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441 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Carbohydrate
organic compound containing C, H, and O. represented by the formula CnH2nOn.
Monosaccharide
simplest sugar. ex) glucose and fructore (both are C6H12O6). Glucose comes in alpha and beta, which differ by reversal of H and OH in the first carbon. fructose is a common sugar found in fruits
Disaccharide
when two monosaccharides are brough together by dehydration synthesis. ex) maltose
Glycosidic Bond
bond that joins two sugars via an oxygen atom. Two types: alpha and beta. Beta is above the plane of the ring and alpha is below.
Dehydration Synthesis
aka condensation. Reaction in which two monosaccharides are brought together releasing a water molecule (from the H of one + the OH of another one).
Hydrolysis
Reaction that breaks up a disaccharide into two monosaccharides. Adds a water molecule to do so (thus the prefix "hydro-")
Starch
polysaccharide in plants, made up of alpha glucose. Stored in plastids.
Cellulose
major part of plant cell walls, made up of beta-glucose.
Glycogen
storage form of glucose in animals and humans which is analogous to the starch in plants. Glycogen is synthesized and stored mainly in the liver and the muscles.
Polymer
molecule with repeating subunits of the same general type.
Alkyl Group
--CnH(2n+1)
Carboxyl Group
--COOH
Aldehyde
--CHO
Keto
aka Carbonyl. --CO
Sulfhydryl
(thiol). --SH
Phenyl
--C6H5
Peptide Bond
bond between two amino acids. formed when the carboxyl group of one reacts with the amino group of another.
Four types of lipids?
Fats, oils, phosopholipids, and steroids
What does the typical fat consist of?
three fatty acids + one molecule of glycerol
Ester bond
linkage between glycerol and fatty acids (in fat)
Saturated fat
one in which each fatty acid has a single covalent bond between each pair of carbon atoms
Unsaturated fat
One in which adjacent carbons (on some fatty acids)are joined by double bonds
Polyunsaturated
fatty acid with many double bonds within
Phospholipids structure?
Contain two fatty acid "tails" (hydrophobic)and one negatively charged phosphate "head" (hydrophilic).
Amphipathic
molecule with both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic reion (such as a phospholipid)
Structure of steroids? Examples of steroids?
four linked carbon rings. includes cholesterol, Vitamin D, and a variety of hormones.
Miller and Urey
simulated the conditions of primitive earth in a laboratory
Oparin and Haldane
proposed that the primitive atmosphere contained the following gases: methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water
Heterotroph hypothesis
belief that the earliest life forms were most likely heterotrophs
Rough ER
the part of the ER that is studded with ribosomes. Proteins are made here and "earmarked" for export out of the cell
smooth ER
portion of the ER without ribosomes. Makes lipids, hormones, and steroids. Also breaks down toxic chemicals.
Golgi Bodies
modify, process, and sort the products from the ribosomes on the rough ER (proteins)
Centrioles
small, paired cylindrical structures found within microtubule organizing centers. Active during cell division; produce microtubules to pull the chromosomes apart. Present only in animal cells!!
peroxisomes
organelles that detox various substances, producing hydrogen peroxide as a byproduct. Also contain enzymes that break down H2O2 into oxygen adn water. In animals, they are common in the liver and kidney cells
What are the most important fibers of the cytoskeleton?
Microtubules and microfilaments
Microtubules
made up of protein tubulin, participate in cell divison and movement. Integral part of centrioles, cilia, and flagella
Which organism is known for its flagellum?
Euglena
Which organism is known for its cilia?
Paramecium
Microfilaments
important for movement; thin rodlike structures compoased of the protein actin. Involved in cell motility and muscle contraction.
Osmosis
a specialized type of diffusion taht involves the movement of a liquid (suc as water)
Sodium Potassium Pump
example of active transport. Ushers out sodium and brings in potassium across the cell membrane. Depends on ATP. In vertebrates, they're found in neurons and skeletal muscle fibers.
Facilitated Diffusion
that which relies on channel proteins embedded in the plasma membrane to transport lipid-insoluble substances to get in and out.
3 types of endocytosis?
Pinocytosis, phagocytosis, and receptor-mediated endocytosis
Pinocytosis
when the cell ingests liquids ("cell-drinking")
Phagocytosis
when the cell takes in solids ("cell-eating")
Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis
involves cell surface receptors covered in clathrin-coated pits (protein); when a particle binds to one of these receptors, it is brought into the cell by invagination of the cell membrane.
Bulk Flow
one-way movement of fluids brought about pressure; ex) mov't of blood through a blood vessel or of frluids in xylem and phloem in plants
Dialysis
diffusion of solutes across a selectively permeable membrane; ex) cellophane bag used to separate small from large molecules
3 types of intercellular junctions in animal cells?
