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265 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What term refers to non biological materials used to calibrate equipment? |
Standards |
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What term refers to biological materials used in quality assurance programs? |
Controls |
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What are four methods of urine collection? |
Cystocentesis, free flow, catheterization, bladder expression |
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Voiding bladder too frequently |
Pollakiuria |
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Increased urine output |
Polyuria (PU) |
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Painful urination |
Dysuria |
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Slow urination |
Stranguria |
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No urine output |
Anuria |
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Decreased urine output |
Oliguria |
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Increased water intake |
Polydypsia (PD) |
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Isothenuria |
Urine Specific Gravity ranging from 1.008 to 1.012, approaching the glomerular filtration rate. |
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Presence of glucose in urine |
Glucoseuria |
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Ictotest |
A tablet test for urine bilirubin detection. |
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Hematest |
A tablet test to detect occult blood in urine. |
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Hematuria |
Blood in the urine |
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Sulfasalicylic acid test |
Test to detect both albumin and globulins in urine. |
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Normal P/C ratio |
<0.5 |
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Enriched media |
Contains extra nutrients to meet the requirements of fastidious pathogens. May contain egg, blood, or serum. |
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Selective media |
Contain antibacterial elements to facilitate the isolation of certain pathogens. |
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Synthetic media |
Made from pure chemical substances. |
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Differential media |
Allows bacteria to be differentiated into groups based on their chemical reactions on the medium. |
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Hemolytic patterns on media |
Complete (beta hemolysis) - a clear, colorless zone surrounding the colony Incomplete (alpha hemolysis) - caused by physical destruction of red blood cells Double-zone (delta hemolysis) - consists of an inner zone of beta and outer zone of alpha No hemolysis - gamma |
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MIC |
Minimal inhibitory concentration |
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The four basic cytological techniques |
Aspirating (includes FNA and capillary technique) Imprinting Tissue scraping Swabbing |
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Fluids collected from body cavities are classified in three categories: |
Transudates - clear, relatively colorless, few to no cells, low protein, non-inflammatory Exudates - colored, opaque, high number of cells, high total protein count, characteristic of inflammation Modified transudates - somewhere between the other two categories |
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Hazards associated with specific chemicals are described in: |
The material safety data sheets |
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He bacterial agent that causes toxoplasmosis is classified as having which biohazard level? |
Level two |
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Regulations related to the safe shipment of potentially hazardous for infectious materials in the US are mandated by |
The US Department of Transportation |
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True or False: chemicals transferred into secondary containers always require special hazard labeling. |
False |
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True or False: use of personal protective equipment such as lead lined x-ray gloves is optional. |
False |
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The scope and extent of worker training and the documentation of that training are contained in |
The Chemical Hygiene Plan |
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True or False: most diagnostic samples from veterinary patient sent to outside laboratories for analysis fall into Category B. |
True |
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Infectious canine hepatitis is classified as which biohazard level? |
Level one |
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The government agency that is responsible for enforcing safety regulations in the workplace is |
OSHA |
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The use of a fume Hood when handling chemicals is an example of what? |
Engineering controls |
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A refractometer is calibrated using |
Distilled water |
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A pipette that has a double edged or frosted band at the top is designated as: |
"To deliver with blow-out" |
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Which type of pipette is used only to add liquid to another liquid and then must be rinsed with the first liquid? |
"To contain" |
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The optical surface of the refractometer is cleaned immediately after use with: |
Lens paper |
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A urine sample that contains sediment is most appropriately placed in what kind of tube before centrifugation? |
Conical |
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The processing of blood components requires what kind of centrifuge? |
A refrigerated centrifuge |
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Which of the following does not require an adapter for use with different sizes of test tubes? |
Waterless bead baths |
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Which of the following diagrams depicts a properly balanced centrifuge? |
A. |
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The final magnification of a specimen being viewed via a 10x ocular objective and a 40x objective lens is: |
400 |
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Flat field objective lenses are also referred to as what? |
