• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/114

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

114 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What level does bili usually have to be higher than to cause jaundice?
5mg/dL
Pt has scleral icterus and sublingual icterus. What do they have?
Jaundice
How does billi form?
RBCs lyse or die --> release hemoglobin --> heme (+ globin) --> biliverdin --> bilirubin (unconjugated = indirect bili) --> binds albumin --> delivered by albumin via serum to liver --> conjugated in liver by uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase (to become direct ie conjugated bili) --> released to intrahepatic bile ducts
What are the different causes of jaundice?
Hemolysis, Deficiency of Glucuronosyl transferase, Defects in transport of bili from hepatocyte to bile duct, Obstruction of biliary system
Describe Crigler-Najjar syndrome, one of the causes of jaundice?
Autosomal dominant - dec expression of uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase - chronic elevation of indirect bili

Autosomal recessive - Absent UGT expression - no conjugation occurs, lethal
What is Gilbert syndrome, one of the causes of jaundice?
Mildly decreased expression of uridine diphosphate glucuronosyl transferase

= elevated indirect bili at time of physical stress
Define Rotor, one of the causes of jaundice
Impaired hepatocellular secretion secondary to a carrier defect = elevated bili
Define Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
Impaired hepatocellular secretion secondary to a carrier defect = darkly pigmented liver + elevated direct bili
T/F: Hepatitis A is only acute, never chronic
TRUE
How s HEP A transmitted?
fecal-oral
How do we tell if a pt with Hep A is in the acute phase or chronic phase?
Acute = IgM
Chronic = IgG
Whats the incubation period for Hep A?
2-6 weeks
Earliest marker for Hep B?
HBs-Ag = indicates current or chronic infection
What does Hbe-Ag indicate?
An especially infective state
How is Hep B transmitted?
parenterally, sexually and vertically
Whats the incubation time for Hep B?
2-6 months (vs Hep A = 2-6 weeks)
Define Dane Particle
A capsid of Hep B = envelope and glubular proteins = the "serum" hepatitis
How is Hep B transmitted?
Parenterally, sexually and vertically
Whats the leading cause of infectious liver in the Western world?
Hep C (an RNA virus)
90% of transfusion hepatitis is due to what?
Hep C
How is Hep C transmitted?
parenterally
Whats the incubation for Hep C? What percent of cases become chronic?
1-2 months

50-70% of cases become chronic
What two enzymes will we see elevated with Hep C?
ALT and AST

note: these don't have to be elevated
What are the two types of infections Hep D can cause?
Coinfection and Superinfection
How is Hep D transmitted?
parenterally or sexually
How is Hep S spread?
fecal-oral. Often fulminant in pregnant women = preggos can die from it, where normally it never becomes a chronic disease
Pneumonic for remembering Hep A and E are transmitted via fecal-oral?
"Vowels = in the Bowels"
T/F: HIV+ pts with Hep G have been shown to survive longer than those without Hep G
TRUE
How is Hep G transmitted?
Sexually, parenterally, vertically
A pts serology has HBsAg in it one week after symptom onset. What type of Hep do they have?
Hep B
What antigen, if found in blood, indicates an extreme state of infectiousness?
HBeAg
What antigens are present during the window period of Hepatitis infection?
Anti-HBc

HBV DNA
Which antigen during Hepatitis infection is protective?
Anti-HBs

= Ab to the hep B surface antigen that appears after symptoms disappear indicating immunity = its protective
Define the window period of Hep B infection
A period of time in which a person WITH Hep B will have a window of time in which the 2 primary screening and diagnostic tests (HBsAg and anti-HBs) will be negative (after HBsAg is no longer measurable and before anti-HBs is measurable)