Desmosomes, gap junctions, and tight junctions
Desmosomes
hold adjacent animal cells tightly to each other; consist of pair of discs (from plasma membrane of each adjacent cell) + intercellular protein filaments
Gap Junctions
protein complexes that form channels in membrans and allow communication between the cytoplasm of adjacent animal cells or transfer of sm. molecules and ions
Tight Junctions
tight connections between membranes of adjacent cells; seal off body cavities and prevent leaks
Endergonic Reactions
products have more energy than reactants; products gain energy in the form of heat; ex) when plants use CO2 and Water to form sugar
Exergonic Reactions
those in which products have less energy than the reactants. Ex) cellular respiration
Enzyme-substrate complex
when an enzyme binds substrates that are to be brought together in a reaction to its active site
Cofactors
inorganic elements that help catalyze reactions; usually metal ions such as Fe2+
Coenzymes
for example vitamins (organic); function is to accept electrons and pass them along to another substrate; ex) NAD+ and NADP+
allosteric site
region of the enzyme other than the active site to which a substance can bind
Allosteric regulators
substances that can either inhibit or activate enzymes
Feedback inhibition
formation of an end product inhibits an earlier reaction in the sequence; allosteric enzymes are subject to it
Competitive Inhibition
when a substance has a shape that fits the active site of an enzyme, it can compete with the substrate and effectively inactive the enzyme
Noncompetitive Inhibition
inhibitor binds with the enzyme at a site other than the active site and inactivates the enzyme by altering its shape; this prevents the enzyme from binding w/ substrate at active site
First Law of Thermodynamics
energy cannot be created or destroyed
Second Law of Thermodynamics
states that energy transfer leads to less organization (universe tends toward disorder, entropy)
CR reaction?
6CO2 + 6H20 + Sunlight --> glucose + 6O2
Four stages of CR?
Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs Cycle, and Oxidative Phosphorylation
Glycolysis
splitting of glucose into 2 3-C molecules of pyruvic acid; net production of 2 moelcules of ATP; 2 NADH produced; occurs in the cytoplasm
4 regions of mitochondria
matrix, inner membrane, intermembrane space, outer membrane
formation of acetyl CoA
each pyruvic acid (3-C) is converted to an Acetyl Coenzyme A (2-C) and CO2 is released; 2 NADH and 0 ATP produced; occurs in cytoplasm
Krebs Cycle/Citric Acid Cycle
each of the 2 acetyl CoA moelcules enters one at a time and all carbons will ultimately be converted to CO2; occurs in the mitochondrial matrix (innermost area)
Oxaloacetate
4-C molecule; what each acetyl CoA combines with during the krebs cycle to form citric acid/citrate (a 6-C moelcule)
with each turn of the krebs cycle what molecules/how many of each are produced?
1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2CO2; (total 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2)
Oxidative Phosphorylation
when electrons stored by electron carriers such as NAD+ and FAD are transferred to oxygen, resulting in ATP synthesis
How many "loaded" electron carriers are there in oxidative phosphorylation?
12 (10 NADH, 2 FADH2)
Chemiosmosis
when some of the energy released from the e- transport chain is used to pump h+ ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the intermembrane space; occurs through channels called ATP Synthase
Every NADH yields how many ATP?
3; except NADH from glycolysis produces 2 ATP
Every FADH2 yields how many ATP?
2
How many total ATP are produced during oxidative phosphorylation? Where does it occur?
32 ATP; inner mitochondrial membrane
Net of aerobic respiration?
36 ATP!
under anaerobic conditions what is pyruvic acid converted to?
either lactic acid or ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and CO2
Lactic Acid fermentation process?
glucose-->glycolysis-->2 pyruvic acid and NADH-->fermentation-->2 lactic acid + 2NAD+
Ethanol fermentation process?
glucose-->glycolysis-->2 pyruvic acid and NADH-->fermentation-->2 ethanol + CO2 + 2NAD+
What types of organisms undergo fermentation?
yeast cells and some bacteria make ethanol and CO2; other bacteria produce lactic acid
Photosynthesis equation?
6CO2 + 6H2O --> glucose + 6O2
cuticle
waxy covering produced by upper epidermis to protect leaf from water loss through evaporation
palisade parenchyme
just below upper epidermic; cells that contain lots of chloroplasts for photosynthesis
stroma
fluid filled region inside an individual chloroplast
Grana
the "stacks of coins" made up of thylakoids; contain chloropyll and enzymes for photosynthesis
Spongy parenchyma
irregular shaped cells just below palisade parenchyme; allow for diffusion of gases, esp. CO2, within the leaf
Vascular bundles
found in spongy parenchyma; include xylem and phloem for transport
Lower epidermis
containes stomates (allow for gas exchange and transpiration) and guard cells (control opening and closing of stomates)
primary electron acceptor
located in the reaction center; only molecule that is capable of transforming light energy to chemical energy
antenna pigments
pigments other than primary electron acceptor that "gather" light and "bounce" the energy back to the reaction center
PSI
the reaction center that contains chlorophyll a P680 (max. absorption at wavelength 680 nm)
PSII
the reaction center that contains chlorophyll a P700 (max. absorption at wavelength 700 nm)
photophosphorylation
when light energy is used to make ATP
noncyclic photophosphorylation
produces ATP using both PSI and II; P680 captures light and passes excited down e- transport chain to product ATP; P700 captures light and does the same thing to produce NADPH; a molecule of water is split by sunlight (releasing e-, hydrogen and fre O2)
cyclic photophosphorylation
P700 in PsI captures light and passes excited e- down transport chain to produce ATP; NADPH not produced and water not split by sunlight
photolysis
when P680 reaction center absorbs light, it also splits water into oxygen, hydrogen ions, and electrons; the electrons from it replace missing electrons in PSII
Where do cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation occur?
in the grana of chloroplsts
are cyclic and noncylcic photophosphorylation light independent or dependent?
dependent!
dark reaction
uses products of light reaction (ATP and NADPH) to make sugar; uses CO2 (thus termed carbon fication--meaning just that CO2 from the air is converted into carbs); occurs in the stroma of the leaf
calvin cycle
the dark reaction (light independent); CO2 enters the cycle and combines with a 5-C molecule, RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate) to make an unstable 6-C compound; the enzyme rubisco catalyzes this rxn;
Steps in Calvin Cycle?
starts w/ 6 RuBP and 6 CO2; then 12 ATP and 12 NADPH are used to convert 12 PGA to 12 PGAL (energy rich molecule); then ADP and NADP+ are released and then recycled into the thylakoid for later reuse; 2 PGAL used to make glucose and 10 are rearranged into 6 RuBP's ready for the next round of the cycle; since G3P (PGAL) is a 3-C molecule that is the 1st stable one produced, this method of producing glucose is called the C3 pathway
Steps in C4 pathway?
