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78 Cards in this Set
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Vocab: Antibiotic
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Chemical produced by any one microbe and has ability to harm other microbes
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3 types of selective toxicity
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1. Disrupt cell wall (Penicillin, Cephalosporins)
2. Inhibit enzyme unique to bacteria (Sulfanomides) 3. Disrupt bacterial protein synthesis |
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2 mechanisms of acquired resistance
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1. Spontaneous mutation: only one drug, low level
2. conjugation: big problem, random events, resistance to several |
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Using antimicrobial drugs for prophylaxis?
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1. pre surgery prevention
2. bacterial endocarditis 3. neutropenia (absence of neutrophils) 4. recurrent uti, heart valve defect, ect. |
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Drug that weakens the cell wall:________
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Penicillins
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Safe alternatives to PCN
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Vancomycin, Enthromycin, Clindamycin
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If allergic to PCN a pt could be cross sensitive to what?
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chephalosporins, carbapenems
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Drugs that weaken the bacterial cell wall
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1. Cephalosporin (most widely used)
2. Carbapenems (broad spectrum, not lipid soluble, imipenem, meropenem...) 3. Vancomycin (binds by precursors, red mans syndrome) |
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Explain red mans syndrome as a adverse effect of vancomycin?
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happens if dose is delivered too quickly, red skin/flushing
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Relationship between tetracyclines and dairy/calcium?
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Calcium supplements, iron, antacids, dairy would bind and make tetracycline ineffective. Chelation.
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type of antimicrobial drug that is only used for life threatening infections for which safer drugs are ineffective or contraindicated?
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Chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin), broad spectrum, gram - and gram +, adverse effect: grays syndrome, bone marrow depression, anemia.
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Peak level vs. trough level
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Peak level must be high enough to kill bacteria, trough level must be low enough to minimize toxicity.
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Tendon rupture (noticed from pain in achilles tendon) is an adverse effect of what drug?
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Fluoroquinolones
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Daptomycin
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First in new class, cyclic lipopeptides, rapidly kills Gm+ even MRSA!!, no drug interactions (unlike fluoroquinolones, metronidazole)
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PBP
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penicillin binding proteins on outside of bacteria
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never mix PCN with _______ in a solution
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aminoglycosides
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what is the PCN suffix?
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illin
penicillin ampicillin |
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what is a safe alternative to PCN?
3 of them |
vancomycyn
erythromyci clindamycin |
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PCN allergies have a cross sensativity to which other antimicrobials? CC
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cephalosporins and carbepentams
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when, in regards to meals, should you give PCN
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1 hr ac
2 hr pc |
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which electrolyte would you monitor when giving PCN?
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sodium
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ticarcillin can cause b_______
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bleeding
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you recieve an order to give the PT iv atbiotics: gentamycin and PC via IV. whats wrong with this pciture?
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you never mix PCN and aminoglycosides (gentamyscin) with PCN in the same IV solution
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vacno does/doesnt interact with PBP
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does not.
it binds to molecules that serve as precursers for cell wall synth |
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atb therapy can _______ oral contraceptives
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inactivate
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cephalosporins _______ beta lactamase
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resist
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how many generations of cephalosporins are there?
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4
cefazolin cefactor cefoperazone cefepime CEF prefix |
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most cephalosporins are given by these routes: _______ or _______ and is rarely given _______
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IV
IM PO |
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cephalosporins can increase b_______
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bleeding
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true or false cephalosporins are effective against pseudymonas?
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false
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cephalosporins can effect which fluid electrolyte?
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Ca+
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carbepenems are b_______ l_______ antibiotics
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beta
lactam |
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carbapenems are _______ broad atb with _______ toxicity
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extremly
low |
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a patient is newly diagnosed with MRSA and is perscribed carbepenems. how is this going to work?
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it wont. they're not effective against MRSA
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carbapenems are reserved for _______ ill patients
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very
that dont respond to other more narrow choices |
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carbepenems are/are not absorbed in the GI
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are not
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what route do carbepenems go into the body via
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IV/IM
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common side effects of carbepenems are
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nv
diarrhea cdiff |
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vancomycin
1. pbp interaction? 2.severe/minor infections? 3.MRSA or not? 4. adverse effects 5. CDIFF or not? 6. delivery precautions |
1. no pbp interaction
2. for severe infections 3. good for mrsa 4. citotoxicity thrombophlebitis PT levels bmp cbc red man syndrom 5. good for cdiff 6. deliver over an hour or else red man syndrom developes |
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tetracyclines are broad/narrow atb
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broad
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tetracyclines are bacteriocidal/static
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static
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indications of tetracyclines are
R C B C A H A |
rickettsia
chlamydia brucellosis cholera lyme disease anthrax h pylori acne |
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dont give tetracylines with these products:
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milk
iron magnesium antacids chelation may happen |
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tetracycline is excreted by...
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kidneys
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tetracycline is contraindicated for these people:
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premature infants (supresses long bone growth)
pregnants children 4mo-8yr (discolors enamal) |
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adverse effects of tetracyclines
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gastroinestinal
cholestatic hepatitus suprainfection ringing in ears |
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tetracyclines can increase effects of this drug
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warfarin
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clindomycin adverse effects
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CDIFF
hepatic toxicity blood dyscrasias hypersensitivity reactions |
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clindamycin inhibits _____ protein synthesis
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protein
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zyvox is the first class of a new antibiotic called _____
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oxazolidinones
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oxazolidinones are good for two disease _____ and _____
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VRE
MRSA |
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gentamycin is _____ narrow
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very
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gentamycin is eliminated _____
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renally
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aminoglycosides are bacteri_____
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cidal
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aminoglycosides are _____ spectrum
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narrow
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aminoglycosides targe gram _____ bacili
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negative
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aminoglycosides have a p_____ a_____ e_____. which makes it linger for hours after serum levels drop
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post antibiotic effect
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adverse effects of aminoglycosides are 5 things
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nephrotoxicity
ototoxicity hypersensitivity neuromuscular blockade drug interactions |
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smz/tmp are _____ spectrum
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broad
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smz/tmp are PABA which means
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they are paraaminobenzoic acid
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smz/tmp are used primarly for _____
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UTI
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smz/tmp is very _____ in urine
what kind of disease would you treat with this. |
very
UTI |
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sulfonamide preparations include
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topical
systemic |
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topical sulfonamide topicals are used with...
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eye infetions
burns bacterial vaginosis |
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smz/tmp can cause a severe severe reaction called
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steven johnsons syndrome
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trimethoprim is approved for initial thereapy of acute, uncomplicated _____ caused by gram -
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UTI
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trimethoprim is absorbed r_____ and is l_____ s_____
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rapidly
lipid soluble |
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trimethoprim is excreted, _____, in the urine
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unchanged
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fluoroquinolones cautions
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prolonged QT
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flagyl is bacteri_____
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cidal
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flagyl indications are
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protozoal infections
h. pylori |
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adverse effects of flagyl are
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neurotoxicity
allergy suprainfections GI dark urine |
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drug interactions with flagyl are
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warfarin
dilantin phenobarb rifampin lithium |
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daptomycin first class _____
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lipopeptides
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daptomycin kill one major disease process..
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MRSA
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daptomycin. is there a need to monitor plasma levels?
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no. 92% bound to proteins
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rifampin treats
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TB
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rifaximin treats
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travelers diarrhea
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