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114 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The ____________ describes the relation between interatomic distances, electronic charge, solution dielectric, and free energies.

van der Waals interaction

Protein ____________ defines the relation among subunits in a multisubunit lattice.

quaternary structure

Protein _________ defines the amino acid sequence.

primary structure

Protein ___________ defines the packing of helices, sheets, turns, etc.

tertiary structure

Protein ___________ defines the motifs formed by short-range interactions between amino acids.

secondary structure

A ___________ interaction involves polar O, N, or both with hydrogen and constitutes one of the important stabilization elements.

hydrogen bond

__________ is used to determine the sequence of a protein based on sequential chemical reactivity.

Edman degradation

A _____________ induces denaturation of proteins by disturbing the hydrophobic effect.

chaotropic agent

Name the following protein structure:

R1 --- CH2 --- S --- S --- CH2 --- R2

disulfide bond

A _____________ is a graph of the conformational torsion angles for the residues in a protein or peptide. A map of the structure of the polypeptide backbone (alpha helices and beta sheets etc.)

Ramachandran plot

A _____________ has two charges which neutralize each other.

zwitterion

The _____________ is the primary "force" of protein structural stabilization.

hydrophobic effect

The _____________ is the characteristic speed of an enzyme's kinetics extrapolated to the time when a defined amount of substrate is added to the enzyme solution.

initial rate

An act of _____________ does not change an enzyme and lowers the transition state free energy of the associated reaction.

catalysis

The _____________ of an enzymatic catalysis reaction is the rate achieved when it is saturated with substrate.

maximum velocity

The _____________ (or double reciprocal) equation defines parameters that are used to characterize the kinetics of an enzyme.

Lineweaver-Burk

Km is the substrate concentration when Vo = Vmax / 2, or _____________.

Michaelis-Menten constant

A _____________ is the enzyme-substrate combination formed during an enzyme catalysis event.

Michaelis complex

The catalytic rate constant of an enzyme is abbreviated as:

k_cat

_____________ of enzyme catalysis occurs when an inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme.

Competitive inhibition

_____________ of enzyme catalysis occurs when the inhibitor only binds to the enzyme-substrate complex.

Uncompetitive inhibition

The _____________ postulates that a constant input feed of substrate is supplied whose rate equals that of product formation.

steady state approximation

Internal factors that limit the velocity of an enzymatic reaction:

- hydrophobic effect


- hydrogen bonding


- disulfide bonds


- van der Waals forces


- ionic bonds (salt bridges)


- dipole-dipole interactions

External factors that limit the velocity of an enzymatic reaction:

- pH


- solvent polarity


- temperature


- salt concentration(s) and types


- presence of chaotropes


- osmolytes

What amino acid and functional group in the esterase site of acetylcholine esterase reacts with the substrate?

Amino acid : Serine


Functional group : hydroxylate

Pyridine aldoximine methiodide (PAM) reactivates acetylcholine esterase, functioning as a _____________.

nerve gas antidote

What kind of reaction produces the reactivated enzyme?

nucleophilic substitution

The bisubstrate-enzyme _____________ reaction is used by transaminases in the exchange of an amino group for a carbonyl group between two progressively binding substrates.

ping-pong

An _____________ works by amplifying an initial signal via several linked protease cleavage reaction stages. (e.g., blood clotting)

enzyme cascade

A _____________ is a protein that is converted from inactive to active forms by a covalent modification, typically protease cleavage.

zymogen

A decrease in the activity of an enzyme as a result of binding of a product from the reaction in question or subsequent reactions is referred to as _____________.

feedback inhibition

_____________ involves binding of a regulatory molecule at a site other than the active site.

Allosterism

_____________ and _____________ reactions, involving phosphate addition and removal respectively, regulate both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.

Kinase ; phosphatase

_____________ regulates entry and exit from mitosis by catalyzing a covalent modification reaction.

Cyclin kinase

Which two amino acids are phosphorylated in cyclin kinase?

tyrosine and threonine

Examples of reversible factors that control the catalytic capability of an enzyme:

- noncovalent modifications


- pH and pKa changes


- salt concentration changes

Examples of irreversible factors that control the catalytic capability of an enzyme:

- covalent modification


- proteolysis


- irreversible inhibitors

The _____________ accounts for the temperature dependence of the rate of a reaction.

