Atb Questions 175-261

Front 1

175. Which statement is true concerning the product below?


A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z
B. A warm front will reach the Cleveland control area by late Sunday afternoon
C. Icing is forecast between the surface and 12,000 feet
D. Pilots and dispatchers are the primary users of this product

Back 1

175. A. The product is valid until the 3rd day of the month at 0200Z (LP, p. 47)

Front 2

176. What is the forecast wind and temperature at Alamosa, CO (ALS) at FL340?

A. Wind two three two at two six, temperature four five
B. Wind two three two at six , temperature minus four five
C. Wind two three zero at two six gusts four five
D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five

Back 2

176. D. Wind two three zero at two six, temperature minus four five (LP, pp. 51-53)

Front 3

177. AFSSs are identified by stating name of the facility followed by what?
A. Flight Service
B. Flight Watch
C. Radio
D. Broadcast

Back 3

177. C. Radio (LP 29, p. 24)

Front 4

178. What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard?
A. “AIR FORCE ONE”
B. “EXECUTIVE ONE PRESIDENT”
C. “PRESIDENT ONE”
D. “EXECUTIVE ONE”

Back 4

178. D. “EXECUTIVE ONE” (LP, p. 35)

Front 5

179. Jet route 35 would be spoken as ________.
A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”
B. “JET ROUTE THREE FIFE”
C. “Q - THIRTY-FIFE”
D. “J THREE FIFE”

Back 5

179. A. “J THIRTY-FIFE”
(LP, p. 41)

Front 6

180. Which of the following is the correct way to state an assigned altitude of 16,000 feet?
A. One six zero hundred
B. One six zero zero zero
C. One six thousand
D. One six zero thousand

Back 6

180. C. One six thousand (7110.65; LP 29, p. 10)

Front 7

181. An action to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspace and radio communication is transferred is a ________.
A. point out
B. handover
C. handoff
D. transfer

Back 7

181. C. handoff (LP, p. 50)

Front 8

182. What is the action whereby the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is transferred from one controller to another?
A. Transfer of control
B. Transfer of communications
C. Point out
D. Handoff

Back 8

182. A. Transfer of control
(LP, p. 54)

Front 9

183. How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time?
A. ”Zero six four two zulu”
B. ”Zero six four two local”
C. ”Zero six four two alpha mike”
D. ”Oh six four two zulu”

Back 9

183. A. ”Zero six four two zulu” (LP 29, p. 12)

Front 10

184. According to the ICAO alphabet pronunciation table, in radiotelephony “C-H-A-P” should be pronounced ________.
A. CHARLIE HONEY ALFA PETER
B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA
C. CHARLIE HECTOR ALFA PAPA
D. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PETER

Back 10

184. B. CHARLIE HOTEL ALFA PAPA (LP 29, p. 6)

Front 11

185. The terminology for stating an altimeter of 28.72 is ________.
A. “Altimeter two eight point seven two”
B. “Altimeter two eight decimal seven two”
C. “Altimeter two eight seven two”
D. “Altimeter twenty-eight seventy-two”

Back 11

185. C. “Altimeter two eight seven two” (LP, p. 14)

Front 12

186. The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as ________.
A. “Wind one seventy at twenty knots”
B. “Wind south at twenty knots”
C. “Wind one seven zero at zero two zero”
D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero”

Back 12

186. D. “Wind one seven zero at two zero” (LP, p. 16)

Front 13

187. When can a pilot interrupt their communications guard?
A. When requested
B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established
C. When requested and in VFR conditions
D. At any time

Back 13

187. B. When requested and an agreeable time off frequency is established (LP 29, p. 4)

Front 14

188. How often are interphones and assigned frequencies to be monitored?
A. According to the level of traffic in the area
B. At half-hour intervals
C. Continuously
D. Hourly

Back 14

188. C. Continuously
(LP 29, p. 3)

Front 15

189. During which step in the relief process does the relieving specialist check, verify, and update the position information obtained?
A. Preview the position
B. Verbal briefing
C. Assumption of position responsibility
D. Review the position

Back 15

189. D. Review the position
(LP, p. 64)

Front 16

190. When stating flight levels, an aircraft at 28,000 feet would be said to be at an altitude of __________.

Back 16

190. ANSWER: “Flight level two eight zero” (LP, p. 11)

Front 17

191. Runway 31C would be spoken as __________.

Back 17

191. ANSWER: “Runway tree one center” (LP, p. 17)

Front 18

192. The phraseology for contacting Columbia Automated Flight Service Station would be __________.

Back 18

192. ANSWER: “COLUMBIA RADIO” (LP, p. 24)

Front 19

193. The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is __________.

Back 19

193. ANSWER: emergencies (LP, p. 47)

Front 20

194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Preview position
2.) Verbal briefing
3.) Assumption of position responsibility
4.) Position review

