Block 2 Exam - Class 92204

Front 1

Bernoulli's Principle states: " The internal pressure of a fluid _________ at points where the speed of the fluid _________." (3)

Back 1

decreases; increases

Front 2

Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _________ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _________. (39,41)

Back 2

tilt; pitch

Front 3

Which of the following does NOT affect performance? (14)

Back 3

A. Temperature

B. Relative Wind

C. Humidity

D. Altitude

Front 4

A secondary form of lift is a(n) _________ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected _________. (5)

Back 4

upward force; downward

Front 5

An imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is called the _________. (8)

Back 5

chord line

Front 6

When _________ and _________ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses speed.

Back 6

thrust; drag

Front 7

What force in flight counteracts lift? (13)

Back 7

weight

Front 8

What is used to determine the angle of attack? (9)

Back 8

relative wind & chord line

Front 9

If a pilot adjust the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the _________ and _________ axes. (23)

Back 9

lateral; vertical

Front 10

Relative wind flows in a direction _________ and _________ the direction of flight. (6)

Back 10

parallel with; opposite to

Front 11

The blades of a helicopter are shaped like _________ and act as _________. (38)

Back 11

airfoils; wings

Front 12

Which of the following is a principal airfoil? (7)

Back 12

A. Rudder

B. Aileron

C. Fuselage

D. Propeller

Front 13

When air density decreases what occurs? (17)

Back 13

Landing speed is faster and engine power output is decreased

Front 14

An aircraft movement around the longitudinal axis is controlled by the _________ and is called _________. (25)

Back 14

ailerons; roll

Front 15

At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing's upper surface? (43)

Back 15

15-20

Front 16

What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing? (46)

Back 16

carburetor icing

Front 17

What is the basic purpose of the autorotation maneuver in a helicopter? (42)

Back 17

To provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power.

Front 18

The definition of "wake turbulence" includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition? (3)

Back 18

A. Rotor wash

B. Jet Blast

C. Mach Buffet

D. Propeller wash

Front 19

Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to _________. (11)

Back 19

produce lift

Front 20

_________ is jet engine exhaust. (24)

Back 20

Jet blast

Front 21

A _________ wing allows for a stronger vortex to be generated, because without flaps the wing has a smaller area and wing loading is greater per square foot. (6)

Back 21

clean

Front 22

With zero wing, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of _________ knots. (13)

Back 22

2 to 3

Front 23

Counter control is the most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the _________ of the vortex. (19)

Back 23

outer edge

Front 24

Downwash is created by _________. (21)

Back 24

helicopters

Front 25

An aircraft with a certified take-off weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is classified as _________. (9)

Back 25

large

Front 26

A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category? (4)

Back 26

Category III

Front 27

A C17 is what type of aircraft? (12)

Back 27

Cargo

Front 28

Name the five basic tail configurations. (22)

Back 28

Conventional Tail, V tail, T tail, Forward Slant Vertical Stabilizer, Horizontal stabilizer above fuselage

Front 29

Name the three basic wing placements on an aircraft. (18)

Back 29

High, mid, low

Front 30

What is the prominent identification feature of the C172? (34)

Back 30

High wing

Front 31

An aircraft weighing 300,000 pounds will fall into the _________ weight class. (9)

Back 31

Heavy

Front 32

The lower limit of Class B airspace is _________. (5)

Back 32

surface

Front 33

How is a Military Operations Area (MOA) depicted on a chart? (22)

Back 33

A name followed by the acronym MOA and the two-letter state abbreviation. (Ex. Hollis MOA)

Front 34

The upper limit of class A airspace is _________. (4)

Back 34

FL600

Front 35

A Warning Area is established beyond _________ NM from the coast of the United States. (18)

Back 35

3

Front 36

The upper limit of Class G is the _________. (11)

Back 36

base of overlying controlled airspace

Front 37

What airspace contains federal airways? (10)

Back 37

Class E

Front 38

What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower? (7)

Back 38

Class C

Front 39

Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as _________ airspace. (14)

Back 39

Special Use Airspace

Front 40

A pilot in command may deviate from CFR Part 91 if _________. (27)

Back 40

an emergency exists, pilot obtains an amended clearance, or in response to a TCAS resolution advisory

Front 41

Pilots of two aircraft may operation as a formation flight when _________. (15)

Back 41

prior arrangement has been made between all pilots in command of each aircraft, and no paying passengers are on board

Front 42

ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every _________ if in the terminal/center environment (43).

