Cdc 2A354C Volume 2

Front 1

Define static pressure

Back 1

Static pressure is the pressure of the atmosphere at any particular altitude. An aircraft on the ground or in

flight (at any altitude) is subject to atmospheric (static) pressure. It acts equally on all parts of the aircraft

structure.

Front 2

What effect does an increase in altitude or temperature have on static pressure?

Back 2

It decreases.

Front 3

Define pitot pressure

Back 3

Pitot pressure is the sum of static pressure and dynamic pressure. It can be described as the total force

exerted by an air mass on the forward extremities of a moving aircraft.

Front 4

What type of pressure is also referred to as differential pressure? How is it determined?

Back 4

Impact pressure; it’s the difference between pitot pressure and static pressure (PT  PS).

Front 5

What type of altitude is referenced to an imaginary standard atmosphere?

Back 5

Pressure altitude.

Front 6

What’s the barometric pressure setting for standard altitude?

Back 6

29.92 Hg.

Front 7

At what altitudes is baro-corrected altitude normally used?

Back 7

Low altitudes.

Front 8

What type of altitude is sometimes referred to as true altitude?

Back 8

Baro-corrected altitude.

Front 9

What type of airspeed is shown on an airspeed indicator?

Back 9

Indicated airspeed.

Front 10

Define calibrated airspeed.

Back 10

Indicated airspeed that has been corrected for instrument errors and for errors due to position and location

of installation.

Front 11

What type of airspeed is corrected for compressibility error and air density?

Back 11

True airspeed.

Front 12

How is Mach number computed?

Back 12

By dividing true airspeed by the local speed of sound.

Front 13

How will an increase in altitude affect Mach number?

Back 13

Mach number will increase.

Front 14

Define true AOA.

Back 14

The angle between the aircraft’s wing cord line and the aircraft’s flight path.

Front 15

What term defines air around the aircraft that has been heated to greater than ambient temperature

due to the aircraft’s speed?

Back 15

Total temperature.

Front 16

What type of temperature represents the ambient temperature of the undisturbed air around an

aircraft?

Back 16

True freestream air temperature.

Front 17

What’s altitude rate commonly called?

Back 17

Vertical velocity.

Front 18

What’s the general purpose of the pitot-static probe pneumatic system?

Back 18

To provide two sources of pitot pressure (PT1 and PT2) and two sources of static pressure (PS1 and PS2) to

various air data components.

Front 19

What does the pitot-static probe pneumatic system consist of?

Back 19

A pitot-static probe, manifold assemblies, pneumatic hoses and tubing, drain valves, and support hardware.

Front 20

What’s the function of the pitot-static manifold assembly?

Back 20

It’s a coupling device that adapts the four pneumatic openings at the base of the pitot-static probe to the

radome nylon tubing.

Front 21

What components receive air data from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system?

Back 21

PSA, CADC, altimeter, and AMI.

Front 22

What are positioned at low points throughout the pitot-static probe pneumatic system? What are

they used for?

Back 22

Drain valves; they provide a handy means to drain condensation.

Front 23

Why is the pitot probe heated?

Back 23

To prevent it from becoming plugged with ice during flight.

Front 24

What five pneumatic signals does the air data probe pneumatic system supply to the PSA

manifold?

Back 24

PT3, PS3, P1, P2, and P.

Front 25

Where’s the air data probe mounted?

Back 25

It’s externally mounted on access door 1202.

Front 26

What portion of the air data probe contains five pneumatic ports?

Back 26

Its hemispherical head.

Front 27

What component(s) does the air data probe pneumatic system supply pneumatic pressure to?

Back 27

Only the PSA (via the PSA manifold).

Front 28

What are the sensing elements associated with the angle of sideslip pneumatic system?

Back 28

Two static pressure sensing port adapters located inside the curved surface of access doors 1103 and 1204.

Front 29

What component receives pneumatic pressure from the angle-of-sideslip pneumatic system?

Back 29

Differential pressure sensor.

Front 30

What are the two basic types of CADC inputs?

Back 30

Pneumatic and electrical.

Front 31

Name four inputs received by the CADC and their point of origin.

Back 31

PT (from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system), PS (from the pitot-static probe pneumatic system), AOA

(from the left and right AOA transmitter probes, via the DFLCC, air temperature (from the total

temperature probe).

Front 32

What are the three methods used to transmit CADC outputs?

Back 32

Serial digital data words, discretes, and analog signals.

Front 33

What medium is used to route CADC serial digital data to using systems?

Back 33

The MUX bus architecture, with the A-MUX bus.

Front 34

Name three systems that utilize CADC serial digital data words.

Back 34

HUD, INS, and DFLCS.

Front 35

What medium is used to transfer CADC discretes?

Back 35

Aircraft wiring.

Front 36

Name three systems/components that use CADC discrete words.

Back 36

AOA indexer, AOA indicator, and IFF (mode C).

Front 37

What medium is used to transfer CADC analog signals?

Back 37

Aircraft wiring.

Front 38

Name three systems/components that use CADC analog signals.

Back 38

Altimeter, environmental control system, and VVI.

Front 39

What information is displayed on the AMI?

Back 39

Indicated airspeed, Mach number, and maximum equivalent airspeed.

Front 40

What pneumatic system supplies PT and PS pressure to the AMI?

Back 40

Pitot-static probe pneumatic system.

Front 41

An AMI indication of 8.5 represents how many knots of airspeed?

Back 41

850.

Front 42

On the AMI, what moves in response to a SET INDEX knob adjustment?

Back 42

The reference index pointer.

Front 43

How is the altimeter driven?

Back 43

Either pneumatically or electrically.

