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82 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The hormone that is regulated by the rennin-angiotensin system is a. aldosterone b. ADH c. Thyroid d. Prolactin |
a. aldosterone |
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The hormone that works on a positive feedback system to cause labor contractions is a. growth hormone b. cortisol c. oxytocin d. epinephrine |
c. oxytocin |
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What type of hormone is bovine somatotropin (BST)? a. estrogen b. growth hormone c. prolactin d. insulin |
b. growth hormone naturally occurring in cattle |
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Diabetes insipidus is caused by a lack of what hormone? a. ADH b. aldosterone c. LH d. calcitonin |
a. ADH |
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The neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates are considered to be a a. neural unit b. motor unit c. nerve fiber d. muscle bundle |
b. motor unit |
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CSF lies within the a. epidural space b. subdural space c. subarachnoid space d. epiarachnoid space |
c. subarachnoid space |
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Th two ions that are actively pumped into and out of cells that result in polarization of the cells are a. sodium, chloride b. sodium, potassium c. acetylcholine, water d. calcium, chloride |
b. sodium, potassium |
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Which of the following is not a response of increased stimulation to the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. constriction of the pupils b. dilation of bronchioles c. decreased HR d. increased digestive activity |
b. dilation of bronchioles |
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The anterior pituitary hormone that promotes follicular development on the ovary is a. LH b. glucagon c. FSH d. estrogen |
c. FSH |
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What is the normal response to progesterone? a. maintenance of pregnancy b. inducing estrus c. milk let-down d. initiation of parturition |
a. maintenance of pregnancy |
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What structure is not part of the foot of the horse? a. hoof, corium b. distal end of the proximal phalanx c. distal phalanx d. navicular bone |
b. distal end of the proximal phalanx The proximal phalanx is not included as part of the foot of the horse |
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The dermis is also called the a. cutis b. subcutis c. corium d. subcorium |
b. subcutis also called hypodermis |
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What layer of skin contains sebaceous and sweat glands? a. dermis b. epidermis c. subcorium d. hypodermis |
a. dermis |
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The oil glands that are responsible for lubricating the skin and hair are called a. anal glands b. mammary glands c. ceruminous glands d. sebaceous glands |
d. sebaceous glands |
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The glands found in the external ear canal are called a. sebaceous glands b. horn glands c. eccrine sweat glands d. ceruminous glands |
d. ceruminous glands |
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The glands on the lips of cats used for marking territory are called a. apocrine sweat glands b. circumoral glands c. horn glands d. anal sacs |
b. circumoral glands |
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Dog hair grows a. in cycles b. continually c. from specialized glands d. in layers |
a. in cycles |
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What muscle is responsible for "raising the hackles" on a dog's back? a. latissimus dorsi b. subcutis externa c. arrector pili d. epithelia errecti |
c. arrector pili |
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What is the largest organ in the equine body? a. lungs b. liver c. skin d. brain |
c. skin |
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What structure is located most distal on a horse's leg? a. ergot b. elbow joint c. chestnut d. withers |
a. ergot |
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Which of the following types of hair make up the undercoat of mammals and are also called wool hairs? a. primary b. tactile c. vibrissa d. secondary |
d. secondary |
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Where is the sensitive laminae of an equine hoof located? a. frog b. wall c. white line d. bars |
c. white line The white line should not be penetrated with the nail during shoeing, because the nail will enter the sensitive laminae layer |
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An animal's body temperature is not routinely affected by a. drinking water b. sex of an animal c. exercise d. time of day |
b. sex of an animal |
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Evaporation or water from the body results in cooling. Which of the following causes the most common types of evaporated heat loss in animals? a. running, drinking b. drinking, panting c. panting, sweating d. sweating, bathing |
c. panting, sweating |
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Inflammation of the mammary glands is termed a. hepatitis b. blepharitis c. mastitis d. enteritis |
c. mastitis |
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A cat's whiskers area type of tactile hair that are also called a. vibrissa b. guard hairs c. fimbria d. cilia |
a. vibrissa |
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The absence of normal pigment in the skin is termed a. amelanosis b. albinism c. cyanosis d. keratosis |
b. albinism |
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Founder in horses is another name for a. foot rot b. laminitis c. ringbone d. thrush |
b. laminitis |
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In the equine, what term describes a degenerative condition of the frog associated with filth? a. gravel b. thrush c. toe crack d. corns |
b. thrush associated with standing in wet, filthy, contaminated ground |
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In the equine, what term describes a drainage tract resulting from a crack in the white line? a. corn b. white line disease c. gravel d. seedy toe |
c. gravel |
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The shaft or body of a long bone is called the a. epiphysis b. diaphysis c. metaphysis d. tubercle |
b. diaphysis |
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The two enlarged ends of a long bone are called the a. epiphysis b. diaphysis c. metaphysis d. chondrophyses |
a. epiphysis |
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The fibrous layer around the bone that is necessary fro bone growth, repair, nutrition, and attachment of ligaments and tendons is the a. endosteum b. peritoneum c. periosteum d. mesothelium |
c. periosteum |