Back 20

194. List, in order, the four steps in the position relief process.
1.) Preview position
2.) Verbal briefing
3.) Assumption of position responsibility
4.) Position review (LP, p. 61)

Front 21

195. Which item is always included in a clearance?
A. Aircraft identification
B. Departure procedure
C. Holding instructions
D. Altitude

Back 21

195. A. Aircraft identification (LP, p. 6)

Front 22

196. The purpose of an ATC clearance is to ________.
A. relieves controller stress.
B. provides classified instructions to pilots.
C. prevent collision between known aircraft.
D. provide for emergency situations.

Back 22

196. C. prevent collision between known aircraft. (LP, p. 3)

Front 23

197. The pilot-in-command of an aircraft shall comply with all provisions of an ATC clearance unless an amended clearance has been obtained, an emergency exists or _______.
A. conducting military operations
B. participating in a speed run
C. operating aircraft in IFR conditions
D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory

Back 23

197. D. responding to a TCAS resolution advisory (LP, p. 5)

Front 24

198. Select the correct sequence of the following clearance items:
1. Route of flight
2. Holding instructions
3. Aircraft identification
4. Clearance limit
5. Mach number, if applicable
6. Altitude data in order flown
7. Frequency and beacon code information
8. Departure procedure or DP/FMSP
9. Any special instructions

A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
B. 3,8,1,2,4,5,9,6,7
C. 3,9,8,7,4,1,6,2,5
D. 3,1,6,4,8,5,2,7,9

Back 24

198. A. 3,4,8,1,6,5,2,9,7
(LP, p. 6)

Front 25

199. Use prefixes when relaying ________, ________, or ________ through non-ATC facilities.
A. clearances, instructions, reports
B. information, instructions, requests
C. clearances, information, requests
D. instructions, reports, requests

Back 25

199. C. clearances, information, requests (LP 31, p.8)

Front 26

200. The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an ________ Clearance.
A. Approach
B. Through
C. Composite
D. Cruise

Back 26

200. B. Through (LP, p. 18)

Front 27

201. An authorization for a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the IFR clearance is a/an ________ Clearance.
A. Cruise
B. Landing
C. Approach
D. Composite

Back 27

201. A. Cruise (LP, p. 21)

Front 28

202. Considering the prescribed order of clearance items, which of the following clearances is correct?
A. “United seventy seven, descend and maintain one zero thousand, fly heading two four zero for spacing.”
B. “Lifeguard tree echo foxtrot, cleared to the Tulsa VORTAC, hold west, descend and maintain one zero thousand.”
C. “Continental twenty tree, cleared to the Little Rock airport, climb and maintain flight level two three zero via J twenty, squawk four four two seven.”
D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.”

Back 28

202. D. “November six seven x-ray, cleared direct Bartlesville V-O-R, climb and maintain one two thousand.” (LP, p. 6)

Front 29

203. Holding an aircraft is NOT used for ________.
A. en route traffic
B. position relief
C. flow control
D. spacing

Back 29

203. B. position relief
(LP 4, p. 41)

Front 30

204. The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is _______ feet.
A. 10,000
B. 5,000
C. 2,000
D. 1,000

Back 30

204. B. 5,000 (LP 4, p. 7)

Front 31

205. The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL410 is _______ feet.
A. 5,000
B. 2,000
C. 1,000
D. 4,000

Back 31

205. C. 1,000 (LP 4, p. 7)

Front 32

206. Minimum vertical separation below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is ______ feet.
A. 4,000
B. 2,000
C. 1,000
D. 500

Back 32

206. B. 2,000 (LP 4, p. 11)

Front 33

206. To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all
A. aircraft are cleared to make right turns.
B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
C. leg lengths are specified in minutes.
D. aircraft are using the same NAVAID to hold from.

