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258 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
contract and relax
electrical
repolarization and depolarization
mechanical
systole(contract)
depolarization
diastole(relaxation)
repolarization
measures electrical current in heart
electrocardiogram
decrease HR at rest, rest and digest
parasympathetic
increase HR at rest, fight or flight
sympathetic
specialized cells in right atrium that alter HR by altering speed of action potential conduction through the heart, these impulses cauase the atria to contract
sino atrial node, pacemaker
delayed impulse giving the atria time to fully contract before impulse is sent to ventricle
atrioventricular node
septum of heart, separates right and left branches
bundle of HIS
wind superiorly after they branch from the bundle of HIS, send impulses through ventricles causing them to contract form apex to base
purkinje fibers
electrical depolarization of atria, occurs just prior to atrial systole(mechanical contraction)
P wave
electrical depolarization of ventricles, occurs prior to ventricular systole (mechanical contraction), hides wave of atrial repolariation, (diastole-relaxation)
QRS wave
electrical repolarization of ventricle, occurs prior to ventricular relaxation, diastole
T wave
count of QRS complexes in a given time period
heart rate
repolarization of ventricles occurs just prior to what?
ventricular diastole
the QRS complex occurs just prior to the mechanical event of what?
ventricular systole
electrical depolarization of the atria occurs just prior to what?
atrial systole
this electrical event occurs just prior to the mechanical event of atrial systole
P wave
what event on an EKG hides atrial repolarization
QRS complex
this conductile tissue sens the cardiac action potentials through the ventricles causing them to contract apex to base
purkinje fibers
where does the electrical signal in the heart travel to next after it has arrived at the Bundle of HIS
purkinje fibers
what mechanical event follows the Pwave in an EKG
atrial systole
the electrical event indicating depolarization of the ventricles is depicted on an EKG by
QRS complex
the spontaneous depolarization/repolarization events occur in a regular and continuous manner in cardiac muscle, referred to as-
rhthmicity
reduced permeability to potassium ions but still allow sodium ions to leak into cells
automaticity
stroke volume x heart rate, amt of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute
cardiac output
amount of blood pumped/contraction of each ventricle
stroke volume
rapid breathing would occur as a result of
low blood pH
if a person'g stroke volume decreased and their heart rate stayed the same, what effect would this have on their cardiac output
it would decrease
in the frog cardiovascular physio-ex exercise, what happened to the HR after the addition of pilocarpine?
decreased
in physio ex what happend to hr after addition of atropine
increased
in physio ex what happened to HR after addition of epinephrine
double increase
what happened to HR after addition of digitalis
double decrease
can healthy heart muscle tetanize?
yes
which leukocyte releases histamine
basophil
man has a wbc count of 2000 wbc per cubic millimeter of blood. what disorder does he have?
leukemia
name a function of eosinophils
kill parasitic worms
B lymphocytes function to
mature into plasma cells
T lymphocytes function to
attack other cells that have been directly infected
blood is classified as which type of tissue
connective tissue
after spinning blood in a centrifuge where deo the formed elements end up in the test tube
bottom
a person with A and B antigens on their red blood cells has what blood type
AB
what is the most common leukocyte
neutrophil
what test would you perform to if you suspected your patient was anemic
hematocrit
my blood coagulate/clots with anti A and anti Rh, it doesn't coagulate with anti Bwhat is my blood type
A+
which condition is characterized by an abnormal excess of erythrocytes
polycythemia
a person with blood type O has which antibodies in their plasma
anti A and anti B
if a male has hematocrit of 59 RBCs what would your diagnosis be
polycythemia
what is the least numerous WBC
basophil
what is the range for a normal female RBC count
4.3-5.2 million rbc/mm
abnormal proliferation of immature WBC
leukemia
what areagranulocytic WBCs
monocytes, lymphocytes, T cells and B cells
fxn of the platelets is
blood clotting
what blood type is the universal donor
o-
you put anti A in a blood sample and there is clotting. you put anti B into the same blood and it also clots, what is the blood type
AB
do birds have nucleated erythrocytes
yes
what is normal RBC count
4.5 in females, 5.5 in males
what is a normal WBC count
4000-11000
what is normal hematocrit
47+-7(male), 42+-5(female)
three types of leykocytes in order from most to least common
neutrophil,eosinophil,basophil
differential WBC count tells you that
there is a problem or source of pathology