Front 44

From where does the altimeter receive servo inputs to drive the counter/pointer in the ELEC

mode?

Back 44

The CADC.

Front 45

How many feet of altitude are represented by one complete revolution of the altitude pointer

(around the altitude dial)?

Back 45

1,000 feet.

Front 46

How are the altimeter ELEC and PNEU modes manually selected?

Back 46

Via the altimeter’s mode selector switch.

Front 47

What are the major and minor increments of the altimeter’s altitude dial?

Back 47

100-foot increments; 20-foot increments.

Front 48

If the altimeter’s altitude drum counter indicates 29,500 and the altitude pointer indicates 3 minor

increments beyond 5 on the altitude dial, what’s the aircraft’s actual altitude?

Back 48

29,560 feet.

Front 49

What is the display range of the altitude drum counter?

Back 49

-1,000 to 80,000 feet.

Front 50

What two types of altitude can be displayed on an altimeter?

Back 50

Pressure altitude and true altitude.

Front 51

When will the altimeter display the aircraft’s pressure altitude?

Back 51

When the barometric pressure set knob is set to 29.92 Hg.

Front 52

At or above what altitude is a pilot required to use the pressure altitude indication?

Back 52

18,000 feet.

Front 53

During what flight phases would a pilot typically use true altitude?

Back 53

Low-level flight (takeoff and landing).

Front 54

What type of altitude readout is used by maintenance personnel to calibrate an altimeter to local

field elevation?

Back 54

True altitude.

Front 55

During flight, what does the VVI indicate?

Back 55

The rate at which the aircraft is changing altitude

Front 56

What is the display range of the VVI?

Back 56

0 to 6,000 fpm for both climb and dive attitudes.

Front 57

Under what two conditions will an OFF indication be displayed on the VVI?

Back 57

If there is a loss of electrical power or an invalid VVI signal from the CADC.

Front 58

Where is the vertical velocity signal developed?

Back 58

In the CADC.

Front 59

What is the main purpose of the two AOA transmitter probes?

Back 59

They register angular difference between an aircraft’s wing cord line and its flight path.

Front 60

What LRU receives the AOA transmitter probe signals before being transmitted to the CADC?

Back 60

The DFLCC.

Front 61

After CADC processing, what are the left and right AOA voltages used for?

Back 61

(1) To provide T to the AOA indexer, and (2) to provide T and validity signals to the AOA indicator.

Front 62

What is the display range of the AOA indicator?

Back 62

–5 degrees to +40 degrees, in one-degree increments.

Front 63

Under what two conditions would you expect to see the AOA indicator display an OFF

indication?

Back 63

When there’s a loss of electrical power or an invalid AOA signal from the CADC.

Front 64

What AOA indexer sector light(s) light when true AOA is between 12 degrees and 12.75 degrees?

Back 64

The green circular and amber inverted V (Λ) sector lights.

Front 65

What AOA indexer sector light(s) light when true AOA is above 14 degrees?

Back 65

Only the red V sector light.

Front 66

List the dedicated LRUs and sensors that comprise the CSFDR system

Back 66

LRUs: SAU and CSMU. Sensors: axial accelerometer transmitter, engine power lever angle potentiometer,

and five control surface position transducers.

Front 67

What is the prime component of the CSFDR system?

Back 67

The SAU.

Front 68

What memory sites are located inside of the SAU?

Back 68

NVM, and auxiliary memory.

Front 69

What data storage unit of the CSFDR system is almost indestructible?

Back 69

The CSMU.

Front 70

What type data does the CMSU protect?

Back 70

Type 1 data.

Front 71

What CSFDR component senses acceleration?

Back 71

Axial accelerometer transmitter.

Front 72

What CSFDR component detects throttle position?

Back 72

Engine power lever angle potentiometer.

Front 73

What CSFDR components are classified as LVDTs?

Back 73

The control surface position transducers

Front 74

What CSFDR component receives LVDT signals?

Back 74

The SAU.

Front 75

The flaperon position transducers are mounted on what flight control component?

Back 75

The left and right ISAs.

Front 76

What position transducer doesn’t mount to an ISA?

Back 76

The rudder position transducer.

Front 77

Recorded 4 to 5 seconds after takeoff.

Back 77

Baseline data

Front 78

Structural loads environmental data.

Back 78

Type 3

Front 79

Typically used for mishap investigation.

Back 79

Type 1

Front 80

Individual aircraft tracking data.

Back 80

Type 2

Front 81

Out-of-tolerance condition triggers a FDR 028 MFL.

Back 81

Baseline

Front 82

Stored in the SAU’s NVM.

Back 82

Type 2

Front 83

Used to further bolster a pilot reported discrepancy.

Back 83

Type 1

Front 84

16–21 of these triggers an FDR 024 MFL.

Back 84

Special events

Front 85

Used to predict engine maintenance.

Back 85

Type 4

Front 86

First five are protected from overwrite.

Back 86

Special events

Front 87

Fan turbine inlet temperature.

Back 87

Type 4

Front 88

Stored in the SAU’s AMU.

Back 88

Type 3 and 4

Front 89

Where is the SDR located?

Back 89

It’s mounted to the left side of the ejection seat.

Front 90

What’s the function of the SDR cannon plug lanyard?

Back 90

To disconnect the SDR cannon plug upon ejection.

Front 91

Describe the basic SDR design used with the analog FLCS.

Back 91

Used with the analog FLCS is retained for use with the DFLCS. In the analog FLCS, this unit is divided

into two sides and provides 1K bytes of data storage apiece for the FLCC and ECA.

Front 92

How does the DFLCC treat the SDR memory?