Planachromatic |
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The part of the microscope that functions to aim and focus the light through the specimen is what? |
The condenser |
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True or False: mineral oil can be used in place of immersion oil with the oil immersion lens. |
False |
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The part of the microscope that functions to regulate the amount of light through the specimen is: |
The iris diaphragm |
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The final magnification of a specimen being viewed via a 10x ocular objective lens and a 100x objective lens is: |
1000x |
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If needed, the preferred cleaning solution to be used for the routine cleaning of a microscope lens is: |
Methanol |
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If needed, the preferred cleaning solution to be used for the removal of excess oil from the microscope lens is: |
Xylene |
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Which term refers to how close a test result is to the actual patient value? |
Accuracy |
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Which term refers to the reproducibility of a test result? |
Precision |
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A product that is analyzed in the same manner as a patient sample and used to verify test results is called |
Control |
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The ability of a testing method to be accurate and precise is referred to as |
Reliability |
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Collecting a blood sample from a patient that is not properly fasted is an example of what kind of error? |
Preanalytic |
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An improperly maintained analyzer can introduce what kind of error? |
Analytic |
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The urinary system includes: |
Two kidneys, one urethra, two ureters, and one urinary bladder. |
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The kidneys of what animal have a lobulated appearance? |
The cow. |
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The hilus is: |
The indented area on the side of the kidney. |
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What is the basic functional unit of the kidney? |
The Nephron. |
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The insufficient production of antidiuretic hormone by the posterior pituitary gland can result in what? |
Polyuria |
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The urinary bladder is lined with what kind of cells? |
Transitional epithelial cells |
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The term that describes a decrease in the volume of voided urine over a 24-hour period is what? |
Oliguria |
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The term that describes an increase in the volume of voided urine over a 24-hour period is what? |
Polyuria |
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Preferred specimen collection method for urine samples that require culture and sensitivity testing is: |
Cystocentesis |
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Samples collected by which method are often contaminated with cells from the distal genital tract? |
Free catch |
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When collecting samples by cystocentesis, direct the needle which way? |
Dorsocaudally |
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Urine samples should be analyzed within how many hours after collection if not refrigerated? |
Less than 1 hour |
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Which test should be performed before refrigerating a urine sample? |
Specific gravity |
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The term that describes an increase in the frequency of urination over a 24-hour period is what? |
Pollakiuria |
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Normal urine output for adult dogs and cats is approximately how many mLs / kgs bodyweight per day? |
20 to 40 |
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The term that describes the absence of urine production is what? |
Anuria |
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Urine with a low specific gravity often has this appearance. |
Clear |
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Urine with a high specific gravity often has this appearance. |
Yellowish Brown |
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Which urine constituent is most likely to be elevated during late pregnancy and cows and ewes? |
Ketones |
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What is the best way to differentiate between hematuria and hemoglobinuria? |
Centrifusion the urine, and examine the sediment microscopically for red blood cells. |
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Which test is used to confirm the presence of bilirubin when detected with a dipstick test? |
Ictotest |
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Which test can be used to measure the total sugar in the urine? |
Clinitest |
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Which test is used to confirm the presence of excess protein when detected with the dipstick test? |
Clsulfosalicylic acid turbidity |
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Which urine crystal is commonly associated with ethylene glycol toxicity in small animals? |
Calcium oxalate |
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Which type of crystal found in alkaline urine is often described as having a coffin lid appearance? |
Struvite |
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Which common crystal gives equine urine its milky appearance? |
Calcium carbonate |
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Which crystals are commonly found in the urine of Dalmatian dogs? |
Uric acid |
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This crystal appears to be flat and has six sides. |
Cystine |
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An organism with growth that is inhibited by the absence of oxygen is described as what kind? |
Facultative anaerobes |
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An organism with growth that is enhanced by the presence of low oxygen tension is described as what kind? |
Microaerophilic |
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An organism with growth that requires high levels of carbon dioxide is described as what kind? |
Capnophilic |
