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209 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Phenothiazine example
Acepromazine
What acts on the reticular activating system?
Acepromazine
Butyrophenone examples
Droperidol, Azaperone (still used in hogs)
Key things about Ace?
Never use labeled dose
Minimal respiratory depression

Stallions may exhibit transient or permanent penile paralysis
What are the 4 A's for Ace?
Antihistamine
Antiemetic
Antiarrhythmic
Anti-anxiety
Benzodiazepenes examples
Diazepam
Midazolam
Zolazepam (Telazol= Zolazepam+Telotamine)
Are benzos good tranquilizer for small animals?
No, make them rowdy and cats bitter

Good for small ruminants though
Mechanism of Benzos
Potentiating the effects of GABA, potent anticonvulsants
Which benzo is better for IM injection?
Midazolam: water soluble versus propylene glycol in Diazepam and is quite painful
Reversal agent for benzos?
flumazenil
Guaifenesin mechanism
centrally acting muscle relaxant which acts on the internuncial neuron
Uses for Guaifenesin
Muscle relaxant in large animals

Must be given in an IV catheter
Mechanism of Action for Opioids
Inhibition of pain transmission in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

inhibition of somatosensory afferents at supraspinal levels

activation of descending inhibitory pathways
Full agonist opioids
morphine
meperidine
Fentanyl: 15-30min T1/2
Hydromorphone
Oxymorphone
Methadone
Partial Agonist
Buprenorphine: Very long acting (8-12)

great for buccal procedures
Agonist-Antagonist
Butorphanol: short acting (1-2)
Pentazocine
Nalbuphine
Antagonist
Naloxone
Naltrexone
Nalmefene
Clinical signs of Mu activation
Analgesia!!!
Resp Depression
BRADYCARDIA; Incr Vagal Tone
Euphoria
Physical Dependence: Long term
Sedation
Vomiting: if the animal is not painful
Who reacts the most to opioids?
cats, horses
Which opiods release histamine?
morphine, meperidine
Alpha 2 agonists
xylazine
detomidine
medetomidine
dexmedetomidine
What patients are good for Alpha 2?
Healthy Heart patients

Cardio depression outlasts the outward signs on CNS sedation and analgesia
What is the weight range for Resting Energy Requirement?
> 2kg and < 45kg

[30 x body weight(kg)] + 70
What is Maintenance Energy Requirement for active/healthy animals?
Dogs= 2 x RER

Cats = 1.5 x RER
Reasons for doing early feeding with illness?
minimize loss of lean body mass
restore nutrient deficiencies
improve healing and repair
When do you feed?
Animal has loss > 10% BW
Muscle wasting
poor hair coat
Illness Energy Requirement needed for ill animals?
Dogs: 1.25-1.7 x RER

Cats: 1.25 x RER

they don't need as much calories
What is refeeding syndrome?
What happens when you feed TPN too fast and you see
Hypophosphatemia
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesium
Stomach capacity of a dog
90 ml/kg
Maximum bolus of food
35ml/kg

work up to full requirement @ least 3 days
Advantages of TPN
Complete nutrition
the body can use everything immediately

must be in jugular
Disadvantages of TPN
Doesn't feed the GI mucosa
chance of sepsis
expensive
needs to have central catheter and aseptic
Types of Enteral feeding
Assisted feeding
Syringe feeding
Appetite stimulation
Tube feeding
Types of tube feedings
Nasoesophageal
pharyngostomy
esophagostomy
gastrostomy
jejunostomy
Nasoesophageal tubes stipulations
fairly non-invasive
no G.A.
liquid diet
short term
Pharyngostomy tube Pros
use blenderized food
easy to manage (at home)
large tube can be placed

can stay in long term
Pharyngostomy tube Cons
G.A.
should not see the tube with the mouth is open (obstruct epiglottis)
Pharyngostomy complications
vomiting
stomal infections
aspiration pneumonia
tube dislodgement
Esophagostomy Tube Pros
larger tube
long term
no minimal time prior to removal
will not interfere w/epiglottis
no sedation needed to remove tube
Pharyngostomy placement and structures to avoid
maxillary, jugular, and linguofacial veins
carotid artery
salivary gland
Gastrostomy Tube Pros
Long-term support
easy to manage
doesn't interfere w/voluntary eating

heals by 2nd intention, no sedation required
Gastrostomy Tube Cons
Stomal infection
Minimum of 7- 10 days before you can remove it
Jejunostomy Indications
pancreatitis
Severe Gastroesophageal reflux
gastroparesis
aspiration risk patients
Jejunostomy requirements
CRI of liquid diet

endoscopic placement or celiotomy
General principles of nutrition
Feed early
If the gut works, use it
Use the most physiologic feeding
monitor body weight
Don't overfeed
Thiopental
works by modullating GABA transmission

injectable anesthetics
Thiopental is terminated by what action?
muscle redistribution

might need to be careful with high muscular dogs (sight hounds)
Thiopental side effects
Arrhythmogenicity
Protein binding (hypoalbuminemic:careful)