Anti-ABc and HBV DNA, which are not used typically as initial tests, will be positive during that period of time
Describe the curves of antigen present with Hepatitis infections?
Hbs Ag - Hbe Ag - Anti-HBc Ag - Anti-Hbs AG
What will we see in vaccinated individuals with Hepatitis?
Anti-Hbs Ag, won't have Anti-Hbc
Pt has HBs Ag and is negative on all other tests. Dx?
Hep B
Pt has HBe Ag. Dx?
Very infectious acute Hep B
Pt has HBs Ag on initil presentation, and comes back 7 months later with still + HBs Ag. Dx?
Chronic Hep B
Pt has + anti-HBs and (-) anti-HBc. Dx?
Immune to Hep B due to vaccination
Pt has + anti-HBs and + anti-HBc. Dx?
Immune to Hep B due to resolved Hep B infection
Pt has symptoms of Hep B, but demonstrates - HBs Ag, and - anti-HBs. Dx?
Either Hep B neg or has Hep B but is in window period. So you run anti-HBc and its +. Dx is acute Hep B (but in window period)
Define Toxic hepatitis
Hepatitis ie inflamm of liver due to a toxin which can be a poison or a drug
What are some major causes of toxic hepatitis?
Methotrexate, chloramphenicol, halothane, isoniazid
Define Cirrhosis
Diffuse organization of normal hepatic structure by regenerative nodules that are surrounded by fibrotic tissue
Whats the end stage of many liver diseases?
Cirrhosis
What are the signs and symptoms of cirrhosis?
weakness, anorexia, ascites, fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, hepatic encephalopathy, portal HTN with varices, malaise, fat malabsorption, caput medusa, weight loss, bleeding probs, infection
What are the types of alcoholic cirrhosis?
Alcoholic, Cirrhosis due to Viruses or toxins, Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
How long will a pt have Alcoholic cirrhosis?
Irreversible

First we'll see fatty change
Mallory Bodies and Alcoholic hyaline mean what?
Alcoholic Cirrhosis
What other damages will we see due to alcoholic cirrhosis?
Toxicity to testes --> testicular atrophy

Further cirrhosis --> high E2 --> Spider Angiomata --> Gynecomastia and Palmar Erythema

Further cirrhosis --> Hepatocyte death --> Hepatic Encephalopathy

Alcoholic cirrhosis --> impaired blood flow through liver due to fibrotic bands --> portal HTN --> Ascites varices
We see micronodular liver pathology from an alcoholic pt. Is this early or late stage alcoholic cirrhosis?
EARLY

Macronodular = late
Whats the first sign of Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
Inc. Alkaline Phosphatase
1st symptom is Pruritis, esp at night

Micronodular

Autoimmune disease with anti-mitochondrial Abs
Inc. Fe absorption leads to Fe deposits in liver, heart, pancreas, and skin in form of hemosiderin. Pt presents with new onset DM, skin pigmentation = "Bronze diabetes", and possibly cardiomyopathy. DX?
Hemochromatosis
Define Wilson's disease
Autosomal recessive. AKA Hepatolenticular Degeneration

Accumulation of Copper which may lead to fulminant Hep and later cirrhosis

Dec serum ceruloplasmin so Cu deposits inappropriately in brain, kidney, cornea, liver
What do the Copper deposits in all the dif tissues seen with Wilson's disease lead to?
Cu in brain --> Psychosis, atehtosis, incoordination
Kidney --> High urinary Cu
Cornea --> Kayser-Fleischer rings (orange rings on cornea)
Liver --> Cirrhosis
Define Amyloidosis
A disease marked by accumulation of amyloid = affects liver 50% of time
Whats the most common liver cancer? Primary sites of metastatic liver cancer?
Metastatic is the most common liver cancer

Primary sites = breast, lung, colon
Whats the greatest risk factor for Cholangiocarcinoma?
Infection with Clonorchis sinensis (liver fluke)
What are the major causes of Pancreatitis?
Alcoholism, Gallstones (obstruct pancreatic duct system), Hypertriglyceridemia
Pt presents with severe pain radiating to back and elevated amylase and lipase on labs. Dx?
Pancreatitis
Define Intussusception
Bowel telescopes in
Where does Intussusception usually occur?
terminal ileum into ascending colon
Whats the most significant risk for Intussusception?
Adenovirus infection
Pt has vomiting, palpable right upper quadrant sausage-shaped mass with vacant lower right quadrant, currant jelly stool
Intussusception
Define Midgut volvulus
During fetal development, Duodenum and colon malrotate around mesentery, causing constriction of bowel and vasculature
Define Necrotizing Enterocolitis
Neonates