Back 92

As one contiguous 2K block.

Front 93

What provides the communication link between the DFLCC and SDR?

Back 93

The UART.

Front 94

When does SDR recording start and when does recording stop?

Back 94

Flight data recording starts whenever the aircraft transitions to a weight-off-wheels condition. It stops when

transitioning to a weight-on-wheels condition.

Front 95

What’s the SDR’s maximum record time?

Back 95

99 minutes.

Front 96

When does the SDR record event driven data?

Back 96

When a DFLCS failure occurs.

Front 97

What does the Monochrome Cockpit Television Sensor (CTVS) Video Sensor Head (VSH)

provide the digital video recorder system?

Back 97

A view of the outside world to the CTVS E/U, which incorporates synchronization and control signals to

produce CTVS video.

Front 98

What is the purpose of the cockpit television sensor electronics unit (CTVS E/U)?

Back 98

The E/U supplies the CTVS video to the HUD E/U, where it is combined with HUD symbology to create

HUD/ CTVS video.

Front 99

Describe the purpose of the airborne video tape recorder (AVTR) panel (1) switches

Back 99

It contains a power switch, with only ON and OFF positions, which controls the electrical power to the

DVR.

Front 100

What is the aft station coaxial switch and what is its purpose?

Back 100

It is a relay unit located in the aft cockpit under the center pedestal. The relay switches the display of the

MFD/CMFD or the HUD video for display on the aft cockpit right MFD/CMFD.

Front 101

What is the purpose of the head-up display/helmet-mounted display video switch (HUD/HMD)?

Back 101

It allows the video to switch between HUD CTVS video and helmet mounted cueing system (HMCS)

video.

Front 102

What does the digital video system record?

Back 102

It provides video recordings of HUD/CTVS video and MFD/color (C) MFD displays as well as audio

recordings of voice communication and warning tones.

Front 103

Video signals from the HUD, left (L) MFD/CMFD, and right (R) MFD/CMFD travel to which

component before being routed to the DVR for recording?

Back 103

AVTR control panel.

Front 104

The digital video recorder system records a morse code three-letter ground station identification

signals from which aircraft system(s)?

Back 104

TACAN and ILS.

Front 105

What does the digital video recorder system record when an AIM-9 missile locks onto a target?

Back 105

A 400 to 1500 Hz variable pitch tone.

Front 106

What flight environmental pressure is sensed by small holes located on the sides of the pitot

and air data probes?

a. Pitot.

b. Static.

c. Impact.

d. Differential.

Back 106

B

Front 107

True angle-of-attack (AOA) is the angle between an aircraft’s wing cord line and its

a. attitude.

b. altitude.

c. flight path.

d. glide slope.

Back 107

C

Front 108

How many sources of pitot pressure (PT) and static pressure (PS) are routed by the pitot-static

probe pneumatic system?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Back 108

B

Front 109

The pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies air data to the central air data computer

(CADC), airspeed mach indicator (AMI), altimeter, and

a. flight control computer (FLCC).

b. pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA).

c. electronic component assembly (ECA).

d. digital flight control computer (DFLCC).

Back 109

B

Front 110

What component(s) receive air data inputs from the air data probe pneumatic system?

a. Altimeter.

b. Airspeed mach indicator (AMI).

c. Pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA).

d. PSA and central air data computer (CADC).

Back 110

C

Front 111

The angle of sideslip pneumatic system routed air data pressures to the

a. differential pressure sensor (DPS).

b. pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA).

c. electronic component assembly (ECA).

d. digital flight control computer (DFLCC).

Back 111

A

Front 112

How are central air data computer (CADC) analog output signals transferred to their final

destination?

a. Via the A-multiplex (MUX) bus.

b. Via the D-MUX bus.

c. Via aircraft wiring.

d. Via fiber optics.

Back 112

C

Front 113

The pitot-static probe pneumatic system supplies the airspeed mach indicator (AMI) with

a. sideslip (P).

b. pitot pressure (PT) only.

c. static pressure (P) only.

d. PT and static pressure (PS).

Back 113

D

Front 114

One complete revolution of the altimeter’s altitude dial equals

a. 100 feet of altitude.

b. 1,000 feet of altitude.

c. 5,000 feet of altitude.

d. 10,000 feet of altitude.

Back 114

B

Front 115

What’s the display range of the altimeter’s altitude drum counter?

a. 0 to 50,000 feet.

b. 0 to 80,000 feet.

c. -1,000 to 50,000 feet.

d. -1,000 to 80,000 feet.

Back 115

D

Front 116

Why would a pilot adjust the altimeter to display pressure altitude?

a. To display altitude above terrain.

b. To display altitude below sea level.

c. To standardize aircraft altitudes for low-altitude air traffic control.

d. To standardize aircraft altitudes for high-altitude air traffic control.

Back 116

D

Front 117

Which component develops the vertical velocity indicator’s (VVI) vertical velocity signal?

a. VVI.

b. Flight control computer (FLCC).

c. Pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA).

d. Central air data computer (CADC).

Back 117

D

Front 118

The angle-of-attack (AOA) indicator is considered a

a. back-up indicator.

b. vertical tape indicator.

c. self-contained indicator.

d. horizontal tape indicator.

Back 118

B

Front 119

What’s the function of the angle-of-attack (AOA) indexer’s lever control switch?

a. On/off switch.

b. Sector light intensity.

c. Enables AOA logic circuits.

d. Only used during takeoff and landing configurations.

Back 119

B

Front 120

What’s the crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) system’s prime component?

a. Seat data recorder (SDR).

b. Signal acquisition unit (SAU).

c. Crash survivable memory unit (CSMU).

d. Linear variable differential transformer (LVDT).