Arrhenius equation

List the two "chemical modes of catalysis"

- acid-base


- covalent

List the two "binding modes of catalysis"

- proximity effect


- transition-state stabilization

A _____________ attacks an electropositive site in its role in a chemical (enzymatic) reaction.

nucleophile

A common process used to produce a nucleophile is:

acid-base catalysis

The most common amino acids used by enzymes to carry out acid-base catalysis is _____________.

histidine

A catalytic triad of amino acids is typically present in (enzyme class name)

serine proteases

The amino acids collaborate to accomplish _____________.

acid-base catalysis

The most typically cited currency of energy in metabolism is:

ATP

______ is typically required to achieve optimal activity with ATP-cosubstrate enzyme reactions.

Mg2+

A coenzyme is either a loosely bound cosubstrate or a strongly bound _____________.

prosthetic group

The heavy metal molybdenum is used to facilitate the biochemical reaction in _____________, a key enzyme in purine catabolism.

xanthine oxidase

When ATP is used in some biochemical applications it yields AMP and _____________.

pyrophosphate

The (vitamin) _____________ is required to synthesize coenzyme NAD+ for use in metabolic redox reactions.

nicotinamide

The other key redox coenzyme is abbreviated _____.

FAD

The coenzyme _____________ often forms Schiff base with the E-amino group of a lysine residue in the enzyme.

pyridoxal phosphate

What chemical group does coenzyme A typically carry in the course of its biochemical function?

acetate

The _______-avidin noncovalent binding interaction is used to capture ligand-binding entities in the "affinity capture" technique.

biotin

The coenzyme _____________ is required to incorporate the methyl group into thymidine, a necessary prerequisite for the production of DNA.

N5, N10 methylenetetrahydrofolate

Our understanding of this function can be used in a strategy for _____________ (treatment technique).

anticancer chemotherapy

The coenzyme bound carbohydrates _____________ and glucose are required to synthesize lactose.

UDP-galactose

Cis-retinal functions in _____________ the signal of a photon of light into a chemically recognizable form.

transducing

The two important straight-chain forms of carbohydrate structure are the _________ and ________.

ketose ; aldose

The two important ring forms of carbohydates are the ________ and _________.

pyranose and furanose

The two important ring conformation of beta-D-glucopyranose are the _______ and _________.

chair and boat

The cyclohexane ring containing the compound _____________ is released by phospholipase C in the phospholipid signal transduction mechanism.

inositol triphosphate

The acronym NAG is used to abbreviate the name of the compound:

N-acetyl-glucosamine

The key polysaccharide in starch is:

amylopectin

The key polysaccharide in the liver is:

glycogen

The antibiotic _____________ selectively inhibits cell wall peptidylglycan synthesis in bacteria.

penicillin

Extra-cellular surface _____________ regulate the osmotic pressure around cells.

carbohydrates

Phospholipase C produces two different second messengers in the phospholipid signal transduction pathway. The lipid-containing second messenger is _____________.

diacylglycerol

The compound chondroitin sulfate _____________ cartilage and skeletal joints.

lubricates

_____________ fatty acids of the same length have a lower melting temperature (Tm).

Unsaturated

Lipid Tm values monitor the transformation form _____________ to dispersed forms.

liquid crystal

Lipid _____________ are composed of two face-to-face monolayers while lipid _____________ form a biphasic sphere.

bilayers ; micelles

The most popular model for a biological membrane is called the _____________ model.

fluid mosaic

The four nucleic acid bases in RNA:

adenosine, uracil, guanine, cytosine

The two normal base pairs in DNA and RNA are called _____________ base pairs.