CO2 combines with PEP in mesophyll cells to form oxaloacetate (4-C molecule); oxaloacetate is converted to pyruvate and CO2, then CO2 is released for uptake into regular calvin cycle to make glucose
What types of plants use the C4 pathway?
plants found in hot, dry climates
Where does the calvin cycle occur?
in the stroma of chloroplasts
what does CAM stand for?
crassulacean acid metabolism
Process of CAM photosynthesis?
PEP carboxylase is used to fix CO2 to oxaloacetate; oxaloacetate is converted to malic acid instead of malate and sent to the cell's vacuole; during the day malic acid is converted back to oxaloacetate and CO2 is released for photosynthesis; CO2 then enters the calvin cycle
Why do some plants utilize CAM?
keep stomates closed during the day to reduce excessive water loss from transpiration
photorespiration
pathway that leads to the fixation of oxygen; RUBP carboxylase reduces CO2 concnetration to the point that it starts incorporating O2 instead; makes CO2 fixing less efficient
PGA
3-phosphoglycerate
PGAL
3-phosphoglyceraldehyde; aka G3P
Euchromatin
when genetic material is in a loose form in the nucleus; genes are active, or available for transcription
Heterochromatin
when genetic material is fully condensed into coils; genes are generally inactive
What are the building blocks of DNA?
nucleotides
What are the building blocks of nucleotides?
All have a 5-C sugar, a phosphate and a nitrogenous base (either A, G, C, or T)
What are the 2 purines?
A and G (double-ringed nitrogenous base)
what are the 2 pyrimidines?
T and C (single ringed nitrogenous base)
Phosphodiester bonds?
link together nucleotides
What is on the 5' and 3' ends of DNA?
5': phosphate group; 3' : OH group
What link DNA strands?
H-bonds; A-T and T-A have 2 H bonds; G-C and C-G have 3 H Bonds
where do transcription and translation occur?
transcription-->nucleus; translation-->cytoplasm
rRNA
ribosomal RNA; produced in the nucleolus; makes up part of the ribosomes
tRNA
shuttles amino acids to the ribosomes; reads the message carried out by the mRNA
sense strand
strand that serves as the template strand in transcription (DNA strand!)
Antisense strand
strand of DNA that lies dormant during transcription
4 levels of protein structure?
Primary (linear sequence of AA's); secondary (coils--alpha helix, or zigzagg--beta pleated sheets); tertiary (3-D folding pattern); quartenary (when 2 or more polypeptides get together)
Missense Mutation
when a codon is altered and produces a different amino acid
Inversion
mutation in which chromosomal regions change orientation; may be harmful
Translocation
when a portion of 2 different chromosomes (or a single chromosome in 2 different palces) breaks and rejoins in a way that the DNA sequence or gene is lost, repeated or interrupted
hnRNA
unprocessed RNA molecules that are precursors
Helicase
enzyme that unzips DNA
DNA polymerase
adds nucleotides to existing strand of DNA
RNA primase
catalyzes the synthesis of RNA primers
Topoisomerase
cuts and rejoins the DNA in replication
Semiconservative
the way that DNA replicates; it conserves half of the original molecule in each of the 2 new ones
spliceosome
RNA-protein complex that removes introns during RNA processing (between transcription and translation)
poly A tail
during RNA processing, the long tail of A's that is added to the 3' end
A site/P site
the binding sites of ribosomes; P site occupied by an initiator tRNA (methionine); A site occupied by the appropriate tRNA that corresponds to the next codon
Methionine
initiator codon for protein synthesis; AUG
chaperon proteins
aka chaperonins; help protein fold process and make the process more efficient
RFLPs
aka restriction fragment length polymorphisms; slight differences in DNA sequences seen when comparing restriction fragments between individuals of the same species; used in DNA fingerprinting
Posttranslational modification usually includes what?
change in protein structure
Parts of the Cell cycle?
G1, S, G2, Mitosis
S phase
when the cell replicates its genetic material
G1 and G2 stages
growth stages of cell cycle in which the cell produces all enzymes required for replication
Prophase
nucleolus disapprears; chromosomes thicken and become visible; centrioles move toward opposite ends of cell
Metaphase
chromosomes line up alone the metaphase plate
Anaphase
sister chromatids of each chromsoome separate at the centromere and migrate to opposite poles; chromatids are pulled apart by the microtubules
Telophase
nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes and nucleoli reappar; cytokinesis occurs along a cleavage furrow (produced by actin microfilaments)
Cell plate
forms down the middle region during plant cytokinesis (they don't have a cleavage furrow!)
prophase I
nuclear membrane disappears, chromosomes become visible and centrioles move to opposite poles; major difference: synapsis (chromosomes line up side by side with their homologues to frm a tetrad, or bivalent); a tetrad consists of 4 chromatids; then crossing over occurs
What is unique in prophase I?