Back 42

1 year

Front 43

The maximum speed authorized by CFR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is _________ knots.

Back 43

250

Front 44

Airspeed in a VFR corridor through class B airspace shall not be more than _________ knots. (22)

Back 44

200

Front 45

A pilot operating below 18,000 MSL shall set the altimeter to _________. (26)

Back 45

current altimeter setting reported by a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft

Front 46

When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G airspace that has an operating control tower, unless otherwise authorized, the pilot must have _________. (29)

Back 46

two-way communications with ATC

Front 47

The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is _________. (39)

Back 47

18 years old

Front 48

What is the term that describes the direction of airflow produced by an object moving through the air?

Back 48

Relative Wind

Front 49

The relative wind for an aircraft in flight flows _________ to the direction of flight. (6)

Back 49

parallel with and opposite

Front 50

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _________. (5)

Back 50

pressure

Front 51

The statement, "the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases" is a part of _________.

Back 51

Bernoulli's principle

Front 52

What are the three principle airfoils that produce lift on an aircraft? (7)

Back 52

Wing, Horizontal Tail Surfaces, and Propeller

Front 53

What are the three parts of an airfoil? (8)

Back 53

Leading edge, chord line, trailing edge

Front 54

What are the six types of airfoils on an aircraft? (7)

Back 54

Wing, propeller, helicopter rotor, horizontal stablizer, vertical tail surfaces, fuselage

Front 55

The _________ is the acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the air striking the airfoil (relative wind). (9)

Back 55

angle of attack

Front 56

The _________ is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge. (10)

Back 56

camber

Front 57

The _________ is the shape or form of a wing as viewed from above. It may be long and tapered, short and rectangular, or various other shapes. (11)

Back 57

wing planform

Front 58

What is the upward force created by an airfoil when it is moved through the air? (12)

Back 58

Lift

Front 59

What is the downward force which tends to draw all bodies vertically toward the center of the Earth? (12)

Back 59

Weight

Front 60

What is the manmade force that pulls or pushes the aircraft through the air? (12)

Back 60

Thrust

Front 61

What is the rearward force which resists the forward movement of the airplane through the air? (12)

Back 61

Drag

Front 62

What are the three key properties of the atmosphere that affect air density, and aircraft performance? (14)

Back 62

Temperature, altitude, and water vapor (humidity)

Front 63

True or False: Warm air is denser than cold air. (15)

Back 63

False

Front 64

On average, how much does the temperature decrease vertically every 1,000 feet in the atmosphere? (Stops at -67 degrees Fahrenheit at 7 miles above the Earth) (15)

Back 64

3.5 degrees Fahrenheit

Front 65

A decrease of temperature with height is called a _________. (15)

Back 65

lapse rate

Front 66

True or False: Pressure decreases with height. (16)

Back 66

True

Front 67

A(n) _________ in altitude decreases atmospheric pressure and increases density altitude, which has a pronounced negative effect on flight. (18)

Back 67

increase

Front 68

Which is better for aircraft performance: High altitude, hot day, high humidity or low altitude, cold day, low humidity? (19, 20, 21)

Back 68

Low altitude, cold day, low humidity

Front 69

A device for propelling an aircraft that, when rotated produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation is called a _________. (22)

Back 69

propeller

Front 70

What type of propeller is a propeller with blades whose pitch can be adjusted on the ground with the engine not running, but which cannot be adjusted in flight. (22)

Back 70

Adjustable pitch

Front 71

What type of propeller has fixed blade angles? (22)

