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82 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A human cell contains ____ pair(s) of sex chromosomes.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 22
d. 23
a. 1
Chargaff"s rules state that the amount of A,T,G and C in DNA

a. varies from species to species, and the amount of A=T and G=C
b. varies from species to specides, and the amound of A=G and T=C
c. is the same form species to species, and the amount of A=T and G=C
d. is the same from species to species, and the amount of A=G and T=C
A - varies from species to species, and the amount of A-T and G=C
Mitosis _____ chromosome number, while meiosis _____ the chromosome number of the daughter cells.

a. maintains, increases
b. increases, maintains
c. increases, decreases
d. maintains, decreases
d. maintains, decreases
DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because

a. each new DNA molecule contains one new strand and one old one
b. every other new DNA molecule contains two old strands
c. each new DNA strand contains two new strands
d. every other new DNA molecule contains one new strand and one old one
A- each new DNA molecule contains one new strand and one old one
How many chromatids are in a cell as it enters meiosis?
2 times the diploid number
Which of the following is not a feature of eukaryotic DNA replication?

a. repliction bubbles spread in tow directions
b. a new strand is synthesized using an old one as a template
c. complementary base pairing determines which nucleotides should be added to the new strand
d. each chromosome has one origin of replication
D- each chromosome has one origin of replication
How many chromosomes are in each daughter cell following meiosis I?
haploid number
contains an anticodon
transfer RNA
How many chromatids are in each daughter cell following meiosis I?
2 times the haploid number
carries amino acids to the ribosome
transfer RNA
How man chromosomes are in each daughter cell following meiosis II?
haploid number
carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes
messenger RNA
The two major functions of meiosis are to

a. maintain chromosme number and create genetically unform products
b. reduce chromosome number and create genetically uniform products
c. reduce chromosome number and create gentically variable products
d. maintain chromosome number and create genetically variable products
c. reduce chromosome number and create genetically variable products
produced in the nucleolus
ribosomal RNA
a cleavage furrow forms, resulting in haploid nuclei. Each chromosome contains two chromatids
telophase I
which of the following statements about the genetic code is not true?

a. the genetic code is almost universal
b. the genetic code is a doublet code
c. mutlitple codons may encode the same amino acid
d. some special codons mean "stop"
B- the genetic code is a doublet code
tetrads form, and crossing-over occurs
prophase I
Transcription produces _____, while translation produces _____.

a. DNA, RNA
b. RNA, polypeptides
c. polypeptides, RNA
d. RNA, DNA
B- RNA, polypeptides
Dyads align at the spindle equator
metaphase II
the application of computer techniques to analyze the genome is called

a. proteomics
b. genomics
c. bioinformatics
d. genetic code
C- bioinformatics
four haploid daughter cells are created
telophase II
point mutation that changes one codon of a gene
sometimes harmful
homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles
anaphase I
frameshift mutation that changes all following codons
usually harmful
sister chromatids separate
anaphase II
point mutation that changes a codon into a "stop" codon
usually harmful
tetrads align on the spindle equator
metaphase I
movement of a transposon into the middle of a gene
usually harmful
chromosomes in haploid nuclei condense
prophase II
point mutation that does not change the amino acid specified by the codon
not harmful
the condition that results when an egg carrying 23 chromosomes unites with a sperm carrying 22 chromosomes is called

a. monosomy
b. isomy
c. trisomy
d. tetrasomy
a. monosomy
which of the following is not useful in creating recombinant DNA?

a. restriction endonuclease
b. DNA ligase
c. RNA polymerase
d. plasmid
C- RNA polymerase
an individual with Turner syndrome is conceived when a normal gamete unites with

a. an egg taht was produced by nondisjunction during oogenesis
b. a sperm that was produced by nondisjunction during spermatogenesis
c. either a or b is correct
d. both a and b are correct
c. either a or b is correct
Genome comparisons may yield information about which of the following?

a. evolutionary relationships between organisms
b. changes in genes over evolutionary history
c. links between genes and disease
d. all of these are correct
D- all of these are correct
an individual with triple X karyotype (47, xxx) would have how many Barr bodies?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
c. 2
A virus always contains

a. a cell wall
b. a plasma membrane
c. cytoplasm
e. more than one of these are correct
C. cytoplasm
crossing-over

a. involves recombination between nonhomologous chromosomes
b. involves recombination between sister chromatids
c. occurs only between members of a tetrad
d. occurs between adjacent tetrads
c. occurs only between members of a tetrad
the five stages of the bacteriophage lytic cycle occur in this order:

a. penetratin, attachment, release, maturation, biosynthesis
b. attachment, pnetratin, release, biosynthesis, maturtion
c. biosynthesis, attachment, penetration, maturation, release
d. attachment, penetration, biosynthesis maturation, release
e. penetration, biosynthesis, attachment, maturation, release
D. attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release
the separation of sister chromatids of a dyad in anaphase II results in

a. dyads
b. daughter chromosomes
c. tetrads
d. sister chromatids
b. daughter chromosomes
animal viruses

a. contain both DNA and RNA
b. sometimes have an envelope
c. sometimes infect bacteria
d. do not reproduce inside cells
B. sometimes have an envelope
how many chromosomes are in a parent cell entering meiosis?
diploid number
the enzyme that is unique to retroviruses is

a. reverse transcriptase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA gyrase
d. RNA polymerase
A. reverse transcriptase
which of the following best describes the attachment of chromosomes to the spindle apparatus during meiosis I?