non living fluid matrix
plasma
living cells
formed elements
RBC, transport O2 carried in blood
erythrocytes
WBC, defense system
leukocytes
low oxygen carrying capacity of blood, symptom of diseased state
anemia
more than 11,000 WBC, typical response to bacterial or viral invasion in body
leukocytosis
less than 4000 WBC, immune system abnormalities
leukopenia
presence or absence of antigens allows each person's blood cells to be classified into several different groups
aggluntinagens
you put anti A in a blood sample and there is clotting. you put anti B into the same blood and it also clots, what is the blood type
AB
do birds have nucleated erythrocytes
yes
what is normal RBC count
4.5 in females, 5.5 in males
what is a normal WBC count
4000-11000
what is normal hematocrit
47+-7(male), 42+-5(female)
three types of leykocytes in order from most to least common
neutrophil,eosinophil,basophil
differential WBC count tells you that
there is a problem or source of pathology
non living fluid matrix
plasma
living cells
formed elements
RBC, transport O2 carried in blood
erythrocytes
WBC, defense system
leukocytes
low oxygen carrying capacity of blood, symptom of diseased state
anemia
more than 11,000 WBC, typical response to bacterial or viral invasion in body
leukocytosis
less than 4000 WBC, immune system abnormalities
leukopenia
presence or absence of antigens allows each person's blood cells to be classified into several different groups
aggluntinagens/antigens
performed, float in plasma, act against agglutinagens that are not present on a persons own RBCs
agglutinins/antibodies
gray squiggles with purple dots
leukemia
little pink dots
human polycythemia
1/2 moon shapes
sickle cell anemia
goldish color, biconcave, lighter in the middle, no nucleas
human blood
pink/purple dots ver tiny and close together, no nucleus
cat blood
pink, little larger than cat clutered pink with blue trapped inside, no nucleus
camel blood
light purple tiny close dots with darker purple on top, close together, nucleated
bird blood
like fish, but dots are bigger, darker purple, nucleated
frog blood
small eye balls, smaller than frog, lighter and more spread out, nucleated
fish blood
performed, float in plasma, act against agglutinagens that are not present on a persons own RBCs
agglutinins/antibodies
gray squiggles with purple dots
leukemia
little pink dots
human polycythemia
1/2 moon shapes
sickle cell anemia
goldish color, biconcave, lighter in the middle
human blood
small very scattered purple dots
horsehoe crab/limulus
measured blood pressure using sphymomanometer is?
systolic/diastolic
amount of air you can maximally expire after maximal inspiration
vital capacity
this type of receptor senses changes in H+ and O2 in vessels which regulate blood pressure
chemoreceptors
measured resistance blood encounters as it passes through the vessels depending on vessel constriction and blood viscosity
total peripheral resistance
what happens to BP during exercise
increases
how does change in blood viscosity affect blood pressure
the less vicious the lower the BP
what part of the brain controls both blood pressure and respiration
medulla oblongata
blood pressure=
cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
the amount of air that can be maximally expired after a maximal inspiration is
vital capacity
receptors in the aorta and the carotid arteries, they sense changes in blood pressure
baroreceptors
when you exercise the buildup of H+ in your blood makes your blood
more acidic
what receptor type sense changes in CO2 and H+ in the plasma
chemoreceptors
amount of blood moving through body area or entire cardio system in a given amount of time
blood flow
force blood exerts against wall of a BV
blood pressure
opposition of blood flow resulting from friction as blood goes through BV
peripheral resistance
thickness of blood
blood viscosity
volume in ventricles at end of diastole before contraction
end diastolic volume
blood remaining in ventricles at end of systole
end systolic volume
amount of blood pumped per contraction of each ventricle
stroke volume
amount of blood pumped by each ventricle/min
cardiac output
amount of ari exhaled or inhaled during rest
tidal volume
amount of air in lungs after complete exhalation
residual volume
amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation
inspiratory reserve volume
amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation
expiratory reserve volume
total vol x breaths per min
minute respiratory volume
vital capacity
total volume+inspiratory reserve volume+ expiratory reserve volume
blood pressure
cardiac output x total peripheral resistance
cardiac output
blood pumped per min x heart rate
averatge blood pressure
120/80 (systolic/diastolic)
sympathetic enervation causes
increased HR at rest
total amount of air lungs can hold
total lung capacity
constriction of vessels
increase total peripheral resistance
dilation of vessels
decrease total peripheral resistance
peripheral resistance depend on what?
