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81 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The Air Traffic Organization (ATO) is managed by a(n) ___________. |
Chief Operating Officer (COO) Lesson 1 page 6 |
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According to their location, ATO air traffic control facilities are assigned to one of ___________. |
Three service areas Lesson 1 page 10 |
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The primary Navigational Aids (NAVAIDs) for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System (NAS) are _____________. |
VORs/VORTACs Lesson 1 page 58 |
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The primary mission of the Traffic Management System (TMS) is to _________. |
balance system demand with system capacity Lesson 1 page 50 |
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The operation of the TMS is the responsibility of the ___________. |
Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC) Lesson 1 page 51 |
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The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to __________. |
prevent a collision between aircraft operating in the system and to organize and expedite the flow of traffic in a manner which is safe, orderly, and expeditious. Lesson 1 page 15 |
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The air traffic facility that has no direct authority over Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR) traffic is the __________. |
Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Lesson 1 page 24 |
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The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings is the _________. |
Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) Lesson 1 page 24 |
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Which position in the Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS) records and disseminates Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) summaries? |
Broadcast Lesson 1 page 26 |
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Which of the following duties is not the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the tower?
A. Compile statistical data B. Operate communications equipment C. Issue departure clearances and ensure accuracy of pilot readback D. Process and forward flight plan information |
Compile statistical data Lesson 1 page 33 |
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The __________ position in the ATC terminal option is normally responsible for issuing control instructions to aircraft and vehicles operating on the airport movement area (other than active runways). |
Ground Control Lesson 1 page 34 |
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In a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a sector? |
The radar team Lesson 1 page 38 |
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The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is _____________. |
Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) Lesson 1 page 41 |
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The only en route sector team member whose duties do not include accepting handoffs is the ________ position. |
Radar Flight Data Lesson 1 pages 43-45 |
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When considering the duty priority of an air traffic controller, first priority is given to __________. |
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts Lesson 1 page 19 |
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Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when __________. |
an operational advantage will be gained Lesson 1 page 19 |
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"Presidential aircraft have priority over Flight Check aircraft" is an example of ___________. |
operational priority Lesson 1 page 19 |
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All of the following represent uses of a non-movement area EXCEPT:
A. Landing B. Loading Passengers C. Maintenance D. Parking |
A. Landing Lesson 3 pages 2-3 |
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A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway _________. |
36 Lesson 3 pages 5-6 |
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An airport with three parallel runways with a magnetic heading of 216 degrees would have runway designations of ____________. |
22L, 22C, and 22R Lesson 3 page 7 |
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What runway marking extends the full-length runway pavement area? |
Runway side stripes Lesson 3 page 13 |
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A(n) _________ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the non-landing portion to the threshold bar. |
displaced threshold Lesson 3 page14 |
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A __________ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold. |
blast pad (or stopway) Lesson 3 page 18 |
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Runway __________ provide alignment guidance during takeoffs and landings, and consist of a line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps. |
centerlines Lesson 3 page 8 |
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What color are taxiway edge lights? |
Blue Lesson 3 page 34 |
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Civil land airports have rotating beacons that ___________. |
flash white and green Lesson 3 page 30 |
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Touchdown Zone Lighting (TDZL) and Runway Centerline Lights System (RCLS) are two types of ___________. |
in-runway lights Lesson 3 page 33 |
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Threshold lights are ____________. |
Red toward the runway to indicate the end of the runway and green outward from the runway to indicate the landing threshold. Lesson 3 page 32 |
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Holding an aircraft is NOT used for _________.
A. Weather at destination B. Flow Control C. Position Relief D. Traffic en route |
C. Position relief Lesson 4 page 42 |
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The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is ___________ feet. |
5,000 Lesson 4 page 7 |
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The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is __________ feet. |
1,000 Lesson 4 page 7 |
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Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is ___________ feet. |
2,000 Lesson 4 page 11 |
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To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all __________. |
holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap each other or other airspace to be protected. Lesson 4 page 46 |
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What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles? |
Longitudinal Separation Lesson 4 page 15 |
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Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is _________. |
5 miles Lesson 4 page 30 |
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Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, _________ separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, _________ separation is required. |
3 miles; 5 miles Lesson 4 page 29 |
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Controllers may use visual separation __________. |
up to, but not including, FL180. Lesson 4 pages 35-36 |
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Runway separation is applied by __________ controllers. |
ATCT Lesson 4 page 38 |
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Which type of separation is applied by clearing aircraft to fly on different airways or routes whose protected airspace does not overlap? |
Lateral separation Lesson 4 page 14 |
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Non-radar longitudinal separation may NOT be used between two aircraft on ___________ course(s). |
opposing Lesson 4 pages 15-22 |
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The two subsystems for disseminating aeronautical information are _________. |
the Airmen's Information System (AIS) and the NOTAM system Lesson 5 page 3 |
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Who is responsible for originating a NOTAM concerning a navigational aid? |
The facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the NAVAID Lesson 5 page 11 |
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A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a ________. |
NOTAM D Lesson 5 page 6 |
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A NOTAM that consists of information that is regulatory in nature pertaining to flight, such as changes to IFR charts, is classified as a/an: |
FDC NOTAM Lesson 5 page 8 |
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Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to _________. |
National Flight Data Center (NFDC) Lesson 5 page 13 |
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Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport? |
Airport management Lesson 5 page 15 |
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Types of Notices to Airment (NOTAMs) are: |
NOTAM D FDC NOTAM Pointer NOTAM Military NOTAM
Lesson 5 page 5 |
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Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder? |
Secondary radar Lesson 6 page 22 |
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What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects? |
Radar Lesson 6 page 3 |
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The primary radar display depicts the ________ and __________ of objects that reflect radio energy. |
position; movement Lesson 6 page 8 |
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What are two types of radar jamming? |
Passive and active Lesson 6 page 19 |
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Which is not a component of a primary radar system?
