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305 Cards in this Set

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State the 3 objectivs of first aid.
save life, prevent further injury and prevent infection.
State the methods of controlling bleeding.
direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and as a last resort- tourniquet.
Identify an example of a pressure point.
there are 11 pressure point on either side of the body.
temporal- temple
facial- jaw
common carotid- neck
subclavian- collar bone
brachial- inner upper arm
brachial- elbow
radial- wrist
femoral- thigh
iliac- groin
poplitial- knee
tibial- ankle
Describe the symptoms and treatment for shock.
Shock is a disruption of the circulatory system.
Symptoms include lackluster eyes, irregular breathing, cold pale skin, nausea, and weak pulse.
Treatment is to elevate the feet 6-12 inches. Maintain body heat. Reassure and calm the victim.
Describe the three classifications of burns.
1st degree- produces redness, increased warmth and mild pain.
2nd degree- sever pain, blistering skin.
3rd degree- damaged tissue and bone, may not be painful due to the damaged nerve endings.
State the symptoms and treatment for heat exhaustion.
In heat exhaustion there is a serious disturbance of bloodflow to the brain heart and lungs.
Symptoms include cool clammy skin, dilated pupils, and the victim is usually sweating profusely.
Treatment consists of cooling the victim by by moving them to a cool area, applying cold cloths while not alowing them to become chilled. *if the victim is conscious, give a solution of one teaspoon salt dissolved in a liter of cool water and transport to a medical facility.
State the symptoms and treatment of heat stroke.
A serious condition caused by the breaking down of the bodies sweat mechanism.
Symptoms include hot/dry skin, dilated pupils, and an irregular pulse.
Treatment consists of dousing the body with cold water, moving the victim to a cool area, applying cool cloths, maintaining an open airway, lay on the back with the shoulders raised slightly. *a cold water bath is helpful.
State the difference between an open and closed fracture.
A "closed" or "simple" fracture is one which is entirely internal, that is, the bone is broken, but there is no break in the skin.
An "open" or "compound" fracture is one in which there is an open wound in the tissue or skin. The bone may be protruding thru the skin.
Explain personnel rescue as it pertains to electric shock.
DO NOT DIRECTLY TOUCH THE VICTIM IN ANY WAY! Look for the switch or any safe way to secure the current such as using a non conductive material to free the victim from the source.
Describe the treatment for a victim of electric shock.
Check for a pulse and breathing. Begin CPR if necessary. Take the victim to a medical facility immediately.
State the methods of clearing an obstructed airway.
Clear the mouth.
Begin the Heimlich maneuver.
Reclining abdominal thrusts if the victim is lying down.
Describe the effects of hypothermia.
A general cooling of the whole body caused by exposure to low temperatures.
The victim may appear pale and unconscious, have a faint pulse, and may even be taken for dead.
First aid consists of bringing the body temperature to normal by wrapping the victim in warm blankets in a warm room. *get medical attention immediately.
Describe the effects of superficial frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the upper skin layers after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Treatment is to warm the victim by placing them in warm water or with hot water bottles. Other methods include placing them against the body of another person. Never rub the frostbite area. Seek medical attention immediately.
Describe the effects of deep frostbite.
Ice crystals forming in the deeper tissues after exposure to a temperature of 32 degrees or lower.
Treatment is to warm the victim by placing them in warm water or with hot water bottles. Other methods include placing them against the body of another person. Never rub the frostbite area. Seek medical attention immediately.
Define the purpose of the Naval Aviation Safety Program.
To preserve human and material resources.
Explain the safety responsibilities of the C.O.
The CO will require that persons are instructed and drilled in all safety precautions and procedures, that they are complied with, and that applicable safety precautions are posted.
Explain the safety responsibilities of the Aviation Safety Officer.
The principle advisor to the CO on all aviation safety matters. Advises the CO in the establishment and management of a Command Aviation Safety Program. Coordinates safety matters among the organization staff.
Explain the safety responsibilities of Ground Safety Officer.
