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472 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which one of the malleoli facets of the talus has a tear drop shape
medial
what happens to the eye when treated with atropine
mydriasis - pupil dilation
TCA MOA
block reuptake of NE, serotonin and dopamine
What drug causes SLE like rxn
Procainamide, INH, hydralazine, phenytoin
HIPPPE
DOC for post surg pain
morphine
babinski reflex is assoc with what tract
spinothalmic.....checks for UMN lesions
PT come in ER, is unconscious and respiration is depressed, what would you do? (heroin od)
naloxone (narcan)
the oblique popliteal ligament if from what m.?
semimembranosus m.
the posterior thigh muscle originates from which structure
ischial tuberosity
what artery supplies the fdb?
medial plantar a.
what artery supplies the quadratus plantae m
lateral plantar a.
what hormone is secreted by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland
aldosterone
what drug is used as antimetic postop
thioridazine
what muscle is between the anterior and inferior gluteal lines
gluteus minimus
what blood group is universal donor
0-
where is erythropoetin made
kidney
what increases difusion
solubility
hyperglycemia can be caused by all EXCEPT
insulin
cerebellum is concerned with
coordination/balance
what are ACE inhibitors
antihypertenisves
what do you give for atropine poisoining
physostigmine/scopolamine
what causes parkinsonism
lack of dopamine
MG is a result of
ab's against ach receptors
what is the fastest conducting axon
large myelimated
which of the following requires energy
active transport
what ion is a clotting factor
calcium
what drug causes hair growth
minoxidil
what vitamin causes exfoliation
vitamin a
what blocks the action of histamine in asthma
epinephrine
which antibiotics works on cell wall
penicillins
what muscles supplies by spinal accessory n.
trapezius, SCM
melanin is composed from what a.a?
tyrosine
what is the precursor of serotonin
tryptophan
what inserts in the quadrate tuburcle
quadratus femoris
what part of the coxae is form by more than one bone
acetabulum
what supplies the nutrient foramen of the fibula
peroneal a.
which bone is associated os tibiale externum
navicular
which muscle can plantarflex and evert foot
navicular
which layer of foot is medial plantar a.
between 1 and 2
crest syndrome is associated with
scleroderma
which do you NOT use antacids with
tetracylcine
which substance increase muscle wasting
steroid usage
rapid repolarization is result of
k+ efflux
acute bacterial endocarditis
staph aureus
what supplies blood to the AV node
rt coronary a (RCA)
the anterior compartment of the leg is supplied by which nerve
deep peroneal
what happens i f your remove lymphatics
edema
what is blood supply to peroneus tertius
anterior tibial
what can give pulmonary embolus
DVT
what usually happens with electron transport
oxidative phosphorylation
what do gram positive organisms do NOT have
outer membrane
what organism is blue/green with a fruity odor
pseudomonas
what is lacking in smooth m
troponin
what is the most common chromosomal disorder
trisomy 21 (downs)
mesothelioma and brochogenic CA associated with
asbestos
which does NOT inhibit cell wall synthesis
erythromycin
lumbar plexus
t12-t14
common insertion of TP,TA,PL
medial cuneiform
what ganglia controls pain in face
trigeminal VI
what adduct toes
plantar interossei- adduct
which met base is kidney based (reniform)
1st
increase surface area
microvilli
originates from the tibia and fibula
EDL, Posterior pt tibial isleis ???
extranumery bone associated with talus
os trigonum
scurvy?
vit c deficiency
emergency problem with insulin
hypoglycemia
emphysema?
alpha-1antirypsin deficiency
flexes leg and thigh
sartorius
least sedating histamine blocker
terfinadine
cross allergy between PCN and carbapeneats too
cephalosporins
what can be palpated
PIIS
beta blocker with least respiratory effect
metoprolol
what anti-tumor drug work on mitotic spindles
vincristine and vinblastine
transitional epithelium
bladder (urinary tract)
why do you give EPI with local anestheitc
vasoconstriction, to keep local around longer
where is the fabella
lateral head of gastrocnemius
action of the tibialis posterior
plantar flexion and inversion
what is the major cause of peptic ulcer
h. pylori
in what compartment is the peroneal a. located
deep posterior compartment
what muscles does the medial plantar n. supply
1st lumbricale, abductor hallucis, FHB,FDB
causes lyme disease
borelia burgdoferi
coagulase and catalase positive
staph aureus
what produces anitbodies
plasma cells
what nerve compressed in carpal tunnel
median n
root value of phrenic
c3,4,5
nerve that goes below l2
cauda equina
what makes csf
choroid plexus
where is the quadrate tuburcle located
femur
what inserts into the trochanteric fossa
obturator externus (only one insertion here)
what courses with the small saphenous v.
sural n
what innervated EDB
deep peroneal (lateral terminal branch of)
competitive inhibition can be reverse by
increasing substrate
iron is carried in blood by
transferrin
if pt is starving where does brain get glucose
kerone bodies
how many ATP's are formed from glyclysis
2
the key NZ is glycolysis
phosphofructorkinase (PFK)
what inhibits cyclooxygenase
ASA
precursor to PGE
arachidonic acid
when vit b12 id not absorbed it cause
pernicious anemia
chyromerons are formed from
dietary TG
most common opportumistic mycosis
candida
what fluoresces coral red under the woods lamp
erythrasma
what cuneiform articulates with 3 mets
lateral cuneiform
what contains keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
skin
what part of the hip joint contains hyaline cartilage
lunate surface
what ct is made up of parallel fibers
dense regular ct
what is the innervation to gluteus medius
superior gluteal n.
what innervates the adductor ballucis
lateral plantar n.
what muscle passes under the sperior extensor reunaculum
tibialis anterior.......EHL/EDL/ P TARTIUS?
what muscle passes between the medial and lateral process of talus
FHL
the first tarsal bone to ossify
calcaneus
best measure of excretion capacity of kidneys
creatine clearance, glucose is least
what is rapid tolerance to a drug
tachyphalaxis
DOC fro gram positive
PEN G (iv)
how do you force the excretion of an alkaline
acidify the urine
drug given for urinary retention
bethanachol
what inhalation anesthetic cause hepatitis
halothane
what promotes healing
vitamin c
glucose production from non -carbohydrate source
gluconeogensis
which is NOT Part of DNA structure
Ribose sugar
what aids the absorption of VIT B12 from intestine
IF
what is the dicrotic notch
closure of the aortic valve and accompanying back pressure
comparison of pulmonary and systemic circulation
blood flow volume is equal
where does herpes zoster lie dorment
dorsal root ganglion
disease characterized by reversible bronchospasm
asthma
what is going on with pt with neuropathy and elevated liver NZS
alcoholism
cutaneous innervation to lateral side of foot
sural n/ LDCN- LATERAL DORSAL CUT N.
DVT drug
heparin
what drug has side effect of gingival hyperplasia
phenytoin
what three muscles tendons attach to the base of the 1st met
ta/pl/ ?
tarsal bone ossifies last
navicular (late 3 yr)
cuneiform articulates with 1st met only
intermediate
the medial and lateral femoral circumflex come off of what
deep femoral a. (profunda femoris)
medial calcaneal a. comes from
posterior tibial a.
MOA of 5FU
inhibits thymidylate synthase
what decrease gastric acid secretion best
ranitidine
first TX for NIDDM
weight loss
does not flex the knee
soleus
saddle joint
calcaneocuboid
first branch of the anterior tibial a.
posterior tibial recurrent a.
if you are hit behind neck in c4,c5 area what is affected
part of your breathing mechaniism since the phrenic n. is involved
all the following causes hydroencephalous except
non-functioning choroid plexus -CSF
what muscle unlocks the knee joint
popliteus
kyphosis
increased thoracic curve
what supplies motor to tongue
hypoglossal n.
draining granular foot lesion
mycetoma
rejection of an organ is mediated by
T cells
what protects bacteria from phagocytosis
capsule
best way to build up skeletal muscle
exercise
down syndrome has association with
leukemia (in youth)
disease characterized by aneurysms
marfans
which is not a risk factor for atherosclerosis
alcoholism
what is the cause of libman sacks endocarditis
SLE (LSE AND SLE)
what disease replace muslce tissue with fibrous material and fat in child
duchennes muscular dystrophy
circular rings of cartilage in vessels, non-occlusive
monckbergs medial sclerosis
patient with irregular heart beast has a sstroke
cause is embolic stroke
ADH(vasopressin) is secreted by what part of the pituatary gland
posterior lobe (2 parts nervosa)
young male with thrombosis
burgers-IgA
irregular cells
dysplasia
pannus formations seen in
RA
esophageal inflammation seen with
gastric reflux
ketogenic amino acids
lysine and leucine "keLLy"
why does diabetes insipidus cause polyuria
lack of ADH/ lack of renal response to ADH
what is the parent compund of NE and EPI
phenylalmine
what are payer patches made of
lymphoid follicles
which nerves have the same branches as the femoral
obturator l2,3,4
what nerve innervates the hamstring m. of the thigh
sciatic (tibial n)
injuring the superficial peroneal n. will result in
inability to evert foot
fat soluble vitamins
A, D, E, K
AMINO ACIDS MOST LIKELY TO DONATE THE METHYL GROUP
methionine
how many common plantar digital n are there
4
not a function of t cells
manufacture of immunoglobulims
drug that affects the closure of epiphyseal plate
androgens
what facilitates phagocystosis
opsonins
what is inhibited by ranitidine
h2 receptors in the stomach
what is characterized of parkinsons
resting tumor
moa of spironolactone
k sparing durectic-competitive antagonist of aldosterone. Interfere with NA, K, H exchange that cause a decrease in K loss in distal tubule
what secretes renin
juxtaglomerular cells adjacent to the afferent arerioles in kidney
65% of glomerular filtrate reabsorbed where
PCT
treatment of benzodiazepine OD
flumazenil
common se after removing anti htn drug
ankle edema
tx gram+ amaerobe
clindamycin
what nerve supplies the lateral rectus
abducent n. (VI)
which of the following arteries unpaired and supplies the knee joint
middle genicular a.
name the essential a.s.
