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171 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
9. Francis Bacon, who is often credited with the scientific method, believed…
a) people should trust their instincts
b) people should collect data before making judgments
c) people should start with a “truth” and deduce consequences
d) people’s beliefs are not usually biased
B
10. A primary final outcome of many investigations using the scientific method is ...
a) personal beliefs
b) governmental laws
c) scientific theories
d) personal bias
C
11. Good science displays all of the following attributes except…
a) Independently repeatable
b) Non-random sampling
c) Accepted by peer review
d) Unbiased funding
B
12. Three ways in which science is done in the modern world are…
a) data driven, scientific method, and by trial and error
b) through belief, hypothesis, and theory
c) unscientifically, scientifically, pseudoscientifically
d) uncontrolled, controlled, and repeated
A
13. One way to tell good science from bad science is…
a) good science is reported in the popular press
b) good science is done only by the most expensive laboratories
c) good science matches its results to its conclusions
d) good science makes use of small sample sizes
C
14. Living things escape the natural spreading out or decrease in order
a) violating natural laws through a “vital” force.
b) continual input of energy, mostly from the sun.
c) continual movement, mostly within the cell.
d) reproducing before they die.
B
15. The lingering feeling of burning your tongue on hot coffee is distinctive and typically lasts for about a day.
In that time, epithelial cells on the tongue are completely replaced. This demonstrates:
a) there is no link between structure and function.
b) autopoesis or self-renewal.
c) life requires reproduction.
d) life proceeds even without genetic instruction.
B
16. What experiment did Paul Nurse, a British researcher shown in a class video, perform to demonstrate a
common genetic program for all organisms?
a) He replace a defective yeast gene with a human gene
b) He grafted animal parts on to plants
c) He brought animals “to life” using electricity.
d) He simulated the early conditions of life on earth.
A
17. Properties of life that appear from the arrangement of single molecules to higher and higher levels of
organization demonstrate…
a) the emergent properties of life.
b) the compound nature of life.
c) the holistic properties of life.
d) the chemical nature of life.
A
18. Genetic continuity means when organisms reproduce they reproduce
a) only the organism.
b) only the mechanism of reproduction.
c) both the organism and the mechanism of reproduction.
d) neither the organism nor the method of reproduction.
C
19. Self-assembly at the molecular level is possible because of which two properties of molecules?
a) they remain still and they are soft enough to press together
b) they are always moving around and they are sticky
c) half of all molecules are pointed and half have crevices
d) large molecules always direct smaller ones to organize
B
20. Super-organisms demonstrate levels of structure that do not fit in neatly with other well-described levels of
life’s order. Super-organisms are
a) the largest organisms seen on earth to date.
b) many individuals acting in concert as one organism.
c) organisms that can not die.
d) organisms that continually sense each other’s presence.
B
21. According to modern studies, when analyzing political candidates, partisans are most likely:
a) to use reason (rational thought) when faced with their own candidate’s contradictions
b) to accept contradictions from their own candidate
c) to accept contradictions from an opposing candidate
d) to be disappointed by contradictions in an their own candidate’s statements
B
22. A belief:
a) is formed by a single region of the brain
b) is a way of attaching long-term meaning to sensory information.
c) cannot be affected by emotional input
d) is a good way to support scientific theories
B
23. Assumptions that underlie the scientific worldview are:
a) natural causality and universality
b) natural beliefs are most often true
c) natural laws can change and supernatural intervention
d) common interpretations and value systems
A
24. In science, the word “theory” is used different than the common use of the word because a scientific theory:
a) Cannot be modified over time
b) has been absolutely proven
c) is dependent on the outcome of a single experiment
d) is backed by a comprehensive amount of data
D
25. According to class discussion, the two primary reasons why we as humans do science are:
a) to test our beliefs and make the world more predictable
b) to cure disease and develop new weaponry
c) to create life and discount religion
d) natural causality and universality
A
26. The sixteenth century scientist/philosopher who promoted using inductive rather than deductive reasoning to
decipher truth was:
a) Thomas Aquinas
b) Charles Darwin
c) Francis Bacon
d) George Carlin
C
27. Two properties of molecules discussed in class that allow molecules to react in a cell are:
a) molecules are always moving and molecules are “sticky”
b) molecules are always stationary and molecules are “sticky”
c) molecules are always moving and molecules do not stick together
d) molecules are always stationary and molecules do not stick together
A
28. In biology, structure and function are correlated:
a) only at the level of the molecule
b) only at the level of the cell
c) only at the level of the organism
d) at all levels
D
29. Wood frogs in Ohio maintain their cellular integrity under extreme cold by:
a) freezing, but filling the cells in their vital organs with sugar to prevent damage