The principle adviser to the C.O. on ground safety matters. Advises the CO in the establishment and management of a Ground Safety Program. Coordinates safety matters among the organization staff.
Explain the safety responsibilities of the Department Head.
Coordinates the department's safety program with the unit's Safety Officer and supervises the Department's Division Safety Officer. Ensures that all safety precautions are strictly observed.
Explain the safety responsibilities of Division Officer.
Ensures that personnel comply with all safety instructions. Submits additional safety instructions deemed necessary for Command safety.
Explain the safety responsibilities of Safety Petty Officer.
Ensures that personnel are instructed in all safety matters and are familiar in safety instructions.
Explain the safety responsibilities of All Hands.
All personnel will familiarize themselves with safety regulations and instructions. They will comply with established safety standards, and report hazards in accordance with their Command Safety Program and OPNAVINST 3750.6
Explain the functions of the Safety Council.
A Safety Council is formed to set goals, manage assets, and review safety related recommendations. The council will review command policies, procedures, and instructions for accuracy, currency, and responsiveness to corrective recommendations. The ground, aviation safety officers and flight surgeon must be standing members of the council.
Explain the functions of the Enlisted Safety Committee.
The Enlisted Safety Committee is formed of representatives from each work center.They will meet once a month to discuss safety issues and provide recommendations for improved safety procedures to the Safety Council.
Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Human Error
Human error is part of nearly every mishap. It includes those personnel who may have maintained or repaired equipment or even the worker at the factory where a part was manufactured.
Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Maintenance and Support.
Maintenance and support factors include improper maintenance, improper priority assignments on work requests, or lack of proper quality assurance. Mishaps may occurr from the way the manufacturer made, assembled, or installed the equipment.
Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Administrative/Supervisory factors.
Mishaps can result from an improper level of supervision or a failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards. They can result from a lack of formal and informal training.
Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Material Failures.
Failures or malfunctions caused by faulty design, defective manufacture, or repair. Most mishaps blamed on material failure may really involve maintenance factors or human error.
Discuss how the following contribute to aviation mishaps: Environmental factors.
Environmental factors include extreme exposure to heat, cold, vibration, noise, illumination, radiation, or atmospheric contaminants.
What are the four mishap classes?
Class A: 1 million dollars/fatality or permanent disability.
Class B: 200 thousand dollars to 999 thousand dollars/permanent partial disablity or 3 or more personnel are hospitalized.
Class C: 10 thousand to 199 thousand dollars/non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day on which it occurred.
Class D: less than 10 thousand dollars or a non-fatal injury resulting in no lost time or first aid.
State the objective of the aviation gas free engineering program. AVGFE
To ensure a safe environment is maintained when working on fuel systems.
NA01-1A-35
State the hazards associated with Radio Frequency energy. RF
Can generate electrical currents strong enough to cause life threatening electrical shock, burns, biological changes, and cataracts. Can also cause activation of ordinance, can cause sparks that could ignite flamable liquids.
State the purpose of the Laser safety hazard control program.
To design a series of safety factors to be sued when using lasers. Includes oppointing a LSO, establishing SOP's, posting signs etc...
State the purpose of the safety stand down.
Used to devote time to safety training, awareness, and enhancement of command safety climate.
Discuss the concept of ORM.
Operational Risk Management is a five step, systematic decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.
Explain the following terms as they pertain to ORM:
Identify hazards.
Develop an operational analysis chart. List the hazards associated with the analysis and possible causes for the hazards.
Explain the following terms as they pertain to ORM: Assess hazards.
Determine the degree of risk associated with each hazard.
Explain the following terms as they pertain to ORM:
Make risk decisions.
Develop risk control options. Decide if the benifit outweighs the risk.
Explain the following terms as they pertain to ORM:
Implement controls.
Used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk.
Explain the following terms as they pertain to ORM:
Supervise.
Conduct follow up evaluations. Monitor for changes. Take corrective action if necessary.
Discuss the dual chain of command of the operating forces.
Operational chain: President, secretary of defense, commander of a unified/specified command, assigned operating forces.
