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78 Cards in this Set

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Vocab: Antibiotic
Chemical produced by any one microbe and has ability to harm other microbes
3 types of selective toxicity
1. Disrupt cell wall (Penicillin, Cephalosporins)
2. Inhibit enzyme unique to bacteria (Sulfanomides)
3. Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis
2 mechanisms of acquired resistance
1. Spontaneous mutation: only one drug, low level
2. conjugation: big problem, random events, resistance to several
Using antimicrobial drugs for prophylaxis?
1. pre surgery prevention
2. bacterial endocarditis
3. neutropenia (absence of neutrophils)
4. recurrent uti, heart valve defect, ect.
Drug that weakens the cell wall:________
Penicillins
Safe alternatives to PCN
Vancomycin, Enthromycin, Clindamycin
If allergic to PCN a pt could be cross sensitive to what?
chephalosporins, carbapenems
Drugs that weaken the bacterial cell wall
1. Cephalosporin (most widely used)
2. Carbapenems (broad spectrum, not lipid soluble, imipenem, meropenem...)
3. Vancomycin (binds by precursors, red mans syndrome)
Explain red mans syndrome as a adverse effect of vancomycin?
happens if dose is delivered too quickly, red skin/flushing
Relationship between tetracyclines and dairy/calcium?
Calcium supplements, iron, antacids, dairy would bind and make tetracycline ineffective. Chelation.
type of antimicrobial drug that is only used for life threatening infections for which safer drugs are ineffective or contraindicated?
Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin), broad spectrum, gram - and gram +, adverse effect: grays syndrome, bone marrow depression, anemia.
Peak level vs. trough level
Peak level must be high enough to kill bacteria, trough level must be low enough to minimize toxicity.
Tendon rupture (noticed from pain in achilles tendon) is an adverse effect of what drug?
Fluoroquinolones
Daptomycin
First in new class, cyclic lipopeptides, rapidly kills Gm+ even MRSA!!, no drug interactions (unlike fluoroquinolones, metronidazole)
PBP
penicillin binding proteins on outside of bacteria
never mix PCN with _______ in a solution
aminoglycosides
what is the PCN suffix?
illin

penicillin
ampicillin
what is a safe alternative to PCN?

3 of them
vancomycyn
erythromyci
clindamycin
PCN allergies have a cross sensativity to which other antimicrobials? CC
cephalosporins and carbepentams
when, in regards to meals, should you give PCN
1 hr ac
2 hr pc
which electrolyte would you monitor when giving PCN?
sodium
ticarcillin can cause b_______
bleeding
you recieve an order to give the PT iv atbiotics: gentamycin and PC via IV. whats wrong with this pciture?
you never mix PCN and aminoglycosides (gentamyscin) with PCN in the same IV solution
vacno does/doesnt interact with PBP
does not.

it binds to molecules that serve as precursers for cell wall synth
atb therapy can _______ oral contraceptives
inactivate
cephalosporins _______ beta lactamase
resist
how many generations of cephalosporins are there?
4

cefazolin
cefactor
cefoperazone
cefepime

CEF prefix
most cephalosporins are given by these routes: _______ or _______ and is rarely given _______
IV
IM
PO
cephalosporins can increase b_______
bleeding
true or false cephalosporins are effective against pseudymonas?
false
cephalosporins can effect which fluid electrolyte?
Ca+
carbepenems are b_______ l_______ antibiotics
beta
lactam
carbapenems are _______ broad atb with _______ toxicity
extremly
low
a patient is newly diagnosed with MRSA and is perscribed carbepenems. how is this going to work?
it wont. they're not effective against MRSA
carbapenems are reserved for _______ ill patients
very

that dont respond to other more narrow choices
carbepenems are/are not absorbed in the GI
are not
what route do carbepenems go into the body via
IV/IM
common side effects of carbepenems are
nv
diarrhea
cdiff
vancomycin
1. pbp interaction?
2.severe/minor infections?
3.MRSA or not?
4. adverse effects
5. CDIFF or not?
6. delivery precautions
1. no pbp interaction
2. for severe infections
3. good for mrsa
4.
citotoxicity
thrombophlebitis
PT levels
bmp cbc
red man syndrom
5. good for cdiff
6. deliver over an hour or else red man syndrom developes
tetracyclines are broad/narrow atb
broad
tetracyclines are bacteriocidal/static
static
indications of tetracyclines are
R
C
B
C
A
H
A
rickettsia
chlamydia
brucellosis
cholera
lyme disease
anthrax
h pylori
acne
dont give tetracylines with these products:
milk
iron
magnesium
antacids

chelation may happen
tetracycline is excreted by...
kidneys
tetracycline is contraindicated for these people:
premature infants (supresses long bone growth)
pregnants
children 4mo-8yr (discolors enamal)
adverse effects of tetracyclines
gastroinestinal
cholestatic hepatitus
suprainfection
ringing in ears
tetracyclines can increase effects of this drug
warfarin
clindomycin adverse effects
CDIFF
hepatic toxicity
blood dyscrasias
hypersensitivity reactions
clindamycin inhibits _____ protein synthesis
protein
zyvox is the first class of a new antibiotic called _____
oxazolidinones
oxazolidinones are good for two disease _____ and _____
VRE
MRSA
gentamycin is _____ narrow
very
gentamycin is eliminated _____
renally
aminoglycosides are bacteri_____
cidal
aminoglycosides are _____ spectrum
narrow
aminoglycosides targe gram _____ bacili
negative
aminoglycosides have a p_____ a_____ e_____. which makes it linger for hours after serum levels drop
post antibiotic effect
adverse effects of aminoglycosides are 5 things
nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity
hypersensitivity
neuromuscular blockade
drug interactions
smz/tmp are _____ spectrum
broad
smz/tmp are PABA which means
they are paraaminobenzoic acid
smz/tmp are used primarly for _____
UTI
smz/tmp is very _____ in urine

what kind of disease would you treat with this.
very

UTI
sulfonamide preparations include
topical
systemic
topical sulfonamide topicals are used with...
eye infetions
burns
bacterial vaginosis
smz/tmp can cause a severe severe reaction called
steven johnsons syndrome
trimethoprim is approved for initial thereapy of acute, uncomplicated _____ caused by gram -
UTI
trimethoprim is absorbed r_____ and is l_____ s_____
rapidly
lipid soluble
trimethoprim is excreted, _____, in the urine
unchanged
fluoroquinolones cautions
prolonged QT
flagyl is bacteri_____
cidal
flagyl indications are
protozoal infections
h. pylori
adverse effects of flagyl are
neurotoxicity
allergy
suprainfections
GI
dark urine
drug interactions with flagyl are
warfarin
dilantin
phenobarb
rifampin
lithium
daptomycin first class _____
lipopeptides
daptomycin kill one major disease process..
MRSA
daptomycin. is there a need to monitor plasma levels?
no. 92% bound to proteins
rifampin treats
TB
rifaximin treats
travelers diarrhea