Back 71

Fixed pitch

Front 72

What type of propeller whose pitch is automatically varied in flight by a governor to maintain a constant rpm in spite of varying air loads? (22)

Back 72

Controllable pitch

Front 73

What are the three axes of flight? (23)

Back 73

Vertical, Longitudinal, and Lateral

Front 74

The _________ is an imaginary straight line through the fuselage, nose to tail. (23)

Back 74

longitudinal axis

Front 75

What does the longitudinal axis control? (23)

Back 75

Roll of the aircraft

Front 76

What does the lateral axis control? (24)

Back 76

Pitch of the aircraft

Front 77

The _________ is a line through the wing from wing tip to wing tip. (24)

Back 77

lateral axis

Front 78

The _________ is a line through the center of gravity from top to bottom. (24)

Back 78

vertical axis

Front 79

What does the vertical axis control? (24)

Back 79

Yaw of the aircraft

Front 80

What are the three primary control surfaces? (25)

Back 80

Ailerons, elevator, and rudder

Front 81

_________ are hinged surfaces normally mounted on the outboard trailing edge of the wings. (25)

Back 81

Ailerons

Front 82

The ailerons rotate the aircraft around the _________ axis. (25)

Back 82

longitudinal

Front 83

_________ is the tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. (26)

Back 83

Adverse yaw

Front 84

The _________ is a hinged surface normally located on the rear of the horizontal stabilizer. (28)

Back 84

elevator

Front 85

The elevator rotates the aircraft around the _________ axis. (28)

Back 85

lateral

Front 86

The elevator controls the pitch and _________ of the aircraft. (28)

Back 86

angle of attack

Front 87

The _________ controls the elevator. (29)

Back 87

control yoke

Front 88

Pull back on the control yoke and the aircraft will pitch _________. (29)

Back 88

up

Front 89

Push forward on the control yoke and the aircraft will pitch _________. (29)

Back 89

down

Front 90

The _________ is in the aft of the vertical stabilizer. (29)

Back 90

rudder

Front 91

The rudder rotates the aircraft around the _________ axis. (30)

Back 91

vertical

Front 92

The rudder controls the _________ of the aircraft. (30)

Back 92

yaw

Front 93

Which two movements are controlled by the control yoke? (31)

Back 93

Roll and pitch

Front 94

_________ are small, adjustable, hinged surfaces on the trailing edge of the primary control surfaces. (32)

Back 94

Trim tabs

Front 95

_________ are located inboard on the wing's trailing edge and are used to increase lift. (35)

Back 95

Flaps

Front 96

Usually, how many positions can be selected for flaps? (35)

Back 96

Three or four

Front 97

Which of the following is a primary control surface? (37)

Back 97

A. Variable-pitch propeller

B. Flap

C. Rudder

Front 98

The extension of flaps causes an increase in _________. (37)

Back 98

A. stall speed

B. airspeed

C. drag

Front 99

The forces acting on helicopters are the same as those acting on fixed-wing aircraft are: (38)

Back 99

Lift, thrust, weight, and drag

Front 100

Rotor blades are shaped like: (38)

Back 100

airfoils

Front 101

The _________ controls the pitch of the rotor blade (angle of attack). (39)

Back 101

collective

Front 102

The _________ controls the tilt of the rotor blade which controls the direction of flight. (41)

Back 102

cyclic

Front 103

_________ is the state of flight where the main rotor system is being turned by the action of relative wind rather than engine power. (42)

Back 103

Autorotation

Front 104

What are the three primary causes of stalls? (43)

Back 104

Insufficient airspeed, excessively violent flight maneuvers, and severe wind shear

Front 105

What are the three primary types of icing? (44)

Back 105

Structural icing, pitot-static icing, and carburetor icing

Front 106

A stall occurs when the airfoil (wing) reaches a "critical angle of attack", which is approximately _________ degrees on most airfoils. (43)

Back 106

15 to 20

Front 107

_________ icing reduces the fuel/air flow to the engine and occurs most often between 20-70 degrees Fahrenheit under conditions of high humidity. (46)