Administrative chain: Secretary of the navy and CNO to the operating forces.
Discuss the operational chain of command.
Consists of Unified/Specified commands which operate under the control of the joint chiefs of staff.
Wha is a Unified command?
A command which consists of elements of 2 or more forces. It has a broad continuing mission and has a single commander.
What are the unified commands?
Southern
Central
Readiness
Atlantic
Pacific
European
Strategic (STRATCOM)
What is a key characteristic of STRATCOM?
Consists of members of all four services and civilians.
Describe a specified command.
Has a broad continuing mission but consists of only one service.
What are the specified commands?
North american aerospace defense command. NORAD
Air mobility command. AMC
State the Fleeet Commanders.
CINCPACFLT
CINCANTFLT
CINCUSNAVEUR
Discuss the Task unit commander concept.
Developed during WWII.
Divides fleets into forces, groups, units, and elements.
Who is the SECNAV and what are some key characteristics of his job?
Dr. Donald Winter.
Civilian in charge of the department of the navy.
Who is the CNO and what are some key characteristics of his job?
Admiral Michael Mullen.
The most senior navy officer. Principle advisor to the president and SECNAV. Navy representative on the joint chiefs.
Fleet commander in chiefs command which fleets?
Fleet commander in chief:
Pacific-3rd and 7th fleets.
Atlantic-2nd fleet.
Europe-6th fleet.
Naval Air Force Commander usually hold what rank?
Usually a vice admiral.
Directly below Fleet Commander in Chiefs of their respective fleets.
What do type commanders command?
A certain type of squadron- vr,vfa,vp etc...
What are functional wing commanders responsible for?
Aircraft material readiness, administration, training and inspection of squadrons under their command.
Who is the MCPON and what does he do?
Terry D. Scott.
Senior enlisted member of the Navy.
Assigned to the CNO office for 3 years.
Acts as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO.
What are the responsibilities of a fleet master chief?
Serves as the principle advisor to the fleet commander in chief.
There are currently 6 fleet master chiefs.
Who is the reserrve force master chief?
David Pennington.
How many force master chiefs are there?
22
What are the responsibilities of a Command Master Chief?
Principle advisor to the C.O. on enlisted matters.-morale welfare well-being...
What are the criteria for a command to have a CMC billet?
Must have 250 or more personnel.
Commands without 250 personnel can assign a MCPO to serve as the collateral duty CMC.
State the six areas of Naval Doctrine.
COWPIL
NAVAL:
Command and control
Operations
Warfare
Planning
Intelligence
Logistics
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
reconnaisance/surveilance mission.
By searching for and intercepting, recording and analyzing radiated electromagnetic energy.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
antisubmarine
by locating and destroying enemy submarines.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Amphibious assault
By assisting in the taking of the area where sea and land meet.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Logistics
By transporting troops, cargo and euipment needed by the military.
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
Search and rescue
By assisting in the search and rescue of downed/disabled personnel, aircraft etc...
Discuss how naval aviation supports the following warfare area:
mine warfare
By searching out and destoying enemy mines.
State the 3 levels of war.
Tactical-involves the details of a individual engagements
Operational-concerns forces collectively in a theatre
Strategic-focuses on supporting national goals.
What are some of the defining aspects of the Battle at coral sea?
7-8 may 1942
U.S. broke japanese code telling of a planned invasion of Australia.
The worlds first carrier vs. carrier battle.
lexington was sunk and the yorktowne was damaged.
What are some of the defining aspects of the Battle at midway?
3-6 june 1942
Turning oint of the pacific war.
Japanese code breaking was key.
American carriers were positioned out of range of reconnaisance.
All 4 japanese carriers were sunk.
Yorktowne was sunk.
What are some of the defining aspects of Guadalcanal?
5 Sullivan brothers were stationed aboard the juneau.
All were killed in an attack.
Changed navy policy on stationing of family members.
Discuss the significance of 8 may 1911.
Birthday of naval aviation.
Capt chambers ordered 2 glenn curtiss bi planes. $5500 each.
State the name of the first carrier.