phenylalamine, valine, threonine, tryptophan, isoleucine, methionine, histidine, arginine, leucine, lysine "PVT TIM HALL"
neutral a.a
histidine
a pathology in which one a.a. is swapped for another on the beta chain
sickle cell amenia
a pathology related to a.a. with aromatic ring
phenylketonuria
krebs cylce occurs in all except
erythrocytes
ceruloplasm is related to which mineral
copper -wilsons disease
HMG CoA is related to which cycle
cholestrol synthesis
can increase uric acid by giving
probenecid
which drug is an HMG CoA redcutase inhibitor
lovastrin- "YOUR NOT GETTING MUCH LOVA IF YOUR SCREWING WITH MY G'S
which drug can cause a gout attack
hydroclothorothiazide
drug give PO for PSEUDOMEMBRANOUS colitis
vancomycin
what drugs are used to treat pseduomonas aeruginosa
aminoglycoside and extended spectrum penicillins
what are the adductor m of the thigh innervated by
obturator n.
what is cimetidine for
gastritis, peptic ulcer, esophageal reflux, zollinger-ellison syndrome
what does the deep peroneal n innervate
anterior leg muscles
what is klinefelters syndrome
male (xxy)-testicular atrophy, eunuchoid, body shape, tall long extremities, gynecomastia female hair distributors, presence of inactivated x chromosome (barr body)
name the bactericidial antibiotics
penicillins, fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins, vancomycin, aminoglycosides, metronidazzole
where does aldosterone act
distal tubules
what does griseofulvin cause
hepatotoxicity
rice water stools
v cholera
what is smaller than RBC'S
platelets
what artery supplies the cruciate ligament
middle genicular a. (knee joint0
which of the following aromatic
phenylalanine
what does the lateral marginal v dump into
lesser saphenous v.
ossification of cuneiforms
lateral-1st yr
medial 2nd year
intermediate 3rd year
warfarin, is it oral, what is it for
oral, chronic anticoagulation not give during pregnancy bc crosses placenta
risk factor for atherosclerosis
smoking, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia
where is the soleal line located
posterior tibial, medial proximal-lateral distal
a kid falls from his bike, hits his head on the curb, later goes unconscious what structure was affected
middle meningeal a.
where is melatomin produced
pineal gland
which cells can self-replicate
mitochondria
muscles of the rotator cuff
supraspinatous, infraspinatous, teres minor subscapularis
which is NOT found in all synovial joints
meniscus
damage to what nerve cause wrist drop
radial n
what muscle in the sole of the inserts into a tendon
quadratus plantae (FDL)
which of the leg compartments has 2 arteries and 1 nerve
deep posterior compartment
mRNA and DNA
transcription
what attaches to the superior surface of the greater trochanter
piriformis
what is ELISA test looking for
antibodies to viral proteins
what is long acting insulin
protamine zine (lente)
tarsal bone has a peroneal groove/ sulcus
cuboid
what side of the calcaneous is the sustentatculum tali on
medial
ischial spine is on what coxal bone
ischium
bone with peroneal trochlea, ridge, and notch
cuboid, calcaneus also has a peroneal trochlea
frequent location of MI
left anterior descending LAD> RCA> circumflex
which secretes NE
SYMPATHETIC POSTGANGLIONIC
which are the pain fibers
delta a...for pAin
what treatment for arrythmia
quinidine
primary lung infection
coccidiornycosis
what nerve supplies the heart
parasympathetic of the vagus
which lip of linea aspira ends as gluteal tuberosity
lateral lip
hyperglycemia is increased by what drug
glucocorticoids and NOT caused by insulin
what DOES occur in Krebs cycle (generation of energy)
net gain of OAA
hard contraction of muscle resulting from sustained stimulus
tetanus
where is the dopamine concentrated
substenia nigra
causes of essential HTN
unknown
type of collagen in bone
type 1
which cell has fastest in A.P.
nerve cell
what is affected by poliomyelitis
caused by polio virus
fecal/oral.
LMN destruction,
destruction of cells in anterior horn of spinal cord
what Tx for asthma
thephyline/cromolyn/steroids/ albuterol
what is true of both sympathetic and parasympathetic
presynaptic release of Ach
which drug would you give for an infection that is methicilling resistant
vancomycin
which NSAID is least GI toxic
salsalate
what represents AV delay
PR segment
what represents purkinje
ST segment
CN III muscle innervation
levator palpebrae, inferior, superior, medial rectus, inferior oblique, pupillary sphincter, ciliary m.
what is lateral inside the femoral sheath
artery; nerve root in sheath
muscles innervated by femoral n.
anterior thigh
what is found under the nail plate
nail bed
what connects epthelial cells together
desmosomes
what ist he 4th ventricle associated with
foramen of megendie
calcium binds to which molecules to produce muscle contraction
troponim- skeletal m (not in smooth)
calmodulin-smooth m
insulin will enhance
glycolysis, lipogenesis, pentose phosphate pathway
what are tyrosine derivatives
thyroxine, dopamine, epi, melanin (not creatine)
Phenylalanine --> Tyrosine --> Thyroxine or Dopa;
Dopa --> Melanin or Dopamine
Dopamine -->Norepinephrine which can become Epinephrine
HDL's can be best described as
scavengers of cholestrol from the peripheral tissue (to liver)
what degrades blood clots
plasmin
fats are stored in
TG
which carb has alpha 1-4 and alpha 1-6 bonds
glycogen
vitamin d deficiency can cause
rickets in children (bending bones)
osteomalacia in adults (soft bones) and
hypocalcemic tetany
knee reflex
l2-4
ankle reflex
s1-2
pathology in ehlers-danlos syndrome
faulty collagen synthesis causing:
hyperextensible skin, tendency to bleed, hypermobile joints 10 types
what muscle medially rotates the tibia
popliteus
which Ig fixes complement
IgG-crosses placenta
IgM-doesnt cross placenta
describe the pathology in goodpastures syndrome
ATTACKS LUNG AND KIDNEYS
pulmonary hemorrage, renal lesions, hemoptysis, hemanuria, anemian, proliferative glomerulonephritis. anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies produce linear staining on imminofluorescence
** there are 2 good pastures for this dz; glomerulus and pulmonary. also a type II hypersensitivity RXN. Most common in men 20-40
function of shwann celis
myelinate PNS axons,
a single schwann cell myelinates only ONE PNS axon
function of oligodendroglia
myelinate MULTIPLE CNS axons.
In Nissle stains, they appear as small nuclei with dark chromatin and little cytoplasm
**predominant type of glial cell in white matter
cause of hemiballismus
sudden, wild flailing of one arm
*contralateral subthalmic nucleus lesion
what are the mastication muscles
teMporalis
Masseter
Medial pterygoids
lateral pterygoids (only one that opens mouth, all others close)
all innervated by CN V(3)
only syndesmosis in LE
distal tibio-fibular joint (inferior)
what happens in spinal cord hemisection
brown-sequard syndrome-
ipislateral motor paralysis and spasticity (pyramical tract) ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception sense (dorsal column).
*contralateral pain and temp loss (spinothalmic tract) ipsilateral loss of all sensation at level of lesion
describe hyperthryoidism
heat intolerance, hyperactivity, weight loss, chest pain/palpatations, arrythmias, diarrhea, increase reflexes, warm, dry skin, and fine hair.
*DECREASE TSH (if primary) increase total T4 and free T4 increase T3 update
describe hypothryoidism
COLD INTOLERANCE,
hypoactivity, weight gain, fatigue, lethargy, decrease appetite constipation, decrease reflexes, myxedema (facial/periornital) dry cool skin and coarse brittle hair. *INCREASE TSH, decrease total T4, decrease T4 and decrease T3 uptake
what does the T wave represent
ventricular repolarization
name the branches off the dorsalis pedis
later and medial tarsal ateries
muscular branches
arcuate a.
1st dorsal metatarsal a. (TERMINAL BRANCH)
deep plantar perforating a. (1st proximal perforating) (TERMINAL BRANCH)
ossification of phalanges
primary secondary fusion
distal 9-12 wk 2-8yrs 18yr
proximal 11-15wk 2-8 18
middle 15 2-8 18
( prox primary---
hallux=11wk iu,
2-4digit=12-14wk iu,
5th digit=15week iu)
which of the following bones has 2 centers of ossification
calcaneus 3 months (primary center)/ 6-8yrs (secondary center @ calcaneal tuberosity)
epiphyseal fusion 14-17 fusion
what tract carries pain and temp
Lateral spinothalamic tract
what inserts in medial proximal phalanx of 2nd toe
1st lubricale (MDN) AND 1st dorsal interosseus (MPA)
what glycoslates proteins
golgi apparatus
where does the long plantar ligament insert
peroneal ridge of cuboid
what NZ responsible for the rate limiting step in glycolysis
phosphofructokinase (PFK)
what muscle has an origin on lateral fibula
peroneus brevis/ longus/ quartus (17%)
in TCA cycle, acetyl CoA reacts with what
OAA
what drives the AP in neuronal cells
NA+ uptake
hepatitis a
RNA picornavirus
no chronic carrier state (fecal oral
Asymptomatic (usually), Acute, Alone (no carriers)
hepatitis b
DNA hepadnaviridae (STD) acute and chronic states
hepatitis c
RNA flavivirus
IVDU
most common cause of transfusional hepatitis
Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carrier
hepatitis d
RNA delta virus.
requires obligulatory helper function of hep b virus bc there is no outer protein coat
-Defective virus, Dependent of HBV
hepatitis e
RNA hepevirus. fecal oral route water born
High mortality in pregnant women
Enteric, Expectant mother, Epidemic
where the does the fhb originate from
•Medial arm is slip from TP
•Lateral arm runs transversly, anchored to cuboid, post and medial to peroneal sulcus and lateral cuneiform, at post end of crest
nerve supply to the dorsal lateral aspect of foot
sural n
what nerve does the medial calcaneal n. branch form
tibial n (pt nerve)
*supplies post comp
what artery penetrates the adductor magnus to supply the lower end of the posterior muscles of the thigh
perforating branches off profunda femoris
nerve supply to 5th digit
S1
NERVE SUPPLY TO the 2nd digit web space
medial dorsal cutaneous n.
coxiella burnetii
-how is it transmitted??
-whats the vector??
Q fever
tick feces and cattle placenta release spore that are inhaled as AEROSOLS
NO ARTHROPOD VECTOR
presents as pneumonia
Q fever is Quer because it has no rash or vector and its causative organism can survive outside in its endospore form
what the rickettsial disease and vectors and tx?
r. rickettsii--rocky mountain spotted fever
r. proazekii--epidemic typhus--louse
r. typhi--endemic typhus--fleas