Tissue irritation (perivascularly)
Highly dependent on liver metabolism

Decrease intracranial pressure
How should you administer thiopental?
As a bolus to avoid the excitement stage
Propofol
non-barbituate, non-steroidal anesthetic

very painful injection

have to use bottle w/in 24 hours/doesn't need to be in fridge
Propofol effects
Profound hypotension from vasodilation

similar to Thiopental

can use with Liver failure patients
Etomidate
Great for 3 organ failure (Brain, Heart, Liver)

Like Diazepam solubilized in propylen glycol

also derpresses cerebral blood flow
Ketamine
Dissociative anesthetic

can be used as anesthetic or restraint

IM will have prolonged recovery
Which drug causes apneustic breathing pattern?
Ketamine
Dogs and ketamine
Convulsions and extreme muscle tone

use a muscle relaxant w/it like diazepam
Alfaxalone
neuroactive steroid molecule

Not in the US
Palpebral reflex for dogs / cats
present, too light for surgery
Palpebral reflex horses
always maintain weak to moderate
reflex
Llamas and palpebral reflex
always maintain moderate to brisk reflex
Small ruminants, Cattle and palpebral reflex
not helpful...put a towel over their head
Globe position for dogs / cats
ventral deviation not staring right at you...too light for surgery
Globe position for Small Ruminants
not helpful
Globe position for Horses
eyes shift a lot
Globe position for Cattle
ventral deviation is good
Nystagmus in horses
With inhalants the horse is too light, may move :(
Which animal lacrimates the most under anesthesia?
Horses
Is a corneal reflex happen when the animal is alive?
yes, dead if absent
What are the four criteria for anesthesia?
Hypnosis
Analgesia
Muscle Relaxant
Amnesia
Which drugs produce panting reliably?
opioids
What should be the MAP for small animals? Horse?
Small animals: 60 mmHg

Horse: 70 mmHg

enough pressure to perfuse the tissues
What are indirect ways for monitoring venous pressure?
doppler (only systolic)

Oscillometric (diastolic, systolic, & mean)
What are direct ways for monitoring venous pressure?
Arterial Pressure (arterial catheter)

Central Venous pressure (most accurate measurement of cardiac output)
What does a pulse oximeter measure?
Amount of Hemoglobin that is saturated w/oxygen

place it peripheral to get an idea of tissue perfussion
Why would a patient have low oxygen saturation (7)?
Severe hypoxia
Inadvertent bronchial intubation
Embolic events
pulmonary edema
Hypoventilation (esp. w/room air)
Anaphylaxis
Bronchospasm
What is the monitor that measures end-tidal level of CO2?
Capnometer

the display is the capnograph
What are blood components?
blood products prepared by centrifugation, sedimentation, apheresis

packed RBC
Plasma (fresh/frozen)
Cryoprecipitate
PRP
Cryosupernatant
What are blood derivatives?
Blood products prepared by biochemical methods
Indications for Blood transfusions?
Anemia/blood loss
Hypoproteinemia
Bleeding disorders
Replace coag anticoag factors (DIC, LF
Pancreatitis (alpha 2-macroglobulin)
Reasons for whole blood transfusion?
severe blood loss
anemia
thrombocytopenia (not a great option)
Packed red blood cells
Treatment anemia/ongoing blood loss

Concurrent hypoalbunemia or coagulopathy (give colloid too)
Plasma indications?
Bleeding disorders
Colloidal support
other (pancreatitis)
Is there a universal type for feline blood groups?
No,cats have natural occurring alloAb except for AB cats
Which cats have the most severe blood reaction?
Type B cats; high titer of anti-A Ab
What type or most cats?
type A
What is the universal type for dogs?
negative 1.1,1.2, 3, 5,7
blood donor selection screens in dogs?
Brucella
Ehrlichia**
Babesia
Mycoplasma
HW**
Blood donor selection screens in cats?
FeLV
FIV
Mycoplasm
Haemofelis
Haemominutum
What kind of supplementation is needed?
Iron
Major blood cross
Donor RBC & recipient plasma
Minor blood cross
Recipient plasma & Donor RBC