b) migrating south to avoid freezing
c) burying their bodies far enough underground to avoid freezing
d) symbiosis with warm-blooded animals
A
1. The difference between starch and cellulose is best described as:
a) starch is a carbohydrate, cellulose is not
b) starch is branched, cellulose is long and fibrous
c) starch is a long molecule made up of repeating sugar units, cellulose is not
d) starch is sweet because it is made of glucose, cellulose is not
B
2. Which of the following element is the most electronegative?
a) carbon
b) hydrogen
c) nitrogen
d) oxygen
D
3. Two properties of molecules discussed in class that allow molecules to react in a cell are:
a) molecules are always moving and molecules are “sticky”
b) molecules are always stationary and molecules are “sticky”
c) molecules are always moving and molecules do not stick together
d) molecules are always stationary and molecules do not stick together
A
4. Fatty acids that are more _______________ tend to be solid at room temperature because of
_______________.
a) Unsaturated, increased packing
b) Unsaturated, decreased packing
c) Saturated, increased packing
d) Saturated, decreased packing
C
5. Which of the following “molecules of life” form the most effective barrier to water and other polar
molecules?
a) sugars (carbohydrates)
b) lipids (fats)
c) proteins
d) nucleic acids
B
6. A fat (triglyceride) is made up of a__________ and is used primarily in the cell for __________.
a) phosphate head and fatty acid tails, energy (storage)
b) phosphate head and fatty acid tails, structural support
c) gylycerol backbone and fatty acid tails, energy storage
d) glycerol backbone and fatty acid tails, structural support
C
7. On a gram per gram basis, the macromolecules with the most energy are
a) lipids
b) carbohydrates
c) lipids and carbohydrates, which are equal
d) neither lipids, nor carbohydrates
A
8. As discussed in class, small-sized bacteria (prokaryotes) are limited in the size they can reach due to the fact
that
a) their surface area can supply energy to a limited volume
b) their energy is supplied by the membranes on their outside surface
c) they must replicate quickly and maintain a fairly simple genome
d) all of the above
D
9. Which of the following do not make-up portions of the structures of nucleic acids?
a) sugar groups
b) phosphate groups
c) nitrogen base groups
d) glycerol groups
D
10. All of the following are true concerning plant cells and animal cells except:
a) plant cells have rigid walls that provide external support, animals do not
b) plant cells rely directly on sunlight, a vertical energy source, animal cells do not
c) animal cells are mobile, can pick up and move through tissues, plant cells cannot
d) animal cells are autotrophic and can supply energy and raw materials for growth, plant cells cannot
D
11. Waxes are made of __________ and serve primarily in biology to:
a) long hydrocarbon chains, exclude water
b) long hydrocarbon chains, dissolve readily
c) short polar groups. exclude water
d) short polar groups, dissolve readily
A
12. In biology, when surface area is important for a function, cells and structures
a) become flat and branched
b) become fat and spherical
c) increase their volume
d) cannot usually adapt
A
14. As discussed in class, which of the following molecules is the most abundant organic (carbon-based)
molecule on earth?
a) cellulose
b) starch
c) chitin
d) glycogen
A
15. As discussed in class, biological membranes are both fluid and mosaic. The fluidity is caused by the liquidlike
movement of _______________ in the membrane and the studded or mosaic appearance can be attributed
to_______________ in the membrane.
a) lipids, carbohydrates
b) lipids, proteins
c) carbohydrates, proteins
d) carbohydrates, lipids
B
16. Which of the following molecules would have the easiest time crossing the phospholipids bilayer without a
channel or pore?
a) glucose, a medium-sized, polar sugar molecule
b) carbon dioxide, a small non-polar molecule
c) hemoglobin, a large, polar protein molecule
d) cellulose, a large polar polysaccharide
B
17. Secondary structure of a protein (polypeptide) is defined as:
a) regular local and recognizable structures in the polypeptide chain
b) the overall three-dimensional course of the polypeptide
c) the associations between adjacent polypeptide chains
d) the sequence of different amino acids in the polypeptide chain
A
18. Atoms like oxygen that are highly electronegative:
a) have a weak pull towards other atoms’ electrons
b) have a strong pull towards other atoms’ electrons
c) tend to share electrons equally with carbon
d) tend to share electrons equally with hydrogen
B
19. In an animal cell, the molecule cholesterol:
a) prevents the membrane from freezing at low temperature
b) prevents the membrane from excessive melting at high temperature
c) prevents freezing and excessive melting of membranes at low and high temperatures
d) does not prevent freezing or excessive melting of membranes at any temperatures
C
What are tx for ANGINA
include beta-adrenergic blockers ( propranolol, Lopressor)
calcium channel blockers (Verapamil, Cardizem, Procardia).
The aim is to decrease oxygen demand or increase myocardial oxygen supply.