"pieces of chromosomes" are excahnged between the mologous partners
Chismata
regions that hold together homologous chromosomes
Metaphase I
tetrads line up at metaphase plate
Anaphase I
each pair of chromsomes within a tetrad separates and moves to opposite pole (separate with centromeres intact)
Telophase I
nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomesa nd then cytokinesis occurs; nucleus contained haploid number of chromosomes but each chromsoome is a duplicated one
Meiosis II--purpose?
to separate the duplicated chromosomes; is virtually identical to mitosis
Oogenesis
production of an ovum/egg cell; produces one ovum and 3 polar bodies (cells that receive only a tiny amt of cytoplasm and eventually degenerate)
Down's syndrome
condtiion in which patients have 3 copies (instead of 2) of the 21st chromosome
transposons
DNA segments that have the ability to move around the genome
locus
position of a gene on a chromosome
law of segregation
Alternative versions of genes account for variations in inherited characteristics (alleles); For each characteristic, an organism inherits two alleles, one from each parent; The two alleles for each characteristic segregate during gamete production
law of independent assortment
states that the inheritance pattern of one trait will not affect the inheritance pattern of another; occurs during meiosis I
epistasis
when genes at one locus influence the expression of genes at another locus
pleiotropy
when an allele affects a number of characteristics of an organism (ex. sickle cell anemia)
Barr body
a condensed X chromosome that is visible; dark color (in every female cell one X chromosome is activated and the other is deactivated during embryonic development)
3 domains?
Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya
6 kingdoms?
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, Animalia
What are 3 characteristics of archaebacteria?
Cell wall lacks peptidoglycan, plasma membranes contain unusual fatty acids, ribosomes look more like those of eukaryotes
Gram stain
enabled by peptidoglycan in cell walls of some bacteria; thick peptidoglycan walled bacteria test Gram-positive; thin peptidoglycan layers test negative
Examples of gram + and gram - bacteria?
+:chlamydias and spirochetes; -: streptococci and staphylococci
3 ways bacteria exchange genetic info?
1) transformation (when bacteria picks up naked DNA from the env't)
2) conjugation (when 2 bacteria connect by way of pili and transfer gen. info)
3) transduction (intervention of a virus)
7 phyla of plant-like protists?
Euglenophyta, Dinoflagellata, Chrysophyta, Chlorophyta, Phaeophyta, Rhodophyta, Bacillariophyta
Euglenophyta
euglenids; have flagella + eyespot (for phototaxis); live in freshwater
Dinoflagellata
live in marine and fresh water; have photosynthetic pigments, 2 flagella and cell walls w/ cellulose
Chrysophyta
golden algae; mostly unicellular but some multicellular; have tiny scales of either silica or calcium carbonate
chlorophyta
green algae; unicellular; most have flagella at some stage of life and store food as starch
Phaeophyta
brown algae; mostly multicellular, photosynthetic and posses chlrophyll a, c, and carotenoids; have biflagellated reproductive cells (both asexual zoospores and sexual gametes)
Rhodophyta
red algae; mostly multicellular marine seaweeds; have chlorophyll a and b + red photosynthetic pigments (phycobilins)
bacillariophyta
diatoms; usu. nonmotile, unicellular organisms with cell walls of silica
5 types of animal like protists?
zoomastigina, rhizopoda, ciliophora, sporozoa, foraminifera
Zoomastigina
unicellular, use flagellum; some live in gut of termites (Trichonympha) r are parasitic and cause disease such as African sleeping sickness (Trypanosoma)
Rhizopoda
type of amoeba, performs phagocytosis using pseudopods
Ciliophora
unicellular, use cilia; ex) paramecium (has 2 nuclei, oral groove, and contractile vacuoles)
Sporozoa
nonmotile, parasitic spore-formers; have no flagella; amoeboid body form; include Plasmodium (causes malaria)
Formaninifera
unicellular; produce calcareous test (shells) w/ pores through which cytoplasmic projections extend
What is the only type of funguslike protist?
Myxomycota
Myxomycota
slime molds w/ large multinucleated masses; stalks that grow upward and form spores or gametes; found in moist soil, decaying leaves or logs in a damp forest
Characterists of fungi?
no chlorophyll, heterotrophs, use hyphae for feeding (threadlike branches); reproduce either by formign spores or by budding
6 phyla of plants?
Bryophytes, Pterophytes, Spenophytes, Lycophytes, Coniferophyta, Anthophyta
Bryophytes
primitive; lack true stems roots and leaves; use rhizoids to anchor; have flagellated sperms (within the antheridium) that swim to reach the egg in the archegonium; ex) mosses, liverworts, hornworts
Pterophyta
"seedless plants"; earliest vascular to colonize land; life cycle involves alt. or gen. (dominant stage = sporophyte); ex) ferns
Spenophyta
vascular plants w/ hollow, ribbed stems and reduced, scalelike leaves; ex) horsetails (found in wet, marshy habitats)
Lycophyta
club mosses; sm. plants w/ rhizomes and short, erect branches
Coniferophyta
woody plants that bear seeds in cones (not enclosed); have tracheids and well-developed phloem; fertilization doesn't req. water source
Anthophyta
"flowering plants"; have seeds enclosed within a fruit or nut; have highly specialized tissue for transport; aka angiosperms; can be monocots or dicots
Monocots
angiosperms w/ a single cotyledon; have flower parts in multiples of 3, vascular tissues in scattered bundles, fibrous root system, and leaves w/ parallel veins
Dicots
2 cotyledons; have flower parts in 4's or 5's; vascular tissue in distinct circular bundles; taproot system and leaves w/ netted veins
Dorsal, Ventral, Anterior, Posterior
Dorsal = top; ventral =bottom; anterior = head end; posterior = tail end
Cephalization
development of the brain
Diploblastic
2 germ layers; found in cnidarians; have endoderm and ectoderm
Triploblastic
ex) tapeworms; have 3 germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm)
Acoelmates
animals w/o a body cavity; ex) flatworm
Coelomates
animals w/ body cavity derived from the mesoderm
pseudocoelomates
ex) nematodes; body cavity derived from the blastocoel rather than the mesoderm
protostome development
spiral and determinate cleavage, blastopore forms the archenteron (later becomes the mouth)
Deuterostome development
radial and indeterminate cleavage; blastopore becomes anus
10 phyla of animals?