Back 107

Carburetor

Front 108

_________ is a phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft through the atmosphere. The term includes vortices, thrust stream turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash both on the ground and in the air. (3)

Back 108

Wake turbulence

Front 109

_________ are circular patters of air created by the movement of an airfoil through the air when generating lift. (3)

Back 109

Vortices

Front 110

The greatest vortex strength is created when the aircraft is _________, _________, and _________. (4)

Back 110

Heavy, clean, slow

Front 111

_________ has the greatest effect on wake turbulence. (4)

Back 111

Weight

Front 112

What are the three factors governing the strength of a vortex? (4)

Back 112

Weight of the generating aircraft, shape of the wing, and speed of the generating aircraft

Front 113

If you have an aircraft on approach to an airport and a similar aircraft cruising during en route flight, which would create a greater wake turbulence effect? (8)

Back 113

Aircraft on approach

Front 114

The _________ the speed, the greater the change for the wake turbulence to form. (7)

Back 114

slower

Front 115

_________ is generated by the creation of pressure differential over the wing surface. (9)

Back 115

Lift

Front 116

Vortex circulation off the right wingtip is _________. (10)

Back 116

counterclockwise

Front 117

Vortex circulation off the left wingtip is _________. (10)

Back 117

clockwise

Front 118

The circular patterns created by wake turbulence are often known as what? (10)

Back 118

Wake vortex or wingtip vortices

Front 119

Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft generates _________. (11)

Back 119

lift

Front 120

Vortices _________ at the moment the aircraft stops generating life. (11)

Back 120

discontinue

Front 121

Vortices from large aircraft sink several hundred feet per minute, approximately _________ feet per minute. (12)

Back 121

300 to 500

Front 122

Vortices normally level off _________ feet below the flight path. (12)

Back 122

500 to 1000

Front 123

Vortices from large aircraft slow in descent and _________ in strength with time and distance. (12)

Back 123

diminish

Front 124

When close to the ground and there is zero wind, vortices from large aircraft will move laterally: within 100-200 feet of the ground; _________ knots laterally. (13)

Back 124

2 to 3

Front 125

Crosswinds of 1 to 5 knows will decrease or stall the movement of one vortex while _________ the movement of another vortex. (14)

Back 125

increasing

Front 126

_________ can move vortices into the landing zones of aircraft that were originally trying to avoid the wake. (15)

Back 126

Tailwinds

Front 127

_________ is the mechanical force a wake vortex has on an aircraft. (17)

Back 127

Induced roll

Front 128

The usual hazard with induced roll occurs when the induced roll exceeds the level of _________ of the aircraft. (17)

Back 128

roll control

Front 129

Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the _________ of the vortex. (20)

Back 129

outer edges

Front 130

For helicopters, outward vortices created by downwash will spread out to a distance of approximately _________ times the diameter of the rotor. (21)

Back 130

three

Front 131

What must a helicopter be doing in order to generate wingtip vortices? (23)

Back 131

Forward flight

Front 132

_________ is jet engine exhaust (thrust stream turbulence). (24)

Back 132

Jet blast

Front 133

Why is the controller not responsible for anticipating the existence or effect of wake turbulence? (27)

Back 133

It is unpredictable.

Front 134

Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of _________. (27)

Back 134

A. damage and money

B. resources and delays

C. increased separation and traffic management delays

Front 135

Category I (4)

Back 135

Weight: 12,500 lbs. or less

Single Engine

Propeller driven

All helicopters

Front 136

Category II (4)

Back 136

Weight: 12,500 lbs. or less

Twin engine

Propeller driven

Front 137

Category III (4)

Back 137

Any other aircraft not described in Category I or Category II

Front 138

CAT I general performance characteristics (5)

Back 138

Speed: 100-160 knots

Altitude: 10,000 ft and below

Climb Rate: 1,000 ft per minute or less

Weight Class: Small (S)

Front 139

CAT II general performance characteristics (6)