a. the homologous pair lines up together, with homologues facing opposite spindle pole
b. the homologous pair lines up together, with homologues facign the same spindle pole.
c. homologous pairs do not line up together, but h omologues face opposite spindle poles
d. homologous pairs do not line up together, with homologues facing the same spindle pole
a. the homologous pair lines up together, with homologues facing opposite spindle pole
The ____ cycle is a phage life cycle in which the infected bacterium does not immediatley produce phage

a. lytic
b. lysogenic
c. pathogenic
transformation
B. lysogenic
which of these is mismatched?

a. amoeboids - pseudopods
b. sporozoans - disease agents
c. algae - variously colored
d. slime molds - trypanosomes
D. slime molds - trypanosomes
which of the following statements about viroids is false?

a. they are composed of naked RNA
b. they cause plant diseases
c. they die once they reproduce
d. they cause infected cells to produce more viroids
C. they die once they reproduce
prion proteins cause disease when they

a. enlarge in size
b. beak into small pieces
c. cause normal proteins to change shape
d. interact with DNA
C. cause normal proteins to change shape
bacterial cells contain

a. ribosomes
b. nuclei
c. mitochondria
d. vacuoles
e. more than one of these are correct
A. ribosomes
the primary producers at deep-sea vents are

a. heterotrophs
b. symbionts
c. chemoautotrophs
d. photoautotrophs
C. chemoautotrophs
peptidoglycan in cell wall
bacteria
methanogens
archaea
sometimes parasitic
bacteria
contain a nucleus
neither bacteria nor archaea
plasma membrane contains lipids
both bacteria and archaea
reroduction by binary fission
both bacteria and archaea
unlike plants, algae contain

a. chloroplasts
b. vacuoles
c. mitochondria
d. pyrenoids
e. cell walls
D. pyrenoids
which are unicellular, golden-brown algae with a silica shell?

a. diatoms
b. radiolarians
c. trypanosomes
d. sporozoans
e. foraminiferans
A. diatoms
______ is nuclear division, whereas ______ is division of the cytoplasm

a. cytokinesis, mitosis
b. apoptosis, mitosis
c. mitosis, apoptosis
d. mitosis, cytokinesis
D - mitosis, cytokinesis
A duplicated chromosome is composed of identical

a. chromosome arms
b. chromatids
c. nucleosomes
d. homologues
C - nucleosomes
this phase follows mitosis
G1 phase of interphase
DNA is replicated during this phase
S phase of interphase
Organelles are doubled in number during this phase
G1 phase of interphase
During this phase, the cell produces the proteins that will be needed for cell division
G2 phase of interphase
The nucleolus disappears, and the nuclear membrane breaks down
prophase
The spindle disappears, and the nuclear envelope forms
telophase
Sister chromatids separate
anaphase
Spindle poles move apart as spindle fibers slide past each other
anaphase
Chromosomes are aligned on the spindle equator
metaphase
Each chromosome is composed of two sister chromatids
prophase, metaphase
Plants cannot use a cleavage furrow to undergo cytokinesis because they

a. lack a plasma membrane
b. have a cell wall
c. have too many chromosomes
d. are too small
B - have a cell wall
Which cell cycle checkpoint allows damaged DNA to be repaired before it is passed on to daughter cells?

a. G1
b. G2
c. S
d. mitotic
B - G2
Which of the following is not an event of apoptosis?

a. loss of contact with neighboring cells
b. blistering of the plasma membrane
c. increase in the number of mitochondria
d. fragmentation of the nucleus
C - increase in the number of mitochondria
Rats have 42 chromosomes. How many total chromatids does a rat cell have during the G1 phase? Explain

a. 21
b. 42
c. 63
d. 84
e. 126
B - 42

each chromosome has one chromatid
Rats have 42 chromosmes. How many total chromatids does a rat cell have during the G2 phase? explain

a. 21
b. 42
c. 63
d. 84
e. 126
D - 84

each chromosome has two chromatids
Which of the following is not a feature of cancer cells?

a. exhibit contact inhibition
b. have enlarged nuclei
c. stimulated the formation of new blood vessels
d. are capable of traveling through blood and lymph
A - exhibit contact inhibition
The spindle begins to assemble during

a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. interphase
A- prophase
What is the checkpoint for the completion of DNA synthesis?

a. G1
b. S
c. G2
d. M
C - G2
In human beings, mitosis is necessary for

a. the growth and repair of tissues
b. the formation of gametes
c. maintenance of the chromosome number in all body cells
d. the death of unnecessary cells
e. both a and c are correct
E- both a and c are correct
In which phase of mitosis is evidence of cytokinesis present?

a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase
e. Both c and d are correct
E - both c and d are correct
Which of these is not a behavior that could help prevent cancer?

a. maintaining a helathy weight
b. eating more dark green leafy vegetables, carrots, and various fruits
c. not smoking
d. maintaining estrogen levels through hormone replacement
e. consuming alcohol only in moderation
D- maintaining estrogen levels through hormone replacement therapy
Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis in animal cells because

a. plant cells form a cleavage furrow that constricts the daughter cells
b. in plant cells, many small vesicles form a cell plate that eventually becomes a new cell wall
c. animal cells seldom undergo cytokinesis
d. Both b and c are correct
B - in plant cells, many small vesicles form a cell plate that eventually becomes a new cell wall
Programmed cell death is called

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. cytokinesis
d. apoptosis
D - apoptosis