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Most pathogenic bacteria are: |
Mesophiles |
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Rod-shaped bacteria are described as: |
Bacilli |
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A type of culture media that contains additives that allow certain microorganisms to grow while inhibiting the growth of others is which kind? |
Selective |
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A type of culture media that contains additives that detect certain biochemical reactions of the bacteria is what kind? |
Differential |
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Which media is recommended for culture and sensitivity testing? |
Mueller-Hinton |
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Pathogenic bacteria exhibit what kind of hemolysis on blood agar? |
Beta hemolysis |
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Acid fast stains are used primarily for the identification of which |
Mycobacterium |
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For best results, microbiology samples must be collected in which fashion? |
Aseptically |
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The most common cause of diagnostic failure with microbiological specimens is what? |
Specimen contamination during collection |
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The first step in collecting samples for dermatophyte testing is: |
Cleaning the area to minimize surface contamination |
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Bacterial samples from hollow organs are usually collected by: |
Aspiration |
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An example of an area that is likely to contain a single organism is: |
Urine collected by cystocentesis |
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The primary stain component for most gram staining kits is: |
Crystal violet |
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The mordant component for most gram staining kits is: |
Iodine |
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The counterstain component for most gram staining kits is: |
Safranin |
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When gram stain results are ambiguous which procedure is performed? |
KOH |
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The stain that is primarily used to detect mycobacterium and nocardia species is: |
Ziehl-Neelsen |
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The stain that is primarily used to detect spirochetes and rickettsiae is: |
Giemsa |
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Fluorescent stains are primarily used for the identification of which organisms? |
Pseudomonas |
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A bacterial culture that is used for endospore staining should be approximately how many hours old? |
48 hours |
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The technique that is designed to isolate pure cultures of bacteria is: |
The quadrant streak method |
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Routine cultures are incubated for how many hours before initial examination? |
18 hours |
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The purpose of a candle jar is to what? |
Increase carbon dioxide levels |
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Terms that describe the form of a colony on a plate include: |
Rhizoid |
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Agar slant tubes are usually inoculated with what method? |
The slant S streak |
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Culture and sensitivity tests are evaluated by measuring what? |
The zone of inhibition |
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He preferred culture media for performing the sensitivity test is |
Mueller-Hinton |
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The application of undiluted urine directly to the culture and sensitivity test plate is referred to as what? |
Direct sensitivity test |
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Inoculating the culture and sensitivity test plate with cookies from a poor culture is referred to as what method? |
Indirect sensitivity |
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The numbers of colony-forming units on a culture plate of a sample of urine collected by cystocentesis are considered significant when more than how many units are present per milliliter of urine? |
1000 |
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Which test requires the use of a microscope slide with a concave area? |
The hanging drop motility test |
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Kovacs reagent is used to determine whether bacteria produce what? |
Indole |
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Hydrogen peroxide is the reagent for what test? |
Catalase |
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A positive catalase test is indicated by the production of what? |
Bubbles on the slide |
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If the milk/reagent mixture in the California Mastitis Test thickens immediately, with some gel formation, the result is recorded as what? |
A distinct positive |
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Most fungi are composed of structures called: |
Hyphae |
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The culture media that is most often used for the growth of fungi and yeasts is: |
Sabouraud agar |
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A useful stain for the evaluation of fungal organisms is: |
Lactophenol cotton blue |
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The preferred method for the testing of dermatophytes is to: |
Pluck some hairs from the periphery of the lesions and perform a culture |
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Culture specimens from microsporum or trichophyton should be collected from where? |
The periphery of the lesion |
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The Tzanck preparation is a type of which sample collection? |
Imprint |
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The fine needle aspiration of soft masses is best performed with the use of what size needle and syringe? |
A 21 to 25 gauge needle and a 10 mL syringe |
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Paracentesis refers to the collection of fluid samples from: |
The abdomen |
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When collecting swab samples moisten the swab with what to minimize cell damage? |
Saline |
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Tissue samples for histopathologic examination are often fixed in what? |