porifera, cnidaria, platyhelminthes, nematoda, rotifera, mollusca, annelida, arthropoda, echinodermata, chordata
Porifera
sponges; sessile, 2 cell layers; radial symmetry + acoelomates
Cnidaria
2 cell layered body; digestive cavity surrounded by tentacles that sting; acoelomates; ex) jellyfish, hydras, sea anemones
Platyhelminthes
flatworms; first to have 3 cell layers and bilateral symmetry; acoelomates; can be parasitic
Nematoda
roundworms; soil dwellers; have pseudocoelomate bodies and complete digestive tract; some parasitic
Rotifera
tiny filter feeders that are pseudocoelomates w/ complex digestive system
Mollusca
motile organisms w/ soft bodies and hard shells; are the first protostomes and first coelomates; ex) octopuses, squids, snails, clams
annelida
segmented worms w/ 2 openings (mouth and anus); have fully developed digestive system, closed circulatory system, developed nervous system, and bristle appendages (setae); ex) earthworms
arthropoda
animals w/ segmented bodies; paired jointed legs; chitinous exoskeleton; have open circulatory system with dorsal heart (unusual); ex) insects, arachnids, crustaceans
echinoderms
sessile or sedentary animals with a spiny exoskeleton; first deuterostomes; ex) sea urchin
Chordata
animals w/ notochord, dorsal nerve cord, postanal tail, and pharyngeal gill slits (most are vertebrates but some aren't--Tunicates, acorn worms, amphioxus)
5 subphyla of chordata?
fish, amphibia, reptilia, aves, mammalia
Fish
subphylum of chordates; cold-blooded vertebrates w/ gills, scales, and 2-chambered heart
Amphibia
initially breathe through gills, then develop lungs; can exchange gas through their most skin; have 3-chambered heart
Reptilia
cold-blooded animals w/ eggs w/ chitinous covering; have 4-chambered heart, are first vertebrates to have internal fertilization
Aves
birds; warm-blooded, have eggs w/ shells, wings, feathers, hollow bones, and a 4-chambered heart
Mammalia
warm blooded animals w/ 4-chambered heart; have hair and produce milk to feed young; some have placenta, some don't (marsupials)
Lytic cycle
virus injects its nucleic acid into host, viral particles are assembled inside the host and then released at which point they kill the cell
Lysogenic cycle
cycle in which viral DNA gets copied by new viruses are not made; eventually the virus usu. undergoes the lytic cycle
Temperate virus
virus that can coexist with its host cell
2 types of xylem cells?
tracheids, vessel elements (tracheids are long and thin, vessel elements are short and thick)
Phloem cells are made up of...?
sive tube elements (actually carry nutrients in a plant) and companion cells (lend support to sieve tube elements)
ex) of tracheophytes (those w/ vascular tissue)?
ferns, trees, flowering plants
perennial
live year after year; ex) gynosperms spruces, hemlocks and firs
life cycle of plants?
alteration of generation
steps of alteration of generations?
gametophyte (haploid)-->zygote-->sporophyte (diploid)--> haploid spores-->gametophyte
what stage is dominant in bryophytes?
gametophyte
tracheophytes--what stage is dominant?
sporophyte
primary growth
increases the length of a plant, using apical meristems located in tips of roots and stems
secondary growth
increases the girth, or width, or a plant; carried out by lateral meristems on sides of stems and roots, which produce vascular cambium adn cork cambium
vascular cambium
prduces secondary xylema nd phloem, which replace primary xylem and phloem
cork cambium
produces tissues of outer bark
lenticels
allow for gas exchange through the bark
3 regions of growing root?
root tip, elongation region, and maturation region
Primary growht occurs in which parts of the root?
root tip and elongation region
Parts of inner rot?
epidermic, cortex (stores starch and minerals), stele (inner cylinder which contains xylems and phloems)
Apoplast
porous cell walls in the root cortex
symplast
plasmodesmata, in root cortex
endodermal cells
tightly packed; regulate selective passage of water and minerals into vascular tissue
Casparian strip
belt of fatty tissue called suberin which blocks the mov't of water and minerals between the endodermal cells; in the walls of endodermal cells
spines
modified leaves, in cacti; help for protection
fleshy leaves--why are they useful?
water storage
4 organs of flowering plants?
stamen, pistil, sepals, and petals
Stamen
male parts; consists of anther and filament (anther produces pollen); filament = thin stalk that holds up the anther
Pistil
includes stigma, style, and ovary; are female parts; stigma = sticky part that captures pollen; style is tubelike, connects stigma to ovary; ovary is where fertilization occurs
ovules
inside the ovary; contain plant's equivalent of female gametophytes
megaspores
female gametes of plants; undergo meiosis to produce 8 female nuclei (incl. 1 egg nucleus and 2 polar bodies)
double fertilization
what flowering plants do; pollen (microspores) lands on stigma and grows a pollen tube down the style; pollen grain then divides into 2 sperm nuclei (one sperm nucleus fuses with an egg nucleus to form a zygote--eventually a plant); the other sperm nucleus fuses w/ 2 polar nuclei in the ovary to form the endosperm (3n)
double fertilization produces which two things?
a plant and food for the plant
Epicotyl
part at the tip of the plant
Hypocotyl
stem below the cotyledons, becomes roots of the plant
radicle
well defined embryonic rot
photoperiodism
plants flower in response to changes in amt of daylight and darkness
3 groups of plants (based on photoperiodism)?