A. Antenna B. Radar Display C. Transmitter D. Interrogator E. Receiver |
D. Interrogator Lesson 6 page 6 |
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Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation? |
Circular Polarization Lesson 6 page 13 |
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What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems? |
AP is caused by density or moisture. Lesson 6 page 16 |
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What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems? |
Temperature inversion occurs when warmer air is trapped on top of cooler air. Lesson 6 page 17 |
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Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder operating close to the interrogator site is called __________. |
ring around Lesson 6 page 29 |
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Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system?
A. It provides a longer range than primary radar. B. It shows all weather information. C. All aircraft in range are shown. |
A. It provides longer range than primary radar. Lesson 6 page 30 |
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Which component of primary radar focuses and broadcasts radio energy, then collects the reflected return? |
Antenna Lesson 6 page 7 |
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Which component of primary radar generates a pulse of radio energy? |
Transmitter Lesson 6 page 7 |
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Which component of primary radar depicts the position and movement of objects that reflect radio energy? |
Radar display Lesson 6 page 8 |
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Which component of primary radar amplifies and converts the reflected energy into video? |
Receiver Lesson 6 page 8 |
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Which component of secondary radar broadcasts radio signals covering the same azimuth as the similar part of a primary radar system? |
Antenna Lesson 6 page 25 |
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Which component of secondary radar is a ground-based transmitter that generates radio signals that are broadcast to request all transponders within range to reply? |
Interrogator Lesson 6 page 24 |
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Which component of secondary radar is located in the aircraft? |
Transponder Lesson 6 page 26 |
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Which component of secondary radar processes transponder replies and sends them to the radar display? |
Decoder Lesson 6 page 27 |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7110.65? |
ATC procedures and phraseology for use by persons providing ATC services Lesson 7 page 8 |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7210.3? |
Instructions, standards, and guidance for operating and managing Air Traffic facilities Lesson 7 page 11 |
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Substantive revisions to FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3 are indicated by bold _________. |
vertical lines in the margin Lesson 7 page 16 |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7340.2? |
Approved words and phrase contractions used by FAA personnel and by other agencies that provide air traffic control, communications, weather, charting, and associated services Lesson 7 page 13 |
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the words "may" or "need not" means that the procedure is ___________. |
optional Lesson 7 page 20 |
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What information is contained in the FAA Order JO 7350.8? |
-Location identifiers authorized by the FAA and Transport Canada -United States airspace fixes and procedure codes -Guidelines for requesting identifiers and procedures for making assignments Lesson 7 page 15 |
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In FAA Order 7110.65, the word or words used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is _________. |
"Shall" or "Must" Lesson 7 page 20 |
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Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters? |
GENOT Lesson 7 page 17 |
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In FAA Order 7110.65, the word or words used to specify that a procedure is recommended is _________. |
"should" Lesson 7 page 21
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What are supplements? |
-Issued by organizations other than the originator to provide additional internal guidance or instructions or to meet localized needs -Also FAA-wide supplementary information to DOT directives Lesson 7 page 18 |
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Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by Flight Service specialists? |
FAA Order JO 7110.10 Lesson 7 page 6 |
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Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures? |
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) Lesson 7 page 19 |
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When used in FAA Orders JO 7110.10, JO 7110.65, and JO 7210.3, the word "will" means _________. |
futurity, not a requirement for application of a procedure Lesson 7 page 21 |
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Many FAA Orders are divided into chapters, sections, and ____________. |
paragraphs Lesson 7 page 6 |
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The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for _________ use. |
interfacility Lesson 8 page 2 |
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Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content?
A. Position relief briefing B. External Coordination C. Local stripmarking procedures D. Equipment usage |
B. External Coordination Lesson 8 page 10 |