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The innermost part of the shaft of a long bone that contains the bone marrow is called the a. periosteum b. medullary cavity c. compact bone d. cancellous bone |
b. medullary cavity |
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What type of joint movement decreases the angle between bones? a. abduction b. adduction c. extension d. flexion |
d. flexion |
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The elbow joint is classified by which of the following terms? a. compound hinge, synovial, flexion/extension b. synovial, ball-and-socket, universal movement d. no joint capsule, pivot, rotational movement d. simple hinge, contains no joint capsule, universal movement |
a. compound hinge, synovial, flexion/extension the elbow joint is a compound hinge joint that moves at right angles, causing flexion and extension; it is also a synovial joint |
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The hip joint is classified by which of the following terms? a. no joint capsule, ball-and-socket, flexion/extension b. synovial, hinge, freely movable c. synovial, ball-and-socket, universal movement d. no joint capsule, pivot, slightly movable |
c. synovial, ball-and-socket, universal movement the hip joint is a synovial joint classified as a ball-and-socket joint capsule of universal movement |
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The stifle joint articulates between the a. humerus, radius, ulna b. tibia, fibula, and tarsal bones c. scapula, humerus d. femur, patella, and tibia |
d. femur, patella, and tibia |
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The thoracic limb includes the a. pelvis,femur,patella,radius, ulna,tarsals,metatarsals,phalanges b. scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges c. scapula,femur,tibia,fibula,carpals, metacarpals,phalanges |
b. scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, phalanges |
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The xiphoid process is found on the a. vertebrae b. sacrum c. skull d. sternum |
d. sternum the xiphoid is on the caudal end of the sternum |
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The obturator foramen is found a. at the base of the skull b. in the mandible c. in the maxillary bone d. in the pelvis |
d. in the pelvis it helps reduce the weight of the pelvis |
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During episodes of chronic laminitis, what bone in the equine foot may rotate downward, pressing against the sole causing pain? a. navicular b. coffin c. short pastern d. cannon |
b. coffin also called a dropped sole, when rotated downward |
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The anatomic name for the hip joint is the a. temporomandibular b. glenohumeral c. femorotibial d. coxofemoral joint |
d. coxofemoral joint |
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Muscle fibers are held together by connective tissue adn are enclosed in a sheet of fibrous membrane called a. tendon b. aponeurosis c. fascia d. ligament |
c. fascia separates layers of muscle |
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A muscle whose movement increases the angle between two bones is known as a. abductor b. adductor c. extensor d. flexor |
c. extensor |
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The large, round, lateral cheek muscle used primarily for elevation of the mandible to aid in chewing is the a. sternomastoid b. masseter c. sartorius d. digastric |
b. masseter |
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The extensive aponeurosis that covers the lower back to join the superficial muscles in that area is called the a. fascia lata b. cutaneous maximus c. lumbodorsal fascia d. linea alba |
c. lumbodorsal fascia |
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The muscle that is located on the shoulder, originates on the clavicle, inserts on the ulna, and whose action is to flex the forearm is the a. clavobrachialis b. pectoantebrahialis c. sternomastoid d. latissimus dorsi |
a. clavobrachialis |
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The opening at the distal end of the simple stomach that allows for emptying of its contents into the duodenum is called the a. fundus b. body c. pylorus d. cardia |
c. pylorus |
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Which of the following sequences lists the abdominal muscle layers in order, starting with the most superficial? a. external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominis b. external oblique, internal oblique, rectus abdominis c. internal, external, transverse abdominis |
a. external oblique, internal oblique, transverse abdominis |
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The muscle that is found in the midventral abdominal area on either side of the linea alba, extending from the pubis to the upper ribs and sternum, is the a. transverse abdominis b. latissimus dorsi c. rectus abdominis d. spinotrapezius |
c. rectus abdominis |
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Which is a powerful muscle of the head that contributes to the act of chewing by closing the mouth? a. digastricus b. masseter c. mylohyodues d. platysma |
b. masseter |
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What muscle condition would result from lack or use, such as during immobilization of a fractured bone or as a result or nerve damage to a body part? a. myopathy b. atrophy c. hypertophy d. myalgia |
b. atrophy |
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What muscle is observed from the medial surface to the thigh? a. gracilis b. gastrocnemius c. biceps femoris d. caudofemoralis |
a. gracilis It is a broad superficial muscle extending down the medial surface of the thigh to insert on the tibia |
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The chief action of the quadriceps femoris group is to a. flex the foot b. extend the stifle c. extend the elbow d. abduct the hind leg |
b. extend the stifle this muscle group includes the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis/medialis/intermedius that act to extend the stifle and flex the hip |
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What is the chief action of the three heads of the triceps brachii? a. extension of the forearm b. flexor of the lower hind limbs c. adduction of the shoulder d. flexion of the neck |
a. extension of the forearm this muscle group includes the long, lateral, and medial heads. they work to extend the elbow or forearem |
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Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system? a. protection b. generation of body heat c. transport of ingesta through the intestinal tract d. movement of the skeleton |
a. protection the skin protects, not the muscle |
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Which one of the following works in opposition to the prime mover, relaxing as the prime mover is contracting? a. fixator b. antagonist c. synergist d. flexor |
