertain to HMC&M.
a) Return HM to approved stowage or the HAZMINCEN upon completion of use or at the end of the workday.
(b) Properly use and handle hazardous material, (HM).

(c) Collect and segregate any residue resulting from use of HM issued from the HAZMAT Center for turn-in to the supply department/HAZMAT Center.

(d) Report any spills of HM to the Officer Of the Deck, and/or Damage Control Central/Central Control Station.

(e) Properly stow or return to the HAZMATCEN/supply department any HM found improperly stowed in work or berthing spaces.
Discuss proper stowage procedures for HMC&M.
a. Workcenter supervisors shall ensure that, prior to using any HM, machining or abrasive cleaning of components containing HM (i.e., beryllium and other heavy metals), personnel under their supervision are trained on the hazards associated with that material and that they have been provided with necessary protective clothing and equipment (i.e., eye protection, respiratory devices, and gloves impermeable to the HM in use).

b. Workcenter supervisors shall ensure that spaces are well-ventilated in areas where HM is used or machined.

c. Upon completion of HM use, return surplus material to its appropriate storage location.

d. Avoid breathing vapors or dust when using or machining HM.

e. Avoid contact with the eyes or prolonged contact with skin when using or machining HM.

f. Prohibit smoking, drinking, or eating in areas where open containers of HM is being used.

g. Ensure personal protective equipment (eye protection, respiratory devices, gloves impermeable to the HM in use, etc.) is in good operating condition and is readily available to all personnel working with HM.

h. Use a respirator with appropriate filter when potentially exposed to particulate matter, hazardous gases, or vapors. Consult the MDR for specific guidance in this regard, and for a determination of the need for more stringent respiratory protection requirements.
Discuss proper marking of hazardous material containers
Manufacturer's labels for shipboard identification of HM containers must clearly identify the material name, the manufacturer's name and address, and the nature of the hazard presented by the HM including the target organ potentially affected by the material. A manufacturer's label may be a tag, sign, placard, or gummed sticker.
Discuss flammable material stowage requirements.
Store separately from Oxidizers. Check the Hazmat Compatibility chart, and Imcompatable materials charts.
Flammable liquids must be kept in a flammables liquid store room or cabinet. Note that storage of flammable liquids is not allowed in machinery areas.
Rags, paper and wood may not be stored in these areas. However, oily rags are ok.
No open flames or spark producing materials. Mark and label the area. Ensure proper ventilation
Discuss the precautions observed when handling flammables
The main objective in working safely with flammable liquids is to avoid accumulation of vapors and to control sources of ignition.
State the location and contents of the oil spill containment kit.
Each ship shall maintain one Mk 11 Oil Spill Containment and Cleanup Kit, AEL 2-550024006, for overboard spills, and AEL 2-550024007, for spills onboard ship. These kits include shovels, gloves, coveralls, buckets, absorbent, and sufficient quantities of containers and labels at the hazardous waste accumulation facility.