20 march 1922
USS langley
What was the first jet powered naval aircraft?
21 july 1946
fh1 phantom first successful take off and landing from the USS roosevelt.
10 mar 1948
fj1 fury first operational take off and landing from the uss boxer
Who was the first Naval aviator in space
allan shephard.
05 may 1961
What is an AD?
Aviation machinists mate.
What is an AM?
Aviation structural mechanic.
Define inertia.
willingness of an object o remain at rest or continue in motion.
Define acceleration.
The rate or change of speed or velocity of matter with time.
Define speed.
the rate of motion in a given amount of time.
Define velocity.
speed in a given direction.
Define Newtons first law.
an object at rest or in motion will remain at rest or in lotion unless acted upon by an ouutside force.
Define Newtons 2nd law.
an objct in motion is acted upon by an outside force the change in motion is directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved.
Define Newtons 3rd law.
for every action there is an equal and oposite reaction.
Define bernoullis principle.
when a fliud passes thru a constriction, the seed increases and the pressure decreases.
When is a small craft warning set?
winds 33 knots or less.
Gale warning?
34-47 knots.
Storm warning?
48 knots or greater.
Tropical Depression?
33 knots or less.
Tropical storm?
34-63 knots.
Hurricane/typhoon.
64 knots or greater.
Thunderstorm warning?
Thunderstorms are within 3 miles.
Sever thunderstorm warning?
winds 50 knots or greater/ hail 3/4inch.
Tornado warning?
Tornadoes have been sited or detected by radar.
What is the purpose of a spoiler?
To decrease wing lift.
What is the purpose of the slats?
Greater aircraft contrrol at lower speeds. Used mainly on carriers.
What is the purpose of the tail rotor.
Produces thrust in the oposite direction of the main rotor. YAW
Define angle of atack.
angle between the chord line and the relative wind.
What are the main components of a hyydraulic system?
PARTS
Pump
Actuator
Reservoir
Tubing
Selector valve
What are the main components of the landing gear.
Shock strut assembly
Wheel brake
Retract/Extend Mechanism
Side struts/supports
What are the 5 sections of a jet engine?
Intake
Compressor
Combustion chamber
Turbine
Exhaust
Turbojet.
Projects a column of air to the rear at a high velocity.
Turboshaft.
delivers power thru a shaft to drive anyhting other than a propeller. Used in helicopters.
Turboprop.
Used to drive a propeller.
Turbofan.
used to power a duct enclosed axial fan.
JP4
NATO symbol-f40
flashpoint of -10 degrees f
Never used on ships.
JP5
NATO symbol F44
flashpoint of 140 degrees f
Only approved fuel for use on ships.
JP8
NATO symbol f34
flashpoint of 100 degrees f
3 hazards associated with jet fuel.
explosion
vapor inhalation
contact with skin/eyes etc...
Symptoms of vapor inhalation.
nausea
headaches
dizziness
can cause death.
What are the reasons and methods of NDI?
To find defects before catastrophies occur. NDI can inspect a part or system without effecting it.
ultrasonic
radiographic
visual
eddy curent
What are the three indicators involved in a pitot static system?
altimeter
airspeed indicator
rate of climb indicator
Bombs.
any weapon other than a missile, rocket, torpedo, etc... that is dropped from an aircraft.
Neutralizes the enemies war potential.
Rockets.
Contains an explosive section and a propulsion section.
Missiles.
Contain an explosive section, a propulsion section, and a guidance section.
Mines.
An underwater explosive. Used to control vital straits/ports etc...
Torpedoes.
Self propelled underwater missile. Used to destroy subs.
vehicle speed limits on the flight line.
within 50 feet of aircraft- 5mph
on taxiways, runways, ramps etc...- 10 mph
what are the 4 categories of tie down requirements?
initial
intermediate
permanent
heavy weather
what ppe is required on the flight line?
cranial
jersey
goggles
hearing protection
flight deck shoes
flotation gear
survival light
whistle
If there are 3 parallel runways how are they identified?
L left R right C center
Describe a 200 ft wide runways landing area.
