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112 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The large muscle of the caudal aspect of the canine lower hind leg is the a. tibialis anterior b. gracilis c. semimembranosus d. gastrocnemius |
d. gastrocnemius In humans this is the calf muscle. in dogs it is the largest bellied muscle on the back of the lower hind limb |
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Which of the following is not a muscle in the abdominal group? a. external oblique b. rectus abdominis c. latissimus dorsi d. internal oblique |
c. latissimus dorsi The latissimus dorsi is part of the musculature that aids in thoracic limb movement |
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How many muscle heads are in the canine triceps brachii group? a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 |
b. 3 |
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Fascia is described as a. the facial muscular surface b. a tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue c. a broad band of muscle fiber d. a lacy network of connective tissue |
b. a tough sheet of fibrous connective tissue fascia can be found in several parts of the body but is always a sheet or band of fibrous connective tissue |
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The deltoid muscles allow fine movements of the a. shoulder b. hip c. elbow d. spine |
a. shoulder The deltoid muscles are a group of muscles at the lateral edge of the scapula; they are triangular in shape and help flex the shoulder and abduct the foreleg |
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Cats have several salivary glands. the gland that is located under the eye above the upper jaw is called the a. interorbital gland b. supraorbital gland c. infraorbital gland d. intraorbital gland |
c. infraorbital gland |
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The two gastric sphincters of the canine are a. rectal, cecal b, cardiac, pyloric c. cardiac, rectal d. pyloric, rectal |
b, cardiac, pyloric The cardiac sphincter lies in the proximal end of the stomach closest to the heart, and the pyloric sphincter lies at the distal end of the part of the stomach called the pylorus, where the stomach meets the duodenum |
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The dorsal plane divides the a. upper and lower halves of the body b. front and back halves of the body c. head from the rest of the body d. right and left sides of the body |
a. upper and lower halves of the body the dorsal plane divides the body into dorsal and ventral portions |
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The middle portion of the small intestines is the a. jejunum b. jejunem c. jajunem d. jujunem |
a. jejunum this is only divison of the small intestine that ends in -unum. the e at the beginning is for 'eat' |
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The _____pleura overlays organs in the body a. parietal b. viscous c. partial d. visceral |
d. visceral visceral always refers to an organ |
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The cat larynx is made up of four cartilages. which one is not one of them? a. arytenoid b. cricoid c. epiglottis d. glottis |
d. glottis The glottis is the opening between the vocal folds through which an e-tube passes |
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The muscle that lies along the outer thorax that looks like a fan of fingers or a jagged saw edge is the a. latissimus dorsi b. serratus ventralis c. subscapularis d. external intercostals |
b. serratus ventralis serratus means 'saw-like' |
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The prepuce is also called the a. foreskin b. flap c. prostate gland d. glans penis |
a. foreskin |
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The cardiovascular system has four components. which of the following is nor part of that system? a. heart b. blood circulation c. blood vessels d. lungs |
d. lungs the cardiovascular system includes the heart, blood, blood circulation, and blood vessels |
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The appendicular skeleton includes the a. os cordis b. ribs c. pelvic girdle d. clavicles |
c. pelvic girdle The other bones are part of the visceral skeleton |
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Which animal does not have an os penis? a. dog b. cat c. wolf d. pig |
d. pig no ungulates (hoofed animals) have an os penis |
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Which statement best describes short bones? a. greater size in one dimension than another b. filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces c. thick outer layer of compact bone d. developed along the course of tendons |
b. filled with spongy bone and marrow spaces short bones are somewhat cuboidal or approx equal in al dimensions. The exterior is a thin layer of compact bone. their function is to absorb concussion forces, and they are found in complex joints such as the carpus and tarsus |
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The scapula is an example of a a. long bone b. short bone c. flat bone d. irregular bone |
c. flat bone Flat bones are thin, expand in two dimensions, and consist of two plates of compact bone separated by spongy material. they protect vital organs such as the brain, heart, lungs, pelvic viscera, and thoracic organs |
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an example of an irregular bone is a. cervical vertebrae 1 b. metacarpal 3 c. ulna d. calcaneus |