Short day, long day, day neutral
short day plants
require long period of darkness; usu. bloom in late summer or fall when daylight is decr.
long day plants
require short periods of darkness; flower in late spring and summer when daylight is increasing
day neutral plants
don't flower in response to daylight changes at all; use other cues such as water and temperature
phytochrome
pigments that in short day plants, inhibits flowering but in long day plants, induces flowering
vegetative propogation
when flowering plants reproduce asexually; ex) tubers, runners, and bulbs
grafting
another way plants can reproduce asexually by cutting a stem adn attaching it to a closely related plant
ex) of bulbs
onions
ex) of runners
strawberries
ex) of tubers
potatoes (underground stems)
ex) grafting
seedless oranges
phototropism
movement of a plant toward light
gravitropism
tendency of a plant to grow away from earth
thigmotropism
how plants respond to touch (ex) ivy grow around a post or trellis)
auxins
promote palnt growth and phototropism
gibberellins
promote stem elongation esp. in dwarf plants
cytokinins
promote cell division and differentiation
ethylene
induces leaf abscisiona nd promotes fruit ripenning
abscicic acid
inhibits leaf abscissiona nd promotes bud at seed dormancy
intracellular digestion
digestion that occurs within food vacuoles, occurs in simple animals such as the hydra
extracellular digestion
digestion in a gastrovascular cavity, in more complex animals
salivary amylase
enzyme in saliva; begins chemical digestion of starch into maltose
Bolus
ball of food that has been chewed
path of the bolus?
mouth-->pharynx-->esophagus (through peristalsis)
3 functions of stomach?
stores ingested food temporarily, partially digests proteins, kills bacteria
gastric juices
secreted by stomach, contain digestive enzymes and HCl
pepsin
enzyme in gastric juice that breaks down proteins into smaller peptides; works best in acidic env't
chyme
partially digested food that has gone through the stomach
where does the chyme go after it is out of the stomach?
small intestine
3 regions of sm. intestine?
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Duodenum
first part of small intestine; opening = the pyloric sphincter
purpose of small intestine?
walls secrete enzymes that break down proteins and carbohydrates
pancreas
secretes enzymes into the small intestine: trypsin, chymotrypsin, pancreatic lipase, and pancreatic amylase
Trypsin and chymotrypsin
break down proteins into dipeptides
pancreatic lipase
breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol
pancreatic amylase
breaks down starch into disaccharides
bile
substance in small intestine that is an emulsifier (breaks up fat into smaller fat droplets so pancreatic lipase can access it)
where is bile made and stored?
made in the liver, stored in the gall bladder
lacteals
lymph vessels in each villus that absrb fatty acids
3 hormones involved in digestive system?
gastrin, secretin, and cholecystokinin
gastrin
stimulates stomach cells to produce gastric juice
secretin
stimulates pancreas to produce bicarbonate and digestive enzymes
cholecystokinin
stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and release of bile
large intestine's job?
reabsorb water and salts, also has harmless bacteria that break down undigested food and provide us with certain essential vitamins such as vitamin K
spiracles
openings to tubes called trachae (breathing tubes of insects)
larynx
voice box
path of air through body?
nose-->pharynx-->larynx-->
-->trachea-->bronchi-->
bronchioles
epiglottis
flap that covers the trachea and prevents food from going down the wrong pipe
bronchioles
smaller tubes that branch off from bronchi; each ends in a tiny air sac called an alveolus; these sacs enable the lungs to have an enormous surface area (about 100 square meters)
what happens to oxygen and carbon dioxide in the alveolus and capillaries?
when you inhale, oxygen goes into the alveoli then diffuses into the capillaries; carbon dioxide diffuses into the alveoli because the capillaries have a high conc. of CO2
gas exchange in humans occurs via what kind of diffusion?
passive
plasma
fluid of blood; transports 3% of the body's total oxygen
hemoglobin
iron-containing protein in red blood cells; transports 97% of the oxygen in the body
inspiration
the process of taking in oxygen
chemoreceptors
control the respiratory rate; as blood pH decreases, they send nerve impulses to the diaphram and intercostal muscles to incr. respiratory rate
diaphragm
skeletal muscle that forms the bottom wall of chest cavity
open circulatory system
blood carried by open-ended blood vessels that spill blood into the body cavity
ex) of organisms with open circulatory system?
arthropods (blood vessels from the heart open into internal cavities called sinuses)
closed circulatory systems
blood flows continuously through a network of blood vessels; ex) earthworms and some molluscs, vertebrates have them
left ventricle
where blood leaves the heart and enters the body (through the aorta)
systemic circulation
when blood makes a tour of the whole body
path of blood? (overall)
left ventricle (through aorta)-->body-->back to right atrium through the vena cava-->right ventricle through right tricuspid valve-->toward the lungs (pulmonary circulation)-->left ventricle by way of the left bicuspid or mitral valve
largest artery int he body?
aorta (has the aortic semilunar valve); carries blood away from heart
pathway of blood through the body?
blood leaves left ventricle via the aorta-->travels through the arteries to the arterioles and eventually to the capillaries-->gas and nutrient/waste excahgne occurs between blood and tissues through capillary walls
how does deoxygenated blood that has just circulated through the body re-enter the heart?
reenters the heart into the right atrium via two veins known as the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava
steps of pulmonary circulation?
deoxygenated blood leaves right ventricle via pulmonary artery; pulmonary artery branches into l and r, carrying blood into the lungs; blood travels from arteries to arterioles and then eventually to the capillaries; gas exchange occurs between capillaries and alveoli; blood, once oxygenated, returns to the heart through pulmonary veins
SA node
"the pacemaker," AKA the sinoatrial node; where heartbeat begins, located in right atrium
AV node
atrioventricular node; where the heartbeat impulse spreads through both atria
path of heartbeat impulse?
