• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/377

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

377 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
"What career field does the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) designator 1C indicate?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"
Command and control (C2) systems.
"Which digit in the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) designates the career field subdivision?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"
The third.
"How many subdivisions are there in the 1C career field?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"
Eight.
"Which Air Force career field title is used to describe a 7-level skill level?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"
Craftsman.
"Which skill level indicates Airmen who have the managerial and supervisory ability to fill positions requiring broad, general (and sometimes technical) knowledge?


(001-Air Force specialty codes)"
Superintendent.
"How many college credits are needed to complete your Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) associates degree in air and space technology?


(002-Skill level attainment)"
64.
"What is the maximum amount of tuition available under the Air Force (AF) tuition assistance program?


(002-Skill level attainment)"
$4,500.00 per fiscal year.
"What rank must you be before progressing to the craftsman level?


(002-Skill level attainment)"
Staff sergeant (SSgt).
"What is the minimum amount of space experience (in months) required to attend Space 200 course?


(002-Skill level attainment)"
48.
"You can expect to reach the superintendent, 9-level, upon promotion to


(002-Skill level attainment)"
senior master sergeant (SMSgt).
"What is the minimum amount of space experience (in months) required to attend Space 300 course?


(002-Skill level attainment)"
72 months.
"The chief enlisted manager (CEM) code is assigned to personnel who have


(002-Skill level attainment)"
reached the highest level of proficiency and management skills.
"Which space operations discipline detects and tracks sea and land launched intercontinental ballistic missiles?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"
Missile warning.
"Which space operations discipline deals with completing routine and contingency commanding to individual satellites?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"
Satellite command and control (Sat C2).
"Which space operations discipline is responsible for range management, launch preparation and area clearance for all space launch and range activities?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"
Spacelift.
"Which space operations discipline detects, identifies, catalogs, and maintains surveillance on low earth orbiting and deep space satellites?


(003-Space Operations disciplines)"
Space surveillance.
"What may be a typical duty of a journeyman?


(004-Space Operations duties)"
Indoctrinates newly assigned personnel and explains local operating procedures and directives.
"What may be a typical duty of a craftsman?


(004-Space Operations duties)"
Is a highly proficient technician, ready and capable of handling any situation.
"What may be a typical duty of a superintendent?


(004-Space Operations duties)"
Plans, coordinates, and directs work activities, and manages and controls resources.
"What are the requirements to earn your basic space badge?


(005-Space badge)"
Complete certification level 1 and Space 100; maintain combat mission ready (CMR) status.
"What are the requirements to earn your senior space badge?


(005-Space badge)"
Complete certification level 2 and space 200; have six years experience.
"What are the requirements to earn your command space badge?


(005-Space badge)"
Complete certification level 3, your Community College of the Air Force (CCAF) degree, and Space 300; have nine years experience.
"What is the first step of the risk management process?


(006-Operational risk management process)"
Identify the hazards associated with the operation or activity.
"What is the last step of the risk management process?


(006-Operational risk management process)"
Periodically reevaluate the controls to ensure their effectiveness.
"What is the first rule of good housekeeping when dealing with physical hazards in the work environment?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"
Developing good personal safety habits.
"What is the only authorized item used to clean computer monitors?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"
Alcohol-free wipes.
"When storing cleaning agents or other environmental hazards in an external storage container, smoking is ""not permitted"" within how many feet?


(007-Physical hazards of your work environment)"
50 feet.
"As defined by the Air Force, what is a high voltage current?


(008-Electrical hazards)"
600 volts or greater.
"The minimum amount of electrical current required to incapacitate an average person is


(008-Electrical hazards)"
50 milliamperes.
"All of the following can create radio frequency radiation (RFR) except


(009-Electromagnetic spectrum and radio frequency radiation)"
Power lines.
"What is the ""microwave hearing effect"" in radio frequency radiation (RFR)?


(009-Electromagnetic spectrum and radio frequency radiation)"
Hearing a clicking, buzzing or chirping sound inside your head.
"What can cause a weapon system to be exempt from the technical order (TO) system?


(010-Technical order system)"
Security classification.
"What priority is assigned to a technical order (TO) change that could result in over $25,000 or 1,000 man-hours annual savings to the Air Force?


(010-Technical order system)"
Urgent.
"What can happen if you fail to follow demand-response procedures?


(010-Technical order system)"
Mission failure.
"What special marking highlights an essential operating or maintenance procedure, which, if not strictly observed, could result in injury to, or death of, personnel or long term health hazards?


(010-Technical order system)"
Warning.
"What is the purpose of secure communications?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"
To prevent the interception of information.
"What should you do when discussing classified information over non-secure communication lines?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"
Discussing classified information is not allowed.
"What should you do if there is interference on the line?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"
Speak clearly.
"Which is an Air Force e-mail authorized procedure?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"
Notifying family members of official transportation or schedule changes.
"Which is an Air Force internet access prohibited procedure?


(011-Secure and non-secure communications)"
Viewing pornographic material.
"Which of the following are Department of Defense (DOD) identified space mission areas?


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"
Space control, space force enhancement.
"What Department of Defense (DOD) space support function provides the ability to deliver satellites, payloads, and material into space?


(012-Department of Defense space doctrine)"
Spacelift.
"What Air Force (AF) doctrine defines the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use, presentation, and organization of air and space forces in military action?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Basic.
"What Air Force (AF) doctrine guides the proper organization and employment of air and space forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, and broad functional areas?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Operational.
"What Space mission area attains and maintains a desired degree of space superiority by allowing friendly forces to exploit space capabilities while denying an adversary's ability to do the same?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Space control.
"What Air Force (AF) operational function component is the result of having sufficient knowledge about space-related conditions, constraints, capabilities, and activities?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Space situational awareness.
"What Air Force (AF) operational function is the legal authority exercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Command and control.
"Which of the following is NOT a Space Operations discipline?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Air weapons control.
"Who executes operational and administrative control of assigned Air Force forces through an A-staff?