10 stripes 12 ft wide and 150 ft long.
Describe a landing area of a runway less than 200 ft wide.
Markings cover the width of the runway less 20ft on each side.
When an airfield is closed which lights are left on?
Navigable airspace obstruction lights.
Rotating beacons.
Taxiway lights are what color?
Blue
Two blue lights on a runway signifies what?
Entrance/exit lights.
What is a secondary use for an overrun area?
All weather access for emergency/rescue equipment.
What is a rotating beacon used for?
Identification of airfields.
What is the primary navigation aid used by carrier based aircraft?
TACAN
What is the LOX expansion rate?
860 to 1
Primary mission:
HC
Helicopter combat support.
Plane guard, sea air rescue, mail delivery.
Primary mission:
HCS
Helicopter combat support special.
combat rescue support of carriers/ amphibious operations for quick reaction situations.
Primary mission:
HM
Helicopter mine countermeasures.
Minehunting/sweeping.
Primary mission:
HS
Helicopter antisubmarine.
carrier based antisubmarine warfare, plane guard, search and rescue.
Primary mission:
HSL
Helicopter antisubmarine light.
Used on destroyers/frigates.
search and rescue and logistics.
Primary mission:
HT
Helicopter Training.
Training helicopters for students.
Primary mission:
VAQ
Tactical electronic warfare.
RADAR jamming.
Degrades electromagnetic systems.
Primary mission:
VAW
carrier airborn early warning.
early warning of weather, missiles, shipping, and aircraft.
Primary mission:
VC
Fleet composite.
air services such as target towing.
Primary mission:
VF
fighter.
defend surface units.
escort attack aircraft.
Primary mission:
VFA
Strike fighter/attack.
for fighter and atatack missions.
Primary mission:
VP
Patrol.
land based.
antisub, anti surface, and recon.
Primary mission:
VQ
Fleet air reconaissance.
recording and analysis of electromagnetic energy.
Primary mission:
VR
Logistics support.
transport of personnel and supplies.
Primary mission:
VRC
Carrier logistics support.
Carrier onboard delivery.
Primary mission:
VS
Carrier antisubmarine warfare.
perform search and sea control.
no longer in asw role.
Primary mission:
VT
Training.
Training for student pilots.
Primary mission:
VX
air test and evaluation.
tests new aircraft.
Primary mission:
VXE
antarctic development.
Supports operation deep feeze.
Primary mission:
AV8 harrier
fighter attack.
Primary mission:
C130
LOGISTICS SUPPORT
Primary mission:
C2 GREYHOUND
CARRIER LOGISTICS SUPPORT
Primary mission:
C20
LOGISTICS SUPPORT
Primary mission:
C9 SKYTRAIN
LOGISTICS SUPPORT
Primary mission:
EA6B PROWLER
TACTICAL ELECTRONIC WARFARE
Primary mission:
E2 HAWKEYE
AIRBORNE EARLY WARNING
Primary mission:
C12 HURON
LOGISTICS SUPPORT
Primary mission:
E6 MERCURY
FLEET AIR RECONAISSANCE
Primary mission:
H2 SEASPRITE
ANTISUBMARINE LIGHT
Primary mission:
H3 SEA KING
ANTISUBMARINE
Primary mission:
H46 SEA KNIGHT
HELICOPTER COMBAT SUPPORT
Primary mission:
H53 SEA STALLION
MINE COUNTERMEASURES
Primary mission:
SH60B SEAHAWK
ANTISUBMARINE LIGHT
Primary mission:
SH60F OCEANHAWK
ANTISUBMARINE
Primary mission:
HH60H SEAHAWK
COMBAT SEARCH AND RESCUE AND SPECIAL WARFARE.