Formalin |
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Cystocentesis refers to the collection of fluid samples from which organ? |
The urinary bladder |
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The preferred method of sample preparation for a highly viscous sample is what? |
A starfish smear |
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The preferred fixative for most cytology specimens is: |
Methanol |
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The preferred method of sample preparation for a sample with very low cellularity is: |
A line smear |
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A stain that provides excellent nuclear and nucleolar detail is: |
New methylene blue |
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Fluid samples are generally aliquoted into plain sterile tubes as well as a tube that contains which anticoagulant? |
EDTA |
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A sample that contains more than 85% neutrophils is described as: |
Suppurative |
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A sample that contains more than 15% macrophages is described as: |
Granulomatous |
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The term for a nucleus that appears small, condensed, and dark is: |
Pyknotic |
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And unusual variation in the size of nuclei in a cytology sample is termed: |
Anisokaryosis |
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And then usual variation in the size of nucleoli in a cytology sample is termed: |
Anisonucleoliosis |
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A type of tumor that is usually highly cellular and that normally exfoliates in clusters is: |
An epithelial cell carcinoma |
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A type of tumor that is characterized by spindle-shaped cells, low cellularity, and cells that exfoliates singly is: |
Mesenchymal |
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Round cells that are usually a slightly larger than lymphoblasts and that have distinctive purple-staining granules are: |
Mast cells |
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A cell with prominent dark black granules is a: |
Melanoma |
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Term that describes a fragmented condensed nucleus is: |
Karyorrhexis |
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The term that describes fluid that appears milky and that results from the presence of emulsified fats is: |
Chylous |
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Normal peritoneal and pleural fluids have less than how many nucleated cells per microliter? |
10,000 |
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The cells that line body cavities and that may become reactive and be shed when abnormal fluids accumulate in cavities are: |
Mesothelial cells |
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A type of fluid with low cellularity, low total protein, and a mixture of monocytes, macrophages, and lymphocytes is referred to as: |
Transudate |
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A plasma cell that contains secretory vesicles of immunoglobulin is referred to as: |
A Mott cell |
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Which cell type is predominant during anestrus? |
Non cornified squamous epithelial |
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What is a potential cause of chronic skin lesions and ear infections that may be seen in swabs taken from normal animals? |
Malassezia |
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Which cell type is predominant during estrus? |
Cornified squamous epithelial cells |
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When platelets are activated, what do they express on their surface? |
Phosphatidylserine |
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Tissue factor binds to what in the plasma to initiate the coagulation reactions? |
Factor VIII |
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What serves to stabilize the platelet plug? |
Von Willebrand factor |
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The formation of coagulation complexes results in the activation of: |
Factor X |
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The breakdown of the clot involves interaction with: |
Tissue plasminogen activator |
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Which anticoagulant is preferred for platelet testing? |
EDTA |
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The preferred anticoagulant got most plasma assays of coagulation is: |
Sodium citrate |
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The proper ratio of blood to citrate anticoagulant is: |
1:9 |
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The Coag Dx analyzer uses what technology to evaluate coagulation? |
LED detector |
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The PFA-100 analyzer uses what technology to evaluate coagulation? |
Collagen-coated membrane |
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The average size of the individual platelets is recorded as the: |
Mean platelet volume |
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A measure of the percentage of the total blood volume that is comprised of platelets is what? |
Plateletcrit |
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Variability in the size of platelets is evaluated with what? |
Platelet distribution width |
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A measure of the percentage of platelets that are larger than normal is: |
Platelet large cell ratio |
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Newly released platelets that contain high levels of RNA are referred to as what? |
Reticulated platelets |
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A coagulation test that uses a tube containing diatomaceous earth is what? |
ACT |
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A coagulation test that evaluates the extrinsic coagulation pathway is |
PT |
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D-Dimer and FDP test can be used to evaluate what? |
Tertiary hemostasis |
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The PIVKA test can be used to evaluate: |
Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity |
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A primary essay for the evaluation of platelet number and function is what? |
Buccal mucosa bleeding time |
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Which coagulation assay is a good screening test for rodenticide ingestion? |