Back 120

B

Front 121

What data is only stored in the crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR)?

a. Type 1.

b. Type 2.

c. Type 3.

d. Type 4.

Back 121

A

Front 122

How many dedicated sensors are utilized by the crash survivable flight data recorder

(CSFDR) system?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

Back 122

C

Front 123

Which crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) system component utilizes a

pendulous device?

a. Crash survivable memory unit (CSMU).

b. Axial accelerometer transmitter.

c. Control surface position transducer.

d. Engine power lever angle potentiometer.

Back 123

B

Front 124

Which crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) system control surface position

transducer is not connected to an integrated servoactuator (ISA)?

a. Rudder.

b. Left flaperon only.

c. Left horizontal tail.

d. Right horizontal tail.

Back 124

A

Front 125

What’s crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) type 1 data primarily used for?

a. Engine analysis.

b. Mishap investigation.

c. Individual aircraft tracking.

d. Maintenance troubleshooting.

Back 125

B

Front 126

What predetermines the crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) special event

criteria?

a. Type 1 data.

b. Baseline data.

c. Crash survivable memory unit (CMSU) configuration.

d. Signal acquisition unit operational flight program (SAU OFP).

Back 126

D

Front 127

Which crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) type data is dubbed as individual

aircraft tracking data?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Back 127

B

Front 128

Which crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) type data is known as structural loads

environmental data?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Back 128

C

Front 129

Which crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR) type data is used for engine analysis?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Back 129

D

Front 130

When does the seat data recorder (SDR) cease recording operations?

a. Upon flight control system (FLCS) shutdown.

b. Upon a weight-on-wheels (WOW) condition.

c. During digital backup operations.

d. Upon autopilot engagement.

Back 130

B

Front 131

What occurs if the maximum recording limit of the seat data recorder (SDR) is reached?

a. Data overwrite.

b. SDR stops recording.

c. A new SDR is installed.

d. Overflow data is recorded to the crash survivable flight data recorder (CSFDR).

Back 131

A

Front 132

Which digital video recorder system component contains sync generator, Built-In Test

(BIT), power supply, Automatic Gain Control (AGC), and automatic light control circuits?

a. Digital video recorder (DVR).

b. Airborne video tape recorder (AVTR) panel.

c. Cockpit television sensor electronics unit (CTVS E/U).

d. Cockpit television sensor (CTVS) video sensor head (VSH).

Back 132

C

Front 133

Which digital video recorder system component controls the electrical power to the digital

video recorder (DVR)?

a. Video SEL switch panel.

b. Airborne video tape recorder (AVTR) panel.

c. Cockpit television sensor electronics unit (CTVS E/U).

d. Cockpit television sensor (CTVS) video sensor head (VSH).

Back 133

B

Front 134

The digital video recorder system records morse code three-letter ground station

identification signals from which system?

a. Stall warning system.

b. Landing gear warning system.

c. Identification friend or foe (IFF) system.

d. Tactical air navigation (TACAN) system.

Back 134

D

Front 135

What was Bernoulli’s theory about the relationship of pressure and fluids?

Back 135

As a moving fluid’s speed increases, its pressure decreases

Front 136

What simple device is used to demonstrate Bernoulli’s principle?

Back 136

A venturi.

Front 137

What items on an aircraft can be considered airfoils?

Back 137

Propeller blades, wings, stationary and movable control surfaces, and even the fuselage can be termed

airfoils

Front 138

What are the two edges of a wing referred to as?

Back 138

Leading edge and trailing edge.

Front 139

How does Bernoulli’s theory relate to an aircraft’s wings?

Back 139

An airfoil (wing) is designed to permit air to flow more rapidly past its upper surface than its lower surface,

creating less pressure on the upper surface than that on the lower surface.

Front 140

How does the previous question apply to lift?

Back 140

The airflow above and beneath the airfoil creates a pressure difference; there is less pressure above the

airfoil. Since the greater pressure must prevail, an upward force (lift) is created.

Front 141

What is the difference between the F–16 and A–10 airfoils?

Back 141

The F–16 airfoil is much more streamlined.

Front 142

How does the function of a more streamlined airfoil compare to the function of a less streamlined

airfoil?

Back 142

More streamlined airfoils reduce drag, but provide a much lower degree of lift than do less streamline

airfoils.

Front 143

What is AOA?

Back 143

The angle between the wing and the flight path.

Front 144

What is the relationship between lift and AOA?

Back 144

Lift increases with AOA.

Front 145

What happens to an airfoil when AOA approaches 20?

Back 145

Most airfoils enter a stall condition due to the lift over the airfoil being disrupted by turbulence.

Front 146

Opposes thrust.

Back 146

Drag

Front 147

The force that causes an object to accelerate toward the center of the earth.

Back 147

Gravity

Front 148

Combination of friction and turbulence.

Back 148

Drag

Front 149

Generates airflow over the wings.

Back 149

Thrust

Front 150

Propels an aircraft forward into the wind.

Back 150

Thrust

Front 151

Produced by the aircraft power plant.

Back 151

Thrust

Front 152

Overcomes gravity.

Back 152

Lift

Front 153

The primary force aircraft must overcome.

Back 153

Gravity

Front 154

Why is a high AOA important during takeoff and landing, and when aircraft are flying at slow

speeds?

Back 154

Without the extra lift provided by the AOA, the decreased thrust would allow gravity and drag to pull the

aircraft down.

Front 155

X axis.

Back 155

Longitudinal

Front 156

Movement on the axis is called yaw.

Back 156

Vertical

Front 157

Imaginary line through the center of the aircraft extending lengthwise from

the nose to the tail.