tx: doxycycline
is typhoid fever rickettsial
no!!!
SALMONELLA TYPHI--causes typhoid fever
where does the perforating peroneal anastamose
lateral tarsal a distal apperature of interosseous mem.
whooping cough
bordstella perussis
pressure, 2 point tactile discrimination from the legs go up to which spinal tract
fasiculus gracilis LMN
----
part of SOMATOSENSORY cortex
fasciculus gracilis AKA gracile tract (T7 down)
fasciculus cuneatus AKA cuneate tract (T6 up)
actin and myosin together in which band
A Band
What is the embyrological order of appearance of the following structures
Lower limb buds
lumbrosacral plexus
chrondro
ossification
what muscle does not go to the 5th digit
EDB
-extend toes 2-4 @ MPJs and IPjs
where do posterior thigh muscles originater from
ischial tuberosity (ST, SM, BF long head)
which vitamin is an antioxidant
Vit A, C, E**

vit E= antioxidant---protects erythrocytes and membranes from free-radical damage
What dz in young man with thrombosis (smoker)
Buerger's Dz (thromboangiitis obliterans)
*segmental thrombosing vasculitis
tx: smoking cessation
-heavy smokers, males <40 years of age
-intermittent claudication: may lead to gangrene, autoamputation of digits, superficial nodular phlebitis
-Raynaud's phenomenon is ofte present
gout involves
purines