Important for whole blood transfusion
How to blood products be administered?
Room temperature
mixed thoroughly
Filtered administration set
Peripheral veins
IO/IP
Rate of infusion?
start @ 2.5 ml/kg/hr

watch for rxn -> increase to 10ml/hr after 30 min.
Types of transfusion rxn?
Immunologic
Non-immunologic
What type of Immunologic rxns?
RBC (hemolytic)
plasma proteins
WBCs/platelets
What type of non-immunologic rxns?
volume overload
infection
citrate toxicity (anticoag used in blood storage)
What do you do if rxn is unclear the source?
Stop transfusion
Monitor TPR, BP
wait
restart (maybe slower)
Alternatives to blood transfusion?
Oxyglobin
Synthetic colloids
The outcomes of bleeding in regards to hemostasis?
Bleeding stops (adequate)
Thrombosis (excessive)
Persistent bleeding (inadequate)
What maintains inactive platelets?
Prostacyclin and NO from endothelial cells
Where does the intrinsic pathway take place and what test do you do?
Intravascularly w/activation of F12

aPTT
Where does the extrinsic pathway take place and what test do you do?
tissue phospholid is released upon injury -> provides surface for Ca++ F7

PT
What actually forms the clot?
Fibrin meshwork
What does a pre-surgical eval consist of?
History/Signalment: consider medications/clotting disorders

PE
Laboratory Eval (clotting panel)
How is hemorraghe controlled?
Vascular reaction
Formation of platelet plug
Activation of coagulation cascade
When does a platelet plug form?
5 minutes after vascular injury
Series of events for platelet activation
damage -> exposed collagen -> vWDF helps platelets bind -> platelets secrete ADP and TXA2 -> activates circulating platelets -> growing platelet plug
What two things help with formation of a platelet plug?
PF-3 on platelet surfaces

TF released from injured tissues
Intrisic pathway
Intravascularly w/activation of Factor 12
Extrinsic pathway
TF is released a provides a surface to bind Ca and Factor 7
Both pathways end result
Fibrin
When do platelets disaggregate from the fibrin clot?
24-48 hours
What is responsible for lysing a clot?
Plasmin

it is neutralized by anti-plasmin, but plasminogen interferes during clot formation
Why does IV coagulation not happen?
Platelets localize fibrin
Prostacylcin is produced by intact vessel wall

Activated factors are removed efficiently

Anti-thrombin-3 (liver)
Primary Hemorrhage
Occurs immediately after
Delayed Hemorrhage
Ineffective Tx of 1 hemorrhage
- Intermediate (< 24 hours)
- Secondary (>24 hours)

check blood pressure before closing
Types of Surgical Hemostasis
Digital
Crushing
Energy
Laser
Ultrasonic Energy
Vessel Ligation
Topical
Digital pressure
low-pressure, small vessels

Blot, don't wipe

Temporarily stops hemorrhage
What pathway does crushing vessels initiate?
Extrinsic
Crushing vessels should only be used on vessels being cuts away?
True, don't crush the saved ones
Small vessel forcep direction
down
Large vessel forcep direction for ligation
up
Electrocoagulation uses
Cut: low voltage, constant cur
Coag: High voltage, but current is often off

Blend: medium voltage with current on 60% of the time
Monopolar coagulation
Form of Electrocoagulation

most common

uses a hangpiece and a ground plate under the patient
Does the field need to be dry around the patient for Monopolar coagulation?
Yes

make sure you have ample gel and no alternate energy paths
Bipolar coagulation
No ground plate; electrode does active and return of current to the generator
Does the field need to be dry around the patient for Bipolar coagulation?
No
Laser is used for..
incision, excision, ablation of soft tissue and hemostasis of vessels < 0.6mm
What needs to be removed after the Laser prior to suturing?
eschar
Ultrasonic energy
Harmonic scalpel

uses rapid vibrations for cutting and coagulation
What is the best form of surgical hemostasis?
vessel ligation
Transfixation ligature
overcomes pulses when recovered: penetrates before suturing

use on pedicles, axillary artery, and femoral
What is important for vascular clips?
Make sure they are the correct size

should be no more than 2/3 or less than 1/3 of the diameter of the vessel
How does Gelfoam work?
Absorbs blood and swells