1. Cell energy comes in the following forms:
a. Chemical
b. Gradients
c. Movement
d. All of the answers listed
D
2. Plant cells are autotrophic, which means:
a. They have cell walls
b. They make their own energy
c. They must live in water
d. All of the reasons listed
B
3. The fluid mosaic model refers to:
a. the fluid inside the cell and the appearance of many internal cell compartments
b. the fluid inside the cell and the many proteins imbedded in the cell membrane
c. the fluid nature of the membrane and the appearance of many internal cell compartments
d. the fluid nature of the cell membrane and the many proteins imbedded in the cell membrane
D
4. Energy in the cell can be made into ATP when molecules flow:
a. with their gradient (from high concentration to low concentration)
b. against their gradient (from low concentration to high concentration)
c. either with or against their gradient
d. when there is no gradient (concentration is the same on both sides)
A
5. Which of the following molecules would have the easiest time crossing the phospholipids bilayer without a
channel or pore?
a. glucose, a medium-sized, polar sugar molecule
b. carbon dioxide, a small non-polar molecule
c. hemoglobin, a large, polar protein molecule
d. cellulose, a large polysaccharide
B
6. If a goldfish goes from warm to cold water, a likely adaptation in its cell membranes would be:
a. more saturated fatty acids
b. more unsaturated fatty acids
c. more carbohydrates
d. no change in membrane composition
B
7. Cholesterol imbedded into lipid rafts in the cell make that portion of the membrane:
a. more solid
b. more liquid
c. leaky to the outside
d. into a channel or pore
A
8. One difference between a plant and animal cell is:
a. plant cells are more mobile
b. plant cells are internally rigid
c. plant cells are autotrophic
d. plant cells can ingest large materials
C
9. If a molecule is too polar or too large to traverse the membrane, it must go through a __________ to get from
one side to the other.
a. pore
b. channel
c. carrier
d. one of the above
D
10. The endoplasmic reticulum in a eukaryotic cell is:
a. an extension of the nuclear envelope
b. an extension of the plasma membrane
c. an extension of the Golgi apparatus
d. an extension of the mitochondria
A
11. Cell energy comes in the following forms:
a. chemical
b. gradient
c. movement
d. all of the above
D
12. In biology, when surface area is favored over volume, structures are:
a. spherical
b. branched or folded
c. linear
d. two-dimensional
B
13. RNA, made from DNA in the nucleus passes to the cytoplasm through _______________ and is made into
proteins by “machinery” called _______________ .
a. the plasma membrane, the Golgi bodies
b. the plasma membrane, ribosomes
c. nuclear pores, the Golgi bodies
d. nuclear pores, ribosomes
D
14. Energy from ATP, a nucleotide, comes from:
a. the nitrogen base group
b. the sugar group
c. the phosphate group
d. all of the answers listed
C
15. Enzymes (biological catalysts) come primarily from which branch of macromolecules?
a. proteins
b. nucleic acids
c. lipids
d. carbohydrates
A
16. In __________ transport, molecules are moved across a membrane against their gradient with the addition
of energy in the form of ATP.
a. active
b. passive
c. both active and passive
d. neither active nor passive
A
17. In __________ transport, molecules are moved across a membrane with their gradient.
a. active
b. passive
c. both active and passive
d. neither active nor passive
B
18. Feedback inhibition involves:
a. an early product and an early enzyme
b. an early product and a late enzyme
c. a late product and an early enzyme
d. a late product and a late enzyme
C
19. Feed forward activation involves:
a. an early substrate and an early enzyme
b. an early substrate and a late enzyme
c. a late substrate and an early enzyme
d. a late substrate and a late enzyme
B
20. Animal cells have:
a. mitochondria
b. chloroplasts
c. both mitochondria and chloroplasts
d. neither mitochondria nor chloroplasts
A
21. Cells use energy for:
a. transporting molecules against a gradient
b. moving material throughout the cell
c. building large molecules
d. all of these
D
22. Enzymes bind their substrates because:
a. they are made by the same gene
b. they fit together because of complimentary size, shape, and charge
c. enzymes can bind to many substrates and are not specific to one
d. the substrate is identical to the product
B
23. The sodium/potassium pump in cells is maintains an electrical (battery. charge across the cell by pumping:
a. more sodium outside than potassium in
b. more potassium outside than sodium in
c. more sodium inside than potassium out
d. more potassium inside than sodium out
A
24. The energy currency of the cell is:
a. a carbohydrates
b. a lipid
c. ATP
d. a protein
C
1. According to class discussion which of the following dominated Earth for the longest amount of time?
a) Single-celled eukaryotes
b) Multi cellular eukaryotes
c) Prokaryotes
d) Humans
C
2. The great liberator, which allowed life to spread on the surface of the earth was __________ and generated
by __________.