* increase uric acid levels in plasma from purine metabolism, decreased uric acid excretion
what dz has antibodies to double stranded DNA
SLE
a patient with Kaposi and lung problems
Pneumocystis Jirovecii--> pneumocystis penumonia
what dz causes pleural mesothelioma
asbestos

bronchogenic carcinoma>mesothelioma
what do you give to a pt with mutliple resistant(gram+)
vancomyicn
tx of candida albicans
systemic? Amphotericin V
oral thrush, esophagitis? nystatin
if you have an OD of atropine what would happen and what is tx?
hot as a hare, dry as a bone, red as a beet, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter

tx: physostigmine "physostigmine phyxes"

inc body T(due to dec sweating), rapid pulse, dry mouth, dry flushed skin, CYCLOPLEGIA, constipation, disorientation
blurred vision/mydriasis
a pt come to ER with anaphylaxis what do you give
epinephrine
how do anesthetics work
CNS drugs must be lipid soluble (cross blood brian barrier) or be actively transported

drugs with DEC solubility in blood= rapid induction and recovery times

drugs with INC solubility in lipid= INC potency

Examples: N20 has ! blood and lipid solubility, and thus fast induction and low potency.
Halothane, in contrast, has t lipid and blood solubility, and thus high potency and slow induction
contraindications for Ca++ channel blockers
CHF
what drug causes hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia and hypokalemia
hydrochlorothiazide

-hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyponatremia, hyperGlycemia, hyperLipidemia, hyperUricemia, and hyperCalcemia.----"hyperGLUC"
What drug catalyzes the activation of antithrombrin III and does not cross placenta
heparin
what bug most has antigenic drifts
influenza

Sudden shift is more deadly than gradual drift.

antigenic SHIFT/genetic SHIFT:
Causes pandemics. Reassortment ofviral genome; segments undergo high-frequency recombination, such as when human Au A virus recombines with swine Au A virus.

genetic DRIFT
Causes epidemics. Minor (antigenic drift) changes based on random mutation.
what has pseudohyphae
candida albicans
increase urinary flow by
dilating afferent arterioles (inc GFR)

ANP is released from atrial myocytes in response to INC blood volume and atrial pressure. Causes generalized vascular relaxation and DEC Na+ reabsorption at the medullary collecting tubule.
CONSTRICT EFFERENT renal arterioles and DILATE AFFERENT arterioles (cGMP mediated), promoting diuresis and contributing to the "escape from aldosterone" mechanism.
how many lymph nodes in foot
0
what the most median tendon passing the ankle joint
tibialis anterior then EHL
a lesion of what nerve in leg cause loss of dorsiflexion
common peroneal/deep peroneal n.
which dz may present with reed sternberg cells, fever, painless lympphadenopathy
hodgkins dss
what anitbotic would you use for a diabetic ulcer under the 3rd met that is infected with gram(+) cocci and anaerobes
vancomycin
the major difference between skeletal and smooth m.
composition of contractile filaments (troponin vs calmaddin)
the systemic fungus that mainly affects the lungs
cocciodiomycosis

causes pneumonia and meningitis
can disseminate to bone and skin

Spherule filled with endospores (much larger than RBC)
what is the virulence factor for TB
cord factor

cord factor in virulent strains inhibits macrophage maturation and induces release of TNF-a. Sulfatides (surface glycolipids) inhibit phagolysosomal fusion
what muscle originates on ischial spine
superior gemellus
what isa sign of a basal ganglia defect
resting tremor- parkinson's dz (occurs @ rest, "pill polling tremor"

basal ganglia---important in voluntary movements and making postural adjustments

hemiballismus, chorea, athetosis, myoclonus, dystonia, essential tremor, resting tremor, intention tremonr
regarding the surface features of the tibia, what side is nutrient foramen on?
the nutrient foramen is on the posterior surface
MOA acyclovir
preferential inhibits viral DNA polymerase when phosphorylated by viral THYMIDINE KINASE-metabolic analog of nuclei acid synthesis
the peroneal a. is in what compartment
deep posterior
what anticancer drug blocks polymerization of microtubules?
vinblastine, vincristine

Alkaloids that bind to
tubulin in M phase and block polymerization of microtubules so that mitotic spindle cannot form. "Microtubules are the vines of your cells."
in which bone is the linea aspira
femur
foot with ulcer has fruity odor gram(-) pseudomonas what drug do you give
3rd generation cephalosporin
which of the diuretics can cause increase k+
spironolactone, eplerenone
Triamterene
Amiloride

--K+sparing diuretics---the K+ STAys
which hormona interferes with NA- movement in the collecting tubules
aldosterone

- acts on mineralcorticoid receptor--> insertion of Na+ channel on luminal side in principle cells--enhances K+ and H+ excretion
most common cause of esophageal inflammation
gastric reflux
which nerve passes in front of the ear and goes through the parotid gland
CN VII
(note: nerve courses through the parotid gland, but does not innervate it...glossopharyngeal does)
which drug is used for open angle and closed angle glaucoma
pilocarpine

Contracts ciliary muscle of eye (open-angle
glaucoma), pupillary sphincter (closed-angle glaucoma); resistant to AChE. "You cry, drool, and sweat on your 'pilow.' "
if you give a beta agonist it has asympathominectic effect will NOT occur
increase salivary secretions
which ligament has a y shape
iliofemoral ligament
if there was a sudden increase in venous pressure what would be the direct effect
increase preload


VEnodilators (e.g., nitroglycerin) DECprEload.
VAsodilators (e.g., hydrAlazine) DEC Afterload (arterial)
if there is a lesion in the optic chiasm the result would be
bitemporal hemianopia
which CN responsible for taste in anterior 2/3 of togue
CN VII- facial

The anterior two thirds of the tongue:
General sensation is carried by the lingual branch of CN V. Taste sensation is carried by chorda tympani of CN VII

The posterior one third of the tongue:
General sensation and taste are carried by CN IX.
where is peptic ulcer located most often
proximal duodenum
when doing a KOH fungal prep scraping what are you looking for
hypae, budding, spores
what is the function of KOH fungal prep
to dissolve the tissue in the scraping
the vertebral a. is branch of
subclavian a.
what tract carries 2 point tactile sensation
dorsal column
in which part of the cerebral cortex is the motor area
precentral gyrus
the most serious type of glomerulonephritis in SLE
diffuse