Risk factors = maternal NSAID use, prematurity, comorbid disease at birth

Bowel mucosa necroses
this disease is due to lack of development o fAuerbach's and Meissner's plexuses at focal regions of colon
Hirschprung's disease
Whats the #1 cause of GI obstruction in infants?
Pyloric stenosis

Due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of muscular layers of pylorus
Pt has firm non-tender "olive" at pylorus. Dx?
Pyloric stenosis
Osteoarthritis vs. Rheumatoid Arthritis?
OA = Disorder of hyaline cartilage and subchondral bone but surrounding tissues are hypertrophied. Slow, Progressive. SITFFNESS LESS THAN 1 HR. Heberden's nodes and Bouchard's nodes

Rheumatoid Arthritis = autoimmune destruction of joint. ABRUPT and multiple joints involved. Rheumatoid nodules, STIFFNESS LASTS > 1 HR in MORNING
Stiffness in multiple joints that lasts greater than 1 hr in pt. DX?
Rheumatoid arthritis. (if less than 1 hr, its osteoarthritis)
What are the Criteria for rheumatoid arthritis that we must have 4 our of 7 of in order to make the Dx?
Morning stiffness > 1 hr
Arthritis in 3 or more joints simultaneously
Arthritis in hand joints
Symetrical arthritis
Rheumatoid nodules
Serum Rheumatoid factor
Erosions or bony calcifications identifiable on x-ray
Define Still's disease
Systemic juvenile arthritis or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Acutely febrile, polyarthritis, - rheumatoid factor

Occurs before age 16
Define Psoriatic arthritis
Psoriais of skin/nails seen
No rheumatoid factor
Affects DIPs
Causes sausage digits
HLA-B27+
Define Felty's syndrome
Polyarticular RA, spenomegaly, leukopenia, leg ulcers, inc. infection
Define Osteogenesis imperfecta
Abnormal fragility of bone due to disorder of collagen synthesis

Blue sclera
Define Osteopetrosis
"Marble bones or Albers-Schonberg"

Sclerosis of vertebral end plate --> "rugger's jersey" look

leads to brittle bones
Define Achondroplasia
A type of chondrodystrophy = defective cartilage synth

= a type of dwarfism

Auto. Dominant --> short limbs with normal sized head and trunk
Define Aspetic necrosis
due to cut in blood supply

Can be secondary to trauma of the head of the femur, tibial tuberosity, or scaphoid bone

Includes Osgood-Schlatter disease + Legg-Calve perthes disease
T/F: NO serum markers or abnormalities occur with Osteoporsis
TRUE

test with bone density or DEXA scan
Define osteoporosis
Thinned cortical bone and enlarged medullary cavity

pts easily fracture bones with falls

esp at risk are small-boned, petit women
What are the various causes of Osteoporosis
Estrogen-deficient state
Physical inactivity/ bed ridden
Hypercorticolism
Hyperthyroidism
Subclinical Ca2+ deficiency
What are the dif types of primary osteoporosis?
Idiopathic
Type 1 = post-menopausal
Type 2 = Involutional osteoporosis = affects pple 70 or older
Define Osteomalacia
Due to inadequate bone mineralization

AKA Rickets in kids caused by vit. D deficinecy

Radiographically you'll see "Looser's zones" = radiolucent bands that run perpendicular to the periosteal surface = due to pseudofractures
What are the causes of Osteomalacia?
Vit D deficiency, Severe liver dis of any type, anticonvulsant drugs (Phenobabitol and Phenytoin), Renal Osteodystrophy, Fanconi's syndrome, Malnutrition/Malabsorption
Define Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica
AKA von Recklinghausen disease of bone

Its the focal bone damage caused by severe hyperthyroidism

Results in micro-fractures and secondary hemorrhages
Define Paget's disease
"Osteitis deformans"

Inc., uncontrolled bone turnover, with bone formation outpacing bone resorption and that formation is disorganized bone