a) oxygen, plants
b) oxygen, bacteria
c) carbon dioxide, animals
d) carbon dioxide, bacteria
B
3. Experiments in the 1980s by Kwang Jeon demonstrated that:
a) endosymbiosis can occur between two distinct organisms
b) cells must be free-living in order to survive
c) free-living cells living inside other cells will retain all original functions over time
d) cells engulfed by other cells will eventually be digested
A
4. Electrons stripped from chlorophyll are replaced in the light reactions by electrons from:
a) water
b) carbon dioxide
c) ATP
d) NADPH
A
5. One result of the light reactions of photosynthesis is:
a) ATP
b) Sugar
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Water
A
6. ATP is made in the light reactions of photosynthesis by:
a) a proton gradient passing through the ATPase motor
b) an electron gradient passing through the ATPase motor
c) water passing throught the ATPase motor
d) sodium passing through the ATPase motor
A
7. Plants contain:
a) chloroplasts for photosynthesis
b) mitochondria for respiration
c) both chloroplasts and mitochondria
d) neither chloroplasts nor mitochondria
C
8. A chlorophyll pigment:
a) works alone in the photo part of photosynthesis
b) works with accessory pigments in the photo part of photosynthesis
c) works alone in the synthesis part of photosynthesis
d) works with accessory pigments in the synthesis part of photosynthesis
B
9. As discussed in class, the most electronegative molecule known to biology, ie the one with the strongest
affinity for electrons, strong enough to actually split a water molecule is:
a) chlorophyll before sunlight hits it
b) chlorophyll after sunlight hits it
c) the ATPase motor protein before it makes ATP
d) the ATPase motor protein, after it makes ATP
B
10. The inner chloroplast membrane _________ and is ________.
a) contains chlorophyll, not highly folded
b) contains chlorophyll, highly folded
c) does not contain chlorophyll, not highly folded
d) does not contain chlorophyll, highly folded
B
11. According to the film Origins showed in class, which of the following statements is not true concerning life
taking hold on the surface of early earth?
a) It was difficult because the early earth was bombarded with comets and asteroids
b) It was difficult because the early earth’s atmosphere lacked a protective ozone layer
c) It was difficult because temperatures on the early earth were extreme
d) It was difficult because there were no protected environments for life to begin from chemicals
D
12. Which of he following organelles is thought to have an endosymbiotic origin?
a. mitochondria
b. chloroplasts
c. mitochondria and chloroplasts
d. neither mitochondria nor chloroplasts
C
13. Concerning the origin of life on earth, scientists today most favor …
a. the creation hypothesis
b. the development of cellular life in stages hypothesis
c. the spontaneous generation hypothesis
d. the panspermia hypothesis
B
14. Which of the following has not been accomplished by scientists studying the origin of life?
a. abiotic synthesis of small organic monomers
b. discovery of cells that do not rely on photosynthesis
c. discovery of cells capable of living under extreme conditions
d. formation of self-replicating molecules of DNA
D
15. Stanley Miller’s experiments simulating the formation of life included…
a. Air, water, and radiation
b. Rock, water and heat
c. Air, water, and electricity
d. Rock, water and electricity
C
16. Which of the following is the reason why RNA is favored over DNA as the “original” information carrier…
a. RNA makes up today’s chromosomes
b. RNA can copy itself and evolve
c. RNA is the information carrier in dividing cells today
d. RNA stays in the nucleus in eukaryotic cells
B
17. The idea that living organisms come from other living organisms is called …
a. spontaneous generation
b. panspermia
c. biogenesis
d. biological species concept
C
18. Which event occurred first in the history of life on earth
a. origin of plant cells
b. origin of animal cells
c. incorporation of mitochondria as an endosymbiont
d. incorporation of a chloroplast as an endosymbiont
C
19. Purple halophile bacteria use the protein bacteriorhodopsin to
a. make a proton gradient for energy
b. make energy from sunlight
c. carry a pigment which is excited by light
d. all of the above
D
20. In biology, when surface area is favored over volume, structures are
a. spherical
b. branched or folded
c. linear
d. two-dimensional
B
1. Substrate level phosphorylation occurs when
a. a proton gradient makes ATP
b. the motor protein ATPase makes ATP
c. an enzyme reaction makes ATP
d. electron transport makes ATP
C
2. Photosynthesis and respiration are similar because they both
a. Produce carbon dioxide from glucose
b. Produce oxygen from water
c. Use gradients to make ATP
d. Produce glucose from carbon dioxide
C
3. Genomic equivalence for an organism with many cells means that…
a. all cells use the same genes
b. all cells divide up the genes of the organism equally (each contain some)
c. all cells contain the same genes
d. all cells perform identically
C
4. Oxidative phosphorylation relies most directly on what energy source to make ATP (from the ATP ase motor
protein
a. Electron flow
b. Proton gradient
c. Combustion of sugars
d. Splitting of water
B
5. As discussed in class, cells make and keep "social" contracts in all of the following ways except:
a. growing in crowds of other cells
b. growing only with appropriate signals
c. growing on solid surfaces like those laid down by other cells
d. keeping track of time on a 24 hour clock
A
6. Which of the following is not a potential cause of cancer?
a. a toxin that mutates DNA
b. a genetic predisposition
c. a virus
d. a toxin that kills cells
D
7. Most of the energy (ATP) in the cell is made directly from sugar through
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Substrate level phosphorylation