Primary mission:
P3 ORION
PATROL
Primary mission:
S3 VIKING
CARRIER ANTI SUBMARINE
Primary mission:
TA-4 SKYHAWK
TRAINING
Primary mission:
T2 BUCKEYE
TRAINING
Primary mission:
T45 GOSHAWK
TRAINING
Primary mission:
UH1N IROQUOIS
COMBAT SUPPORT
Primary mission:
T34 MENTOR
TRAINING
Primary mission:
T44 PEGASUS
TRAINING
Primary mission:
F5 TIGER
FIGHTER
Primary mission:
AH1 COBRA
COMBAT SUPPORT
Ships:
AE
AMMUNITION SHIP
DELIVERS MISSILES AND AMMUNITION TO SHIPS.
Ships:
AO
OILER
CARRY FUEL AND OTHER PETROLEUM PRODUCTS.
Ships:
AOE
OILER AND AMMUNITION SUPPORT
CARRY AMMUNITION, FUEL, AND CARGO.
Ships:
CG
GUIDED MISSILE CRUISER.
PROVIDE PROTECTION AGAINST SURFACE AND AIR ATTACKS.
Ships:
CV
CARRIER
USE BOILERS FOR PROPULSION
Ships:
CVN
NUCLEAR CARRIER
USE NUCLEAR REACTOR FOR PROPULSION.
HOW MANY CARRIER ARE THERE?
12
ALL BUT 3 ARE NUCLEAR.
Ships:
DD
DESTROYER
Ships:
DDG
GUIDED MISSILE DESTROYER
Ships:
FFG
GUIDED MISSILE FRIGATE
USED FOR ESCORT AND PATROL.
Ships:
LCC
AMPHIBIOUS COMMAND SHIP
Ships:
LHA
AMPHIBIOUS ASSAULT SHIP
PRIMARY LANDING SHIPS USED TO PUT TROOPS ON SHORE IN HOSTILE AREAS.
Ships:
LHD
AMPHIBIOUS WARFARE SHIP
Ships:
LPD
AMPHIBIOUS TRANSPORT DOCK
Ships:
LPH
AMPHIBIOUS ASSAULT SHIP
Ships:
LSD
DOCK LANDING SHIP
Ships:
MCS
MINE COUNTERMEASURES SUPPORT SHIP
Ships:
AD
DESTROYER TENDER
MAINTENANCE SUPPORT FOR SHIPS
Ships:
AFS
COMBAT STORES SHIP
Ships:
ATF
FLEET OCEAN TUGS
Ships:
ARS
RESCUE AND SALVAGE SHIP
Ships:
AR
REPAIR SHIP
Ships:
ASR
SUBMARINE RESCUE SHIP
Ships:
AS
SUBMARINE TENDER
PROVIDES BASE FACILITIES FOR SUBS.
Ships:
MCM
MINE COUNTERMEASURES SHIP
MINE HUNTER KILLERS
Ships:
MHC
COASTAL MINE HUNTERS
Ships:
PC
PATROL CRAFT
PROVIDE COASTAL PATROL
Ships:
SSBN
BALLISTIC MISSILE SUBMARINE
NUCLEAR PROPULSION
NUCLEAR STRIKE
Ships:
SSN
SUBMARINE
NUCLEAR PROPULSION
DEFINE CHEMICAL WARFARE
intentional use of chemical agents to produce casualties,incapacitate,demoralize personnel, contaminate and or destroy areas/equipment/supplies.
define biological warfare.
intentional use of living organisms to disable or destroy people , animals or crops and or deteriorate their supplies.
Define radiological warfare
the deliberate use of radiological weapons to cause injury or death in man.
What is an MCU-2/P?
Protective gas mask.
What is atropine/2 pan chloride (oxime) injector?
Specific therapy for nerve agent casualties.
What does a IM-143 pocket dosimeter do?
Measures exposure to radiation over a period of time.
What is the DT-60 personnel dosimeter?
It is a high range casualty dosimeter, non-self reading, to determine the amount of gamma radiation exposure.
Give an example of a choking agent.
Chlorine
Why are nerve agents most effective?
small amounts can cause death.
List the four types of chemical casualty agents and their symptoms.