Symptoms = frontal bossing, deafness, bony pain and pain secondary to compression of the spinal and cranial nerve roots, vertebral compression fractures

Radiologically = enlarged thick bones
Primary innervation of Hamstring? Quadriceps?
Hamstrings = Sciatic n.
Quadriceps = Femoral n.
What 3 muscles comprise the "hamstrings"?
Semi-membraneous, semi-tendinous, biceps femoris
A peroneal n. injury affects the foot how?
Loss of Dorsiflexion
Major contents of superior mediastinum? middle mediastinum? posterior mediastinum? anterior mediastinum?
superior mediastinum = Thymus, great vessels, esophagus, trachea
middle mediastinum = Heart
posterior mediastinum = Descending aorta and esophagus
anterior mediastinum = Thymus
What are the 3 signs of portal hypertension in terms of the portocaval shunts involved?
Gastric or Esophageal shunt can lead to esophageal varices

Peri-umbilical shunt allows for caput medusa

Anorectal vein --> Hemorrhoids
Where is McBurney's point located?
Between ASIS and belly button 1/3rd of the way away from ASIS
What is the triad for peritonitis?
Rebound tenderness, Abd. muscle rigidity, Severe pain
Name the layers of the spermatic cord, from most superficial to deepest layer
Superficial fascia --> External Spermatic fascia --> Cremasteric m. + fascia --> Internal spermatic fascia --> Loose connective tissue
From what artery does the ovarian artery directly originate?
Aorta
Compare Broca's aphasia with Wernicke's aphasia in terms of fluency of speech and comprehension of language
Broca's aphasia = non-fluent speech but good comprehension

Wernicke's aphasia = fluid speech but no workd recognition = word salad (poor comprehension)
What cerebral artery supplies the lateral cortex? Medial cortex?
Lateral cortex = middle cerebral a.
Medial cortex = Ant. cerebral a.
Name all 5 of the signs/symptoms assoc. with transient ischemia involving vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency
Vertigo, Diplopia, Ataxia = loss of balance, Facial m. weakness or numbness, Nausea
What CNs do taste? Hearing? Mastication? Movement of trapezius? facial expression? sensory transmission from viscera?
taste = 7 + 9
Hearing = 8
Mastication = 5
Movement of trapezius = 11
facial expression = 7
sensory transmission from viscera = 10
What CN is served by the Edinger-Westphal nucleus? Inferior Salivary nucleus? Dorsal motor nucleus?
Edinger-Westphal nuc = 3
Inferior salivary nuc = 9
Dorsal motor nuc = 10
What part of the striatum atrophies in Huntington's disease?
Caudate and Putamen
What brainstem area is lost in Parkinson's?
Substantia nigra
What part of the basal ganglion is the site of copper accumulation in Wilson's dis?
Lentiform nuc
What two structures comprise part of the basal ganglion?
Putamen and Globus pallidus
The thalamus receives ALL Sensory input except for this one type
Olefactory
What part of the brainstem is destroyed in Wallenberg syndrome, and what artery infarcts to bring this about?
The Lateral Medulla is destroyed and the posterior inferior cerebellar artery brings this about
IF contralateral body pain and temp. sensation is lost, what spinal tract has been injured?
Spinothalamic tract
What occurs to the body if the corticospinal tract is damaged?
Allows us to have motor function, so with damage we'll get spastic paralysis (b/c its an upper motor neuron lesion)
What lesion tops your list of differential Diagnoses if there is a muscle weakness and loss of sensation in the right arm? left leg?
Right arm = CVA of left cerebral artery
Left leg = think stroke - R. side of brain, R. anterior cerebral a.
In what dermatomes do the following structures lie:

Anus, umbilicus, great toe
Anus = S5
Umbilicus = T10
Great toe = Top is L5, Medial is L4, Bottom is S1
What disorder exists if an L5 transverse process articulates or is fused with the sacrum?
Sacrilization
What gene is responsible for producing: gp41 and gp120 in HIV? p24? reverse transcriptase in HIV?
gp41 and gp120 = ENV gene
p24 = GAG gene
Reverse transcriptase = Pol gene