Back 157

Longitudinal

Front 158

Imaginary line extending vertically through the intersection of the X and Y

axes from the top to the bottom of the aircraft.

Back 158

Vertical

Front 159

Movement on this axis is roll.

Back 159

Longitudinal

Front 160

Z axis.

Back 160

Vertical

Front 161

Movement on the axis is called pitch.

Back 161

Lateral

Front 162

Y axis.

Back 162

Lateral

Front 163

Imaginary line extending crosswise from wingtip to wingtip.

Back 163

Lateral

Front 164

What is significant about the point where the X, Y, and Z axes intersect on the F–16?

Back 164

That point is the aircraft’s center of gravity.

Front 165

How are aircraft roll movements referenced?

Back 165

Downward motion of the left or right wing tip.

Front 166

How are aircraft pitch movements referenced?

Back 166

Pitch is referenced to the nose of the aircraft in terms of aircraft nose up and nose down.

Front 167

How are aircraft yaw movements referenced?

Back 167

Yaw is referenced in terms of nose left or nose right.

Front 168

What effect did connecting hydraulic actuators directly to the stick and rudder pedals have on

controlling aircraft surface movement?

Back 168

Eliminated the need to use physical force to control surface movement.

Front 169

What is using hydraulic actuators to control aircraft surface movement known as?

Back 169

Control augmentation

Front 170

Why was artificial feel incorporated into flight controls?

Back 170

To keep the controls from being over controlled or accidentally jarred by the pilots.

Front 171

What corrected control augmentation’s early problem with rapid jerky movements of the flight

control surfaces that threw the aircraft out of control?

Back 171

Electronic circuitry smoothes out surface movements and controls the degree of movement according to

airspeed.

Front 172

What purpose do accelerometers and gyros serve in controlling flight control surfaces?

Back 172

They smooth out flight control inputs and automatically adjust the surfaces for turbulence.

Front 173

What was the first aircraft to incorporate the fly by wire concept?

Back 173

The F–16.

Front 174

What feature eliminated flight control push rods and cables?

Back 174

The fly by wire concept.

Front 175

What’s the principle component of the FLCS?

Back 175

The FLCC.

Front 176

Where’s the FLCC located?

Back 176

Behind access door 1204.

Front 177

Most FLCC signals are quad-redundant. What are the two exceptions?

Back 177

Autopilot and gun-firing compensation

Front 178

How would you typically access FLCC nonvolatile memory?

Back 178

By using a viper MLV or word reader through a connector port located on the FLCP.

Front 179

What’s the purpose of the STORES CONFIG switch?

Back 179

Enables the FLCC to enhance maneuvering capability when stores are loaded on the aircraft by changing

gains within the computer.

Front 180

What signals does the ECA receive via the PSA?

Back 180

Three sources of impact pressure, three sources of static pressure, and one source of AOA.

Front 181

What’s the purpose of the angle of sideslip DPS signal?

Back 181

It compensates the AOA source from the PSA.

Front 182

In the event of an air data failure, how does the FLCC make its gains calculation?

Back 182

The ECA provides the FLCC with standby gains.

Front 183

If standby gains are selected, how will the LEFs respond?

Back 183

The LEFs will drive to 0, unless the landing gear is in the down position or the ALT FLAP switch is in the

extend position. If this is the case, the LEFs will drive to 15 (7½ inches) down.

Front 184

When would the servo switch be placed to ARM?

Back 184

After a nonresettable ISA failure

Front 185

With the servo switch in the ARM position, what happens when there is a second ISA failure?

Back 185

The ISA is automatically shut down and the surface is returned to the streamlined position.

Front 186

What resets electronic circuits (P, R, and Y caution lamps) after a single resettable malfunction

occurs?

Back 186

The ELEC position of the servo electronics reset switch.

Front 187

What indication is there if a second failure occurs in a given flight control axis?

Back 187

The DUAL FC FAIL light illuminates

Front 188

On the FLCS self-test step indicator, what does an illuminated data dot in the upper right corner

indicate?

Back 188

A rate gyro speed malfunction.

Front 189

If the alternate flap switch is positioned to EXTEND, what determines flaperon position?

Back 189

Airspeed only.

Front 190

Where’s the side-stick controller located?

Back 190

It’s mounted on, and extends above, the cockpit’s right console.

Front 191

How many LVDTs are contained within the side-stick controller assembly?

Back 191

Four.

Front 192

What provides artificial feel to the side-stick controller assembly?

Back 192

Beams and coil springs within the transducer assembly.

Front 193

What’s the rudder pedal breakout force, and how much force is required to achieve maximum

rudder deflection?

Back 193

15 pounds and 110 pounds respectively

Front 194

How many RVDTs are located in an AOA transmitter probe?

Back 194

Four.

Front 195

How is quadruple redundancy achieved in a rate gyro assembly?

Back 195

Each rate gyro assembly contains four rate gyros.

Front 196

How many accelerometers are contained in the NLA assembly?

Back 196

Eight; four to sense normal acceleration and four to sense lateral acceleration.

Front 197

How’s roll trim commanded?

Back 197

It can be commanded two ways: (1) via the trim button located on the side-stick controller, (2) via the

thumbwheel located on the MTP.

Front 198

How’s yaw trim commanded?

Back 198

Only via the yaw trim knob located on the MTP.

Front 199

What’s the result of positioning the MTP’s TRIM/AP DISC to DISC?

Back 199

Electrical power is removed from both trim motors and autopilot can’t be engaged. Since power is removed

from both trim motors, pitch and roll trim can’t be obtained from the side-stick controller trim button; trim

can only be commanded through the pitch and roll trim thumbwheels.