Choking-dry throat, coughing, watering eyes, etc...CHLORINE
Nerve-blurred vision, twitching, and death in a matter of minutes.SARIN
Blood- deep breathing and violent contractions, death shortly there after...HYDROGEN CYANIDE
Blister- dry/bloodshot eyes, sore throat, intense itching...MUSTARD GAS
Describe a high altitude air burst.
altitude excess of 100,000 ft.
can be seen for great distances.
creates widespread disturbances in the ionosphere.
Describe an air burst.
an intensely hot fireball is formed which never touches the earths surface.
a highly radioactive mushroom cloud is then formed.
Describe a surface burst.
Produces the worst fallout.
fireball touches the ground.
Describe a shallow underwater burst.
fireball normally not visable.
radiation is absorbed by the water.
may produce waves over 90ft.
Deep underwater burst.
similar to a shallow underwater burst with less visual effects and more contaminated water.
What are the kinds of injuries caused by a nuclear blast?
Primary- caused by the direct impact of the shockwave on the body.
Secondary- caused be buildings collapsing and debris being thrown about by the blast.
Give examples of radiation hazards.
alpha and beta particles.
gamma and neutron radiation.
Define MOPP.
Mission oriented protective posture.
MOPP level 1.
Gas masks are issued, fitted and kept at battle stations. An inventory of chemical/biological defense equipment is conducted.
MOPP level 2.
Gas masks are carried. Material condition zebra is set. (modified)
MOPP level 3.
New filters are installed on the gas masks. Don chemical protective overgarment smock with hood down. Go to general quarters. Set material condition ZEBRA. Fill canteens.
MOPP level 4.
Don gas mask, hood over the head and around the mask. Don gloves. Monitor detection equipment. Set condition Circle William.
Define NATOPS.
naval air training and operating procedures standardization program.
Purpose of the NATOPS program.
positive approach towards improving combat readiness, and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps.
State the purpose of a NATOPS evaluation.
To evaluate individual and unit compliance by observing and grading adherance to NATOPS procedures.
Define NAVFLIRS.
Naval flight records subsystem.
Purpose of NAVFLIRS.
It is a single source document flight data in support of MDS.(maintenance data system)
Flight activity data collection.
AKA - yellow sheet.
What are the master flight files?
The only official flight record of naval aircraft.
What do aircraft use as their side/tail number?
the last 3-4 digits of their buno.
Visual identification of COMNAVAIRATL aircraft.
first digit A-M second digit A-Z
Visual identification of COMNAVAIRPAC aircraft.
first digit N-Z second digit A-Z
Visual identification of CNATRA aircraft.
first digit A-G
What EVAL average is required for an honorable discharge?
2.7 conduct 3.0 average
otherwise a general discharge is awarded.
List the eval promotion status marks.
4.0 early promote
3.8 must promote
3.6 promotable
3.4 progressing
2.0 significant problems
Prerequisites for good conduct awards.
no performance mark below 2.0
no courtmartial, NJP, and no civil convictions involving moral turpitude.
Wwhat is generally the lowest eval marks allowed for re-enlistment?
3.0
What is a naval message?
the principle means by which commanders communicate
How is the date time group expressed?
greenwich mean time.
Define SSIC.
standard subject identification code. a 4 or 5 digit code that stands for the subject of a document.
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emergency data
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enlisted qualifications history
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administrative remarks, significant misc. entries.
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report and disposition of offenses. used to record court martial and NJP which may effect pay.
Define oprep
operational report. used to notify of accidental or unauthorized detonation of a nuclear weapon.
Define moverep.
movement report.
primary source of location info concerning ships.
Defiine logreq.
Logistical requirements.
submitted by a ship entering port to notify of logistical requirements.
Define sorts.
status of requirement and training support.
Define sitrep.
situation report.
submitted for bomb hoax's, reporting violent crimes, discrimination etc...
State the objective of the NAMP.
The namp helps to standardize operations of naval aviation commands.
NAMP VOL I
concepts, policies, organizations, maintenance support procedures, and O & I level maintenance.
NAMP VOL II
Depot level maintenance
NAMP VOL III
Maintenance data systems
NAMP VOL IV
Aviation 3M data processing requirements.