SA node-->AV node-->bundle of His-->Purkinje fibers-->contraction
Purkinje fibers
last to receive action potential for heartbeat; located in the walls of both ventricles; generates a strong contraction
systole
part of the cycle in which contraction occurs
diastole
part of the heartbeat cycle in which relaxation occurs
erythrocytes
red blood cells; oxygen-carrying cells that contain hemoglobin
steps in blood clotting?
damaged cells and platelets release substances that activate clotting factors; prothrombin activator converts prothrombin (plasma protein) to thrmbin; then thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin threads which strengthen the clot
bone marrow
located int he center of bones; where the blood cells are made
AB
blood type that is the universal recipient
O
blood type that is the universal donor
3 functions of lymphatic system?
collects, filters and returns fluid to the blood by the contraction of adjacent muscles; fights infection using lymphocytes, cells found in lymph nodes; removes excess fluid from body tissue
lymph
clear, watery fluid formed from interstitial fluid (fluid that bathes cells); fights infection using lymphocytes; removes excess fluid from body tissue
phagocytes
engulf antigens
complement proteins
lyse the cell wall of the antigen
antigens
foreign molecules that can trigger an immune response
interferons
inhibit viral replication and activate surrounding cells that have antiviral actions
inflammatory response
series of events in response to antigen invasion of physical injury
MHC markers
major histocompatibility complex markers; distinguish between self and nonself cells
T-lymphocytes
recognize foreign antigen MHC markers; can become either helper or memory T cells;
helper T cells
activate B lymphocytes and other T cells
memory T cells
recognize bacteria or viruses that they have encountered before
cytotoxic T-cells
recognize and kill infected cells (cell-mediated response)
where are t cells made/where do they mature?
made in the bone marrow, but mature in the thymus
humoral immunity/antibody-mediated immunity
B-lymphocytes encounter antigen-presenting cells such as macrophages with foreign MHC markers and then they activate and produce clones; some become memory cells and helper t cells help out too, as well as memory T cells
what do T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes do?
T: actually fight infectiona nd help B-lymphocytes proliferate; B: produce antibodies
cytotoxic T cells
those that recognize and kill infected cells
nephridia
excretory organs found in earthworms
Malpighian tubules
excretory organs found in arthropods
How do different organisms get rid of nitrogenous wastes?
some keep them as ammonia (just fish); birds and reptiles convert ammonia to uric acid; most mammals convert ammonia to urea
nephrons
functional units of the kidney; have the bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convuoluated tubule, and collecting duct
path of blood in a nephron?
enters at Bowman's capsule (glomerulus, ball of capillaries, exists inside the capsule)-->filtered and goes intot he Bowman's capsule as filtrate-->proximal convoluted tubule-->loop of henle-->distal convoluted tube-->collecting duct (filtrate modified to form urine along the way)
where does urine move after the nephron?
moves through collecting ducts tot he ureters, then tot he bladder, finally out the urethra
3 processes in the nephron that produce urine?
filtration, reabsorption, and secretion
peritubular capillaries
network of capillaries that help with reabsorption of some materials (water, nutrients, and salts)
2 hormones that regulate the concentration of water and salt in the kidneys?
vasopressin and aldosterone
vasopressin
aka antidiuretic hormone/ADH; allows water to be reabsorbed from the collecting duct; helps retain water (high levels with dehydration, but low levels if you have a high fluid intake)
aldosterone
regulates sodium reabsorption at the distal convoluted tubule
subcutaneous tissue
aka hyperdermis (innermost layer of skin); mostly consists of fats
stratum corneum
layer of dead cells that covers the epidermis; forms marrier against invading microorganisms
3 layers of skin?
epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue/hyperdermis
nerve net
found in simple organisms such as the hydra; a network of nerve cells in which signals travel multiple directions
ganglia
in more complex animals; clumps of nerve cells that are like "primitive brains"; even more complex organisms have a brain with neurons
3 parts of a neuron?
dendrites (branched parts), cell body, axon (stick part)
3 types of neurons?
sensory neurons, motor (effector) neurons, interneurons
Sensory neurons
receive impulses from the env't and bring them to the body
motor neurons
transmits impulses to muscles or glands that produce a response
interneurons
links between sensory and motor neurons, found in the brain or spinal cord
what are the relative concentrations of sodium ions/potassium ions in human neurons?
sodium ions have a higher conc. in the extracellular fluid than the concentration of K+; inside there is more K+ than Na+
what does the resting - potential result from?
sodium potassium ATPase (pump that pushes out 2 K+ ions for every 3 sodium ions, which leads to a net loss of positive charges within the cell); also leaky protein channels that allow for slow difusion of K+ out of the cell
depolarization
when the interior of the nerve cell switches its polarity from - to + charge; caused by the action potential
what happens in an action potential?
