Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
114 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What level does bili usually have to be higher than to cause jaundice?
|
5mg/dL
|
|
Pt has scleral icterus and sublingual icterus. What do they have?
|
Jaundice
|
|
How does billi form?
|
RBCs lyse or die --> release hemoglobin --> heme (+ globin) --> biliverdin --> bilirubin (unconjugated = indirect bili) --> binds albumin --> delivered by albumin via serum to liver --> conjugated in liver by uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase (to become direct ie conjugated bili) --> released to intrahepatic bile ducts
|
|
What are the different causes of jaundice?
|
Hemolysis, Deficiency of Glucuronosyl transferase, Defects in transport of bili from hepatocyte to bile duct, Obstruction of biliary system
|
|
Describe Crigler-Najjar syndrome, one of the causes of jaundice?
|
Autosomal dominant - dec expression of uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase - chronic elevation of indirect bili
Autosomal recessive - Absent UGT expression - no conjugation occurs, lethal |
|
What is Gilbert syndrome, one of the causes of jaundice?
|
Mildly decreased expression of uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase
= elevated indirect bili at time of physical stress |
|
Define Rotor, one of the causes of jaundice
|
Impaired hepatocellular secretion secondary to a carrier defect = elevated bili
|
|
Define Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
|
Impaired hepatocellular secretion secondary to a carrier defect = darkly pigmented liver + elevated direct bili
|
|
T/F: Hepatitis A is only acute, never chronic
|
TRUE
|
|
How s HEP A transmitted?
|
fecal-oral
|
|
How do we tell if a pt with Hep A is in the acute phase or chronic phase?
|
Acute = IgM
Chronic = IgG |
|
Whats the incubation period for Hep A?
|
2-6 weeks
|
|
Earliest marker for Hep B?
|
HBs-Ag = indicates current or chronic infection
|
|
What does Hbe-Ag indicate?
|
An especially infective state
|
|
How is Hep B transmitted?
|
parenterally, sexually and vertically
|
|
Whats the incubation time for Hep B?
|
2-6 months (vs Hep A = 2-6 weeks)
|
|
Define Dane Particle
|
A capsid of Hep B = envelope and glubular proteins = the "serum" hepatitis
|
|
How is Hep B transmitted?
|
Parenterally, sexually and vertically
|
|
Whats the leading cause of infectious liver in the Western world?
|
Hep C (an RNA virus)
|
|
90% of transfusion hepatitis is due to what?
|
Hep C
|
|
How is Hep C transmitted?
|
parenterally
|
|
Whats the incubation for Hep C? What percent of cases become chronic?
|
1-2 months
50-70% of cases become chronic |
|
What two enzymes will we see elevated with Hep C?
|
ALT and AST
note: these don't have to be elevated |
|
What are the two types of infections Hep D can cause?
|
Coinfection and Superinfection
|
|
How is Hep D transmitted?
|
parenterally or sexually
|
|
How is Hep S spread?
|
fecal-oral. Often fulminant in pregnant women = preggos can die from it, where normally it never becomes a chronic disease
|
|
Pneumonic for remembering Hep A and E are transmitted via fecal-oral?
|
"Vowels = in the Bowels"
|
|
T/F: HIV+ pts with Hep G have been shown to survive longer than those without Hep G
|
TRUE
|
|
How is Hep G transmitted?
|
Sexually, parenterally, vertically
|
|
A pts serology has HBsAg in it one week after symptom onset. What type of Hep do they have?
|
Hep B
|
|
What antigen, if found in blood, indicates an extreme state of infectiousness?
|
HBeAg
|
|
What antigens are present during the window period of Hepatitis infection?
|
Anti-HBc
HBV DNA |
|
Which antigen during Hepatitis infection is protective?
|
Anti-HBs
= Ab to the hep B surface antigen that appears after symptoms disappear indicating immunity = its protective |
|
Define the window period of Hep B infection
|
A period of time in which a person WITH Hep B will have a window of time in which the 2 primary screening and diagnostic tests (HBsAg and anti-HBs) will be negative (after HBsAg is no longer measurable and before anti-HBs is measurable)
Anti-ABc and HBV DNA, which are not used typically as initial tests, will be positive during that period of time |
|
Describe the curves of antigen present with Hepatitis infections?
|
Hbs Ag - Hbe Ag - Anti-HBc Ag - Anti-Hbs AG
|
|
What will we see in vaccinated individuals with Hepatitis?