c. Photosynthesis
d. Processes that do not require oxygen
A
8. Studies in sea urchins talked about in class demonstrated
a. all proteins important for mitosis in the cell are abundant at all times
b. some proteins important for mitosis cycle in abundance
c. some genetic mutants are defective in mitosis
d. cells could be fused together to look for diffusable factors
B
9. Which of the following statements is not true regarding our current understanding of cancer?
a. cancer is defined by a single genetic mutations
b. malignant (cancerous) tumors come from one cell (clone) originally
c. cancer is a disease of damaged DNA
d. cancer can be caused by viruses or certain chemicals
A
10. Carbon molecules are fixed in
a. the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis
b. the dark reactions of photosynthesis
c. the mitochondrial membrane
d. the Krebs cycle
B
11. The process of communication from outside the cell to inside involves
a. Signal transduction (movement of the signal)
b. Signal amplification (increasing the scope of the signal)
c. Both
d. Neither
C
12. Oxygen
a. is at the end of the electron transport chain in mitochondria
b. is a product of photosynthesis after water is split
c. is not available when lactic acid (lactate) is made in muscle
d. all three answers are correct
D
13. Programmed cell death or apoptosis
a. Is always harmful to an organism
b. Is often beneficial for an organism
c. only happens when the organism dies
d. Does not occur in organisms
B
14. In mitosis,
a. chromosome number is increased
b. chromosome number is multiplied
c. chromosome number is maintained
d. chromosome number is reduced
C
15. The molecule that carry electrons to the chemical pathways (light-independent) reaction from the thylakoid
membrane is
a. oxygen
b. NADPH
c. ATP
d. glucose
B
16. Uncoupling agents discussed in class uncouple the link between
a. Photosynthesis and respiration
b. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
c. oxygen and ATP production
d. all of the above
C
17. The cell cycle is controlled by
a. internal factors
b. external factors
c. both internal and external factors
d. neither internal nor external factors
C
18. In the cell cycle,
a. DNA is replicated in S phase and divided in M phase
b. S and M phase are continuous with no gaps
c. S and M phase do are not controlled by checkpoints
d. DNA is replicated in M phase and divided in S phase
A
19. Which of the following is not a reason for mitotic cell division (cell division through mitosis) in organisms?
a. growth
b. reproduction (asexual)
c. reducing genetic content
d. replacing damaged or lost cells
C
20. In respiration the electrons given to the electron transport system come from
a. chlorophyll and are replaced by water
b. NADH
c. oxygen
d. water
B
21. MPF (mitosis promoting factor) originally discovered as a diffusable factor in cells turned out to be
a. cyclin
b. cdc(k)
c. cyclin and cdc(k)