(013-Air Force and Air Force Space Command's space doctrines)"
Combatant Air Force forces (COMAFFOR).
"Which of the following is NOT an United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) mission?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"
Enables decisive psychosomatic (physiological, psychological) effects.
"Which United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) joint functional component command (JFCC) optimizes planning, execution, and force management of space operations?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"
Joint functional component command -- space (JFCC-SPACE).
"Which United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) service component provides space forces and intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) forces?


(014-United States Strategic Command)"
Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).
"What is the mission of Air Force Space Command (AFSPC)?


(015-Air Force Space Command)"
To defend the US through the control and exploitation of space.
"Which of the following is NOT an Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) strategic priority?


(015-Air Force Space Command)"
Enable decisive global kinetic (physical, material) effects.
"What is the mission of the 14th Air Force (AF)?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"
Controls and exploits space for global and theater operations.
"Who is responsible for managing the operational and communications functions of the Joint Space Operations Center (JSPOC)?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"
614th Space Operations Squadron (SOPS).
"Which Joint Space Operations Center (JSPOC) division performs operational planning to develop execution orders for joint space operations?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"
Combat plans.
"What squadron operates the SPADOC–4 system?


(016-Fourteenth Air Force)"
1 Space Control Squadron (SPCS).
"What is the secondary mission of the 12 Space Warning Squadron (SWS)?


(017-21st Space Wing)"
Perform space surveillance.
"What is a limitation of Detachment 1, 21 OG?


(017-21st Space Wing)"
Mission operations are limited to relatively clear sky conditions at night.
"The 76th Space Control Squadron (SPCS) operates the Counter Communications System (CCS); what is the designed purpose of the CCS?


(017-21st Space Wing)"
To disrupt satellite-based communications using reversible, non-destructive means.
"What is the mission of 30 Space Wing (SW)?


(018-30th Space Wing)"
Supports war fighting and national requirements with the Western Range.
"Which squadron belongs to the 30 Space Wing (SW)?


(018-30th Space Wing)"
2d ROPS.
"What is a unique function of the 2 Range Operations Squadron (ROPS)?


(018-30th Space Wing)"
Handles railroad traffic.
"What is the mission of the 45 Space Wing (SW)?


(019-45th Space Wing)"
Operates all spacelift functions within the Eastern Range.
"Which squadron belongs to the 45 Space Wing (SW)?


(019-45th Space Wing)"
1st Range Operations Squadron (ROPS).
"What is the mission of the 50 Space Wing (SW)?


(020-50th Space Wing)"
Conducts Department of Defense (DOD) satellites operations, and fixes problems when they occur.
"Which squadron operates the Milstar system?


(020-50th Space Wing)"
4 SOPS.
"Which squadron develops, publishes, executes and enforces the network operations tasking order?


(020-50th Space Wing)"
22 SOPS.
"What is the mission of the 460 Space Wing (SW)?


(021-460th Space Wing)"
Provides superior global surveillance and worldwide missile warning.
"What squadron operates the Defense Support Program (DSP) satellite constellation?


(021-460th Space Wing)"
2 Space Warning Squadron (SWS).
"What is the designed purpose of the Global Command and Control System (GCCS)?


(022-National Military Command System)"
It supports the situational awareness and deliberate crisis planning of warfighters.
"What center serves as the command center for the United States Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM) commander for the day-to-day management of his/her forces and for providing situational awareness?


(022-National Military Command System)"
United States Strategic Command Global Operations Center (GOC).
"What command has the mission of conducting operations to deter, prevent, and defeat threats and aggression aimed at the US, its territories, and interests within the assigned area of responsibility?


(023-United States Northern Command)"
United States Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).
"What command is charged with the missions of aerospace warning and aerospace control for North America?


(024-North American Aerospace Defense Command)"
North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD).
"Which of the following is NOT a North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD) regional headquarters?


(024-North American Aerospace Defense Command)"
Cheyenne Mountain Air Force Station (CMAFS), Colorado.
"What center fuses data from the other centers and passes it to the leadership of the United States and Canada?


(024-North American Aerospace Defense Command)"
Cheyenne Mountain Command Center.
"What organization provides reserve unit integration into an array of the Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) mission areas?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"
310 Space Group (SG).
"What organization augments the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"
6 SOPS.
"What organization operates the Ballistic Missile Early Warning System (BMEWS) mission at Clear AFS, Alaska?


(025-Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard units)"
213th Space Warning Squadron (213 SWS).
"What organization advances full-spectrum warfare through rapid innovation, integration, training, testing, and experimentation?


(026-Space Innovation and Development Center)"
Space Innovation and Development Center (SIDC).
"What Space Innovation and Development Center (SIDC) organization validates and enhances warfighter capabilities through testing and evaluation of space systems?


(026-Space Innovation and Development Center)"
17 Test Squadron (17 TS).
"What organization conducts space operations and provides planning, integration, control, and coordination of Army forces and capabilities?


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"
Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Forces Strategic Command (SMDC/ARSTRAT).
"What organization maintains the critical 24/7 mission of maintaining on-orbit command, control and communications of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) constellation in support of tactical and strategic missions?


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"
53d Signal Battalion.
"What organization operates the Joint Tactical Ground Stations (JTAGS)?


(027-US Army and Space Missile Defense Command/US Army Forces Strategic Command)"
1st Space Battalion's Theater Missile Warning Company.
"Which of the following is NOT a 1C6 Air and Space Operation Center (AOC) duty?


(028-1C6 Space liaison positions)"
Participates in direct combat operations in the area of responsibility.
"Which of the following is NOT a 1C6 space support duty at Nellis Air Force Base (AFB)?