Back 33

206. B. holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
(LP 4, p. 45)

Front 34

207. What type of separation is defined as the spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles?
A. Lateral
B. Longitudinal
C. Vertical
D. Visual

Back 34

207. B. Longitudinal
( LP 4, p. 15)

Front 35

208. Standard radar separation provided by an en route facility between two aircraft at FL270 is ______ miles.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 20

Back 35

208. B. 5 (LP 4, pp. 29, 30)

Front 36

209. Terminal radar separation minima require that when two aircraft are less than 40 miles from the antenna, ________ separation is required; when two aircraft are 40 miles or more from the antenna, ________ separation is required.
A. 3 miles; 5 miles
B. 3 miles; 6 miles
C. 5 miles; 3 miles
D. 5 miles; 10 miles

Back 36

209. A. 3 miles; 5 miles
(LP 4, p. 28)

Front 37

210. Controllers may use visual separation ________.
A. up to, but not including, FL180
B. at FL180 and below
C. up to and including 18,000 feet MSL
D. up to but not including 18,000 feet AGL

Back 37

210. A. up to, but not including, FL180 (LP 4, p. 35)

Front 38

211. Runway separation is applied by ________ controllers.
A. Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)
B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
C. Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)
D. Automated Flight Service Station (AFSS)

Back 38

211. B. Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT) (LP 4, p. 37)

Front 39

212. Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
A. Primary radar
B. Airport radar
C. Secondary radar
D. Global position radar

Back 39

212. C. Secondary radar
(LP, p. 22)

Front 40

213. What is a radio detection device which provides information on the range, azimuth, and/or elevation of objects?
A. Transponder
B. Radar
C. Nondirectional beacon
D. VORTAC

Back 40

213. B. Radar (LP, p. 3)

Front 41

214. The primary radar display depicts the ________ and ________ of objects that reflect radio energy.
A. position; altitude
B. position; movement
C. altitude; speed
D. movement; speed

Back 41

214. B. position; movement
(LP 6, p. 8)

Front 42

215. What are two types of radar jamming?
A. Position and passive
B. Action and active
C. Precise and passive
D. Passive and active

Back 42

215. D. Passive and active
(LP, p. 19)

Front 43

216. Which is not a component of a primary radar system?
A. Transmitter
B. Interrogator
C. Antenna
D. Receiver

Back 43

216. B. Interrogator (LP 6, p. 6)

Front 44

217. Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
A. Circular Polarization
B. Linear Polarization
C. Passive radar
D. Inversion

Back 44

217. A. Circular Polarization (LP, p. 13)

Front 45

218. What causes Anomalous Propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal
B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

Back 45

218. B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
(LP, p. 16)

Front 46

219. What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
A. Particles in the air slowing the radar signal
B. Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
D. Cool air over warm air reflecting the radar signal

Back 46

219. C. Warm air over cool air deflecting the radar signal
(LP, p. 17)

Front 47

220. Secondary radar interference caused by a transponder replying excessively is called _______.
A. Ring around
B. Anomalous Propagation
C. Range interference
D. Inversion

Back 47

220. A. Ring around (LP, p. 29)

Front 48

221. Which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system?
A. It displays weather echoes.
B. It only displays aircraft with transponders.
C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter.
D. Signal strength is affected by aircraft orientation.

Back 48

221. C. Radar responses are not degraded by weather or ground clutter. (LP, p. 30)

Front 49

222 Broadcasts interrogator transmission

223 Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display

224 Ground-based transmitter

225 Airborne receiver/transmitter

226 Depicts an electronic presentation of radar-derived information.

A. Transponder
B. Radar display
C. Decoder
D. Interrogator
E. Antenna

Back 49

222. E. Antenna
(LP, p. 24)
223. C. Decoder
(LP, p. 27)
224 D. Interrogator
(LP, p. 24)
225. A. Transponder
(LP, p. 26)
226. B. Radar display
(LP, p. 27)

Front 50

227. The purpose of an LOA is to supplement established operational procedures for ________ use.
A. regional
B. intrafacility
C. interfacility
D. military

Back 50

227. C. interfacility (LP, p. 2)

Front 51

228. Which of the following is NOT an example of typical SOP content?
A. External Coordination
B. Position relief briefing
C. Equipment usage
D. Local stripmarking procedures

Back 51

228. A. External Coordination (LP 8, p. 10)

Front 52

229-236. In the following list, identify the content/procedures that would require the implementation of an LOA/SOP. Write A for LOA or B for SOP in the blanks provided.