a. cervical vertebrae 1 Irregular bones are on the median plane-- vertebra or in the skull. they do not fit into any other classification and function as protection, support and for muscle attachment |
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Which of the following is not a part of the axial skeleton? a. cervical vertebra 3 b. scapula c. skull d. thoracic vertebra 1 |
b. scapula the axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum |
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A cloven-hoofed animal stands on which digits? a. 1, 2 b. 2,3 c. 3, 4 d. 4, 5 |
c. 3, 4 usually have no first digit, second and fifth digits are vestigial or absent |
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A cloven-hoofed animal has how many phalanges on each digit? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 |
c. 3 |
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A common equine disease of the digit in horses is a. navicular disease b. EIA c. phalangeal disease d. tripping syndrome |
a. navicular disease Chronic degeneration of the equine navicular bone and includes damage to the flexor tendon in the front feet |
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A skull suture is an example of what type of joint? a. diathrosis b. synarthosis c. amphiathrosis d. cartilaginous |
b. synarthosis The skull suture is an example of a fibrous or synarthrotic joint in which fibrous tissue unites bones and permits no movement |
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The only true pivot joint in the body is the a. coxofemoral b. tarsal c. carpal d. atlantoaxial |
d. atlantoaxial |
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Muscles and ligaments attach to structures on bony surfaces. Which of the following is not one of these found in the forelimb? A. trochanter b. tubrosity c. spine d. epicondyle |
A. trochanter found only in the femur |
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Which structure will not allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through? a. meatus b. sinus c. foramen d. facet |
d. facet a smooth, nearly flat articular surface |
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The joint between the bony rib and the cartilaginous portion of the rib is called the a. cartilaginous junction b. chondrocartilagious junction c. costochondral junction d. costicartilaginous junction |
c. costochondral junction |
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Dogs have how many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae? a. 7, 13, 6 b. 7, 12, 7 c. 6, 13, 7 d. 7, 13, 7 |
d. 7, 13, 7 |
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What is the value of X in this cow's dentition chart? I 0/3, C 0/1, PM 3/3-4, M X/3 a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 |
b. 3 |
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The valves that prevent backflow of blood from the arteries to the ventricles are called the a. tricuspid b. bicuspid c. mitral d. semilunar |
d. semilunar this valve is in the artery, the other valves are located inside the heart |
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What structures disseminate electrical impulses across the ventricles a. perkinje fibers b. purkinje fibers c. purkinge fibers d. perkingi fibers |
b. purkinje fibers |
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Systole is a. contraction of the atria and ventricles b. relaxation of the atria and ventricles c. contraction of the atria and relaxation of the ventricles d. relaxation of the atria and contraction of the ventricles |
a. contraction of the atria and ventricles Diastole is the relaxation period between contractions; systole is the converse |
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The aorta leaves the heart from the a. left ventricle b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. right atrium |
a. left ventricle |
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Blood enters the heart from the pulmonary veins in the a. left ventricle b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. right atrium |
c. left atrium |
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What BP value is not as important in vet med. as compared to human medicine? a. systolic b. diastolic c. pulse d. vessel |
b. diastolic systole is the contraction that provides the BP in the arteries and is more easily measured |
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Systemic circulation includes a. portal, peripheral b. cardiac, portal c. cardiac, pulmonary d. pulmonary, appendicular |
a. portal, peripheral Systemic refers to circulation outside the thorax |
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The name of the hole between the cardiac atria that closes at birth in the mammal is a. cardiac fossa b. atria foramen c. fossa foramen d. foramen ovale |
d. foramen ovale called fossa ovalis in adults when its closed |
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Which of these is not a characteristic of lymph? a. tissue fluids b. a large number of neutrophils c. virtually colorless d. part of the circulatory system |
b. a large number of neutrophils Lymph is made up of 95% water, plasma, proteins, and chemical substances from the blood plasma. Its spare cellular content contains mostly lymphocytes |
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The tricuspid valve control the flow of blood a. into the left ventricle b. out of the left ventricle c. into the right ventricle d. out of the right ventricle |
c. into the right ventricle |
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The thymus a. is another name for the thyroid gland b. produces cells that destroy foreign substances c. is more prominent in adult than in young d. is located in the cranial abdomen |