Watson-Crick

The _____________ bond in a nucleoside connects the base to the sugar.

glycosidic

The _____________ can be used to determine if 2 single strands of DNA or RNA form a double helix.

absorbance at 260nm

The face-to-face interaction between nucleic acid bases is called _____________.

base stacking

Counterions bind all nucleic acids and are required to neutralize the ____________.

phosphodiester phosphates

Protein complexes called _____________ serve this counterion function in the case of most chromosomal DNAs.

histones

________ base pairs are less stable than _____ base pairs.

A & T


G & C

Differences between A and B forms of DNA:

A form: 3' endo sugar conformation, base pairs tilted 20 degrees from helix axis, shorter central axial cavity, "fatter helices"



B form: 2' endo sugar conformation. Base pairs' perpendicular to helix axis, base pairs cross center of helix.

The 2' hydoxyl group catalyzes _____________ of RNA, a good example of anchiomeric assistance in a non-protein biomolecular mechanism.

alkaline hydrolysis

An antisense oligonucleotide functionally inactivate a mRNA for use in translation by a ribosome by forming a double helix with it and precluding _____________ binding.

tRNA anticodon

Name the two most prevalent of the four classes of RNA.

ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA

Some distinctive features of most eukaryotic mRNAs are:

- m7G+ 5'-5' cap


- monocistronic


- contains introns and exons


- poly(A) tail

A _____________ is used to detect the presence of a specific complementary nucleic acid sequence.

DNA probe

_____________ are required to produce, manipulate and clone specific pieces of DNA.

Restriction endonucleases

The two functional ends of transfer RNA are the anticodon and _____________.

amino acid acceptor

The three most central catabolic pathways of intermediary metabolism are:

- glycolysis
- Krebs cycle
- electron transport chain / oxidative phosphorylation

The four major compounds in which energy is captured in a chemically usable form by metabolic reaction pathways are:

- ATP


- NADH


- FADH2


- Coenzyme QH2

The _____________ (Q) corrects or deviations from standard state concentrations (1M).

mass action ratio

_____________ (#) steps in glycolysis control most of the flux through the pathway under actual cellular conditions.

Three

What do those three reactions in glycolysis have in common?

They are metabolically irreversible

Most of the reactions in glycolysis are:

Near equilibrium

The kinetics of an enzyme reaction are most easily controlled when Km is approx. equal to ____________.

the actual concentration of the reactant

The enzyme triose phosphate isomerase converts _____________ into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

dihydroxyacetone phosphate

When citrate negatively regulates the phosphofructokinase-1 reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is _____________.

feedback inhibition

When fructose-1,6-bisphosphate stimulates the pyruvate kinase reaction, the general name for this phenomenon is _____________.

feed-forward activation

The three possible catabolic fates of pyruvate:

- acetyl CoA


- ethanol


- lactate

The enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase converts _____________ to ethanol

acetaldehyde

_____________ uses the coenzyme lipoic acid in fueling the Krebs Cycle.

Dihydrolipoamide acetyl transfease (DHP acetyl)

What symport reaction accompanies import of pyruvate into the mitochondrion and what enzyme catalyzes the reaction?

pyruvate translocase

The two oxidative decarboxylation reactions of the Krebs Cycle are catalyzed by _____________ and _____________.

isocitrate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

The enzymes _____________ and malate dehydrogenase "fix" a carbonyl group on succinate in the production of oxaloacetate.

fumarase

What crucial 2 carbon compounds is fixed to OAA?

acetate

What amino acid and what product of pyruvate metabolism are the principle substrates for gluconeogenesis in mammals?

alanine and lactate

What energy sources are used to produce the protonmotive force?

NADH, CoQH2, FADH2

What enzyme complex uses the protonmotive force as the driving energy for ATP synthesis in oxidative phosphorylation?

ATPase

How does electron transport drive production of the proton motive force?

exports H+ from mitochondrion, creating a gradient

How many reactions does each round of beta oxidation of a fatty acid require?

FOUR (oxidation, hydration, oxidation, thiolysis)

What are the products of one round of beta oxidation?

- 1 CoQH2
- 1 NADH
- H+
- 1 acetyl CoA
- 1 fatty acid (minus 2 Cs)

Which three steps of the Krebs Cycle do the first three steps of the fatty acid beta-oxidation cycle resemble?

- succinate dehydrogenase


- fumarase


- malate dehydrogenase