d. neither
C
22. After mitosis, the chromosome number of a daughter cell is ______ the parent cell’s.
a. double
b. one-half
c. different from parent cell’s
d. the same as
D
23. As discussed in class, chromosomes are separated in mitosis by
a. walking along the spindle to opposite sides of the cell
b. being reeled in by opposite sides of the spindle
c. being cut down the middle when the cell is pinched in two
A
24. Experiments with cells undergoing mitosis (cell division) that were artificially fused with cells in a resting
state (not dividing) demonstrated that…
a. all cells divide at the same rate
b. cell division can be controlled internally by diffusable factors
c. cells receive messages from outside
d. cells have specialized functions
B
25. As discussed in class, terrestrial (land-based) plant material comes mostly from
a. air
b. water
c. soil
d. animals
A
1. Which of the following is not a potential cause of cancer?
a. a virus
b. a toxin that kills cells
c. a toxin that mutates DNA
d. a genetic predisposition
B
2. During angiogenesis, a process that promotes tumor growth….
a. the cancer cells migrate to a new location
b. the blood vessels feed the cancer cells
c. the cancer cells commit suicide
d. the blood vessels are destroyed by the cancer cells
B
3. Cancer cells do not…
a. Obey the Hayflick limit
b. Grow when unanchored
c. Grow when dense
d. Spread
A
4. Which of the following would not be a potential target for a cancer drug?
a. A drug aimed at preventing new blood vessel growth
b. A drug aimed at preventing cell movement and spreading
c. A drug aimed at preventing DNA replication
d. A drug aimed at preventing contact inhibition
D
5. Many cancer patients receive radiation as a therapy to kill transformed (cancerous) cells. Radiation works in
two steps, first by damaging the cancer cell’s DNA, and second by relying on the cancer cell’s ability to sense
the damage and commit suicide. We would expect radiation not to work on tumors that have…
a. gained functions of new oncogenes
b. lost the ability to stimulate apoptosis
c. gained the ability to stimulate new blood vessels
d. lost the ability to stop growing when cells touch (contact inhibition)
B
6. Oncogenes are genes that cause cancer when they are:
a. Overactive
b. Underactive
c. Both
d. Neither
A
7. Tumor-suppressor genes are genes that cause cancer when they are
a. Overactive
b. Underactive
c. Both
d. Neither
B
8. In the later stages of cancer progression, which include metastasis, cancer cells:
a. Can survive and grow unanchored
b. Can survive and grow only when attached
c. Remain in one tissues
d. Remain in one part of a tissue so new blood vessels can find them
A
9. Cancer is a disease of aging mostly due to the fact that:
a. All cells have time clocks for uncontrolled division
b. Accumulated DNA damage occurs over time
c. Cells stop dividing after a certain number of divisions
d. Viruses affect only the elderly
B
10. According to class discussion, the general decline in memory tests for older adults can be attributed to …
a. The normal aging process
b. Senescence
c. Alzheimer’disease exclusively
d. Reduced extrinsic mortality
B
11. The development of weaponry and the expansion of organized social communities have allowed humans to
rise to the top of the food chain with no natural predators. According to class discussion and excluding all other
complicating factors these changes would most likely result over time in the…
a. Selection for delayed senescence in human populations
b. Selection for more rapid senescence in human populations
c. Higher incidence of early cancer rates
d. Shortening of the reproductive span
A
12. Angiogenesis (recruitment of new blood vessels) occurs in tumors because:
a. cancer cells send out a signal
b. blood vessels respond to signals
c. both
d. neither
C
13. For some species of spiders, their first meal upon hatching from their eggs is their own mother (yes, they eat
their own mother). The concept of getting a benefit on the early development of an organism, even one that
could have a great cost to those individuals at later stages in development is called…
a. Hayflick limit
b. Senescence
c. Antagonistic pleiotropy
d. Reduced extrinsic mortality
C
14. As discussed in class, the difference between annual and perennial plants is that the two types take different
evolutionary aging strategies in the face of seasonal changes. Specifically,
a. annuals invest in seeds, perennials invest in carryover of root stocks or existing tissue
b. annual plants do not survive climates with seasonal changes
c. perennial plants do not survive climates with seasonal changes
d. there are no significant differences between
A
15. Queen bees, queen ants and other queens of social insects are genetically identical to bees and ants of other
castes in the colonies (like workers, soldiers, etc). However, despite their genetic similarity (same genes), the
queens, whose primary role in the hive is reproduction, can sometimes outlive the individuals in other castes by
as much as 25 fold. This phenomenon is similar to how reproductive cells (the germ line) can be immortal but
body cells with the same genes in an organism are not. This theory is called:
a. rate of living theory
b. disposable soma theory
c. antagonistic pleiotropy theory
d. mitochondrial theory of aging
B
16. An animal species colonizing an island with no natural predators is predicted to evolve a longer life span
due to the fact that the pressure to breed quickly would be lessened. This prediction is based on:
a. reduced extrinsic mortality
b. antagonistic pleiotropy
c. disposable soma
d. mitochondrial theory of aging
A
17. Programmed cell death in biology is called __________ and is triggered by __________.
a. apoptosis, mitochondria
b. apoptosis, chloroplasts
c. extrinsic mortality, mitochondria
d. extrinsic mortality, chloroplasts
A
18. Paramecium
a. separate a working genome (macronucleus) from a genome involved in sex (micronucleus)
b. are immortal jellyfish
c. can divide indefinitely in the absence of sex
d. are made of many cells
A
1. In yeast, single gene mutations can affect lifespan greatly. One gene, called SIR2 (sirtuin), allows the yeast
cell to sense scarce food sources and develop into long-lived cells called spores. According to our class
discussion on a similar gene in roundworms, the yeast SIR2 gene is further evidence that:
a. Senescence (gradual decline) is programmed in some organisms
b. Aging is the result of general wear and tear
c. Caloric restriction is likely to decrease lifespan
d. Model organisms are most often unrelated
A
2. One explanation for senescence of organisms is that it reflects senescence within an organism’s cells (cellular
theory). According to class discussion, all of the following support a cellular cause for senescence except…
a. Human cells are limited in the number of times they can double (Hayflick limit)
b. Telomeres (ends) of cellular DNA shorten progressively with each cell division
c. Cells expressing the enzyme telomerase (like cancer cells) can become immortal
d. Damage to a cell’s DNA from repeated exposure to environmental toxins accumulates
D
3. Cells that obey the Hayflick limit…
a. do not age
b. are cancerous
c. have limited doublings
d. are immortal
C
4. Only one treatment has been shown to increase the lifespan of every species of animal so far tested. This
treatment is
a. calorie restricted diets
b. inducing a daur or hibernating state
c. sterilizing to prevent reproduction
d. treatment with anti-oxidants
A
5. In mammals and birds, there is generally an inverse relationship (meaning as one goes up, the other goes
down) between
a. Body size and lifespan
b. Body size and metabolic rate
c. Body size and number of cells
d. Body size extrinsic mortality
B
6. The rate of living theory of aging is due mostly due to
a. antagonistic pleiotropy
b. limits on cell division
c. specific aging genes
d. damage produced in the mitochondria
D
7. Humans are relatively long-lived (have longer metabolic lifespans) compared to other similarly-sized
mammals. According to class discussion this could be due to which of the factors below?