b. produces cells that destroy foreign substances The thymus is lymph tissue located in the mediastinum, cranial to the heart. it is most easily seen in young animals, because it begins to atrophy as animal ages |
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The eardrum is also called the a. tympanic bulla b. tympanic membrane c. tympanic film d. tympanic ossicle |
b. tympanic membrane |
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What organ is most commonly associated with the capacity for extramedullary hematopoiesis if necessary? a. spleen b. pancreas c. lung d. prostate |
a. spleen The spleens major functions are hemapoiesis, phagocytosis, and storage of blood in the splenic pulp |
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Association neurons are part of what system? a. peripheral b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
b. interneuron association neurons, also called interneurons, link sensory neurons with motor neurons or other association neurons. |
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Efferent neurons are part of what system? a. motor b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
a. motor respond to afferent stimulus and create an EFFECT. |
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Afferent neurons are part of what system? a. motor b. interneuron c. sensory d. extraneuron |
c. sensory sensing neurons that AFFECT the brain to respond |
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The function of the red blood cell is to a. produce antibodies against bacteria and viruses b. act as a phagocyte c. carry oxygen to the tissues d. help increase the osmotic pressure within the vessels |
c. carry oxygen to the tissues |
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What artery carries deoxygenated blood? a. aorta b. pulmonary c. coronary d. carotid |
b. pulmonary |
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Albumin is found in the blood and is a type of a. cell b. phospholipid c. enzyme d. protein |
d. protein |
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Albumin is produced in the a. liver b. red bone marrow c. lymph nodes d. pancreas |
a. liver |
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What blood protein plays a role in hemostasis? a. gamma globulin b. fibrinogen c. beta globulin d. albumin |
b. fibrinogen |
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Which chamber of the heart is surrounded by the largest amount of cardiac muscle? a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. left ventricle |
d. left ventricle |
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How does the volume of the right ventricle compare with that of the left ventricle? a. right ventricle has less volume than the left but pumps more blood than the left ventricle b. the right ventricle has less volume than left c. the right and left have the same volume d. right ventricle generally holds more than left |
c. the right and left have the same volume |
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What cells are involved in antibody production? a. erythrocytes b. neutrophils c. lymphocytes d. basophils |
c. lymphocytes |
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Which of the following are antibodies? a. gamma globulin b. albumin c. fibrinogen d. thrombocytes |
a. gamma globulin |
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The liver receives blood via what two different routes? a. mesenteric arteries, caudal vena cava b. hepatic artery, portal veins c. cranial mesenteric artery, hepatic artery d. hepatic artery, hepatic vein |
b. hepatic artery, portal veins |
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RBC production is stimulated by a. hypoxia, erythropoietin b, erythropoietin, thrombocytes c. fibrinogen, acetylcholine d. coagulation cascade |
a. hypoxia, erythropoietin |
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What structure is the pacemaker of the heart? a. bundle of His b. purkinje fibers c. atrioventricular node d. sinoatrial node |
d. sinoatrial node |
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What is meant by cardiac output? a. strokes (beats) per minute b. volume of blood pumped per stroke c. volume of blood pumped per minute d. strokes per volume |
c. volume of blood pumped per minute CO=SV X HR |
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When an animal becomes severely dehydrated, it loses both tissue fluid and plasma fluid. what effect would this have on the hematocrit and PCV? a. increase both values b. decrease both values c. increase hematocrit, no effect on PCV d.no change |
a. increase both values |
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In the normal heart ECG, the QRS complex corresponds to what portion of the cardiac cycle? a. atrial systole b. atrial diastole c. ventricular systole d. ventricular diastole |
c. ventricular systole QRS is the depolarization of the ventricles |
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What is the function of the blood platelets? a. production of antibodies b. hemostasis c. chemotaxis d. phagocytosis |
b. hemostasis platelets help lug defects in blood vessels and start the clotting process |
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Decreased osmotic pressure in blood would cause a. decreased blood flow b. edema in tissues and /or lungs c. increased hydrostatic pressure d. increased cardiac output |
b. edema in tissues and /or lungs decreased osmotic pressure would result in fluid moving out of the tissues |