(028-1C6 Space liaison positions)"
Is the subject matter expert in intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBM) capabilities, targeting, and employment.
"What organization provides qualification training for intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBM), space surveillance, space control, missile warning, spacelift, and satellite command and control (Sat C2) operators?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"
381st Training Group.
"What organization is the technical center of excellence for researching, developing and acquiring military space systems?


(029-Other supporting agencies)"
Space and Missile Systems Center (SMC).
"What command authority is NOT an operational command authority but provides the requisite authority for services to execute their individual ""organize, train, and equip"" functions?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"
Administrative control (ADCON).
"What command authority is a non-transferable command authority established by law (Title 10 Armed Forces, United States Code, Section 164)?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"
Combatant command (COCOM).
"What command authority is assigned over forces and is limited to the local direction and control of movements necessary to accomplish the missions?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"
Tactical control (TACON).
"Who is typically the space authority for in-theater operations?


(030-Command authority, and command and control arrangements)"
Commander Air Force forces (COMAFFOR).
"Which of the following is one of the ways the Joint Space Operations Center (JSPOC) enforces command and control (C2)?


(031-Command and control of space forces)"
Space tasking order.
"What organization is tasked to support command and control (C2) activities on an installation for all resident units and organizations?


(031-Command and control of space forces)"
Wing command post.
"What center keeps track of sensor management actions, but it is not normally in-charge of making sensor management changes?


(031-Command and control of space forces)"
Missile Correlation Center (MCC).
"What office keeps track of the Combat Mission Ready (CMR) and Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) programs?


(032-Crew operations)"
Operations support officer (DOU).
"Which of the following programs grants individuals the authority to perform unsupervised operations duty?


(032-Crew operations)"
Combat Mission Ready (CMR).
"Which of the following programs is used to identify personnel whose experience may be too specific to be tied to an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) or shredout?


(032-Crew operations)"
Special experience identifier (SEI).
"Which of the following flights performs evaluations to validate the training given to personnel?


(032-Crew operations)"
Standard and evaluation flight (DOV).
"According to the Space Commission, who has the authority to set national space policy?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
President.
"According to the Space Commission, on who/what must the US invest resources in to remain the world's leader in space?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
People.
"Who is designated as the Department of Defense Executive Agent for Space?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
Under Secretary of the Air Force.
"Who is designated as the Space Professional Functional Authority?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
Air Force Space Command commander.
"What agency is responsible for the entire spectrum of the Space Professional Development Program?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
Space Professional Management Office.
"What agency is responsible for developing a new national positioning, navigation and timing (PNT) architecture?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
National Security Space Office.
"What agency is responsible for a course that is designed to provide ""depth of knowledge"" in the areas of missile warning and missile defense?


(201-The National Security Space Program)"
National Security Space Institute.
"Who was the first American astronaut to orbit the Earth?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"
John H. Glenn.
"Who was the first American astronaut to step on the moon?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"
Neil A. Armstrong.
"What squadron helped NASA's final determination of the sequence of events leading up to the Columbia tragedy?


(202-The evolution of the National Security Space Program)"
1st Space Control Squadron.
"Which agreement/treaty states that celestial bodies should be used exclusively for peaceful purposes?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"
Moon agreement.
"Which system was the United States' first navigational satellite system?


(203-The foundation of Military Space Operations)"
TRANSIT.
"What service is designated as the DOD Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) for all DOD space major defense acquisition programs?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"
Air Force.
"What type of program is estimated to require an eventual total expenditure for research, development, test, and evaluation (RDT&E) of more than $140 million, or to have a total procurement cost of more than $660 million?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"
Major space program.
"Under what organization does the Space and Missile Center fall?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"
Air Force Space Command.
"Which contractor provides expert guidance and advice on program management reviews?


(204-The National Security Space acquisition framework)"
System engineering & technical assistance.
"When acquiring space systems, which model/system is used to identify existing capability gaps or future shortcomings and describe the attributes of effective solutions?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"
Joint capabilities integration and development system.
"When developing AFSPC's shared goals in the national military strategy, which process/system is used by AFSPC to identify gaps in its own capabilities?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"
Integrated planning process.
"When prioritizing future technology, which document is used by AFSPC as the first document, and annotates identified gaps requiring material solutions?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"
Initial Capabilities Document.
"When prioritizing future technology, which document sets thresholds and objectives for system attributes against which the delivered capability will be measured?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"
Capabilities Development Document.
"Which body is a group of Generals (and their support staff) from each of the services who consider and prioritize all major acquisition programs?


(205-The Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS))"
Joint Requirements Oversight Council.
"Which item is not a focus of the Planning Phase?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"
Set goals and revise only once during the process.
"Which document reflects the directives from the Secretary of Defense to the Services on issues raised during Program Objective Review?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"
Program Decision Memorandum.
"What is the primary document used by the services and defense agencies to submit budget estimates?


(206-The Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) process)"
Budget Estimate Submission.
"According to what law must funds only be used for the purposes and program for which the appropriation was made?


(207-The purposes of money)"
Misappropriation Act.
"Which is the maximum amount (percentage wise) of money that can be transferred between program elements?


(207-The purposes of money)"
20%.
"The Small Quantity System Model is not used to procure which program?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"
User equipment.
"In which evolutionary acquisition process is the desired capability identified, but the end-state requirements are not known at program initiation?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"
Spiral development.
"In which evolutionary acquisition process is the desired capability identified, an end-state requirement is known, and that requirement is met over time?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"
Incremental development.
"Which phase of the small quantity system model conducts system-level fabrication, integration, testing, and deployment activities and provide operations support for a space system?