|
Anti-Hbs Ag, won't have Anti-Hbc
|
|
Pt has HBs Ag and is negative on all other tests. Dx?
|
Hep B
|
|
Pt has HBe Ag. Dx?
|
Very infectious acute Hep B
|
|
Pt has HBs Ag on initil presentation, and comes back 7 months later with still + HBs Ag. Dx?
|
Chronic Hep B
|
|
Pt has + anti-HBs and (-) anti-HBc. Dx?
|
Immune to Hep B due to vaccination
|
|
Pt has + anti-HBs and + anti-HBc. Dx?
|
Immune to Hep B due to resolved Hep B infection
|
|
Pt has symptoms of Hep B, but demonstrates - HBs Ag, and - anti-HBs. Dx?
|
Either Hep B neg or has Hep B but is in window period. So you run anti-HBc and its +. Dx is acute Hep B (but in window period)
|
|
Define Toxic hepatitis
|
Hepatitis ie inflamm of liver due to a toxin which can be a poison or a drug
|
|
What are some major causes of toxic hepatitis?
|
Methotrexate, chloramphenicol, halothane, isoniazid
|
|
Define Cirrhosis
|
Diffuse organization of normal hepatic structure by regenerative nodules that are surrounded by fibrotic tissue
|
|
Whats the end stage of many liver diseases?
|
Cirrhosis
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis?
|
weakness, anorexia, ascites, fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, hepatic encephalopathy, portal HTN with varices, malaise, fat malabsorption, caput medusa, weight loss, bleeding probs, infection
|
|
What are the types of alcoholic cirrhosis?
|
Alcoholic, Cirrhosis due to Viruses or toxins, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
|
|
How long will a pt have Alcoholic cirrhosis?
|
Irreversible
First we'll see fatty change |
|
Mallory Bodies and Alcoholic hyaline mean what?
|
Alcoholic Cirrhosis
|
|
What other damages will we see due to alcoholic cirrhosis?
|
Toxicity to testes --> testicular atrophy
Further cirrhosis --> high E2 --> Spider Angiomata --> Gynecomastia and Palmar Erythema Further cirrhosis --> Hepatocyte death --> Hepatic Encephalopathy Alcoholic cirrhosis --> impaired blood flow through liver due to fibrotic bands --> portal HTN --> Ascites varices |
|
We see micronodular liver pathology from an alcoholic pt. Is this early or late stage alcoholic cirrhosis?
|
EARLY
Macronodular = late |
|
Whats the first sign of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
|
Inc. Alkaline Phosphatase
1st symptom is Pruritis, esp at night Micronodular Autoimmune disease with anti-mitochondrial Abs |
|
Inc. Fe absorption leads to Fe deposits in liver, heart, pancreas, and skin in form of hemosiderin. Pt presents with new onset DM, skin pigmentation = "Bronze diabetes", and possibly cardiomyopathy. DX?
|
Hemochromatosis
|
|
Define Wilson's disease
|
Autosomal recessive. AKA Hepatolenticular Degeneration
Accumulation of Copper which may lead to fulminant Hep and later cirrhosis Dec serum ceruloplasmin so Cu deposits inappropriately in brain, kidney, cornea, liver |
|
What do the Copper deposits in all the dif tissues seen with Wilson's disease lead to?
|
Cu in brain --> Psychosis, atehtosis, incoordination
Kidney --> High urinary Cu Cornea --> Kayser-Fleischer rings (orange rings on cornea) Liver --> Cirrhosis |
|
Define Amyloidosis
|
A disease marked by accumulation of amyloid = affects liver 50% of time
|
|
Whats the most common liver cancer? Primary sites of metastatic liver cancer?
|
Metastatic is the most common liver cancer
Primary sites = breast, lung, colon |
|
Whats the greatest risk factor for Cholangiocarcinoma?
|
Infection with Clonorchis sinensis (liver fluke)
|
|
What are the major causes of Pancreatitis?
|
Alcoholism, Gallstones (obstruct pancreatic duct system), Hypertriglyceridemia
|
|
Pt presents with severe pain radiating to back and elevated amylase and lipase on labs. Dx?
|
Pancreatitis
|
|
Define Intussusception
|
Bowel telescopes in
|
|
Where does Intussusception usually occur?
|
terminal ileum into ascending colon
|
|
Whats the most significant risk for Intussusception?