Nephritis is common cause ofdeath in SLE.
Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (if
nephritic);
membranous glomerulonephritis (if
nephrotic).
sensory to innervation to lateral heel
sural n.
lisfranc ligament
medial cumieform 1st and 2nd met
how do you kill endospores
autoclave
what virus cause plantar verruca
HPV---papillomavirus----warts
MOA cromolyn sodium
inhibits mast cell degranulation (used for asthma prophylaxis)
what anticancer drug nephrotoxic
cisplatin
AND acoustic nerve damage
is everything stayed the same what would decrease BP
decrease blood vicosity
epinephirine does all the following except
a. decrease bronchial tone
b. decrease GI motility
c. increase HR
d. increase bronchiole secretion
increase brochiole secretion---bc sympathomimetic
----
Anaphylaxis, glaucoma (open angle), asthma,
hypotension
proximal origin of spring ligament
calcaneus
EBV associated with
infectious monoucleosis
patient walks in taking captropril, thiazides, digoxin, theophylline, and allapurinol the pat is not being treated for
asthma, chf, cardiac arrythrnis, gout..........
cardiac arrythrnis is not one
pt presents with eye, skin rash, periorbital edema and muscle weakness in the shoulder, pelvic girdle what is pathology
dermatomyositis

Polymyositis-progressive symmetric proximal muscle weakness, characterized by endomysia! inflammation with CDS+ T cells. Most often involves shoulders.

Dermatomyositis-similar to polymyositis,
but also involves malar rash (similar to SLE), Gottron's papules, heliotrope rash , "shawl and face" rash, "mechanic's hands."
INC risk of occult malignancy. Perimysial inflammation and atrophy with CD4+ T cells
nissil bodies contains of
RER in neurons
synthesize enzymes (e.g., ChAT [choline acetyltransferase] makes ACh) and peptide neurotransmitters.


RER:Site of synthesis of secretory (exported) proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins.
Peptide synthesis of protein takes place where
RER
QRS complex is
ventricular depolarization
normocytic, normochromic anemis does not include
iron deficiency

Normocytic, normochromic anemias are classified as nonhemolytic or hemolytic. The hemolytic anemias are further classified according to the cause of the hemolysis (intrinsic vs. extrinsic to the RBC) and by the location ofthe hemolysis (intravascular vs. extravascular).
what happends in 2nd degree heart block
type 1 (wenchkebach) shows a progressive prolongation of PR interval until a P wave is blocked and not followed by a QRS complex (dropped beat)
Type 2 (mobitz) shows sporadic or episodic dropped QRS complex
autosomal recessive defect effecting electrolytes
cystic fibrosis
Autosomal-recessive defect in CFTR gene on chromosome 7, commonly deletion of Phe 508. CFTR channel actively secretes CJ- in lungs and Gl tract and actively reabsorbs C)­ from sweat.

Defective Cl- channel --+ secretion of abnormally thick mucus that plugs lungs, pancreas, and liver --+ recurrent pulmonary infections (Pseudomonas species and S. aureus), chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency (malabsorption and steatorrhea), nasal polyps, and meconium ileus in newborns.
what is a common insertion of deltoid and spring ligament
navicular

•Deltoid (Med. Coll)
1 Ant tibiotalar
2 Post tibiotalar
3 Tibiocalcaneal
4 tibioNAVICULAR

spring ligament: Plantar calcaneoNAVICULAR
what shares a tendon sheath with peroneus longus
peroneus brevis (prox to peroneal trochlea)
comma shaped facet on talus
medial
pt with papule, plaques and white scales
psoriasis

(plaque= papule>5mm)
(papule= elevated solid skin lesion<5mm)

Papules and plaques with silvery scaling, especially on knees and elbows.
Acanthosis with parakeratotic scaling (nuclei still in stratum corneum). INC stratum spinosum, DEC stratum granulosum.
Auspitz sign - pinpoint bleeding spots from exposure of dermal papillae when scales are scraped off. Can be associated with nail pitting and psoriatic arthritis.
phagocytic cells of liver
kupffer cell
what is an oral anticoagulant
warfarin (coumadin)

Interferes with normal synthesis and y-carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and proteins C and S.
Metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 pathway.
In laboratory assay, has effect on EXtrinsic pathway and INC PT. Long half- life.

The EX-PresidenT went to war(farin).
what is the problem associated with loop kinectics
hypokalemia---furosemide and ethacrynic acid

Inhibits cotransport system (Na+, K+, 2 CJ-) of thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
mother donates a kidney to her child what type of graft
allograft--fron nonidentical individual of SAME species

----
autograft: from self
syneneic graft: fro identical twin or clonr
allograft: from nonidentical indiv of same species
xenograft: from different species
urease+organism
Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus.

CHuck Norris hates PUNKSS
causes tardive dyskinesis
antipsychotics

Haloperidol, trifluoperazine, fluphenazine, thioriclazine, chlorpromazine (haloperidol + "-azines").