Acts as a scaffold for clots

For oozing surfaces, don't leave in infected sites
Types of Topical Hemostastic products
Gelatin sponge
Bone wax
Thrombin
Hemablock
Does bon wax absorb well?
No, use sparingly so not to impede healing
What can excess blood lead to in a wound?
Pain, Ischemia, Necrosis
Bacterial Medium

Blood must be clotted & organized before healing can occur
What does a scab provide?
Limited protection from external
Stages of wound repair
Inflammatory
Debridement
Repair
Fibroblast/Proliferation
Capillary infiltration
Epithelization
Wound contraction
Maturation
Primary closure (1st intention healing)
closed primarily by sutures
When is primary closure appropriate?
clean surgical incision
clean, wound < 6 hours

wound adequately debrided and drained
Delayed primary closure
closed in 3-5 days after injury before granulation tissue has appeared
What is delayed primary closure indicated?
heavily contaminated wounds
Infected wounds
wounds > 6 hours

wounds w/severely contused, edematous wounds
Contraction and Epithelialization

(2nd intention healing)
wound is not sutured but allowed to heal entirely by granulation tissue
When is 2nd intention healing appropriate?
Very large wounds
when primary closure fails

**have used punch graphs & get nutrients from granulation tissue
Secondary Closure (3rd intention healing)
the wound is closed later than five days after injury

granulation tissue is present so bring the two surfaces together

after 5 days
Second Closure (3rd intention) indications
severly infected wounds
wounds w/massive tissue destruction

not enough skin to close
Clean surgical wound
no breaks in aseptic technique
GI, urinary tract not entered
no apparent inflammation
no prophylactic antibiotics
Clean-contaminated surgical wound
contaminated area is entered but no spillage

antimicrobial prophylaxis, but not needed for post-op
Contaminated surgical wound
Fresh traumatic wound
break in aseptic technique
gross spillage has occured
acute inflammation w/o pus
antimicrobial prophylaxis indicated
Dirty surgical wound
pus is present
perforate viscus
traumatic wound > 4hours
Therapeutic antibiotics are indicated
Components to the Inflammatory Stage of Wound repair
Acute Inflammatory Rxn
*Vascular
*Movement of cells
*Localization of the inflammatory
Chronic Inflammatory Rxn
what leaks out during the vascular rxn of the inflammatory stage?
plasma-like fluid out of the venules

no cells

dilutes the toxic substances and aid in movement of cells
What is the main characteristic of the movement of cells?
Mostly PMNs force their way through venule openings

* when they die (quickly) their exudate assumes puss
* not all pus is from bacterial inflammation
Factors determining if pus will lead to an abscess?
extent of injury to normal tissue
extent of cellular rxn

extent to which PMN's accumulate and die
Why would inflammation or infection spread so quickly?
If they lymphactics could not be plugged by fibrin

lymphatics are always injured during injury
What produced the classic inflammation signs?
Vasodilation
Leakage of fluid
lymphatic obstruction to localize
pressue/chemical stimulation
Wounds require what cell to heal?
Mononuclear cells-macrophages

they attract fibroblasts into the wound and may have a role in causing firbroblast maturation

they clean up the area
Debridement stage characteristics
6 hours after wounding

necrotic tissues, organisms are eaten by neutrophils, macrophages and lymphocytes might help w/immunity
Repair stage characteristics
lag phase during the 1st 4-6 days of wound healing

there is no increase in wound strength
Processes of repair stage
Fibroblast proliferation & fibroplasia
Capillary infiltration
Epithelialization
Wound contraction
When do fibroblasts appear in the wound?
3rd day

move by contact guidance and cease moving by contact inhibition
Collagen is usually synthesized on what day?
4 or 5

fibroblast & collagen cross-linking increase tensile strength
What is fibroblast replication and collagen prodction dependent on?
New capillary ingrowth into the wound
What is granulation tissue?
The result of proliferation of capillary loops from the endothelium of cut capillaries in the wound
When does granulation tissue appear?
3-6 days after wounding
healthy granulation tissue should appear...
red
firm
flat
nonexuberant
Proud flesh?
Exuberant granulation tissue
mounded, dull

collage exceeded capillary formation
Why is granulation tissue so important?
extremely resistant to infection
epithelium can migrate across
wound contraction
supplies fibroblast -> collagen
What is the first sign of repair?
epithelialization
Can epithelization occur prior to fibroplasia?
Yes
Incised/Surgical wounds
can epithelialize w/o granulation tissue

