• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/214

Click to flip

214 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
initial precursor for platelets
megakaryocyte
immature RBC
reticulocyte
plasma cells are derived from what
B cells
most abundant WBC
netrophils
least abundant WBC
basophils
RBCs source of energy
glucose (90% from lactate)
lifespan of an RBC
120 days
what is anisocytosis
varying sizes of RBCs
what is poikilocytosis
varying shapes of RBCs
what do the dense granules of a platelet secrete
ADP and calcium
what do the alpha granules of a platelet secrete
vWF and fibrinogen
life span of a platelet
8-10 days
whats the main vWF receptor
Gp1b
whats the main fibrinogen receptor
GpIIb/IIIa
main WBC in acute inflammation and bacterial infection
neutrophils
which WBC are barr bodies found in
neutrophils
which WBC are hypersegmented in B12 or folate deficiency
neutrophils
which WBC differentiates into macrophages
monocytes
what cytokine activates macrophages
IFN-y
main WBC that mediates parasitic infection
eosinophils
which cells secrete histamine
mast cells and basophils
which cells secrete heparin
basophils
which WBC undergo stippling in lead poisoning
basophils
MAIN antigen presenting cell
dendritic cells
these cells have a clock-face chromatin distribution
plasma cells
which cells produce antibodies
B cells
neoplasm of the plasma cells
multiple myeloma
Rh- mother and Rh+ father can have a child with what condition
erythroblastosis fetalis
how to prevent erythroblastosis in susceptible children
administer Rhogam to mother before birth during 1st pregnancy
which child does erythroblastosis normally FIRST affect
2nd child
universal donor blood type
type O
universal recipient blood type
type AB
someone with type A blood has which antigen on the RBCs and which antibody in the plasma
type A blood: A antigen on RBCs and B antibodies in plasma

type B blood: B antigen on RBCs and A antibodies in plasma

type AB blood: A and B antigens on RBCs and no antibodies in plasma

type O blood: no antigens on RBCs and A&B antibodies in plasma
deficiency of factor VIII
hemophilia A
deficiency of factor IX
hemophilia B
which clotting factors are Vit K dependent
Factors II, VII, IX, X, proteins C&S

"diSCo was invented in 1972"
antithrombin inhibits which factors
factors IX, X, XI, XII, and thrombin
drug that binds and activates antithrombin III
heparin
which clotting pathway is triggered by tissue damage
extrinsic
which clotting pathway is triggered by the Hageman Factor (factor XII)
intrinsic
what is the tissue factor that activates the extrinsic pathway
thromboplastin
clotting factor that unites the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
factor X
thrombin activates which clotting factors
thrombin activates V, VIII, XI
calcium is required for which clotting factors
calcium is required for factors I, II, X, XIII
what binds to and inactivates thrombin
thrombomodulin
what activates protein C
thrombomodulin
are proteins C & S pro-coagulants or anti-coagulants
C & S are anti-coagulants
rate-limiting step of clotting
forming prothrombin
converts fibrinogen into fibrin
thrombin
prothrombin is formed in what organ and whats its function
formed in the liver and it activates thrombin
which clotting factor cross-links fibrin
factor XIII
function of plasmin
breaks down clots to form fibrin degeneration products; also activates C3
what activates plasminogen
tPA
condition in which factor V is resistant to protein C thus there is increased clotting
Factor V Leiden mutation
enzyme inhibited by warfarin
Vit K dependent epoxide reductase
platelets adhere to a site of injury and bind via what?
vWF (GpIb receptors)
after platelet adherence, they release calcium and ADP; ADP then induces expression of which receptors which ultimately binds fibrinogen
GpIIb/IIIa
thromboxane's effect on clotting
promotes clotting (increases platelet aggregation)
prostaglandin's effect on clotting
inhibits clotting (decreases platelet aggregation)
which drug inhibits GpIIb/IIIa
Abciximab
pathologic RBC found in abetalipoproteinemia
Acanthocyte (spur cells)
basophilic stippling is seen in what 4 conditions
Thalassemias
Anemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Lead poisoning