(208-NSS 03-01 acquisition models)"
Phase D, Build & Operations Phase.
"What is defined as the purchasing, renting, leasing, or otherwise obtaining supplies or services from nonfederal sources?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Contracting.
"Which of the following is not a component of a contract?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Obligates the seller to buyback from the buyer.
"What type of contract is used to accomplish basic and specialized research in support of space programs?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Research and Development.
"What term is used for a contracting officer who, by special appointment, has the ability to contractually bind (obligate) the United States government?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Warranted.
"What term is used when a contracting officer ""rectifies"" a situation where the government incurs a commitment due to unauthorized government direction to a contractor?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Ratification.
"What conflict of interest is violated if an AF employee has any significant financial interest in a company that is doing business with the DOD?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Financial interest.
"Which process is used to evaluate the proposals and awards contracts?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Source Selection.
"What refers to a task outside the scope of the Statement of Work?


(209-Legal standards and contractors)"
Unauthorized tasking.
"Which process makes sure the right things are at the right place at the right time to sustain a system?


(210-Logistics)"
Logistics.
"Which logistical support element is recorded information regardless of form or character (such as manuals and drawings) of a scientific nature?


(210-Logistics)"
Technical data.
"Which logistical support element involves maintenance performed on end item equipment (such as an aircraft or ground stations)?


(210-Logistics)"
Maintenance planning.
"Which logistical support element includes the identification and acquisition of personnel with the skills and grades required to operate and support a system over its lifetime?


(210-Logistics)"
Manpower and personnel.
"Which Integrated Process Team procedures for success allows members to feel that their contributions are important to the process and are well considered?


(211-The Integrated Process Team (IPT))"
Sense of ownership.
"Which Integrated Process Team procedures for success allows for consistent team participation by people with institutional knowledge of the functional areas?


(211-The Integrated Process Team (IPT))"
Dedicated/committed proactive participation.
"Which conic section has an eccentricity of greater than zero but less than one?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Ellipse.
"Which conic section has an eccentricity of one?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Parabola.
"Which conic section has an eccentricity of greater than one?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Hyperbola.
"Which ellipse parameter is the gravitational center of the body about which the satellite orbits?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Occupied/primary focus.
"Which ellipse parameter is a point on the ellipse where the satellite is the farthest to the occupied focus?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Apogee.
"Who was the first person to use the word 'satellite' and developed three laws of planetary motion?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Johannes Kepler.
"Identify Keplerian law; the orbit of each planet is an ellipse, with the Sun at one focus.


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Law of ellipses.
"Identify Keplerian law; the squares of the sidereal periods of the planets are in direct proportion to the cubes of the semi-major axes of their orbits.


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Law of periods.
"Who was the person that invented calculus and developed the laws of motion?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Sir Isaac Newton.
"Identify Newtonian law; for every object persists in its state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless it is compelled to change that state by forces impressed on it.


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Newton's first law of motion.
"Identify Newtonian law; a body acted upon by a constant force will move with a constant acceleration in the direction of the force.


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Newton's second law of motion.
"What is a measure of how much matter is contained in an object?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
Mass.
"What is the Earth's escape velocity?


(212-The laws of orbital mechanics)"
25,022 mph.
"Which parameter describes the size and shape of an orbit?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"
Semi-major axis and eccentricity.
"What parameter is an angular measurement made at the ascending node from the equatorial plane to the orbital plane in a counterclockwise direction?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"
Inclination.
"What parameter orients the satellite orbit within the orbital plane?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"
Argument of perigee.
"What parameter is an angular measurement from the point of perigee to the satellite, assuming its velocity is a constant speed?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"
Mean anomaly.
"What is simply the amount of time it takes the satellite to go from a particular point in its orbit back to that same point?


(213-The characteristics of satellite orbits)"
Period.
"What determines the point on the Earth's surface where a ground trace starts?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Injection point.
"What is defined as the time it takes the Earth to make one complete rotation about its axis with respect to the Sun?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Sidereal day.
"What type of orbit has a period of 88 minutes to 224 minutes?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Near-Earth orbit.
"What type of orbit has a period greater than or equal to 225 minutes?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Deep space orbit.
"What type of orbit is restricted to the first 80 to 372 miles of space?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Low-Earth orbit.
"What type of orbit has an average altitude of 12,500 miles?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Semi-synchronous orbit.
"What type of orbit has an eccentricity equal to or greater than 0.5?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Highly elliptical orbit.
"What type of orbit is useful for missions that use some form of optical sensor, requiring uniform illumination?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Sun-synchronous orbit.
"What types of orbit has an inclination of either 0° or 180°?


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
Equatorial orbit.
"A satellite's ground track with nodal regression successively tracks


(214-Orbits and their ground tracks)"
westward.
"What fundamental component of a coordinate system is the central point from which all other locations are measured?


(215-Coordinate systems)"
Origin.
"Which coordinate system is used to locate a tracking station on the surface of the Earth?


(215-Coordinate systems)"
Geographic.
"Which coordinate system is used to locate an Earth-orbiting satellite within its orbital path?


(215-Coordinate systems)"
Orbit.
"What type of maneuver only alters the size or shape of an orbit?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"
In-plane maneuver.
"What is always common to the pre-thrust and post-thrust orbits?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"
Thrust point.
"What is the disadvantage of the Hohmann transfer?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"
It is the slowest maneuver.
"What is the disadvantage of the fast transfer?


(216-In-plane maneuvers)"
It uses 50 percent more fuel than the Hohmann transfer.
"What type of maneuver has an in-plane and an out-of-plane component?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"
Combined.
"For a combined maneuver, in which direction do the ascending and descending nodes move when a north thrust is applied?


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"
East.
"When a satellite is traveling generally in a south direction and a north thrust is applied, the inclination


(217-Out-of-plane maneuvers are accomplished)"
decreases.
"What altitude is used by the Air Force and NASA to award astronaut wings?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"
50 miles.
"What altitude is used by aeronautical engineers as the beginning of space?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"
62 miles.
"What altitude is used by Space Operations as the beginning of space?