Back 139

Speed: 160-250 knots

Altitude: FL240 and below

Climb Rate: 1,000-2,000 ft per minute

Weight Class: Small (S)

Front 140

CAT III general performance characteristics (6)

Back 140

Speed: 300-550 knots

Altitude: FL450 and below

Climb Rate: 2,000-4,000 ft per minute

Weight Class: Specified for each aircraft

Front 141

Helicopter's General Performance Characteristics (7)

Back 141

Speed: 90-160 knots

Altitude: FL200 and below

Climb Rate: 500-2,150 ft per minute

Weight Class: Small (S) - Large (L)

Front 142

What category do helicopters fall under? (8)

Back 142

CAT I

Front 143

What category do turbojet engine aircraft fall under? (8)

Back 143

CAT III

Front 144

A twin-engine, turboprop aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less will fall under which category? (8)

Back 144

CAT II

Front 145

Define the small weight class (9)

Back 145

Aircraft of 41,000 pounds or less maximum certified takeoff weight

Front 146

Define the large weight class (9)

Back 146

Aircraft of more than 41,000 pounds, maximum certified takeoff weight, up to but not including 300,000 pounds

Front 147

Define the heavy weight class (9)

Back 147

Aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 or more pounds whether or not they are operating at this weight during a particular phase of flight

Front 148

Define the small plus weight class (9)

Back 148

Aircraft weighing between 12,500 pounds and 41,000 pounds

Front 149

Which order contains weight class information pertaining to most fixed wing aircraft? (9)

Back 149

FAA JO 7110.65, Appendix A

Front 150

An aircraft designator may contain as many as _________ characters, but no less than _________ characters. (11)

Back 150

four; two

Front 151

First character of an aircraft designator must be a(n) _________.

Back 151

letter

Front 152

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) A? (12)

Back 152

Attack

Front 153

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) B? (12)

Back 153

Bomber

Front 154

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) C? (12)

Back 154

Cargo transport

Front 155

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) E? (12)

Back 155

Electronic (ECM)

Front 156

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) F? (12)

Back 156

Fighter

Front 157

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) H? (12)

Back 157

Helicopter

Front 158

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) K? (12)

Back 158

Tanker

Front 159

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) P? (12)

Back 159

Patrol

Front 160

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) T? (12)

Back 160

Trainer

Front 161

What type of military aircraft has a designator that starts with a(n) U? (12)

Back 161

Utility

Front 162

True or False: An aircraft designator must consist of letters only. (14)

Back 162

False

Front 163

Name the nine aircraft identification features: (15)

Back 163

1. Size

2. Engine location and number

3. Engine type

4. Wing placement

5. Wing configuration

6. Tail configuration

7. Windows

8. Fuselage shape

9. Landing gear

Front 164

Name the three different aircraft engine types: (17)

Back 164

Reciprocating, turboprop, and turbojet

Front 165

A ________ engine is mostly found on single-engine or light twin-engine aircraft and operates a propeller. (17)

Back 165

reciprocating

Front 166

A ________ engine is essentially a small turbojet engine which operates a propeller. (17)

Back 166

turboprop

Front 167

A ________ engine is commonly referred to as a "jet" engine and has no propeller. (18)

Back 167

turbojet

Front 168

Name the three different wing placements: (18)

Back 168

High-wing, low-wing, and mid-wing

Front 169

A ________ consists of an additional wing-like lifting surface located ahead of the cockpit near the nose of the aircraft. (19)

Back 169

canard

Front 170

Name the three different types of wing configurations: (20,21)

Back 170

Straight-wing, Swept-wing, and Delta-wing

Front 171

Tail configuration is made up of two main components: (22)

Back 171

Vertical stabilizer and horizontal stabilizer

Front 172

Name the five basic tail configurations: (22)

Back 172

1. Conventional tail

2. Forward slant vertical stabilizer

3. Horizontal stabilizer above fuselage

4. T tail

5. V tail

Front 173

Name the five different types of windows: (25,26)