a. Higher metabolism (due to high stress lifestyle)
b. delayed reproduction (due to the long time it takes to grow a big brain)
c. improved medical care
d. shorter Hayflick limit
B
8. As discussed in class, most long-lived organisms, including the mole rat, that have longer lifespans work to:
a. enforce the Hayflick limit
b. speed up reproduction
c. slow metabolism or repair damage
d. increase ROS accumulation
C
9. Reactive oxygen species (ROS) are produced in the ________ as a result of ________.
a. Nucleus, gene activation
b. Nucleus, signal transduction
c. mitochondria, photosynthesis
d. mitochondria, electron flow
D
10. Most mammals and birds show a direct correlation (ie when one increases so does the other) between:
a. Metabolic rate and lifespan
b. Metabolic rate and body mass
c. Body mass and lifespan
d. Lifetime energy expenditure and body mass
C
11. Consistent with class discussion on aging, one potential reason birds may have longer lifespans than
mammals is that:
a. Birds reproduce younger in life
b. Birds have an easier time avoiding predators (reduced extrinsic mortality)
c. Birds have higher metabolic rates
d. Birds do not have a disposable soma
B
12. Resveratrol, the chemical compound in red wine, has been associated with increased lifespan possibly
because it activates sirtuin genes. Sirtuin genes have been shown to sense energy level in cells and work
downstream on:
a. telomeres (cellular aging)
b. mitochondria (metabolic aging)
c. both
d. neither
C
13. A man and a woman who are both carriers (heterozygous) of the recessive gene that causes sickle cell
anemia have gone to a genetic counselor for advice on starting a family. He/she would inform them that their
chances of having a child with the sickle cell disease would be…
a. 100%
b. 75%
c. 50%
d. 25 %
D
14. If you were to perform a hybrid cross between two true breeding organisms of different phenotypes, in their
offspring you should expect to see …
a. One phenotype
b. 2 phenotypes in a 3:1 ratio
c. 3 phenotypes
d. 2 genotypes
A
15. In a fruit fly population, the red eye trait is fully dominant to the white eye trait. True-breeding red eyed
male is mated with a true-breeding white-eyed female. What will be the genotype of the flies resulting from
this mating?
a. flies with all red eyes
b. flies with half red eyes, half white eyes
c. flies with all red-eyed alleles
d. flies with one red-eyed allele and one white-eyed allele
D
16. Mendel concluded that the hereditary material was…
a. Blending and equally contributed by both parents
b. Particulate and equally contributed by both parents
c. Blending and favored one parent
d. Particulate and favored one parent
B
17. A major question that Mendel intended to answer with his experiments was concerning the role of “nature
vs nurture” or genes vs environment in determining what an organism becomes. His results favored or
highlighted the role of
a. nature
b. nurture
c. neither
d. both equally
A
18. Whether an allele is dominant or recessive depends on…
a. how common the allele is in the population
b. whether it is inherited from the mother or the father
c. which chromosome it is on
d. whether it or another allele determines the phenotype when both are present
D
3. Most human sex-linked traits are passed from
a) mother to son
b) mother to daughter
c) father to son
d) father to daughter
A
4. Cystic fibrosis is a recessively-inherited condition that is pleiotropic in nature (has many and various effects).
According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, individuals with the gene for cystic fibrosis that die early would not
pass the gene on and it should therefore naturally be selected against and disappear from the population. This
does not happen however, because
a) the gene offers benefits under some situations in the heterozygous state
b) the gene is more deadly in the heterozygous state
c) the gene offers benefits under all situations in the heterozygous state
d) the gene is never beneficial
A
5. Florida deer mice fur color is due to two separate genes. One gene determines the amount of dark pigment
produced and alleles range from dark black to brown. The second gene determines whether or not pigment is
deposited in the hair. The relationship of the second gene to the first in this case is considered
a) epistatic
b) dominant
c) recessive
d) co-dominant
A
6. Hemophilia is a sex (X)-linked recessive gene. A normal woman whose father had hemophilia marries a
normal man. What are the chances of hemophilia in their children?
a) 100% for all children
b) 50% for all children
c) 50% for boys, 0% for girls
d) 0 % for all children
C
7. In humans a sex-linked disorder called coloboma iridia (a fissure in the iris) is a recessive trait. A normal
couple has an afflicted daughter. Is the male from this couple actually the father?
a) yes
b) no
B
7. The allele for albinism (c) is recessive to the allele for normal pigmentation (C) and it is not a sex-linked trait.
A normally pigmented woman whose father is an albino marries an albino man whose parents are normal. The
chance that a child from this couple will be albino is
a) 0 %
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 100%
C
9. Heterozygous individuals would also be all of the following except
a. recessive phenotypes
b. carriers of recessive genes
c. one dominant and one recessive
d. hybrids (outcome of two pure types)
A
10. Pure-breeding yellow guinea pigs crossed with pure-breeding white ones produce only cream-colored
offspring. This pattern indicates an incompletely dominant pattern of inheritance and the ratio of offspring
produced from two cream-colored individuals mating would be
a) 1 yellow, 2 cream, 1 white
b) 3 cream, 1 white
c) all cream
d) 3 yellow, 1 white
A
11. Pleiotropic genes
a) blend when mixed with non-pleiotropic genes
b) antagonize other genes
c ) affect more than one system
d) give a third phenotype
C
12. In edible peas, the purple trait for flower color is fully dominant to white. A self-fertilized white plant
would yield in the first generation ….