229 Define coordination procedures between two air traffic facilities

230 Define coordination procedures between internal operational positions

231 Define coordination procedures between AFSS Inflight and ARTCC Radar Associate positions

232 Define responsibilities between an air traffic control facility and the Airport Manager

233 Describe operating position/sector

234 Define coordination procedures between two control towers within the same approach control airspace

235 Establish local stripmarking procedures

236 Delegate the responsibility for ATC services to the tower, approach control, and the ARTCC

Back 52

229. A (LP, p. 2)
230 B (LP, p. 11)
231. A (LP, p. 3)
232. A (LP, p. 2)
233. B (LP, p. 11)
234. A (LP, p. 3)
235. B (LP, p. 10)
236. A (LP, p. 5)

Front 53

MATCHING

237. Aircraft
238. Airport
239. Air Traffic Control
240. Air Traffic Clearance
241. Flight Plan

A. A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe,
orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic.
B. A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air.
C. An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.
D. Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally, in writing, or by
E. An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.

Back 53

237. B (LP, p. 5)
238. C (LP, p. 6)
239. A (LP, p. 6)
240. E (LP, p. 4)
241. D (LP, p. 7)

Front 54

MATCHING

242. Flight Level
243. Positive Control
244. Approved Separation
245. Reporting Point


A. Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic
control.
B. A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury.
C. A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.
D. Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65.
E. Weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum for flight under visual flight rules.

Back 54

242. B (LP, p. 7)
243. A (LP, p. 7)
244. D (LP, p. 8)
245. C (LP, p. 7)

Front 55

246. A pilot in command may deviate from FAR 91 if ________.
A. the aircraft is within Class G airspace
B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action
C. the aircraft is in visual conditions
D. an ATC clearance is requested

Back 55

246. B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action
(LP, p. 27)

Front 56

247. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way
B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way
C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right
D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

Back 56

247. A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way (LP 10, p. 16)

Front 57

248. Pilots of two aircraft may operate as a formation flight when ________.
A. authorization is obtained from ATC
B. flight visibility is at least 3 miles
C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard
D. flight is conducted at or above 1,500 feet MSL

Back 57

248. C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard (LP, p. 14)

Front 58

249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical examinations every __________ if in the terminal/center environment.

A. 3 years
B. year
C. 2 years
D. 6 months

Back 58

249. B. year (LP 10, p. 41)

Front 59

250. The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is ________ knots.
A. 250
B. 200
C. 180
D. 150

Back 59

250. A. 250 (FAR, 91.117; LP, p. 19)

Front 60

251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than ________ knots.
A. 150
B. 180
C. 200
D. 250

Back 60

251. C. 200 (LP, p. 21)

Front 61

252. A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to ________.
A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft
B. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 200 NM of the aircraft
C. 29.29 in/hg
D. 29.92 in/hg

Back 61

252. A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft (LP, p. 25)

Front 62

253. When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G Airspace that has an operating control tower, unless otherwise authorized, the pilot must have ________.
A. a transponder with Mode C
B. a transponder only
C. radar contact and two-way communications
D. two-way radio communications with the tower

Back 62

253. D. two-way radio communications with the tower (LP, p. 28)

Front 63

254. The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is: ________.
A. 18
B. 21
C. 30
D. No age requirement

Back 63

254. A. 18 (LP, p. 38)

Front 64

255. Bernoulli’s Principle states: “The internal pressure of a fluid ________ at points where the speed of the fluid ________.”
A. increases; increases
B. decreases; increases
C. increases; decreases
D. decreases; decreases

Back 64

255. B. decreases; increases (LP, p. 3)

Front 65

256. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the _______ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the _________.
A. pitch; tilt
B. speed; pitch
C. tilt; pitch
D. angle; speed

Back 65

256. C. tilt; pitch (LP 12, pp. 40 and 42)

Front 66

257. Which of the following does NOT affect aircraft performance?
A. Temperature
B. Moisture
C. Pressure
D. Relative wind

Back 66

257. D. Relative wind (LP 12, p. 15)

Front 67

258. A secondary form of lift is a(n) __________ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected __________.
A. upward force; downward
B. downward force, upward
C. pressure differential; over the wing
D. upward force; over the wing

Back 67

258. A. upward force; downward
(LP 12, p. 5)

Front 68

259. An imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is called the _______.
A. chord line
B. camber
C. relative wind
D. angle of attack

Back 68

259. A. chord line (LP, p. 8)

Front 69

260. When ________ and ________ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses airspeed.
A. thrust; drag
B. lift; thrust
C. lift; weight
D. weight; drag

Back 69

260. A. thrust; drag (LP 12, p. 14)

Front 70

261. What force in flight counteracts lift?
A. Pressure
B. Thrust
C. Weight
D. Relative wind

Back 70

261. C. Weight (LP, p. 13)