("TAIL")
pathologic RBCs seen in G6PD deficiency
bite cells and Heinz bodies
treatment of sideroblastic anemia
B6
treatment of megaloblastic anemia
B12 and folic acid
conditions associated with schistocytes (aka helmet cells)
DIC, TTP, HUS
pathologic RBC associated with myelofibrosis
dacrocytes ("tear-drop cells")
how are heinz bodies formed
oxidation of iron from ferrous to ferric form causes denaturation of hemoglobin
Howell-Jolly bodies suggest what
spleen dysfunction
examples of microcytic, hypochromic anemias
iron deficiency
alpha-thalassemia
beta-thalassemia
lead poisoning
sideroblastic anemia
characterized by the clinical triad of iron deficiency anemia, esophageal webs, and atrophic glossitis
Plummer Vinson syndrome
characterized by gene mutations in alpha-globin
alpha-thalassemia
deletion of how many genes in alpha-thalassemia forms Hb Barts (y4) causing hydrops fetalis
deletion of 4 genes
deletion of how many genes in alpha-thalassemia forms Hb B4 (HbH disease)
deletion of 3 genes
this hematologic condition is characterized by point mutations in the splicing sites and promoter sequences of hemoglobin
beta-thalassemia
difference in pathogenesis of B-thalassemia minor and B-thalassemia major
B-thalassemia minor (heterozygote): B chain is UNDERPRODUCED; increased HbA2

B-thalassemia major (homozygote): B chain is ABSENT; expansion of marrow causes skeletal deformities (chipmunk facies and crew cut appearance on xray)
common finding in both minor and major B-thalassemia
increased fetal hemoglobin
lead inhibits what 2 enzymes
ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase
cause of sideroblastic anemia
X-linked defect in ALA synthase thus blocking heme synthesis
blue/black lines (Burtons lines) on the gingiva suggest what
lead poisoning
treatment for lead poisoning
dimercaprol and EDTA

(succimer in kids)
hematologic disorder linked to defects in ankyrin, band 4.1, and spectrin
hereditary spherocytosis
xray appearance of the skull in Sickle Cell patients
crew-cut appearance
what amino acids are substituted for each other in Sickle cell
glutamic acid is replaced with valine
which chain is mutated in sickle cell
B-chain
patient with sickle cell trait (i.e. heterozygotes) are resistant to what disease
malaria
cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients
salmonella
kidney condition linked to sickle cell
papillary necrosis
DOC for sickle cell patients
hydroxyurea
lab findings reveal increased hemosiderin in the urine; complement if found to be inhibited in the RBCs
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
warm agglutinins are linked to what immunoglobulins
IgG
cold agglutinins are linked to what immunoglobulins
IgM
2 conditions that test positive for warm agglutinins
SLE and CLL
infections associated with cold agglutinins
mycoplasma pneumonia and mononucleosis
test to assess for autoimmune hemolytic anemias
Coombs test
what substance accumulates in the blood in lead poisoning
protoporphyrin
accumulations of porphobilinogen, ALA, and uroporphyrin are suggestive of what disease
acute intermittent porphyria
accumulation of uroporphyrin is suggestive of what disease
porphyria cutanea tarda
deficiency in porphobilinogen deaminase
acute intermittent porphyria
deficiency in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
porphyria cutanea tarda
Major presenting symptom is blistering cutaneous photosensitivity
porphyria cutanea tarda
initial 2 precursors for heme synthesis
glycine and succinyl-CoA
PT assesses which clotting pathway
extrinsic
PTT assesses which clotting pathway
intrinsic
heparin affects which clotting pathway
intrinsic
warfarin affects which clotting pathway
extrinsic
defect in Bernard-Soulier disease
defective Gp1b thus defect in platelet to collagen adhesion
defect in Glanzmann's thrombasthenia
defective GpIIb/IIIa thus defect in platelet to platelet aggregation
lab value difference between Bernard-Soulier and Glanzmann's
Bernard-Soulier has thrombocytopenia
Glanzmanns has normal platelet count
anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies are suggestive of what disease
ITP
characterized by a deficiency in ADAMTS13 (vWF metalloprotease)
TTP
MOST common bleeding disorder
von Willebrand disease
DOC for von Willebrand disease
desmopressin (releases vWF stored in the endothelium)
lab values in DIC
decreased platelets, increased bleeding time, increased PT, increased PTT, decreased fibrinogen, increased fibrin degradation products (d-dimer), schistocytes, decreased factors V and VIII
2 MOST common bacterial causes of DIC
E.coli and N. meningitidis
is the anemia in DIC macrocytic, microcytic, or normocytic?
normocytic
morphologic cells in Hodgkins lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cells
CD markers of Reed-Sternberg cells
CD15 and CD30
virus associated with Hodgkin lymphoma
EBV
virus most commonly associated with Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
HIV
these are bi-lobed cells that appear as "owl's eyes" and are pathologic for a certain cancer
Reed-Sternberg cells
MOST common type of Hodgkins lymphoma
nodular sclerosis (type 1)
which Hodgkins lymphoma type has a lacunar variant
nodular sclerosis (type 1)
which Hodgkins lymphoma type has the WORST prognosis
lymphocyte depletion (type IV)
which Hodgkins lymphoma type is characterized by "popcorn cells"
lymphocyte predominance (type V)
MOST common translocation in Burkitts lymphoma
8;14