(218-The ""theater of operations"" of space)"
80 miles.
"What is the biggest problem for the moving parts of a satellite?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"
Lack of proper lubrication.
"What element in the upper atmosphere is extremely reactive and corrodes most materials rapidly?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"
Atomic oxygen.
"What causes the North and South Pole to move?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"
The rotation of the Earth's core.
"What type of spacecraft charging is potentially hazardous to the satellite's internal electronic systems?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"
Bulk.
"Which is a space object that survives reentry and hits the Earth?


(219-Hazards affecting spacecraft operations)"
Meteorite.
"What are the forces acting on a satellite, other than the central gravitational force of the Earth, called?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"
Perturbations.
"What type of satellites experience two eclipse seasons of about 44 days?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"
Geosynchronous.
"Where does a satellite remain in the total shadow of an eclipse?


(220-Other effects of the space environment)"
Umbra.
"Which of the following is not a layer of the atmospheric shell?


(221-The atmosphere)"
Cumulusphere.
"Which atmospheric layers contain 99 percent of air?


(221-The atmosphere)"
Stratosphere and Troposphere.
"Which atmospheric layers are called the middle atmosphere?


(221-The atmosphere)"
Stratosphere and Mesosphere.
"Which atmospheric layer is called the upper atmosphere?


(221-The atmosphere)"
Thermosphere.
"What Air Force panel determines whether or not the enlisted astronaut nominees meet NASA physical standards?


(222-The enlisted astronaut program)"
Medical screening panel.
"Which is not a qualification requirement for the enlisted astronaut program?


(222-The enlisted astronaut program)"
One year of degree-related professional experience.
"Which type of educational degree is not acceptable for the enlisted astronaut program?


(222-The enlisted astronaut program)"
Technology and management degree.
"Under the President's positional, navigation, and timing policy who is charged with ""effectively utilizing the global positioning system services in the event of adversary jamming or other interference?""


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Secretary of Defense.
"The 2007 Chinese test of an anti-satellite weapon placed what type of satellites in danger from the increase in space debris?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Low-Earth orbit.
"What type of laser is typically designed to spoof or jam satellite electro-optical sensors using laser radiation that is in the sensor's operating frequency, thus temporarily blinding the satellite?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Low-power lasers.
"What types of missiles have ranges of greater than 3,410 miles?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Intercontinental ballistic missiles.
"What is a known problem with the SCUD short range ballistic missile?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Its inaccuracy.
"Which missile trajectory phase is the powered portion of a missile's flight?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Boost.
"What is the intent of the United Nations' ""Comprehensive Nuclear Test Ban Treaty""?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Prohibits all nuclear weapons test explosions and all other nuclear explosions.
"Why is it so difficult to shield against an electromagnetic pulse?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Because the ideal shield would be made of steel and completely enclose the facility.
"Why is a high-altitude electromagnetic pulse dangerous?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
It can overload computer circuitry.
"Why is a high-power microwave weapon more dangerous than a high-altitude electromagnetic pulse?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
It is more difficult to harden against.
"What type of orbit is used by the current generation of Russian missile warning satellites?


(401-Threats to space operations)"
Geosynchronous.
"Which early warning system sensor consists of satellites in geosynchronous orbit?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Defense support program.
"What do the medium-wave infrared detectors improve on defense support program satellites?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Detection of missile launches below the Earth's horizon.
"Which organization is the primary operating location for defense support program and the space-based infrared system?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
2 SWS.
"Which organization operates the mobile ground station for the defense support program (DSP)?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
137 SWS.
"Which section of the defense support program primary structural subsystem contains the satellite separation system?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Adapter assembly.
"How is the defense support program solar array thermally isolated from the equipment compartment?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
By fiberglass members.
"Which component of the defense support program electrical power subsystem converts excess electrical power to heat and radiates it into space?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Shunt element assembly.
"Which component of the defense support program electrical power subsystem monitors and regulates the voltage output of the solar array?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Voltage limiter sensor.
"What is the function of the reaction wheel assembly on a defense support program satellite?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
It cancels out the torque created by the spinning of the satellite.
"Which defense support program satellite communications link is used for transmitting mission data?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Link 1.
"Which defense support program satellite communications link is used to transmit satellite impact sensor data?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Link 4.
"For what other critical airpower mission can defense support program data be used for?


(402-Principles of the defense support program)"
Combat search and rescue.
"Which of these space-based infrared system capabilities provides greater missile detection and/or tracking and hand-off to radar tracking and kill vehicle systems?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"
Missile defense.
"Which of these space-based infrared system capabilities uses multi-mode sensors to detect and/or collect data on evolving threats?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"
Technical intelligence.
"Which space-based infrared system crew position performs satellite range data collection?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"
Ground systems operator.
"Which space-based infrared system ground station equipment transmits and receives data to and from the satellite?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"
Ground antenna.
"What document is used to identify scheduled commanding activities for the day?


(403-Principles of the space based infrared system)"
Daily activity schedule.
"Which of the following DOD space mission areas are supported by ground-based missile warning units?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
Space control and space force enhancement.
"What is the primary mission of PAVE phased-array warning system?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
Missile warning.
"What is the maximum deflection on either side of a single antenna face for PAVE phased-array warning system?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
60°.
"What is the elevation coverage of PAVE phased-array warning system?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
3° to 85°.
"What is the maximum range of PAVE phased-array warning system (in miles)?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
3,452.
"Who is the enlisted leader of the 3-person crew at PAVE phased-array warning system (PAWS)?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
Missile warning crew chief.
"Which PAVE phased-array warning system graphic display console area displays menus and display options?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
Right periphery.
"Which component of a PAVE phased-array warning system mission console is the main control unit used for fault isolation and testing?