Tardive dyskinesia- stereotypic oral­ facial movements as a result of long-term antipsychotic use. Often irreversible.
gas gangrene
clostridium perfringens
nerve to medial compartment of thigh
obturator
patella articulate with what bone only
femur
medial rotator of pelvis
gluteus medius & minimus, tensor fascia lata, gracilis, pectineus, adductr magnus, ST
1st hear sound
closure of mitral and tricuspid valves
(av valves
2nd heart sound
closure of pulmonary and aortic valves (sl valves)
lateral and medial femoral circumflex from
deep femoral (profunda femoris_
rheumatic fever effect which heart valve
mitral (micuspid)
distal surface of medial cuneiform is what shape
kidney
cytoskeleton made of
actin and myosin
microtubule
intermediate filaments
what tissue doesnt have glucose-6-phosphatase
*muscle *
gluconeogenesis

in ER: glucose-6-p-->glucose
Occurs primarily in liver. Enzymes also found in kidney, intestinal epithelium.
Deficiency of the key gluconeogenic enzymes causes hypoglycemia. (Muscle cannot participate in gluconeogenesis because it lacks glucose-6-phosphatase) .
what is the site of cyanide inhibition
cytochrom oxidase complex

--complex IX in electron transport chain, it Directly inhibit electron transport, causing a DEC proton gradient and block of ATP synthesis.
what component of bacterial cell wall decrease phagocytosis
capsule:
made of Polysaccharide (except Bacillus anthracis, which contains D-glutamate)
type of collagen in basement membrane
IV
Be (So Totally) Cool, Read Books.
type 1: bone, Type II: carTWOlage, Type III; defective in Ehlers-Danlos (ThreED), Type IV: under the flood (basement membrane)

Type I: Most common (90%)-Bone, Skin, Tendon, dentin, fascia, cornea, late wound repair
Defective in osteogenesis imperfecta.

Type II: Cartilage (including hyaline), vitreous body, nucleus pulposus.

Type III: Teticulin-skin, blood vessels, uterus, fetal tissue, granulation tissue

Type IV: Basement membrane or basal lamina
defective in Alport Syndrome
DOC for rickettsial infections
doxycycline
oral thrush
candida
virus with reverse transcriptase, RNA supresses T4 cells
HIV
What is used for uncoupling of the actin and myosin complex
ATP
what does anterior pituitary secret?
FLAT PiG : FSH, LH, ACTH, T SH, Prolactin,
GH.
myasthenia gravis is what type of hypersensitivty
II
TB is what type of hypersensitivity
IV