Front 200

What does the YAW TRIM knob guard provide?

Back 200

Prevents inadvertent rotation of the knob.

Front 201

What two autopilot switches are located on the miscellaneous panel?

Back 201

The pitch and roll autopilot switches.

Front 202

Where does the sideslip DPS get its input signals?

Back 202

From the flushed-mounted static pressure ports

Front 203

What function do the eight pressure sensors serve that are located in the PSA?

Back 203

Convert pneumatic pressures (air data inputs) into electrical signals.

Front 204

What are the two resident software programs located in the DFLCC?

Back 204

Normal system operation program, and digital backup program.

Front 205

The DFLCC performs the job of what two analog FLCS components?

Back 205

The FLCC and the ECA.

Front 206

Besides being a digital component, what’s the other major advantage that the DFLCC has over its

predecessor?

Back 206

It can communicate over the A and D multiplex buses.

Front 207

What major advantage is provided by the DFLCC communicating on the D-MUX bus?

Back 207

Access can be gained to the DFLCC memory locations.

Front 208

When is the DFLCP’s RUN/FAIL lamp used?

Back 208

Only during BIT operations.

Front 209

What three conditions must be met before the DFLCP’s BIT switch remains in the BIT position?

Back 209

DFLCS power is applied, weight is on the main landing gear, and left and right wheel speed sensors

indicate less than 28 knots.

Front 210

What’s indicated if, during BIT, the BIT switch returns to the OFF position and the red FAIL

light illuminates?

Back 210

A BIT failure has occurred.

Front 211

If successful, what happens at the very end of BIT?

Back 211

The BIT switch automatically returns to the OFF position.

Front 212

How many RVDT’s are contained in the DFLCS AOA transmitter probe?

Back 212

One.

Front 213

In relation to the miscellaneous switch panel, what must occur before roll autopilot can be

engaged?

Back 213

The PITCH switch has to be in attitude hold or altitude hold.

Front 214

Smoothes flight control surface movements by modifying

pilot commands as a function of air data scheduling.

Back 214

Command Augmentation

Front 215

Smoothes out turbulence of the flight path in all three axes

by incorporating motion sensors into the control logic

Back 215

Stability augmentation

Front 216

Allows the pilot to fly the aircraft without concern of

stalling the aircraft and departing controlled flight

Back 216

Automatic AOA limiting

Front 217

Allows the pilot to operate the aircraft to its fullest

capability, –4 to +9 gs, without concern for overstressing

the airframe.

Back 217

Automatic load factor limiting

Front 218

Displaces the rudder the correct amount during rolling

maneuvers to ensure coordinated turns

Back 218

Aileron rudder interconnect

Front 219

Controls pilot inputs when the aircraft is above 29 AOA.

Back 219

Automatic spin prevention

Front 220

Provides automatic aerodynamic optimization of the wing.

Back 220

Automatic LEF positioning

Front 221

Allows the pilot to override AOA and g-limiting features

of the FLCS to command a 21 horizontal tail deflection

for a deep stall recovery.

Back 221

Manual pitch override

Front 222

Compensates for yaw and roll movements induced during

gun firing.

Back 222

Gun compensation circuitry

Front 223

Why is flight control wiring routed down each side of the aircraft in branched pairs?

Back 223

The separation prevents loss of system authority should damage occur in one area.

Front 224

What component physically positions a control surface?

Back 224

The ISA.

Front 225

Describe gain scheduling.

Back 225

It’s the amount of control surface movement in relation to the amount of pressure applied to the side stick,

rudder pedals, and flight parameters input to the FLCC. Gain scheduling is a function of static pressure,

impact pressure, or ratio of impact pressure to static pressure required for a particular control axis

command.

Front 226

Name the primary flight control surfaces.

Back 226

Horizontal stabilizers, flaperons, and rudder

Front 227

What are the horizontal stabilizer’s movable limits?

Back 227

21º up or down from streamline

Front 228

The flaperons perform what two aerodynamic functions?

Back 228

Their primary purpose is to provide uniform roll performance during roll maneuvers, and they extend as

flaps in a takeoff and landing configuration.

Front 229

What are the flaperon’s movable limits?

Back 229

20º down to 23º up from streamline.

Front 230

What are the rudder’s movable limits?

Back 230

30º left or right of streamline.

Front 231

What direction will the rudder deflect during gunfire?

Back 231

To the right.

Front 232

What control surfaces are associated with the secondary FLCS?

Back 232

LEFs and speed brakes

Front 233

What are the maximum movable limits of the speed brakes?

Back 233

Full open is 60º per speed brake panel; 120º combined.

Front 234

When will the speed brake indicator display a nine-dot symbol?

Back 234

When the speed brakes open more than 2º.

Front 235

When landing, what limits speed brake operation to 43 degree?

Back 235

The 43 degree limit switch.

Front 236

What hydraulic system(s) pressurize(s) the ISAs and LEF PDU?

Back 236

A and B systems, which provides continued operation should either the A or B system fail.

Front 237

What hydraulic system(s) pressurize(s) the speed brakes?

Back 237

Only system A.

Front 238

What’s the primary function of the autopilot system?

Back 238

To assist the pilot while his or her attention is diverted from manual flight so that other in flight operations

can take place with little interruption.

Front 239

How are the autopilot switches held in any usable autopilot mode?

Back 239

Electromagnetically (solenoid held).

Front 240

What flight control axis uses the ATT HOLD autopilot mode?

Back 240

Both pitch and roll.

Front 241

What autopilot mode permits the use of control stick steering?