|
Adenovirus infection
|
|
Pt has vomiting, palpable right upper quadrant sausage-shaped mass with vacant lower right quadrant, currant jelly stool
|
Intussusception
|
|
Define Midgut volvulus
|
During fetal development, Duodenum and colon malrotate around mesentery, causing constriction of bowel and vasculature
|
|
Define Necrotizing Enterocolitis
|
Neonates
Risk factors = maternal NSAID use, prematurity, comorbid disease at birth Bowel mucosa necroses |
|
this disease is due to lack of development o fAuerbach's and Meissner's plexuses at focal regions of colon
|
Hirschprung's disease
|
|
Whats the #1 cause of GI obstruction in infants?
|
Pyloric stenosis
Due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of muscular layers of pylorus |
|
Pt has firm non-tender "olive" at pylorus. Dx?
|
Pyloric stenosis
|
|
Osteoarthritis vs. Rheumatoid Arthritis?
|
OA = Disorder of hyaline cartilage and subchondral bone but surrounding tissues are hypertrophied. Slow, Progressive. SITFFNESS LESS THAN 1 HR. Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes
Rheumatoid Arthritis = autoimmune destruction of joint. ABRUPT and multiple joints involved. Rheumatoid nodules, STIFFNESS LASTS > 1 HR in MORNING |
|
Stiffness in multiple joints that lasts greater than 1 hr in pt. DX?
|
Rheumatoid arthritis. (if less than 1 hr, its osteoarthritis)
|
|
What are the Criteria for rheumatoid arthritis that we must have 4 our of 7 of in order to make the Dx?
|
Morning stiffness > 1 hr
Arthritis in 3 or more joints simultaneously Arthritis in hand joints Symetrical arthritis Rheumatoid nodules Serum Rheumatoid factor Erosions or bony calcifications identifiable on x-ray |
|
Define Still's disease
|
Systemic juvenile arthritis or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
Acutely febrile, polyarthritis, - rheumatoid factor Occurs before age 16 |
|
Define Psoriatic arthritis
|
Psoriais of skin/nails seen
No rheumatoid factor Affects DIPs Causes sausage digits HLA-B27+ |
|
Define Felty's syndrome
|
Polyarticular RA, spenomegaly, leukopenia, leg ulcers, inc. infection
|
|
Define Osteogenesis imperfecta
|
Abnormal fragility of bone due to disorder of collagen synthesis
Blue sclera |
|
Define Osteopetrosis
|
"Marble bones or Albers-Schonberg"
Sclerosis of vertebral end plate --> "rugger's jersey" look leads to brittle bones |
|
Define Achondroplasia
|
A type of chondrodystrophy = defective cartilage synth
= a type of dwarfism Auto. Dominant --> short limbs with normal sized head and trunk |
|
Define Aspetic necrosis
|
due to cut in blood supply
Can be secondary to trauma of the head of the femur, tibial tuberosity, or scaphoid bone Includes Osgood-Schlatter disease + Legg-Calve perthes disease |
|
T/F: NO serum markers or abnormalities occur with Osteoporsis
|
TRUE
test with bone density or DEXA scan |
|
Define osteoporosis
|
Thinned cortical bone and enlarged medullary cavity
pts easily fracture bones with falls esp at risk are small-boned, petit women |
|
What are the various causes of Osteoporosis
|
Estrogen-deficient state
Physical inactivity/ bed ridden Hypercorticolism Hyperthyroidism Subclinical Ca2+ deficiency |
|
What are the dif types of primary osteoporosis?
|
Idiopathic
Type 1 = post-menopausal Type 2 = Involutional osteoporosis = affects pple 70 or older |
|
Define Osteomalacia
|
Due to inadequate bone mineralization
AKA Rickets in kids caused by vit. D deficinecy Radiographically you'll see "Looser's zones" = radiolucent bands that run perpendicular to the periosteal surface = due to pseudofractures |
|
What are the causes of Osteomalacia?
|
Vit D deficiency, Severe liver dis of any type, anticonvulsant drugs (Phenobabitol and Phenytoin), Renal Osteodystrophy, Fanconi's syndrome, Malnutrition/Malabsorption
|
|
Define Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
|
AKA von Recklinghausen disease of bone
Its the focal bone damage caused by severe hyperthyroidism Results in micro-fractures and secondary hemorrhages |
|
Define Paget's disease
|
"Osteitis deformans"
Inc., uncontrolled bone turnover, with bone formation outpacing bone resorption and that formation is disorganized bone Symptoms = frontal bossing, deafness, bony pain and pain secondary to compression of the spinal and cranial nerve roots, vertebral compression fractures Radiologically = enlarged thick bones |
|
Primary innervation of Hamstring? Quadriceps?
|
Hamstrings = Sciatic n.