(additional translocations include 8;22 and 2;8)
gene mutation linked to Burkitts lymphoma
c-myc
morphologic appearance of the cells in Burkitts lymphoma
starry-sky appearance
2 viruses linked to Burkitts lymphoma
EBV and HIV
MOST common presentation of Burkitts in Africa
lesion in the jaw (mandible)
MOST common presentation of Burkitts in the US
mass in the pelvis or abdomen
diffuse large B-cell lymphoma usually arises from what special tissue
Waldeyers ring
gene mutation in diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
bcl-6
translocation in mantle cell lymphoma
11;14
translocation in follicular lymphoma
14;18
gene mutation in follicular lymphoma
bcl-2
which lymphoma follows an indolent waxing/waning course
follicular lymphoma
virus linked to adult T cell lymphoma
HTLV-1
patient presents with back pain and weight loss; xray reveals punched-out bone lesions; UA reveals pathologic proteins suggestive of primary amyloidosis; an RBC smear shows stacking
multiple myeloma
what is rouleaux formations
stacking of RBCs seen in multiple myeloma
proteins found in the urine in multiple myeloma
bence jones proteins (AL type)
morphologic cells in multiple myeloma
flame cells, mott cells, russell bodies, and dutcher bodies
genetic mutation linked to multiple myeloma
RANKL
MOST common overall cancer in children
ALL
ALL is linked to what chromosomal abnormality
trisomy 21 (Down's)
tumor marker for ALL
terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
translocation linked to ALL
12;21
MOST common leukemia in adults
CLL
morphologic cells in CLL
smudge cells
test to check for hairy cell leukemia
TRAP test (yields a "dry tap")
2 translocations linked to AML
8;21 and 15;17
treatment of AML
target the retinoic acid receptors (RAR-a)
morphologic feature of AML
auer rods
translocation in CML
9;22
combination gene mutation in CML
bcr-abl
MOST common presenting symptom of CML
splenomegaly (dragging sensation)
the Philadelphia chromosome is linked to what cancer
CML (9;22)
DOC to treat CML
bcr-abl inhibitors (imatinib)
increased myeloblasts suggest which leukemia
AML
increased myeloid stem cells ("blast crisis") suggest which leukemia
CML
translocation linked to Ewing sarcoma
11;22
morphologic feature of Langerhans cells histiocytosis
Birbeck granules
mutation linked to chronic myeloproliferative disorders
JAK2 mutation
erythropoietin levels in PCV
decreased

