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196 Cards in this Set

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Which of the following meets the requirements of a "serious injury" as defined by the NTSB
An injury which caused severe tendon damage
What period of time must be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?
48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
Which of the following constitutes "substantial damage" according to NTSB Part 830?
Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?
Flight control system malfunction.
Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?
Immediately.
Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?
10 days.
When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.
What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-power aircraft?
Clearway
Which is a definition of the term "crewmember" ?
A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to?
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?
An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.
Which is the correct symbol for designed cruising speed?
Vc
Which is a definition of V2
Takeoff safety speed.
Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane
Vmo/Mmo
What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?
Vmu.
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
Vs.
Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?
Vso
The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is
Vef
The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
V1
The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at Vef, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol
V1
What is the lowest HAT for which a category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?
150 feet AGL
A category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to
Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH
When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is
not required to have a medical certificate.
An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is
not required to have a medical certificate.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is
not required to have a medical certificate.
When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
60 days
Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating?
When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds
An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs
at least a current third-class medical certificate.
When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is
required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.
To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least
six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting, and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.
A pilot, acting as second in command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?
6 months.
Whithing the past 6 moths, a pilot has accomplished:

Two approaches in a helicopter
Two approaches in an airplane
Two approaches in a glider

What additional instrument experience must the pilot obtain in prior to acting as second in command (under 14 CFR part 135) on an IFR flight?
Four approaches in an aircraft, approved training device, flight simulator (that is representative of the aircraft category), holding, intercepting and tracking courses using the navigation systems.
What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?
Withing the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?
Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?
ATP - B-727, and B-737
A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?
ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC9
In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
8 hours
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to
36 hour in any 7-consecutive-day period.
An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
provisional airport
A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
A person who is not authorization to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued
an Operating Certificate
Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
Operations Specifications.
The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
certificate holder's operations specifications
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
8 hours
At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated withing Class D airspace?
200 knots
What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots.
At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocated-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
200 knots.
At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within class B airspace without special ATC authorization?
250 knots.
What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?
250 knots.
When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even through a rule has not been violated?
When priority has been given.
During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?
Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.
A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?
1,500 feet AGL
A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?
1,500 feet AGL.
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
3 statue miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR-onTop clearance during daylight hours?
5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,00 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
Fig 128. What is the minimum inn-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in the circle 6 area?
1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
Fig 128 What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in VFR conditions during daylight hours for the circle 4 area?
1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
Fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 3 area?
3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 2 area?
5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
fig 128 A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (Above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation during daylight hours for the circle 1 area?
5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
Fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,2000 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in the circle 5 area?
1 mile;(I) clear of clouds;(J) clear of clouds;(L)clear of clouds.
Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instruments systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?
VOR within 30 days an daltimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months.
Which entry shall be recorder by the person performing a VOR operational check?
Date, place, bearing error, and signature.
What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?
4 degrees on the ground and in flight.
What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?
The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record.
During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356 degrees with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may.
be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits.
If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is
plus or minus 6 degree
A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
entering controlled airspace
When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?
1/2 SM
Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon
arrival at the DH on the glide slope
What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?
Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.
Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?
The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.
If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT," the pilot should
not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC
What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot
must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.
When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?
At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?
3/4 SM
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used of the RVR value?
5/8 SM
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
1/4 SM
Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
Compass locator.
If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?
The route filed in the flight plan.
What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?
Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA
A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?
Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.
After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
Upn arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC
While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What actions is required?
Notify ATC immediately.
While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot in command follow?
Advise ATC immediately
What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?
Notify ATC immediately
When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?
When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.
When is DME required for an instrument flight?
At or above 24,000 feel MSL is VOR navigational equipment is required.
A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which
may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.
In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?
Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,5000 feet AGL.
Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining
possible causes of accidents or incidents.
For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?
Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence.
How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
60 days.
How long is cockpit voice recorder and light recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
60 days
Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?
The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR
Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?
The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR
When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?
Only the required flight crew memebers may be on board the airplane.
Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?
No passenger may be carried.
A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?
Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR
Which publication includes information operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace?
FAR Part 91
How many an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the Minimum navigation capability required by FAR part 91, appendix C?
By requesting a deviation from the Administrator.
When a passanger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?
The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.
A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?
A minimum of 1 hour.
Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?
No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts.
When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?
They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft.
leg 34. If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?
FLAMMABLE LIQUID
Leg 34. What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetyl bromide in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft?
1 gallon.
What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?
Any amount is forbidden.
Leg 36. If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing allethrin?
None.
Leg 36. What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?
Any amount is forbidden.
Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of this document?
90 days.
Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not permitted aboard passenger-carrying aircraft. How must such material be labeled?
CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY
The aircraft operator discovers that the label on a container of hazardous material is missing. How should the appropriate replacement label be determined?
Shipping papers.
An operator makes a telephone report of an incident involving fire during the loading of hazardous materials. Within what period of time must a written report be submitted?
15 days.
Which procedure must be followed if an operator, when loading magnetized material, cannot avoid placing it in a position where it affects the accuracy of the magnetic compass?
Make a special compass swing and calibration.
Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials?
Oxidizing materials.
What is the maximum weight of hazardous material (other than nonflammable compressed gas) that may be carried in an accessible cargo compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft?
50 pounds, unless otherwise specifically permitted.
What is the maximum, if any, number of packages of ORM material that may be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft?
No limit applies.
If transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft, what is the maximum combined transportation indices of packages containing radioactive materials?
50
What precaution, if any, should be taken if dry ice is carried aboard an aircraft?
Proper ventilation of the aircraft should be assured.
Who should be notified if there is a suspected radioactive contamination involving a radioactive materials shipment and it is determined that radiological advice is needed?
U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration.
What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people?
4 feet
What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small, nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of the United States?
20 gallons.
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
Appropriate dispatch office.
For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?
Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958
What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
What restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under FAR Part 121?
Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown devices to withstand certain load stresses.
What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?
The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle int eh passenger compartment.
How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried
Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under FAR Part 121?
Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?
Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.
The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during
taxiing, takeoffm and landing.
If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?
For taxi, takeoff, and landing.
If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be
latched open during takeoff and landing.
Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must
be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.
When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?
Only during the en route flight.
In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is
required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it
has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers.
A crewmember interphone system is required on which aiplane
An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for systenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for
30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers
What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?
16,000 feet
How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?
A minimum of 2-hours' supply
What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?
FL 250
If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the dity station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot
shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.
If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?
FL 250
Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck dity myst be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidy placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes.
above FL 250
A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within
5 seconds
What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupnats who might requiere undiluted oxygen for physiological reason?
Two
A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necesseity of suing oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above
FL250
The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make ana emergency descent to a flight altitude of
14,000 feet within 4 minutes.
Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?
An appropriately equippped survival kit attached to each required life raft.
What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?
A life preserver equippped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each
aircraft occupant.
Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored
within easy reach of each seated occupant.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,
a total of 1 hours of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-th-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?
VOR
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions, What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
VOR
When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?
Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required.
When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies?
The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.
If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to
proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio sytem.
While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?
DME
For a flight over unihabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
all aircraft occupants.
For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
all aircraft occupants
When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an unnhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
One for each occupant of the aircraft.
An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?
Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?
Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.
An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?
An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
in day VFR conditions.
An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be
conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorm reported en route.
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.
Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines.
may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
A cockpit voice recorder must be operated
from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of light.
Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?
All turbine-powered airplanes.
The "age 60 rule" of FAR Part 121 applies to
any required pilot crewmember.
If a flight engineer becomes incapaciated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?
Any flight crewmember, if qualified.
An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,
at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.
When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for
at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?
If required by the airplane's type certificate.
When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?
more than 80,000 pounds.
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the
Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?
Certificate holder's Operations Specifications.
A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when
the airplanes' position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour
An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?
Three
When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
Four
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?
Four
What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?
Seven