(404-Principles of the PAVE phased-array warning system)"
Power distribution unit.
"What is the total azimuth coverage of ballistic missile early warning system Site I?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"
240°.
"What is the elevation coverage of ballistic missile early warning system Site I?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"
3.5° to 85°.
"What is the maximum range of ballistic missile early warning system Site I (in miles)?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"
3,280.
"What radar is used by the ballistic missile early warning system Site II?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"
AN/FPS-123.
"What is the total azimuth coverage of ballistic missile early warning system Site III?


(405-Principles of the ballistic missile early warning system)"
360°.
"What is the elevation coverage of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"
1.9° to 95°.
"What is the maximum range of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system PARCS (in miles)?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"
2,050.
"Which perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system console is used as a backup if the crew commander or crew chief consoles fail?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"
Monitor console.
"In which perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system operational mode does the system automatically detect, track, and report CONUS-impacting objects?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"
Perimeter attack characterization system mode.
"In which perimeter attack characterization system operational mode does the system let operators run exercise tapes (sim media) without interrupting space surveillance operations?


(406-Principles of the perimeter acquisition radar attack characterization system)"
Spacetrack override mode.
"Which of the following phased-array transmit subsystem components amplifies the radar pulse from about 1 watt to an output of 310 watts?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"
Array group driver.
"Which of the following phased-array transmit subsystem components receives signals from the sub-array drivers and transmits them into the atmosphere through the array elements?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"
Solid state modules.
"Which of the following phased-array receive subsystem components processes the inputs from the 80 sub-array drivers and amplifies the signals and passes them to the receiver portion of the receiver/exciter?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"
Receive beam former.
"Which of the following phased-array communications subsystem components is used for day-to-day secure voice communications?


(407-Principles of phased-array radar subsystems)"
Sensor site secure voice network.
"In a ground-based missile warning site report, why is a human evaluation accomplished?


(408-Site reporting)"
To determine if an event was falsely generated by equipment malfunction, environment, or personnel.
"Within how many seconds must a site report be passed to the Missile Correlation Center (MCC)?


(408-Site reporting)"
60.
"When are VOICETELL procedures initiated?


(408-Site reporting)"
If the MCC does not receive the data.
"The Missile Correlation Center is charged with


(408-Site reporting)"
verifying the validity of the event.
"What system report is used when in the judgment of the NORAD commander, a missile attack may be in progress?


(408-Site reporting)"
Concern.
"Post-event analysis is performed for all


(408-Site reporting)"
anomalous events.
"After the post-event analysis is performed, what category would be used for an event that was generated due to solar glare?


(408-Site reporting)"
Environmental.
"This OPSCAP indicates little or no loss of mission capability.


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"
Green.
"This OPSCAP may be used when needed for identifying a potential capability not available for supporting strategic or theater operations because of buildup and/or test.


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"
White.
"Which is not one of the methods used to submit an OPSCAP report when voice lines are down?


(409-OPSCAP and SYSCAP)"
By NIPRNET.
"How many months in advance must a squadron forward an exercise and/or test request to the Test Control Board?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"
6.
"Which of the following testing categories involves the transmission of non-ITW/AA data?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"
CAT B.
"Which of the following testing categories is used when a test system is configured to receive and transmit live data?


(410-Missile warning exercises and tests)"
CAT G.
"Which of the following is not a component of counterspace operations?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"
Strategic counterspace operations.
"Which of the following space situational awareness components is the battlespace management process of planning, directing, coordinating, and controlling forces and operations?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"
Command and control.
"Which of the following offensive counterspace operations ""Five Ds"" is the temporary impairment of some or all of a space system's capability to produce effects, usually without physical damage?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"
Disruption.
"Which of the following measures is not part of defensive counterspace operations?


(411-Principles of counterspace)"
Destruction measures.
"Which of the following sensors are used solely by AFSPC for space surveillance in the space surveillance network?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"
Dedicated.
"Which of the following units develops and maintains the satellite catalog?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"
1 SPCS.
"During which level of operation is 20 SPCS, Detachment 1, in primary control of the space surveillance network without any other agency in back-up?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"
Level 3.
"What tasking category is used for re-entry assessment satellites in the initial stages of decay?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"
Category 2.
"Space object identification data is forwarded to what center for processing?


(412-Principles of the space surveillance network)"
National Air and Space Intelligence Center.
"What is the total azimuth range of the Eglin radar?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"
120°.
"Which Eglin fence is the normal operational fence configuration?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"
S1.
"What is the effective range of the Air Force space surveillance system (in miles)?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"
17,000.
"How many of the receiving stations of the Air Force space surveillance system must detect an object in order to determine its position?


(413-Principles of radar space surveillance sensors)"
At least two.
"Which system uses a low-light-level camera to detect space objects?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"
Ground-based electro-optical deep-space surveillance.
"What is the effective range of ground-based electro-optical deep-space surveillance (GEODSS) (in miles)?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"
3,000 to 22,000.
"Which system is only manned by military operators?


(414-Principles of optical space surveillance sensors)"
Morón optical space surveillance system.
"An object is classified as a deep-space object if its orbital period is


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
equal to or greater than 225 minutes.
"An object is classified as a near-Earth object if its orbital period is


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
less than or equal to 224 minutes.
"What is the special tasking program developed to track space objects that, because of their size (one square meter or more) will survive reentry and impact the Earth?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Reentry assessment.
"Which satellites are used by Thule as its calibration satellites?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Defense Meteorological Satellite Program.
"What document does the agency launching a satellite send to 1 SPCS, which contains all their early orbit determination requirements?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Initial launch alert message.
"What method is used by space surveillance sites to voice report acquisition information to 1 SPCS on high priority satellites?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Positive and/or negative report.
"After an object leaves a sensor site's field of view, a positive and/or negative report must be submitted to 1 SPCS within how many minutes?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
5 minutes.
"What uncorrelated target classification is given to space objects that have a minimum radar cross section of one square meter or more and are suspected of being related to a new foreign launch?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Critical.
"What is an uncorrelated target having an average radar cross section of less than one square meter categorized as?