Back 173

1. Oval

2. Round

3. Teardrop

4. Square

5. Bubble canopy

Front 174

What are two types of engines that have propellers? (27)

Back 174

Reciprocating and turboprop

Front 175

Turbojet engines are limited to what weight class of aircraft? (27)

Back 175

None

Front 176

What are the three factors that contribute to the shape of fuselages? (28)

Back 176

1. Aircraft's design function

2. Type of power plant or engine used

3. Materials used

Front 177

What are the two basic types of landing gear? (28)

Back 177

Tricycle and conventional

Front 178

________ landing gear consists of main left and right landing gear located aft of the aircraft's center of gravity. One forward nose gear is located forward of the aircraft's center of gravity. (29)

Back 178

Tricycle

Front 179

________ landing gear consists of main left and right landing gear located toward the front of the aircraft, forward of the center of gravity. One wheel is located toward the far aft of the aircraft. (29)

Back 179

Conventional (tail draggers)

Front 180

Name the two types of landing gear configurations: (30)

Back 180

Fixed and retractable

Front 181

________ airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) flights and Visual Flight Rules (VFR) flights in accordance with airspace classification. (3)

Back 181

Controlled

Front 182

________ airspace is generally that airspace from 18,000 feet Mean Sea Level (MSL) up to and including FL600. (4)

Back 182

Class A

Front 183

Name the three requirements to operate in Class A airspace: (4)

Back 183

1. Must be IFR

2. Two-way communications must be established and maintained with ATC

3. Must have a 4096 transponder with Mode C

Front 184

________ airspace is generally that airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger emplanements. (5)

Back 184

Class B

Front 185

Name the four requirements to operate in Class B airspace: (5)

Back 185

1. ATC clearance required

2. Two-way communications must be established and maintained

3. Must have a 4096 transponder with Mode C

4. IFR aircraft require VOR or TACAN navigation equipment

Front 186

All aircraft (IFR or VFR) receive ________ services while in Class B airspace. (6)

Back 186

separation

Front 187

Student pilots may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace, unless: (6)

Back 187

1. Student pilot has received instruction on that specific Class B airspace

2. Student pilot's logbook has been endorsed within the preceding 90 days verifying instruction

Front 188

________ airspace is generally that airspace from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have: an operational control tower, service provided by a Radar Approach Control, and a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. (7)

Back 188

Class C

Front 189

Configuration of Class C airspace: (7)

Back 189

*Usually consists of a surface area with a 5 NM radius

*A circle with a 10 NM radius that extends no lower than 1,200 feet up to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation

*An outer area that is not charted

Front 190

Name the two requirements to operate in Class C airspace: (7)

Back 190

1. Two-way communications must be established and maintained with ATC

2. Must have a 4096 transponder with Mode C

Front 191

Which class of airspace does not require an ATC clearance? (8)

Back 191

A. A

B. B

C. C

Front 192

________ airspace is generally that airspace from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational tower. (9)

Back 192

Class D

Front 193

Name the requirement to operate in Class D airspace: (9)

Back 193

1. Two-way communications must be established and maintained with ATC
*Note: no separation services are provided to VFR aircraft

Front 194

Except for 18,000 feet MSL, ________ airspace has no defined vertical limit but rather it extends upward from either the surface or a designated altitude to the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace. (10)

Back 194

Class E

Front 195

Federal airways ("Victor") and low altitude RNAV ("Tango") are located in ________ airspace, and unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet Above Ground Level (AGL) to, but not including 18,000 feet MSL.(10)

Back 195

Class E

Front 196

________ airspace normally extends from the surface upwards to the base of overlying controlled airspace. (11)

Back 196

Class G

Front 197

Which type of airspace is "uncontrolled"? (11)

Back 197

Class G

Front 198

Vector aircraft in ________ airspace only upon pilot request and as an additional service. (11)

Back 198

Class G

Front 199

_________ are issued within the sovereign airspace of the United States and its territories to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area on a temporary basis to protect persons or property in the air or on the ground. (12)