Prothrombin time |
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The most common inherited disorder of domestic animals is: |
Von Willebrand disease |
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The correct term for the presence of pinpoint hemorrhage is: |
Petechia |
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Patients with DIC often have evidence of what on the differential blood cell film? |
Schistocytes |
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Hemophilia A is due to deficient or defective production of: |
Factor VII |
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The most common coagulation disorder of domestic animals is: |
Thrombocytopenia |
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The vitamin K dependent coagulation factors are: |
Factors II,VII, IX, and X |
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The primary site for the production of coagulation factors is: |
The liver |
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The preferred sample for most blood chemistry assays is: |
Serum |
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The fluid portion of the blood that contains fibrinogen but no cells is: |
Plasma |
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Serum that appears pink after centrifugation is described as: |
Hemolyzed |
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Serum that appears yellow after centrifugation is described as: |
Icteric |
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Serum that appears milky after centrifugation is described as: |
Lipemic |
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The presence of ____ in a sample causes light scattering when analyzed and is likely to falsely ____ test values. |
Lipemia; increase |
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The photometer that uses a filter to select the wavelength is referred to as: |
A colorimeter |
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The type of assay that requires a standard to be analyzed concurrently and in the same manner as the patient sample is referred to as: |
One-point calibration |
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The type of assay that requires a standard to be analyzed concurrently and in the same manner as the patient sample is referred to as: |
One-point calibration |
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The type of assay that is commonly used for the measurement of enzyme activity is: |
Kinetic assay |
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For a solution to be measured with spectrophotometry, dissolution must adhere to the principle of which law? |
Beer Lambert's Law |
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A type of analyzer that contains specific electrodes that are configured to allow for interaction with just one ion is referred to as: |
A potentiometer |
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The A/G ratio refers to: |
Albumin/globulin |
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The enzyme that is found both free in the cytoplasm and bound to the mitochondrial membrane and that may be elevated with liver disease or muscle injury is: |
AST |
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A liver specific enzyme that can be used to evaluate liver function in horses is: |
Iditol (sorbitol) dehydrogenase |
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The enzyme that can be used to evaluate muscular damage is: |
Creatine kinase |
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For which of the following species would bile acid testing not be useful? Horses, cows, dogs, or cats? |
Cows |
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What component is assayed to determine the cause of jaundice, to evaluate liver function, and to check the patency of bile ducts? |
Bilirubin |
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In older animals, nearly all circulating alkaline phosphatase comes from which organ? |
The liver |
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The most commonly used tests of kidney function in dogs are: |
BUN and creatinine |
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The most commonly used test of kidney function in birds is: |
Uric acid |
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A type of kidney function test that makes use of test substance has eliminated both by glomerular filtration and renal secretion is: |
ERPF |
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A mathematical manipulation that describes the excretion of specific electrolytes relative to the glomerular filtration rate is: |
Fractional clearance of electrolytes |
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A byproduct of muscle metabolism that may be used to evaluate kidney function is: |
Creatinine |
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Dehydration usually results in: |
Azotemia |
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A useful test to detect ketoacidosis is: |
Beta-hydroxybutyrate |
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The most common tests used to evaluate the acinar function of the pancreas are: |
Amylase and lipase |
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A sensitive and specific test for the diagnosis of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs is: |
Trypsinlike immunoreactivity |
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A test used in dogs and cats that provides an indication of the average glucose concentration over the previous one to two weeks is: |
Fructosamine |
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A test used in dogs that provides an indication of the average glucose concentration over the previous three to four months is: |
Glycosylated hemoglobin |
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What test is considered the most sensitive indicator of pancreatitis in cats? |
Pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity |
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The ketone that is produced in greater abundance in ketoacidotic patients is: |
Beta-Hydroxybutyrate |
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Under normal circumstances, blood glucose levels peak ____ after the administration of glucose and return to normal within ____. |
30 minutes; 2 hours |
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Hypernatremia refers to an elevated blood level of: |
Sodium |
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Hypokalemia refers to a reduced blood level of: |
Potassium |