(415-Principles of daily operations)"
Non-significant.
"The evolved expendable launch vehicle is a


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
launch service.
"Which space launch vehicle increases the US space launch industry's competitiveness in the international commercial launch services market?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Evolved expendable launch vehicle.
"Which space launch vehicle has a payload capability of up to 13,440 lbs to low earth orbit and 4,790 lbs to geosynchronous transfer orbit?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Delta II.
"Which space launch vehicle uses deactivated Minuteman II first and second stages?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Minotaur I.
"Which space launch vehicle has a (+/-) 1,312 feet orbital altitude accuracy and (+/-) 0.04 degree inclination accuracy?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Dnepr.
"Which space agency's mission is to shape the development of Europe's space capability and ensure that investment in space continues to deliver benefits to Europe and the world?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
European Space Agency.
"Which space launch vehicle family is comprised of 12 different vehicles?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Long March.
"Which space launch vehicle is a three stage vehicle with four strap-on boosters and a launch capacity of 4,000 lbs to geosynchronous transfer orbit?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Geosynchronous satellite launch vehicle.
"What are the two types of rocket staging?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Serial and parallel.
"Which rocket motor is simple to build, inherently more reliable and cheaper to produce?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Solid-propellant.
"What type of solid-propellants have both an oxidizer and a fuel combined into a single molecule?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Homogenous.
"Which of the following IS NOT an ideal characteristic of solid-propellants?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Hygroscopic.
"What is a rough measure of how fast the propellant is ejected out of the back of the rocket engine?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Specific impulse.
"What is the rotational movement of a body that occurs about the longitudinal axis through the body?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Roll.
"What is the lateral rotational movement of a body about its transverse axis?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Yaw.
"What machine is a self-contained navigation system capable of determining a vehicle's position in inertial space through the double integration of the output of accelerometers?


(601-Spacelift fundamentals)"
Inertial navigation unit.
"What facility extends from Cape Canaveral, northeastward to Argentia, Newfoundland, Canada, and southeastward to Ascension Island?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"
Eastern Range.
"What organization's mission is to provide world-wide customers high quality, requirements tailored, range operations; operations support management; and scheduling services?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"
1st Range Operations Squadron.
"At the 1st Range Operations Squadron, which of the following IS NOT a 1C6X1 generation duty?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"
Making the Go/No-Go decision.
"At the 1st Range Operations Squadron, how many nautical miles of coverage does the digital Brite radar indicator tower equipment provide?


(602-Eastern Range Operations)"
60.
"What location is the primary US launch facility to launch satellites into polar orbit?


(603-Western Range Operations)"
Vandenberg Air Force Base.
"At the 2d Range Operations Squadron, which of the following IS NOT a 1C6X1 execution duty?


(603-Western Range Operations)"
Ensures aircraft are available for post-mission operations.
"What 1C6X1 duty is unique to the Western Range?


(603-Western Range Operations)"
Aeronautical operations.
"During what launch preparation sequence is a space launch vehicle put through a series of system level and integrated tests?


(604-Launch phases)"
Erecting.
"What launch preparation phase constitutes a simulated flight and verifies all functions from engine ignition to payload separation?


(604-Launch phases)"
Integrated testing.
"What terminal countdown sequence includes last minute mechanical and electrical installations and vehicle securing?


(604-Launch phases)"
Final countdown.
"What is accomplished during the post-launch phase?


(604-Launch phases)"
Fire and safety personnel inspect the launch pad for fire and safety hazards.
"The amount of time it takes to conduct the most fuel efficient launch refers to the launch


(605-Orbital mechanics and launch parameters)"
window.
"What inclination will a launch from the Equator have, if the launch is heading true east (90°)?


(605-Orbital mechanics and launch parameters)"
0°.
"Which of the following instruments is used to detect field and particle phenomena?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Magnetometers.
"Which of the following IS NOT part of the structures and mechanisms subsystem?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Space launch vehicle's payload fairing.
"Which of the following IS NOT a satellite energy source?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Hybrid.
"What type of battery is used as a continuous energy source and is NOT rechargeable?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Primary.
"What component is the heart of a fuel cell by generating electricity in the form of direct current?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Fuel cell stack.
"What is used to protect solar cells from radiation damage?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Layers of quartz or sapphire.
"In what common method of solar cell construction are the solar cell edges overlapped?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Shingle mounting.
"Which of the following is the basic physical process by which a radioisotope thermoelectric generator converts the heat generated from the natural decay of radioactive fuel into electricity?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Thermoelectric effect.
"Power conditioning components that detect abnormal current usage, identify potential faults such as shorted circuits, and withhold power to prevent damage are referred to as power


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
control electronics.
"Which of the following subsystems sends control signals to the thrusters, solar array positioners, and communication/payload positioners?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Attitude control.
"What type of attitude control occurs when the interaction between the satellite and the environment produce natural stabilizing torque?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Passive control.
"In what reaction control system is thrust developed from the rapid expansion of a pressurized propellant through a jet nozzle?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Pressurized gas.
"Measures are NOT used in space to protect satellite propellants from


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
pilfering.
"Which of the following subsystems includes all the equipment necessary for the satellite to transmit telemetry (downlink) and to receive commands from the ground station (uplink)?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Telemetry, tracking, and control.
"Which of the following subsystems keeps a satellite within certain temperature limits?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Thermal control.
"What type of thermal control subsystem does not consume energy and possesses none or few moving parts?


(606-Satellite subsystems)"
Passive.
"Which satellite system provides navigation and timing information to military and civilian users worldwide?


(607-Global positioning system)"
Global positioning system.
"Which of the following satellites include a new military signal (M-Code) on both the L1 and L2 channels, and a more robust civil signal (L2C) on the L2 channel?


(607-Global positioning system)"
Global positioning system Block IIR-M.
"What is the secondary mission of the global positioning system?