NAMP VOL V
Standard operating procedures.
Responsibilities of the MO.
Accomplishment of the maintenance departments mission.
Responsibilities of the AMO.
To assist the MO in his duties and inform the MO in matters concerning the department.
Responsibilities of the MMCO.
Overall production and material support of the department.
Responsibilities of the MCO.
Responsible to the MMCO for managing the tool control program.
Responsibilities of Maintenance/production control.
Maintenance control strives to maintain FMC aircraft.
Prodution control strives to keep all parts processed back to the respective commands.
What are PMIC's used for?
to identify scheduled or forced removal itemsand their replacement intervals.
What is the work center supervisors main responsibility?
The hour by hour maintenance situation.
Define the concept of QA.
The prevention of the occurence of defects.
What is the purpose of a special audit?
Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs.
What is the purpose of a quarterly work center audit?
To evalute the overall performance of the workcenter.
Who manages the CTPL program?
QA
What are the two functions of CTPL?
determination, receipt, distribution, and update of technical manuals.
Internal control and distibution of the NAMP.
Who monitors the FOD program?
QA
Primary objective of the tool control program.
Instant inventory to ensure accountability and reduce the likelihood of FOD.
The purpose of fuel surveilance.
To monitor for impurities in fuel and trend analysis.
What is a good rule of thumb for safety when performing tire and wheel maintenance?
Treat tires and wheels as live ordinance.
What is the purpose of MTIP?
(maintenance training improvement program)
To evaluate the technical knowledge levels of aviation maintenance technicians.
What is the purpose of the MMP?
provides a schedule of predictable maintenance work.
What is the purpose of NALCOMIS?
To improve mission capability, maintenence, and supply support.
What does OPTAR stand for?
Operating Target.
What are the two types of OPTAR funds?
Flight Operations fund. OFC1
Aviation Fleet Maintenance fund. AFM
OFC1 is used to procure what type of items?
Fuels for flight ops.
Flight suits and flight operational equipment
Aerial film, recording tape etc...
LOX
Maintenance costs when procured from military sources.
AFM fund is used to procure what items?
Paints, rags, cleaning agents etc...
Aviation fuel used at I level
Consumable hand tools
Flight deck boots
Define MILSTRIP.
Military standard requisitioning and issue procedure.
Define ICRL.
Individual component repair list.
Define CRIPL.
Consolidated remain in place list.
Define NMCS.
Not mission capable supply
Define PMCS.
Partial mission capable supply
Define NIIN.
National item identification number.
Define AVDLR.
Aviation depot level repair.
Define IMRL.
Individual material readiness list.
Define AIR.
Aircraft inventory records.
Define EXREP.
Expeditious repair.
Purpose of aeronautical allowance list.
Estimated requirements to place or maintain aeronautical activities in a material readiness condition.
What is a DD form 200?
Financial liability investigation of property loss.
What is a flight packet used for?
Used to assist pilots in extended flights.
Contains:
Purchase order invoice.
Instructions for procuring services and supplies.
VIDS/MAF
Daily/Turnaround MRC's.
etc...
What does SM&R stand for?
Source, maintenance and recoverability.
What are SM&R codes used for?
To establish uniform policies, procedures, management, and a means of communication for material support within and among military services.
Define Hazardous Material.
Any material that because of its makeup, may pose a hazard to human health or the environment.
Define Hazardous waste.
Any discarded hazardous material.
Discuss HM storage and inspection requirements.
Stowage locations shall be inspected weekly and quarterly.
Inspect for leakage, labeling, and shelf life.
What information is on an MSDS?
Composition
chemical and physical characteristics
health and safety hazards
safe handling and use
What are the six categories of Hazmat?
Flammable
Aerosol
Toxic materials
Corrosive
Oxidizing
Compressed gases
General procedures to follow when HM/HW spill is discovered.
Follow the directions listed on the MSDS.
What PPE is required when handling HM?
Eye protection, respiritory protection, and gloves.
Disposal limitations of fluids, oils, adhesives etc...
Store per applicable manuals. Dispose of onshore.