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Albumin plays a role in a. bladder control b. hydrostatic pressure in the blood c. osmotic pressure in the blood d. nervous stimulation |
c. osmotic pressure in the blood Albumin is one of the plasma proteins |
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What is the function of erythropoietin? a. stimulates urine production b. stimulates WBC production c. stimulates RBC production d. stimulates production of ADH |
c. stimulates RBC production erythropoietin is produced by the kidneys |
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Horses and ruminants gain much of their energy from a product produced by microbes during fermentation. What is this product? a. lipids b. volatile fatty acids c. amylase d. trypsinogen |
b. volatile fatty acids |
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Bile is produced in the a.spleen b. pancreas c. liver d. omasum |
c. liver |
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Bile is needed for the digestion/absorption of a. proteins b. calcium c. lipids d. ash |
c. lipids |
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Fermentation in the horse occurs in what two portions of the digestive tract? a. cecum, large colon b. ileum, jejunum c. duodenum, large colon d. cecum, rectum |
a. cecum, large colon |
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The term for an animal ingesting its own feces is a. corpophagy b. coprophagy c. corpology d. coprology |
b. coprophagy |
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In the bovine, ingesta freely moves back and forth between the rumen and the a. omasum b. abomasum c. reticulum d. duodenum |
c. reticulum |
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Which of these species does not possess a gall bladder? a. pig b. horse c. goat d. dog |
b. horse |
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What hormone stimulates the release of gastric secretions? a. gastrin b. secretin c. calcitonin d. insulin |
a. gastrin |
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What enzyme breaks down carbs in the digestive tract? a. lipase b. amylase c. protease d. tryptase |
b. amylase It is contained in saliva |
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The lymph vessel that absorb fats within the villi of the small intestine are called a. pylorus b. ileus c. lacteals d. peyers patches |
c. lacteals |
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What enzyme group breaks down fats within the digestive tract? a. amylase b. lipase c. protease d. secretin |
b. lipase |
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what structures in the mucosa of the small intestines increase the surface area? a. fimbria b. cilia c. brush borders d. villi |
d. villi villi, which also contain microvilli, are adaptations of the mucosa to increase the surface area in order to increase the absorption of nutrients |
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What are the two vitamins produced by the gut bacteria involved in fermentation? a. c, d b. b12, niacin c. b, k d. a, e |
c. b, k |
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What level of organization in the body is more complex than tissues? a. cells b. organs c. muscles d. organelles |
b. organs |
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Which of the following is isotonic to plasma? a. sterile water b. 0.9% saline solution c. 7.5% NaCl solution d. 0.45% NaCl saline solution |
b. 0.9% saline solution |
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Where would you expect to find DNA within the cell? a. in the cell membrane b. in the ribosomes c. in the cytoplasm d. in the nucleus |
d. in the nucleus |
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Where would you find stratified squamous epithelial tissue in the mammalian body? a. in the urinary bladder b. in the epidermis c. lining the heart d. in the tendons and ligaments |
b. in the epidermis |
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Glandular tissue is what type of tissue? a. epithelial b. connective c. nervous d. muscle |
a. epithelial |
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Hair is a. formed in the dermis where there is no blood supply b. composed of adipose tissue c. produced by glands in the epidermis d. produced at invaginations of epidermis called follicles |
d. produced at invaginations of epidermis called follicles |
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The layer of the integument that contains the blood vessels is the a. epidermis b. stratum corneum c. dermis d. hypodermis |
c. dermis |
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What cellular structure is responsible for the production of ATP for energy? a. ribosomes b. mitochondria c. endoplasmic reticulum d. RNA |
b. mitochondria they are the power plants of the cell |
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What type of epithelial tissue appears to be multilayered, but all cells touch the basement membrane? a. stratified b. simple c. pseudostratified d. columnar |
c. pseudostratified The nuclei appear at different levels within the cells, and the cells look to be multilayered but are not |
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What tissue type is responsible for fat storage? a. connective b. adipose c. neural d. glandular |
b. adipose |
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Osetons are associated with which of the following? a. stratified epithelial tissue b. fibrous connective tissue c. cartilage d. bone |
d. bone |