(607-Global positioning system)"
Nuclear detonation detection.
"On a global positioning system Block IIR satellites, which of its axes points towards the sun?


(607-Global positioning system)"
- X.
"Which of the following global positioning system subsystems contains the components that provide precise time and ephemeris data to the L-B and subsystem?


(607-Global positioning system)"
Navigation subsystem.
"Which global positioning system sensor is used to detect light emitted by an atmospheric nuclear detonation?


(607-Global positioning system)"
An optical sensor.
"Which space operations squadron operates the global positioning system master control station?


(607-Global positioning system)"
2 SOPS.
"Which satellite system provides global, visual and infrared meteorological cloud and geophysical data to the Air Force Weather Agency and US civilian agencies?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"
Defense meteorological satellite program.
"Which defense meteorological satellite program sensor measures temperatures over previously inaccessible regions and at higher altitudes?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"
Temperature profiler.
"What type of subsystem is used by the defense meteorological satellite program to unload momentum about a particular axis?


(608-Defense Meteorological Satellite Program)"
Magnetic coils.
"Which of the following satellite systems provides enhanced worldwide military communication capabilities?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"
Defense satellite communications system.
"What defense satellite communications system subsystem takes power from the solar arrays, and batteries, and conditions it to a regulated 28 Volt main bus line?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"
Electrical power subsystem.
"What defense satellite communications system subsystem IS NOT pressure regulated?


(609-Defense satellite communications system)"
Propulsion subsystem.
"What Milstar subsystem allows the space ground link subsystem (SGLS) operators to contact the satellite by accepting and processing the SGLS signal?


(610-Milstar)"
Telemetry, tracking, and control subsystem.
"What Milstar terminal provides tactical users with secure, survivable, anti-jam, low probability of intercept and detection satellite communications in a HUMM-V?


(610-Milstar)"
Secure mobile anti-jam reliable tactical-terminal.
"Which of the following satellite systems provides flexible, high-capacity communications for our nation's warfighters within the 500 MHz X-band and 1 GHz Ka-band spectrum?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"
Wideband global SATCOM system.
"Which wideband global SATCOM system provides for X- and Ka-Band repeaters as well as X- and Ka-Band beacons, and a Baseband Digital switch?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"
Payload.
"Which wideband global SATCOM system components are used for station keeping and momentum unloading?


(611-Wideband global SATCOM system)"
Xeon ion engines.
"What types of signals consist of patterns of bits of information (expressed by a binary code of ""0"" or ""1"")?


(612-Data Links)"
Digital signal.
"What type of data interface uses light pulses to transmit information?


(612-Data Links)"
Fiber-optic cable.
"What type of transmission provides for each data bit to be handled sequentially or one at a time?


(612-Data Links)"
Serial.
"What determines the physical size of an antenna?


(613-Antenna Components)"
Operating frequency.
"What antenna characteristic is the ratio between the amount of energy that is propagated in a particular direction compared to the amount of energy that is propagated if the antenna were not directional?


(613-Antenna Components)"
Gain.
"What is the process of pointing the ground antenna at a satellite that is emitting a signal?


(613-Antenna Components)"
Acquiring.
"What tracking method uses the ground equipment to transmit equally time-spaced pulses to the satellite?


(613-Antenna Components)"
Passive.
"What tracking method is a precise digital ranging signal modulated onto the uplink carrier?


(613-Antenna Components)"
Pseudo-random noise.
"Which of the following subsystems reduces the downlink signal from a microwave, super-high frequency or extremely-high frequency, to an intermediate frequency that can be handled by ground equipment?


(614-Data Flows)"
Downconverter.
"Which of the following subsystems combines individual uplink signals such as command, timing, and range into a composite signal?


(614-Data Flows)"
Baseband assembly.
"What can be used to compute a nominal element set for a satellite that is about to be injected into orbit?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"
R–15 message.
"Which of the following contains the formulas, biases, and modifiers used to predict where a satellite will be at a given date and time?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"
Orbit determination program.
"What is normally used to initially acquire a newly launched satellite?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"
R–15 message and nominal element set.
"What device displays pertinent mission information and provides an interface to other equipment such as the ground station mainframes?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"
Mission workstation.
"What is the primary difference between real-time commands and stored program commands?


(615-Launch and Early Orbit Activities)"
Time of execution.
"When does a crew begin preparations for a satellite contact?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"
Approximately 20 minutes prior to a scheduled satellite pass.
"During which of the following contact stages does the crew carefully verify all actions were accomplished?


(616-Satellite Contact Procedures)"
Postpass.
"What command and control system -- consolidated subsystem generates simulated satellite telemetry and ground system data in support of training and evaluation activities?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"
Simulation.
"What command and control system -- consolidated subsystem is where the bulk of CCS-C activity occurs?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"
Telemetry and commanding.
"What command and control system -- consolidated workstation is used to analyze and generate orbit determination reports, view the technical orders, monitor the contact schedule, and edit crew logs?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"
Orbital analysis.
"What command and control system -- consolidated crewmember's responsibility is the health and operation of their constellation?


(617-Command and Control System -- Consolidated)"
Satellite vehicle operator.
"Which of the following systems support national space programs by providing telemetry, tracking, and control services?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"
Air Force satellite control network.
"Which of the following Air Force satellite control network segments enables the execution of the three primary mission phases: planning, contact support and evaluation?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"
Command and control.
"What automated remote tracking station functional component is used to transmit and receive signals to and from the satellite?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"
Telemetry, tracking, and control antenna.
"What tool is used by schedulers to notify all affected Air Force satellite control network users when changes occur?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"
Electronic scheduling dissemination.
"What Air Force satellite control network priority is used when a user identifies for immediate payload commanding; failure to do so will result in deterioration of primary payload performance?


(618-Air Force Satellite Control Network)"
Critical payload commanding.;