Back 241

ATT HOLD (pitch or roll).

Front 242

What’s the maximum altitude that PITCH ALT HOLD will maintain?

Back 242

40,000 feet.

Front 243

ROLL autopilot HDG SEL operates is conjunction with what cockpit component?

Back 243

The HSI.

Front 244

Explain what is meant by trim as it applies to an F–16 FLCS?

Back 244

As an aircraft flies, its weight becomes unbalanced. This results from fuel consumption and stores release

(dropping bombs, etc.). In addition to unbalancing, a pilot often has to contend with unfriendly crosswinds

and other adverse weather conditions. By adjusting the trim controls, pilots change the static position of the

flight controls when they’re not making any inputs.

Front 245

What’s the purpose of the TRIM/AP DISC switch?

Back 245

Placing the switch to the DISC position will remove inputs from the side-stick controller trim button in the

case of a “runaway trim” failure.

Front 246

If the TRIM/AP DISC switch is in the DISC position, how can the aircraft be trimmed?

Back 246

By manually repositioning the pitch and roll thumbwheels on the MTP.

Front 247

What does the LEF system provide?

Back 247

It provides high lift for takeoff and landing and optimizes performance in each flight phase

Front 248

What information does the DFLCC process to provide leading edge flap inputs?

Back 248

Angle-of-attack (AOA), mach, and altitude data.

Front 249

What are the LEFs movable limits?

Back 249

2º up to 25º down measured from the streamline position.

Front 250

What component physically drives the LEFs?

Back 250

The PDU.

Front 251

Which hydraulic systems supply pressure for operation of the PDU?

Back 251

A and B systems.

Front 252

How many mechanical rotary actuators are located on each wing leading edge?

Back 252

Four.

Front 253

Where is the LEF switch located?

Back 253

On the FLT CONTROL panel in the cockpit

Front 254

What is the purpose of the LEF switch LOCK position?

Back 254

The LOCK position is used to lock the leading edge flaps in their existing positions.

Front 255

When the LE FLAPS switch is placed in the LOCK position, with weight on both landing gears

or wheel speed over 60 knots and throttle at idle or less, what will the LEFs position be?

Back 255

Two degrees up.

Front 256

If both leading edge flap command outputs fail, what indication will the pilot see?

Back 256

LEF LOCK PFL will be displayed on the PFLD along with a flight control system warning light.

Front 257

Daniel Bernoulli developed a theory on the relationship of fluid speed,

a. and pressure.

b. air, and pressure.

c. time, and pressure.

d. air pressure, and venturi.

Back 257

A

Front 258

As fluid passes through a venturi, pressure is

a. equal throughout the venturi.

b. lowest where speed is lowest.

c. lowest where speed is highest.

d. a product of fluid speed, time, and distance.

Back 258

C

Front 259

What force is created when pressure on the bottom of the airfoil is greater than on the top of

the airfoil?

a. Lift.

b. Drag.

c. Speed.

d. Thrust.

Back 259

A

Front 260

Angle-of-attack (AOA) is the angle between the aircraft’s

a. wings and the ground.

b. wings and the flightpath.

c. flightpath and the ground.

d. flightpath and the horizon

Back 260

B

Front 261

As angle-of-attack (AOA) increases, pressure on top of the airfoil

a. increases.

b. decreases.

c. enhances lift.

d. remains constant.

Back 261

B

Front 262

At what degree do most airfoils enter a stall condition?

a. 10.

b. 20.

c. 30.

d. 40.

Back 262

B

Front 263

An axis on an aircraft is an imaginary line that

a. passes through the aircraft’s mid section.

b. divides the aircraft in half from nose to tail.

c. passes through the aircraft’s center of gravity.

d. divides the aircraft in half from wingtip to wingtip.

Back 263

C

Front 264

The aircraft axis that runs from the nose to the tail is

a. lateral.

b. vertical.

c. horizontal.

d. longitudinal

Back 264

D

Front 265

Aircraft movement around the vertical axis is called

a. roll.

b. dive.

c. yaw.

d. pitch.

Back 265

C

Front 266

Aircraft pitch is referenced from

a. the nose.

b. either wingtip.

c. the left wingtip.

d. the right wingtip.

Back 266

A

Front 267

Connecting hydraulic actuators in line with the control stick and rudder pedals eliminated

the need for pilots to use force to control surface movement. This feature is known as

a. artificial feel.

b. artificial resistance.

c. control augmentation.

d. stability augmentation.

Back 267

C

Front 268

Artificial feel was incorporated into the flight control system to

a. provide stability augmentation.

b. smooth out and control the angle of surface movement according to airspeed.

c. eliminate the need for force when controlling flight control surface movement.

d. keep the controls from being over controlled or accidentally jarred by the pilot.

Back 268

D

Front 269

The use of accelerometers and gyros to smooth out flight control inputs and to automatically

adjust the flight control surfaces for turbulence is known as

a. flight augmentation.

b. direct augmentation.

c. control augmentation.

d. stability augmentation.

Back 269

D

Front 270

Command augmentation refers to

a. control augmentation only.

b. stability augmentation only.

c. control and stability augmentation.

d. control, stability, and flight augmentation.

Back 270

C

Front 271

On the F–16, what is the principal component of the flight control system?

a. Electronic component assembly (ECA).

b. Flight control computer (FLCC).

c. Flight control panel (FLCP).

d. Manual trim panel (MTP).

Back 271

B

Front 272

The F–16 electronic component assembly (ECA) uses the angle of sideslip differential

pressure sensor signal to compensate for

a. both angle of attack (AOA) transmitter probes.

b. AOA output by the pneumatic sensor assembly.

c. the right AOA transmitter probe.

d. the left AOA transmitter probe.