Back 199

Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs)

Front 200

TFRs may be issued for: (12)

Back 200

*Disaster or hazardous situations

*Aircraft accident/incident sites

*Aviation or ground resources engaged in wildfire suppression

*Aircraft relief activities following a disaster

*Support of VIP movements

*Reasons of National Security

Front 201

What type of NOTAM publishes a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)? (12)

Back 201

FDC NOTAM

Front 202

_________ is airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed on aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities. (14)

Back 202

Special Use Airspace (SUA)

Front 203

The _________ is the FAA ATC facility that exercises control of the airspace when a SUA area is not activated. (14)

Back 203

Controlling Agency

Front 204

The _________ is the military unit or other organization whose activity established the requirement for the SUA. (15)

Back 204

Using Agency

Front 205

Name the seven types of Special Use Airspace: (15)

Back 205

1. Prohibited Area (P)

2. Restricted Area (R)

3. Warning Area (W)

4. Alert Area (A)

5. Controlled Firing Area (CFA)

6. Military Operations Area (MOA)

7. National Security Area (NSA)

Front 206

A _________ is designated airspace where the flight of aircraft is not permitted, without permission of the using agency. (16)

Back 206

Prohibited Area (P)

Front 207

How is a Prohibited Area depicted on aeronautical charts? (16)

Back 207

Identified by letter "P", a dash, plus number

Ex: P-47

Front 208

A _________ is designated airspace above U.S. land areas or territorial waters which flight of aircraft is NOT totally prohibited, but is subjected to restrictions. (17)

Back 208

Restricted Area (R)

Front 209

How is a Restricted Area depicted on an aeronautical chart? (17)

Back 209

Identified by letter "R", a dash, and number

Ex: R-5601

Front 210

A _________ is airspace of defined dimensions, (extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the United States), designated to contain activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. (18)

Back 210

Warning Area (W)

Front 211

How is a Warning Area depicted on an aeronautical chart? (18)

Back 211

Identified by letter "W", a dash, and a two or three digit number

Ex: W-104

Front 212

An _________ is airspace wherein a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted. (19)

Back 212

Alert Area (A)

Front 213

How is an Alert Area depicted on an aeronautical chart? (19)

Back 213

Identified by letter "A", a dash, and a two or three digit number

Ex: A-562

Front 214

_________ must not extend into Class A, B, C, and D airspace, or Class E airport surface areas. (19)

Back 214

Alert areas

Front 215

When would a controller vector an aircraft in uncontrolled airspace? (20)

Back 215

A. Only upon pilot request

B. Military Training Flight

C. Anytime

Front 216

The Special Use Airspace that is necessary to confine activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called a _________ Area. (20)

Back 216

A. Prohibited

B. Restricted

C. Warning

Front 217

What type of Special Use Airspace is found over international waters? (20)

Back 217

A. Prohibited Area

B. Controlled Firing Area

C. Warning Area

Front 218

_________ is airspace designated to contain activities that if not conducted in a controlled environment would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. (21)

Back 218

Controlled Firing Area (CFA)

Front 219

_________ is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established outside Class A airspace for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted. (22)

Back 219

Military Operations Area (MOA)

Front 220

How is a Military Operations Area depicted on an aeronautical chart? (22)

Back 220

Identified by a name followed by the acronym MOA and the two-letter state abbreviation

Ex: HOLLIS MOA

Front 221

A _________ consists of airspace of defined lateral and vertical dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security of ground facilities. (23)

Back 221

National Security Area (NSA)

Front 222

Prohibited Area (P) vertical airspace begins at _________. (24)

Back 222

A. 3,000 feet

B. the surface

C. 1,500 feet

Front 223

In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot training take place? (24)

Back 223

A. Restricted Area

B. Controlled Firing Area

C. Alert Area

Front 224

_________ provide a means to accommodate, without impact to aviation, certain hazardous activities that can be immediately suspended if a nonparticipating aircraft approaches the area. (21)

Back 224

Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)