type IV
Multiple sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome Graft-versus-host disease
PPD (test forM. tuberculosis)
Contact dermatitis (e.g., poison ivy, nickel
allergy)
~~~~~
ACID:
Anaphylactic and Atopic (type I)
Cytotoxic (antibody mediated) (type II)
Immune complex (type Ill)
Delayed (cell mediated) (type IV)
who is in positive nitrogen balance
pregnant woman
thick filament
myosin

• Sarcomere = from 1 Z line to the other Z line.
o Distance will decrease during contraction
• Light chain = actin
• Heavy chain = myosin
• A band = length of myosin
o Contains both Myosin and actin
o No change in length during contraction
• I band =
o Has only actin in it
o No overlap à will shrink during muscle contraction
• H band =
o Has only myosin
o No overlap à will shrink during muscle contraction
thin filamen
actin
is anterior tibial a obstructed blood goes through what
perforating peroneal
which layer is deep plantar arch
the plantar arterial arch & deep br of LPN run in btw layers 3&4
if dorsalis pedis removed what will supply circulation
anterior tibial, perforating peroneal
what is the most proximal brach of anterior tibial a.?
posterior tibial recurrent
what is characterstics of skeletal m but cardiac m.
short AP duration
what gives preganglionic sympathetic fibers
great splanchnic
cardiac glycosides work by
Cardiac glycosides (digoxin and digitoxin)
directly inhibit the Na+-K+ ATPase, which leads to indirect inhibition of Na+/Ca2+ exchange -->INC [Ca2+] --> INC cardiac contractility.
where b cells mainly produced
bone marrow
what muscle opposes the action of 2nd dorsal interossei m.
1 dorsal interossei
what artery do most of the dorsal metatarsal arteries brach from
arcuate a.
what atery do most of the plantar metatarsal arteries branch from
deep plantar arch
plague
yersinia pestis----gleats (rats and prairie dogs are reservoirs)
what nerve supplies the dorsal 1st web space
deep peroneal n
iliofemoral ligament
y shaped, ligament of bigalow, strongest of hip ligament
which muscle is attached to the tibia and fibula in posterior compartment
tibialis posterior
which of the following doesnt cross the ankle joint: ehl , edl, peroneus tetrius, edb?
EDB
which surface of the cuboid doesnt have a smooth articular surface
lateral
which of the following is most easily palpated on medial arch
navicular tuberosity
prokaryotic cell dont have
membrane bound organelles
SLE and sjorgens are what type of hypersensitivity
type III

SLE
Polyarteritis nodosa Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Serum sickness
Arthus reaction (e.g., swelling and inflammation
following tetanus vaccine)
What GI hormone increases gastric motillity
gastrin
oxidasive phosphorylation produces
ATP
--
ADH electrons from glycolysis enter mitochondria via the malate-aspartate or glycerol-3- phosphate shuttle. FADH7 electrons are transferred to complex II (at a lower energy level than NADH) . The passage of electrons results in the formation of a proton gradient that, coupled to oxidative phosphorylation, drives the PRODUCTION OF ATP.
What is the precursor of catecholamines
tyrosine
Paget disease of bone
a condition caused by disordered bone remodeling in which excessive bone reabsorption initially results in lytic lesions, to be followed by disorganized and excessive bone formation.
AKA osteitis deformans.
INC ALP correlating to osteoblastic activity. the diagnostic histiologics feature of disease is abnormal arrangement of lamellar bone island of irregular formation jigsaw puzzle/mosaic pattern in bone uncoupling of OSTEOBLASTIC and OSTEOCLASTIC activites
woolsorter's dz
bacillus anthrasis
tetanus
Tetanus is tetanic paralysis (blocks glycine and GABA release [inhibitory neurotransmitters]) from Renshaw cells in spinal cord.
Causes spastic paralysis, trismus (lockjaw), and risus sarclonicus.
organism associated with pseudomembranous colitis
clostridium difficile
hiv virus has receptors for which of the following
CD4 Thelper
chancroid
Haemophilus ducreyi (it's so painful, you "do cry")

Painful genital ulcer, inguinal adenopathy
pellagra is associated with deficiency of what
Vit B3 (niacin)

Symptoms ofpellagra: Diarrhea, Dementia, and Dermatitis.
traveler's diarrhea
E.Coli
ETEC: Labile toxin/stable toxin. No inflammation or invasion.

tx? bismuth, sucralfate
lesch-nyham syndrome is associated with
He's Got Purine Recovery Trouble

purine salvage problem owning to absence of HGPRTase which converts to hypoxanthine to IMP and guanine to guanosine memophosate GMP. X linked recessive-

results in increase uric acid production and de novo purine synthesis
hansen's dz
Caused by Mycobacterium leprae, an acid-fast bacillus that likes cool temperatures (infects skin and superficial nerves-"glove and stocking" loss of sensation) and cannot be grown in vitro.
fungi cell wall component
rich in ERGOSTEROL.
peptidomarnans-major antigenic structure of fungi. chitin-long unbranched chains of poly-N-acetylglucosamine
glucans-polymers of glucose.
CHITIN provide cell wall strength
staph aureus
gram+spherical cocci- irregular clusters- creamy white-golden yellow on blood agar

coagulose+catalase+metabolizes mannitol.
staphylococcus species
gram+cocci-irregular clusters.
non spore forming non motile catalase+
staphylococcus epidermis
coagulase -
ferments GLUCOSE doesnt ferment mannitol. white colonies.
no hemolysis predisposed by percutaneous placement of foreign bodies
pontiac dz
legionella

*Legionnaires' disease = severe pneumonia, fever, GI and CNS symptoms.
*Pontiac fever = mild Au-like syndrome.
*Gram-negative rod. Gram stains poorly-use silver stain. Grow on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine. Detected clinically by presence of antigen in urine. Aerosol transmission from environmental water source habitat. No person-to-person transmission. **Treatment: macrolide or quinolone.

Think ofa French legionnaire (soldier) with
his silver helmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal) with his iron dagger-he is no sissy (cysteine).
staphylococcus saprophyticus
coagulase-
doesnt glucose/mannitol fermentation.
second most common UTI pathogen
what part of the GI tract absorbs a.a.?
jejunum
jugular notch is in what bone?
manubirum
tophi develop in?
purine metabolism defect (gout)
MOA ACTH
anterior pit. hormone controllig the growth and secretions of adrenal cortex CORTISOL and ANDROGENS.

exhibits circadian rhythm, feed back and variety of stimuli

Mediated by CRH*
Streptococcus
small ovoid cocci, arranged in chans
gram +
non-spore forming, non motile.
no catalase
strep pyogenes
group a strep. beta hemolytic cause
RHEUMATIC FEVER(progressive as accompanying pharyngitis)
may cause valvular damage(mitral) murmur, enlargement and weak heart.
must use prophylaxis.
*scalet fever (sclarlitina)
*eryslpieas, necrotizing fascitis, acute strep endocarditis
strep agalactiae
group b -beta hemoluytic
*leading cause of pneunomanias, sepsis, meingitis in first 2 months of life
step anginosus
group A,C,F,G beta hemolytic.
strep pneumonia
lancet bullet shape generally in pairs
alpha hemolytic. no lance antigen.
Quelling xrns.
optichin +
strep viridans
alpha hemolytic, optichin - , associated with dental work
which is the only strep that is bacitracin sensitive
step pyogenes
what causes lyme dz and what is the clinical manifestation of dz
cause: borrelia burgdorferi (spirochte) transmitted by bites of ixodes tick.
primary syndrome: erythema chronicum migransreddened macular/papular lesion with central clearing and raised border.
*secondary manifestation: stiff neck, facial palsies, peripheral neuropathy. cardiac manifestations
myocarditis-AV block
teritary manifestations- recurrent anthralgia and arthiritis
MOA aldosterone
major product of mineralo cotricoids of zona glomerulosa(adrenal cortex). sustains extra cellular fluid volume by conserving Na+.
*secreted in response to a signal from juxtaglumerular celss of kidney
*JGc cells-renin-angitensinogen--angiotesin I--II--aldosterone---DCT.
(may be responsible for K+ regulation)
*stimulus for secretion: decreased blood volume, increase plasma K+
*action on kidneys:
increase Na+ reabsorption
increase K+ excretion
increase H+ secretion in distal tubule
MOA ADH
AKA arginine vasopressin (AVP) and secreted from posterior pituaitary. acts to regulate water in blood fluid.
synthesized by hypothalmic neurons and regulated by osmoticand volume stimuli acting on the renal cells responsible for reabsorption.
ADH increase vascular tone by vasoconstriction. Also a CRF and neurotransmitter with in brain for long term memory.
Stimulus for secretion: increase plasma osmolarity, decrease blood volume.
*Action on kidneys: increase water permeability on principle cells in collecting ducts
bence-jones protein
is present in the urine in up to 75% of cases of Multiple myeloma.
the neoplastic clone of plasma cells may secrete excess light chains
what is mycosis fungoides
aka Sezary syndrome (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

Adults present with cutaneous patches/nodules. CD4+, indolent course.

Erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly,
atypical T cells
what sulcus separates the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe
post central sulcus
what does the deep peroneal n. innervate?
EDB and EHB (lat terminal branch), 1st DI
reserpine
anti-hypertensive-depletes NE, DOPA, and serotonin from nerve terminals, sedative, neuron blocker
what does aldosterone
secretion of K, REABSORPTION OF Na ( arrow up Na+, down arrow K +)
what is the origin of EDB
unnamed tubercle at lateral end of calcaneal sulcus
lateral surface of calcaneus