(increased in all other polycythemias)
antidote for heparin overdose
protamine
major SE of heparin
HIT (hypercoagulable state)
DOC for patient who experiences HIT while taking heparin
Lepirudin or Bivalirudin
blood thinner given as prophylaxis during heart surgery
warfarin
blood thinner that is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy (category X)
warfarin
treatment for warfarin overdose
vit K, FFP
major SE of warfarin
skin/tissue necrosis

(occurs 3-10 days after starting treatment secondary to blocking protein C)
clinical uses of thrombolytics (tPA, streptokinase)
MI, stroke, PE
MOA of aspirin
irreversibly blocks cyclooxygenase which directly prevents the formation of thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins from arachidonic acid
drug linked to Reye's syndrome
aspirin
major SE of aspirin
GI bleeding, nephrotoxicity, tinnitus
MOA of clopidogrel and ticlopidine
blocks ADP receptors which inhibits platelet aggregation (indirectly inhibits GpIIb/IIIa)
SE of ticlopidine
neutropenia
SE of methotrexate
myelosuppression, fatty change in liver, mucositis, teratogenic
DOC to reverse SE of methotrexate
leucovorin
non-cancer conditions that methotrexate is used for
rheumatoid arthritis
psoriaisis
abortions
ectopic pregnancy
MOA of methotrexate
inhibits dihydrofolate reductase decreasing DNA/protein synthesis
MOA of 5-FU
inhibits thymidylate synthase thus decreasing DNA/protein synthesis
treatment for overdose of 5-FU
thymidine
MOA of 6-MP
decreases de novo purine synthesis (activated by HGPRTase)
toxicity of 6-MP increases when combined with what drug
allopurinol
MOA of cytarabine
inhibits DNA polymerase
DOC for common childhood tumors including Wilms tumor, Ewing sarcoma, and rhabdomyosarcoma
dactinomycin (actinomycin D)
SE of doxorubicin
cardiotoxicity, myelosuppression, alopecia
MOA of bleomycin
induces free radicals to form breaks in the DNA
SE of bleomycin
pulmonary fibrosis
MOA of etoposide
inhibits topoisomerase II
SE of cyclophosphamide
hemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression
DOC to prevent SE of cyclophosphamide
MESNA
DOC for brain tumors
Nitrosoureas (carmustine, lomustine)
MOA of vincristine/vinblastine
bind tubulin in M phase and block polymerization of microtubules so that mitotic spindle don't form
MOA of paclitaxel
hyperstabilizes microtubules in M phase so that mitotic spindles can't break down
SE of vincristine
neurotoxicity, paralytic ileus
SE of vinblastine
myelosuppression
MOA of cisplastin/carboplastin
cross-links DNA
MOA of hydroxyurea
inhibits ribonucleotide reductase during S phase
DOC for estrogen-positive breast cancer
tamoxifen
SE of tamoxifen
increases risk for endometrial cancer
alternative drug to tamoxifen with same MOA but does NOT increase risk for endometrial cancer
raloxifene
DOC for breast cancer that expresses HER-2 (erb-B2)
Trastuzumab
DOC for GI stromal tumors
Imatinib
cell cycle specific cancer drugs
bleomycin
vincristine
5-FU
6-MP
methotrexate
etoposide
cell cycle nonspecific cancer drugs
alkylating drugs
doxorubicin
cisplastin
nitrosoureas
MOA of cyclophosphamide
alkylate DNA
MOA of nitrosoureas (carmustine, lomustine)
alkylate DNA
common chemo combination used against testicular cancer
bleomycin
vinblastine
etoposide
cisplastin
common chemo combination used against Non-Hodgkins lymphoma/leukemia
cyclophosphamide
doxorubicin
vincristine
rituximab
prednisone
common chemo combination used in estrogen-positive breast cancer
cyclophosphamide
methotrexate
5-FU
tamoxifen

("5CMT" --> 5-country music television)
DOC for prostate cancer
flutamide
MOA of flutamide
antagonist of testosterone (androgen) receptors