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The function of the epiphyseal plate is to a. provide for growth in the thickness of the bone b. provide for growth in the length of the bone c. provide bone for the articular surface within a joint d. provide bone with marrow substance |
b. provide for growth in the length of the bone |
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The cells involved in bone destruction are called a. oseteoblasts b. osteotomes c. osteons d. osteoblasts |
d. osteoblasts |
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What substances provides lubrication to joints and nourishment to articular cartilage cells? a. intra-articular fluid b. plasma c. serum d. synovial fluid |
d. synovial fluid it is produced by the synovial membrane that lines the joint capsules |
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The bone type that makes up the diaphysis of the long bone is a. cancellous b. spongy c. articular d. compact |
d. compact |
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How many cervical vertebrae do mammals have? a. e b. 6 c. 7 d. 10 |
c. 7 all have 7 |
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Prolonged activity causes a decrease in muscle size, which is called a. atrophy b. hypotrophy c. hypertrophy d. inotropy |
a. atrophy |
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How many bones are found in the normal equine carpus? a. 1-2 b. 3-4 c. 6-7 d. 9-10 |
c. 6-7 carpal bones 1 and 5 are present only in the minority or horses |
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Which of following is not required for muscular contraction and relaxation? a. calcium b. phosphorus c. sodium d. potassium |
b. phosphorus |
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The function of the muscles making up the quadriceps femoris is a. extension of the elbow b. extension of the stifle c. flexion of the hock d. flexion of the stifle |
b. extension of the stifle |
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Microscopically, smooth muscle can be differentiated from the other muscle types because a. it is striated b. it is in voluntary c. it lacks striations d. it possesses Purkinje fibers |
c. it lacks striations It is the only muscle type to lack striations. |
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What substance causes the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? a. acetylcholinesterase b. choline c. calcium d. actin |
a. acetylcholinesterase acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine |
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Toxins that interfere with the function of acetylcholinesterase would have what effect on muscle fibers? a. would prevent contraction completely, muscle would be paralyzed b. would cause muscles to be very weak/flaccid c. would continue to contract=tremors/cramps d. would cause rigor mortis |
c. would continue to contract=tremors/cramps |
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The space between the nerve end and the sarcolemma of the muscle is called the a. neurolemma b. synaptic cleft c. nodes of ranvier d. synaptic knob |
b. synaptic cleft |
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Aqueous humor is secreted by the a. ciliary body b. sclera c. choroid layer of retina d. iris |
a. ciliary body |
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The part of the nephron where filtration of the blood takes place is the a. hilus b. ureter c. loop of henle d. glomerulus |
d. glomerulus |
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A cat presents with a urolith blocking the urethra. Where is the first place that the urine backs up into? a. renal pelvis b. bladder c. kidney d. ureter |
b. bladder |
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The most important function of ADH is to a. decrease water absorption by the distal convoluted tubules (DVT) b. increase water reabsorption by the DVT c. decrease water resorption by the glomerulus d. increase water resorption by the glomerulus |
b. increase water reabsorption by the DVT ADH causes the kidney to conserve water when the body gets dehydrated |
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The major factor determining glomerular filtration rate is a. pulse rate b. C02 saturation of blood c. O2 saturation of blood d. BP |
d. BP |
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What is the normal function of estrogen? a. inducing estrus b. decreasing blood flow to the uterus c. inducing parturition d. constricting the cervix |
a. inducing estrus |
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What two organs have receptors to and thus are responsive to oxytocin? a. ovary, uterus b. ovary, vagina c, uterus, mammary glands d. colon, mammary glands |
c, uterus, mammary glands oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions and milk let-down |
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The hormone that regulates sodium reabsorption in the nephron is a. ADH b. estrogen c. aldosterone d. calcitonin |
c. aldosterone it is a mineralocorticoid hormone produced in the adrenal cortex |
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Osteoclasts are cells involved in bone destruction. Their activity is increased by a. calcitonin b. parathyroid hormone (PTH) c. thyroxine (T4) d. aldosterone |
b. parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
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The hormone that lowers the level of glucose in the blood by aiding the passage of glucose into cells a. glucagon b. calcitonin c. growth hormone d. insulin |
d. insulin |