cell's tiny "gates" open up; sodium ions rush in; polarity of the cell changes (axon is now + n inside and - on outside)
repolarization
when the cell's charge returns to its original potential
refractory period
period after an action potential
what happens with channels during repolarization?
sodium channels close and potassium channels open (restores cell's negative charge)
axon bulb
end of the axon
neurotransmitter
chemical that diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the dendrites of the next neuron
synapse
space between 2 neurons
acetylcholine
neurotransmitter than can stimulate muscles to contract or inhibit postsynaptic potential
acetylcholinesterase
enzyme that breaks down excess acetycholine in the synaptic cleft
norepinephrine
peptide neurotransmitter that is released between neurons within the CNS
GABA
secreted in the CNS, acts as an inhibitor
Scwann cells
supporting cells that wrap around the axon of a neuron; produces the myelin sheath which insulates the axon
notes of Ranvier
spaces between myelin sheaths
what do myelin sheaths do?
provide insulation and speed up the propagation of an impulse
saltatory conduction
form of conduction in which an impulse can jump from node to node
autonomic/somatic nervous sytems
divisions of the peripheral nervous system; somatic = voluntary activities; autonomic = involuntary activities
what are the 2 divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
parasmpathetic and sympathetic (parasympathetic = brings body back down to homeostasis after flight or fight response brough about by the sympathetic)
cerebrum
controls all voluntary activities, largest part of human brain
cerebellum
coordinates muscle activity and refinement of mov't
hypothalamus
regulates homeostasis and secretes hormones; regulates pituitary gland
medulla
controls involuntary actions
PONS
Connects parts of the brain with one another and contains respiratory center
midbrain
center for visual and auditory reflexes
thalamus
main sensry relay center for conducting info between the spinal cord adn cerebrum
corpus callosum
thick band of nerve fibers of the white matter than enable the right and left side of the cerebral hemisphere to communicate
difference between cartilage and bone?
cartilage lacks nerves and blood vessels; bone is a connective tissue that contains nerves and blood vessels
2 substances that make up bond?
collagen and calcium salts
ligaments
tough connective tissues that attach bone to bone
tendons
connective tissues that connect bone to muscle
skeletal muscles
control voluntary movements; have striations (stripes); are multinucleated and made up of muscle bundles which subdividie into muscle fascicles (within each are units called muscle fiber cells which contain myofibrils which are subdivided into sarcomeres)
sarcomere
functional unit in a muscle cell; inside has 2 protein filaments (actin = thin; myosin = thick)
how is ATP utilized in muscle contraction?
ATP bound to the myosin head of actin filaments is split and ADP and P are released; myosin now crooked binds to the exposed site on the actin molecules and cross bridges form (the complex eventually binds ATP and myosin releases actin)
cardiac muscle
controls involuntary action; held together by special junctions called intercalated discs
which of the 3 types of muscle are straited?
skeletal and cardiac
which of the 3 types of muscle are multinucleated?
skeletal
rank the 3 types of muscle in order from speed of contraction?
skeltal = fastest; cardiac = intermediate; smooth = slowest
negative feedback system
in the endocrine system; when there is excess of a hormone the endocrine gland will temporarily shut down production
GH
gorwth hormone; secreted by anterior pituitary
ACTH
adrenocorticotropic hormone; stimulates adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids; secreted by anterior pituitary
TSH
stimulates thyroid to secrete thyroxin; secreted by anterior pituitary
FSH
stimulates follicle to gorw in females; spermatogenesis in males; secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
LH
causes release of ovum, testosterone production in males; secreted by ant. pit. gland
prolactin
stimulates mammary glands to produce milk; secreted by ant. pit. gland
2 hormones secreted by posterior pituitary?
antidiuretic hormone (or vasopressin); oxytocin (stimulates contraction of uterus and ducts of mammary glands)
pneumonic for hormones of pituitary gland?
GATOR PIT and FLAP (gat = anterior ones, or = poterior ones); flap = all anterior (deal with reproductive system)
which 2 hormones does the pancreas secrete?
glucagon and insulin (both produced in clusters of cells called Islet of Langerhans)
glucagon
stimulates liver to convert glycogen into glucose and to release that glucose intot he blood
insulin
lowers blood sugar level, esp. effective on muscle and liver cells
thyroxine
hormone that contains Iodine and is responsible for regulating the metabolic rate of body tissues
what secretes calcitonin?
the thyroid
allopatric speciation
when one population becomes separated fromt he rest of the species by a geographical barrier so they can't interbreed
sympatric speciation
when new species form w/o any geographic barrier
hardy-weinberg law
states that even w/ all the shuffling of genes that goes on, the relative frequencies of genotypes in a pop. still prevail over time
hardy weinberg equation?
p^2 + 2PQ + q^2 = 1
ocnditions for hardy-weinberg equlibrium?
large pop.; no mutations; no immigration or emigration; random mating; no natural selection
imprinting
occurs during critical period (brief time early in an organisms life), occurs in different forms (sexual, parent, and song)
classical conditioning
when organisms become accustomed to something due to repeated instances of an event; aka associate learning
operant conditioning
trial-and-error learning; an animal learns to peform an act to receive an award; studied by scientist Skinner
habituation
when an animal learns not to respond to a stimulus
agnostic behavior
aggressive behavior toward another animal due to competittion for food/other resources
r strategists
organisms that produce lots of offspring to ensure survival; ex) weeds, bacteria and dandelions
k strategists
best suited for survival in stable envt's; tend to be large animals such as elephants with long lifespans; produce few offspring and usu. don't have to contend with competition from otehr organisms