may bridge gap w/in 24-48 hours

by the 5th day cells produce keratin and dislodge scab
excised or open wounds need what for epitheliaization?
Granulation tissue
wound contraction
independent of epithelialization
no new skin formed

seen 5-9 days after wounding

stops when wound edges meet
What theory is more suppported for wound contraction?
Pull theory- granulation tissue fibroblasts act as smooth muscle
Intussusceptive growth
skin thickness being restored to normal after being stretched during contraction

new collagen and epithelial proliferation
Maturation stage
collagen content in the wound rapidly increases during the first 3 weeks of healing
Properties of Povidone-iodine solution
controls wound sepsis
broad antimicrobial

should be used diluted (1%)

Inactivated by blood cells, pus, serum
Toxic to would healing cells
Properties of Chlorhexidine diacetate

Nolvasan
Effective antibacterial @ high dilutions - lavage @ 0.05 -1&

Broad spectrum w/body fluids, pus

Not effective again Pseudomonas
Properties of Chlorhexidine diacetate

Hibiclens
wide antimicrobial INCLUDING Pseudomonas

Effectiveness not significantly reduced by organic matter

Has residual activity following application
Layered debridement
remove layers starting @ surface to wound depth

most commonly used - especially on extremities
En bloc debridement
complete excision
Silver sulfadiazine
Topical Antibiotic cream

great for burns & wounds w/necrotic debris

might suppress bone marrow & lymphocytes w/large wounds
Nitrofurazone
topical wide spectrum for contaminated wounds

draws body fluids through tissues to dilute exudates
Triple Antibiotic
Small contaminated wounds

Inactivated by purulent exudate

stimulates wound re-epitheliaization
Sugar or Honey
Osmotic bacteriocidal action
Adherent bandages
early debridement stage
Wet-to-dry bandage
wounds with necrotic tissue, foreign matter or a viscous exudate on the surface

fluid dilutes the exudate so it can be absorbed
Dry-to-dry
wounds w/loose necrotic tissue & foreign material on their surface

place an absorbent layer on top of it
Wet-to-wet
wounds w/copious exudate and little foreign debris and necrotic tissue

stay wet, less damage, but can promote bacterial growth
Nonadherent
reparative stage of healing w/formation of granulation tissue

either with or w/o petrolatum, depending on granulation tissue
Occlusive
Nonabsorbent bandages that occlude the wound surface, but permeable to air

partial thickness wounds, clean, non-draining
Hydrogel wound dressing
amorphous gel that rehydrates necrotic tissues

nonadherent

use on healthy tissue during re-epitheilalization
How to decide to close a wound...
time since injury
degree of contamination
amount of tissue damage
thoroughness of debridement
location
patient's condition

possibility of closure w/o dead-space or tension
Principles of Wound closure?
Control hemorrhage
maintain blood supply
when healthy, close by suturing
obliterate dead space
avoid tension on the suture
avoid tight sutures
What sutures don't you use with wound closure in contaminated wounds?
Mutlifilament
Nonabsorable
Chromic gut
How deep should undermining happen in the skin?
Deep to cutaneous trunci muscle

suture subQ then skin
Tension-relieving techniques
Walking sutures
Stent
Relaxing incision
Multiple punctate relaxing incisions
walking sutures have small bites in wound, bigger bites of dermis?
True

obliterates dead space
Indications for wound drainage?
Incomplete debridement
massive contamination
excessive dead space
questionable tissue
Types of drainage
Active: Jackson Pratt
Passive: Penrose
Why are diabetic patients prone to infection?
Decreased humoral antibody production
Vasculitis
Leukocyte deficits
When does anemia hinder wound healing?
when there is hypovolemia

<15% see changes
At what time do steroids have to be present to decrease many wound requirements?
at the time of wounding or immediately after

4-5 days later will still have normal collagen synthesis
Are there more leukocytes and necrosis with electroscalpels?
Yes, risk of infection is double
What is the main way to limit infection of wound?
Remove dead spaces
Seroma predisposing factors
excessive dead space that is not closed or drained

excessive motion of surgical site
How to manage a seroma?
immobilize area
pressure bandage: fluid will reabsorb

can aspirate is large amount -> scrub first
Dehiscence
would fails to gain sufficient strength to withstand the stresses on it

#1 Improper suture placement
Signs of dehiscence
serosanguineous discharge from wound
5-8 days after

manage: clean, debride, suture w/monofilament non-absorbable or 2nd intention