b. antagonist the antagonist works in opposition to the prime mover |
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The huge, comma-shaped section of the large intestine of the horse that occupies much of the right side of the abdomen is the a. cecum b. colon c. rectum d. ileum |
a. cecum |
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Which of the following lists the sections of the small intestines in order, from anterior to posterior? a. jejunum, ileum, duodenum b. duodenum, colon, jejunum c. ileum, duodenum, cecum d. duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
d. duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
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In what portion of the ruminant digestive system does most microbial fermentation take place? a. abomasum b. duodenum c. rumen d. omasum |
c. rumen also called the fermentation vat |
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In the ruminant, the fermentation process produces gas in the rumen, which, if not eliminated, can cause bloat. what instrument can be used to relieve this condition? a. emaculator b. trocar c. burdizzo d. rochester-carmalt forceps |
b. trocar |
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Rumination is a cycle activity composed of 4 phases. which of the following is not included in this process? a. eructation b. remastication c. redeglutition d. reurination |
d. reurination the fourth phase is reinsalivation |
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Where does fermentation occur in non-ruminant herbivores, such as the horse? a. jejunum, ileum b. cecum, colon c. ileum, cecum d. rumen, cecum |
b. cecum, colon |
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What organ is located immediately behind the diaphragm in the carnivore? a. liver b. spleen c. pancreas d. kidney |
a. liver |
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Hardware disease is usually associated with ingestion of nails, wire, or other sharp objects. the portion of the digestive tract that collects objects is the a. reticulum b. omasum c. rumen d. abomasum |
a. reticulum the reticulum is the most proximal portion |
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What animal have a dental pad in place of upper incisors and canines? a. horse, cow b. cow, goat c. dog, sheep d. cat, horse |
b. cow, goat |
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The serosa that covers the organs of the abdominal cavity is called the a. visceral peritoneum b. visceral pleura c. mesentery d. parietal peritoneum |
a. visceral peritoneum |
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The connecting peritoneum that suspends the intestinal tract from the abdominal walls and contains vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply their respective organs is the a. mesentery b. omentum c. pleura d. omasum |
a. mesentery |
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What structure divides the rostral part of the pharynx into the oropharynx and nasopharynx? a. tongue b. hard palate c. epiglottis d. soft palate |
d. soft palate |
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The nucleus is an essential component of all body cells except for a. liver cells b. immature RBCs c. kidney cells d. mature RBCs |
d. mature RBCs |
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The cell membrane that surrounds tissue cells is made up of a. two lipid layers that surround a protein layer b. two protein layers that surround a lipid layer c. an outer protein layer and an inner lipid layer d. an outer lipid layer and an inner protein layer |
b. two protein layers that surround a lipid layer |
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What cell component is primarily responsible for protein synthesis? a. golgi apparatus b. mitochondria c. nucleolus d. granular endoplasmic reticulum |
d. granular endoplasmic reticulum |
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What cell component is primarily responsible for energy supply for various cell processes? a. golgi apparatus b. mitochondria c. nucleolus d. granular endoplasmic reticulum |
b. mitochondria |
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What cell component is primarily responsible for concentration and packaging of secretory products? a. golgi apparatus b. mitochondria c. nucleolus d. granular endoplasmic reticulum |
a. golgi apparatus |
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What cell component is primarily responsible for RNA production? a. golgi apparatus b. mitochondria c. nucleolus d. granular endoplasmic reticulum |
c. nucleolus |
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Which of the following functions of the epithelium is indicated when stratified squamous epithelium is highly keratinized? a. absorption b. secretion c. excretion d. protection |
d. protection keratin is an insoluble protein, Which makes stratified squamous epithelium very protective of underlying tissues |
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The lining epithelium of blood vessels is called a. mesthelium b. myoepithelium c. endothelium d. exothelium |
c. endothelium |
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What type of epithelium lines the upper portion of the respiratory system and plays an important role in the body's defense mechanism? a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium b. stratified columnar epithelium c. simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium d. stratified aquamous epithelium |
a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium The wavelike motion of cilia helps to move mucus and debris out of the respiratory system |
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The type of epithelial cell capable of significant variation in shape, depending on changes in the size of the organ that it lines is called a a. squamous epithelium b. columnar epithelium c. transitional epithelium d. cuboidal epithelium |
c. transitional epithelium transitional epithelium is cuboidal when tissue is not in a contracted state, but it may become flattened when an organ is distended |
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The mineral most important for normal contraction of striated muscle fibers is a. phosphorus b. iron c. calcium d. magnesium |
c. calcium calcium is involved in the breakage and recoupling of cross linkages between myofilaments in a striated muscle fiber |
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Cardiac muscle fibers can be identified by a. presence of cross striation, peripheral nuclei b. absence of cross striations, presence of central nuclei c. absence of cross striations, presence of peripheral nuclei d. presence of cross striations, central nuclei |
d. presence of cross striations, central nuclei\ (a) is skeletel muscle (b) is smooth muscle |