blood viscosity, vessel length, vessel radius
the amount of blood pumped by the heart in a single beat is called
stroke volume
if stroke volume decreased, what would HR do?
increase
bile does what to fats
emulsifies them
what are the products of lipid digestion
glycerides and 3 fatty acids
parasympathetic enervation causes
decreased HR at rest
what enzyme causes bread to taste sweet when it is digested
salivary amylase
high levels of CO2 make the blood
acidic
the chewing process is called
mastication
after the digestive process, what are excess sugars stored as
glycogen
in what environment does pepsin work best
acidic
name the enzyme that digests protein in the small intestine
trypsin
what term is used to describe the effect high heat has on enzymes
denaturation
true or false, bile salts digest lipids into fatty acids and glycerides
false
what is the ratio for carbs C,H,O
1:2:1
pepsin would digest what food
chicken
salivary amylase would digest what food
french bread
pancreatic lipase would digest what food
olive oil
test tube w/ 5ml water, 2ml 10% starch in 37 deg. water bath, tests neg for reducing sugars, why?
no amylase in the solution
large protein molecules produced by body cells
enzymes
molecules on whih they act
substrates
enzyme produced by salivary glands
salivary amylase
enzyme produced by pancreas
trypsin
enzymatic production of pancreas
pancreatin
hydrolysases fats and oils
pancreatic lipase
protein digestion
hydrolysis
breakdown large particles
emusification
what are 3 need for digestion
right enzyme, environment, substrates
pH in mouth
6.75-7, slightly acidic
pH in stomach
2, acidic
pH in small intestine
8, basic
measure of acidity or alkalinity(basic) of a solution
pH
breakdown begins in mouth
salivary amylase
breakdown in small intestine
pancreatic amylase
storage fat is glycerol bound to 3 fatty acids
lipids
enzyme in stomach
pepsin, acidic env. pH 2
enzyme in small intestine
trypsin, basic env. pH 8-11
perfect test tube for carb digestion
in mouth, amylase and starch, no heat or ice
what is the substrate for lipid digestion
litmus cream (lipid)
what is the enzyme for lipid digestion
lipase
perfect test tube for lipid digestion
lipid, lipase and bile salt
what is the substrate for protein digestion
albumin
what is the enzyme for protein digestion
pepsin
perfect test tube for protein digestion
pepsin, HCL(pH 1 or 2) and albumin
looks like an ear on the side of face
parotid gland
little tiny ear
accessory parotid gland
conects parotid and accessory
parotid duct
under tongue
sublingual gland
long tube
esophagus
filled in red circle off of stomach
pyloric sphincter
red lining in stomach
rugae of stomach
in between liver lobes
falciform ligament
under right liver, small and green
gallbladder
yellow stuff between intestines
mesentery
purple, beside left lobe of liver
spleen
orange/yellow
pancreas
long, red, below liver
duodenum
yellow line between duodenum and pancreas
common bile duct
right by the gallbladder, yellow, barely able to see
cystic duct
below liver, yellow
common hepatic duct
pigment arising from body's destruction of hemoglobin
urochrome
urine excessively concentrated, crystalize
kidney stones/renal canaliculi
high blood sugar
glycosuria
albumin in urine
albuminuria
increase membrane permeability
physiologic albuminuria
presence of fat metabolism in excessive amounts
ketonuria
RBC in urine
hematuria
hemoglobin in urine
hemoglobinuria
bile pigments in urine
bilirubinuria
WBC in urine
pyuria
chemical substances that form crystals or precipitate from solution
unorgainzed sediments
urine is negative, increases epithelial cells, pus cells, RBC and casts
organized sediments
pH range in urine
4.5-8, normal=6, changes caused by infection or vegetarian lifestyle
specific gravity of urine
1.001-1.030, heavier than water b/c of dissolved solutes