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The primary extracellular cation that is commonly measured in veterinary species is: |
Sodium |
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The primary intracellular cation that is commonly measured in veterinary species is: |
Potassium |
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The primary and ion that plays a role in the body's buffer system and that aids in the transport of carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs is: |
Bicarbonate |
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The most common cause of excess blood cortisol is: |
Misuse of glucocorticoid therapy |
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Addison's disease is the result of: |
Hypoadrenocorticism |
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Cushing's disease is a result of: |
Hyperadrenocorticism |
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Increased ____ levels indicate hypoxia or hypoperfusion. |
Lactate |
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Increased ____ levels indicate muscle damage. |
Creatinine kinase |
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Antibodies are produced by: |
B lymphocytes |
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The cell that can differentiate into a macrophage when in tissue spaces is the: |
Monocyte |
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Which of the following is a component of adaptive immunity? Lysosomes, skin, hydrochloric acid, or complement? |
Hydrochloric acid |
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Which leukocytes are involved in both adaptive and non-adaptive immune systems? |
Neutrophils |
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Substances that are capable of generating a response from the immune system are referred to as: |
Antigens |
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An antigen-antibody reaction that results in the formation of insoluble particles is: |
Precipitation |
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The primary immunoglobulin involved in mucosal immunity is: |
IgA |
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A test that yields a negative result on a sample that is in fact negative is said to be highly: |
Specific |
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What term refers to a test that has the ability to yield positive results on a sample that is in fact positive? |
Sensitivity |
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The most common type of immunologic test performed in practice is: |
ELISA |
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For the detection of a specific antigen, the solid phase of an ELISA test contains: |
Antibody |
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Rapid immunomigration is also referred to as: |
Lateral flow assay |
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The most serious transfusion reactions in canine patients occur in dogs that are positive for ____ and that are given mismatched transfusions. |
DEA 1.1 |
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The vast majority of cats in the United States have which blood type? |
A |
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A major cross-match involves the mixing of: |
Recipient serum and donor cells |
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An agglutination reaction with evidence of many small agglutinates and some free cells would be designated as grade: |
1 |
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The primary method of blood typing in reference laboratories is: |
The tube method |
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Canine agglutination blood typing is used to determine whether dogs are positive for: |
DEA 1.1 |
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Neonatal isoerythrolysis has been documented in kittens of which blood type queens? |
B |
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The card agglutination assay for blood typing requires a sample collected with: |
EDTA |
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A minor cross-match involves the mixing of: |
Donor serum and recipient cells |
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The most serious transfusion reactions in feline patients occur in cats with what blood type that are given mismatch transfusions? |
B |
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Allergies are mediated by: |
IgE |
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A term that can be used to describe hives is: |
Urticaria |
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A condition that involves swelling of the dermis is: |
Angioedema |
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Test sites for intradermal testing should be at least ____ apart from each other. |
2 centimeters |
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The positive control for the intradermal test is given a grade of: |
+ 4 |
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The Coombs test is used to diagnose: |
Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia |
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With regard to antibody titers, which statement is most accurate?
-Results are reported as either positive or negative. -The higher the dilution, the more antibody in the sample. -A single, high-dilution titer is indicative of an active infection. -The higher the dilution, the harder the immunologist had to look to find antibody in the sample. |
The higher the dilution, the more antibody in the sample. |
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A type of immunologic test that is commonly used to detect and diagnose brucellosis is: |
Agglutination |
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The Coombs test is an example of what kind of test? |
Fluorescent antibody |
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What test involves the addition of a sample to a plate coated with agar gel? |
Immunodiffusion |
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The type of hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE is: |
Type I |
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The type of hypersensitivity reaction mediated by T cells is: |
Type IV |
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IMHA is an example of what kind of hypersensitivity? |
Type II |
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What kind of hypersensitivity disorder is an immune complex disorder? |
Type III |
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Atopy is example of what hypersensitivity? |
Type I |