a) offspring that are all white
b) offspring that are all purple
c) offspring of which half would be white, half would be purple
d) offspring that are all a light shade of purple
A
13. You decide to replicate Mendel’s pea plant experiments involving inheritance of pea flower color in your
garden this summer. You take two purple flowered plants and cross-fertilize them and find that the offspring are
composed of 3 purple flowered plants and 1 white flowered plant. You then conclude that the purple flowered
parents must have been of which of the following genotypes?
a) Pp and Pp
b) pp and Pp
c) PP and PP
d) PP and pp
A
14. If you were to cross-fertilize two true breeding organisms of the same genotype, in their offspring you
should expect to see …
a) One phenotype
b) 2 phenotypes in a 3:1 ratio
c) 3 phenotypes
d) 2 genotypes
A
15. In a fruit fly population, the red eye trait is fully dominant to the white eye trait. True-breeding red eyed
male is mated with a true white-eyed female. What will be the genotype of the flies resulting from this mating?
a) flies with all red eyes
b) flies with half red eyes, half white eyes
c) flies with all red-eyed alleles
d) flies with one red-eyed allele and one white-eyed allele
D
16. Some types of Alzeheimer’s disease, which cause brain degeneration and death in older adults, are inherited
in humans as dominant traits. One reason why the genetic allele that causes this type of disease persists in the
population despite its devastating effects might be…
a) its time of onset is after reproduction
b) it can be masked by other alleles in heterozygous form
c) only genes that make one sterile can be eliminated by natural selection
d) carriers will not get the disease
A
17. Before DNA typing and before Maury Povitch, scientists and doctors had to rely on blood typing to aid in
determining paternity. If a woman of blood type A had a child of blood type O, which of the following men
would not be candidates as the child’s father…
a) man with blood type O
b) man with blood type A
c) man with blood type B
d) man with blood type AB
D
18. A man and a woman who are both carriers of the autosomal recessive gene that causes sickle cell anemia
have gone to a genetic counselor for advice on starting a family. He/she would inform them that their chances
of having a child with the sickle cell disease would be…
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 25 %
D
19. Hypercholesterolemia is a human disease that is passed as an incompletely dominant trait. Individuals
carrying two copies of the mutant gene have extremely high blood cholesterol (greater than 500mg/dl) whereas
individuals carrying two normal genes have cholesterol in the normal range.(less than 250mg/dl) We would
expect heterozygous individuals to have
a) normal genotypes
b) normal cholesterol levels
c) intermediate cholesterol levels
d) extremely high cholesterol levels
C
20. “Ultimately”, the reason sex exists is probably:
a. Because it feels good
b. Because organisms prefer not to pass on all of their genetic information
c. Because it allows for variance in the face of many changing conditions
d. Because males and females have similar mating strategies
C
21. Which of the following is not a difference between the two gamete types (egg and sperm) that has most
likely lead to sexual selection?
a. size
b. complexity (number that can be made in a given time period)
c. mobility
d. amount of DNA
D
22. According to sexual selection theory, male and female differences can be attributed to differences in
parental investment. Which of the following is not a typical indicator of increased parental investment of the
female?
a. Cost of courtship behavior and display
b. Cost of making large, complex gametes
c. Cost of nourishing embryos
d. Cost of caring for young
A
23. According to sexual selection theory (Bateman model in class) males and females have developed different
reproductive strategies and preferred reproductive rates (number of preferred partners) because:
a. Male fitness is limited, female fitness varies
b. Male and female fitness varies
c. Male fitness varies; female fitness is limited
d. Male and female fitness is limited
C
24. Peacocks (males) are known for their beautiful tails. Studies have shown that peahens (females) prefer
peacocks with more eyespots on their tail and that chicks from fathers with more eyespots show increased birth
weight. What does this tell us about the basis for sexual selection in peafowl?
a. Peacock eyespots are sexually attractive to females, and are used to ward off predators.
b. Peacock eyespots are an honest indicator of good genes.
c. Number of eyespots can be used to determine the current health of the male.
d. Sexual selection theory is not supported by these observations.
B
25. The handicap principle says that in order for a trait to be an honest indicator of male fitness it must:
a. in some way handicap the female choosing that trait
b. in some way handicap the male carrying that trait
c. in some way handicap the offspring of the male carrying the trait
d. in some way handicap the males not carrying the trait
B
26. According to class discussion the reason that the Y chromosome is shrinking is that:
a. the X chromosome is “stealing” genes from it over time
b. it cannot recombine and fix broken genes
c. it must be smaller to fit inside the sperm cell
d. it must be smaller to allow the sperm to travel faster
B
27. Meiosis works in all of the following ways except:
a. combining the most negative alleles for elimination
b. combining the most positive alleles for survival
c. reducing the genetic content in half for pairing at fertilization
d. eliminating variety so that mistakes are not made
D
28. According to the film (What females want, What males will do) shown in class, male phallus and female
oviducts in ducks:
a. exactly match for precise breeding
b. turn in opposite directions to prevent unwanted breeding
c. are the same size regardless of the breeding season
d. are not an example of inter-sexual conflict in sexual selection
B