Quadriceps = Femoral n. |
|
What 3 muscles comprise the "hamstrings"?
|
Semi-membraneous, semi-tendinous, biceps femoris
|
|
A peroneal n. injury affects the foot how?
|
Loss of Dorsiflexion
|
|
Major contents of superior mediastinum? middle mediastinum? posterior mediastinum? anterior mediastinum?
|
superior mediastinum = Thymus, great vessels, esophagus, trachea
middle mediastinum = Heart posterior mediastinum = Descending aorta and esophagus anterior mediastinum = Thymus |
|
What are the 3 signs of portal hypertension in terms of the portocaval shunts involved?
|
Gastric or Esophageal shunt can lead to esophageal varices
Peri-umbilical shunt allows for caput medusa Anorectal vein --> Hemorrhoids |
|
Where is McBurney's point located?
|
Between ASIS and belly button 1/3rd of the way away from ASIS
|
|
What is the triad for peritonitis?
|
Rebound tenderness, Abd. muscle rigidity, Severe pain
|
|
Name the layers of the spermatic cord, from most superficial to deepest layer
|
Superficial fascia --> External Spermatic fascia --> Cremasteric m. + fascia --> Internal spermatic fascia --> Loose connective tissue
|
|
From what artery does the ovarian artery directly originate?
|
Aorta
|
|
Compare Broca's aphasia with Wernicke's aphasia in terms of fluency of speech and comprehension of language
|
Broca's aphasia = non-fluent speech but good comprehension
Wernicke's aphasia = fluid speech but no workd recognition = word salad (poor comprehension) |
|
What cerebral artery supplies the lateral cortex? Medial cortex?
|
Lateral cortex = middle cerebral a.
Medial cortex = Ant. cerebral a. |
|
Name all 5 of the signs/symptoms assoc. with transient ischemia involving vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency
|
Vertigo, Diplopia, Ataxia = loss of balance, Facial m. weakness or numbness, Nausea
|
|
What CNs do taste? Hearing? Mastication? Movement of trapezius? facial expression? sensory transmission from viscera?
|
taste = 7 + 9
Hearing = 8 Mastication = 5 Movement of trapezius = 11 facial expression = 7 sensory transmission from viscera = 10 |
|
What CN is served by the Edinger-Westphal nucleus? Inferior Salivary nucleus? Dorsal motor nucleus?
|
Edinger-Westphal nuc = 3
Inferior salivary nuc = 9 Dorsal motor nuc = 10 |
|
What part of the striatum atrophies in Huntington's disease?
|
Caudate and Putamen
|
|
What brainstem area is lost in Parkinson's?
|
Substantia nigra
|
|
What part of the basal ganglion is the site of copper accumulation in Wilson's dis?
|
Lentiform nuc
|
|
What two structures comprise part of the basal ganglion?
|
Putamen and Globus pallidus
|
|
The thalamus receives ALL Sensory input except for this one type
|
Olefactory
|
|
What part of the brainstem is destroyed in Wallenberg syndrome, and what artery infarcts to bring this about?
|
The Lateral Medulla is destroyed and the posterior inferior cerebellar artery brings this about
|
|
IF contralateral body pain and temp. sensation is lost, what spinal tract has been injured?
|
Spinothalamic tract
|
|
What occurs to the body if the corticospinal tract is damaged?
|
Allows us to have motor function, so with damage we'll get spastic paralysis (b/c its an upper motor neuron lesion)
|
|
What lesion tops your list of differential Diagnoses if there is a muscle weakness and loss of sensation in the right arm? left leg?
|
Right arm = CVA of left cerebral artery
Left leg = think stroke - R. side of brain, R. anterior cerebral a. |
|
In what dermatomes do the following structures lie:
Anus, umbilicus, great toe |
Anus = S5
Umbilicus = T10 Great toe = Top is L5, Medial is L4, Bottom is S1 |
|
What disorder exists if an L5 transverse process articulates or is fused with the sacrum?
|
Sacrilization
|
|
What gene is responsible for producing: gp41 and gp120 in HIV? p24? reverse transcriptase in HIV?
|
gp41 and gp120 = ENV gene
p24 = GAG gene Reverse transcriptase = Pol gene |