what happens if urine is excessively concentrated
dissolved solutes will percipitate and form kidney stones or renal caliculi
what are normal urinary constituents
water, urea, sodium, potassium, phosphate, sulfate ions, creatine, uric adid
what condition is caused by glucose and indicative of diabetes mellitus
glycosuria
what in the urine is indicative of glomerular damage
albuminuria
presence of this in urine is an indication of abnormal metabolic process because of starvation or diabetes
ketone bodies, ketonuria
presence of RBC in urine
erythrocytes
condition indicative of liver pathology, hetpatitis, cirrhosis
bilirubinuria
presence of WBCs in urine, indication in urinary tract
leukocytes
name 3 constituents that might be present if a urinary tract infection exists
WBC, RBC, casts
how does a urinary tract infection influence urine pH
becomes alkaline
how does starvation influence urine pH
becomes acidic
name 3 major nitrogenous wastes found in the urine
urea, uric acid, creatine*
what is the primary fuction of the kidneys?
to remove nitrogenous wastes
what are the secondary functions of the kidneys?
maintaining electrolyte, acid-base, and fluid balance
what is the daily filtration of urine
~200L of fluid
what is the functional unit of the kidney
nephron
what is a tuft of capillaries
glomerulus
processes plasma-derived filtrate to form urine, directly connects to Bowman's capsule, remainder of 5 sections
renal tubule
what reabsorbs glucose, amino acids, Na+ and K+,secretes ammonium into filtrate to maintain pH
proximal convoluted tubule
what is freely permeable to water, and not ions
descending loop of henle
what facislitates diffusion of Na+, K+ and Cl- and impermeable to water
ascending loop of henle
what has selective secretion and reabsorption of Na+, Cl- and H+
distal convoluted tubule
tubules that transport urine from kidneys
ureters
muscular sac that temporarily stores urine
bladder
muscles tube that drains urine from bladder and excretes it out of body
urethra
what influences the relase of the indirect aldosterone into blood
adrenal cortex
what influences the realse of direct antidiuretic hormone (ADH)into blood
posterior pituitary gland
all biochemical reactions in the body
metabolism
breakdown materials
catabolism
build up molecules
anabolism
fixed body temperature
homeothermic
maintain metabolism and body heat
thyroxine
causes thyroid to produce more thyroxine
thyroid stimulating hormone
blood of thyroxine gland
target tissue
removal of thyroid
thyroidectomy
drug inhibits production of thyroxine
propylthiouracil
insulin not produced by pancreas
diabetes mellitus type 1
insulin produced by pancreas but the body fails to respond to it
diabetes mellitus type 2
drug that kills insulin production cells and makes diabetic
alloxan
what is the study of glands and their hormonal secretions
endocrinology
what is the series of ductless glands that secrete messenger molecules (hormones) into the circulation. these travel to distant body cells and result in physiological responses
endocrine system
tissu which is the receptor and affector for a hormone thyroid
target tissue
cause uptake of glucose into cell ot be stored as glycogen
insulin
maturation of developing follicle
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
in the metabolism experiment, what was the effect of thyroxine on the overall metabolic rate of animals
thyroxine increased metabolic rates of animals
what inhibits the level of thyroxine
propylthiouracil
what hormones major action is to promote uterine growth?
estradiol
if testosterone was used in place of estrogen would there be a change?
no because different hormones have different receptors and modes of action
what drug caused the rat to become diabetic
alloxan
when insulin travels to cells of the body, concentration of what compund will elevate within the cells?
glucose