Back 272

B

Front 273

If the landing gear handle is up and standby gains are selected, the F–16 leading edge flaps

drive to

a. –2 degrees.

b. 0 degrees.

c. 15 degrees.

d. 25 degrees.

Back 273

B

Front 274

On F–16s, to reset an integrated servoactuator (ISA) failure, you must select the SERVO

position of the servo electric reset switch and simultaneously depress the

a. MAL/IND switch.

b. MASTER CAUTION light.

c. appropriate servo arm switch.

d. flight control system (FLCS) CAUTION/RESET switch.

Back 274

D

Front 275

If there’s a second electronic failure in a given axis, what indication is there on the F–16

flight control panel (FLCP)?

a. DUAL FC FAIL light illuminates.

b. The light for the applicable axis (P, R, or Y) will illuminate.

c. The light for the applicable axis (P, R, or Y) will illuminate along with the flight control system

(FLCS) caution light.

d. The light for the applicable axis (P, R, or Y) will illuminate along with the MASTER

CAUTION light.

Back 275

A

Front 276

If the F–16 flight control panel (FLCP) self-test control switch is in TEST, it can be

switched off automatically

a. at any time.

b. only when weight is on wheels.

c. only when power is provided to the aircraft.

d. whenever power is removed from the aircraft or when weight is off the main landing gear.

Back 276

D

Front 277

The F–16 flight control system (FLCS) self-test can be performed

a. while aircraft is in flight.

b. only when weight is on wheels.

c. only when weight is off wheels.

d. anytime the self-control switch is placed to TEST.

Back 277

B

Front 278

What is the range of motion for the F–16 side-stick?

a. 1/8 inch in any direction.

b. 1/4 inch in any direction.

c. 1/2 inch in any direction.

d. 1 inch in any direction.

Back 278

B

Front 279

The F–16 rate gyro assemblies contain pitch, roll, and yaw rate gyros that

a. are not interchangeable.

b. are all unique assemblies.

c. each contain two individual rate gyros.

d. become unique only when connected to aircraft wiring.

Back 279

D

Front 280

How many force-balanced transducers are contained in the F–16 normal lateral

accelerometer?

a. 2.

b. 4.

c. 6.

d. 8.

Back 280

D

Front 281

When the F–16 manual trim panel TRIM/AP DISC switch is positioned to DISC, electrical

power is

a. applied to both trim motors and autopilot can be engaged.

b. applied to both trim motors and autopilot can’t be engaged.

c. removed from both trim motors and autopilot can be engaged.

d. removed from both trim motors and autopilot can’t be engaged.

Back 281

D

Front 282

The F–16 manual trim panel crescent-shaped indicator(s) provide a visual indication of

a. yaw trim only.

b. roll and yaw trim.

c. pitch and roll trim.

d. pitch and yaw trim.

Back 282

C

Front 283

From where does the F–16 angle of sideslip differential pressure sensor (DPS) receive its

pneumatic pressure inputs?

a. Pitot probe.

b. Pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA).

c. Central air data computer (CADC).

d. Flush-mounted static pressure ports.

Back 283

D

Front 284

How many pressure sensors does the F–16 pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA) contain?

a. 5.

b. 6.

c. 7.

d. 8.

Back 284

D

Front 285

The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) performs the functions of what two

analog flight control system (FLCS) components?

a. Pneumatic sensor assembly (PSA) and electronic component assembly (ECA).

b. FLCC and central air data computer (CADC).

c. PSA and flight control computer (FLCC).

d. FLCC and ECA.

Back 285

D

Front 286

The F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) has multiplex bus communication with

the central air data computer (CADC) for

a. pitch autopilot (altitude hold).

b. roll autopilot (steering select).

c. terrain following radar (climb/dive commands).

d. identification friend or foe (IFF) mode C (altitude reporting).

Back 286

A

Front 287

The F–16 digital flight control panel’s RUN/FAIL lamp is only used

a. during the ejection sequence.

b. during built-in test (BIT) operation.

c. to denote an integrated servoactuators (ISA) failure.

d. to indicate in flight digital flight control computer (DFLCC) failures.

Back 287

B

Front 288

On the F–16, which condition is not a requirement for the digital flight control panel’s builtin

test (BIT) switch to electrically hold in the BIT position?

a. Engine operating.

b. Weight is on the main landing gear.

c. Digital flight control system (DFLCS) power is applied.

d. Left and right wheel speed sensors indicate less than 28 knots.

Back 288

A

Front 289

The F–16 digital flight control system angle-of-attack (AOA) transmitter probe’s travel

rotation is

a. 50 degrees.

b. 75 degrees.

c. 100 degrees.

d. 125 degrees.

Back 289

C

Front 290

On the F–16, how many rotary variable differential tranducers does an F–16 digital flight

control system (DFLCS) angle-of-attack (AOA) transmitter probe contain?

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

Back 290

C

Front 291

The selected roll autopilot mode will only engage when either pitch attitude hold or

a. pitch altitude hold is engaged.

b. pitch altitude hold is disengaged.

c. terrain following radar is engaged.

d. terrain following radar is disengaged.

Back 291

A

Front 292

Smooth flight control surface movements by modifying pilot commands as a function of air

data scheduling is which feature of the F–16 flight control system (FLCS)?

a. Stability augmentation.

b. Command augmentation.

c. Automatic angle-of-attack (AOA) limiting.

d. Automatic leading edge flap (LEF) positioning.

Back 292

B

Front 293

On F–16s, where are electrical command signals from the side-stick, manual trim panel, and

rudder pedals compared and summed with inputs from the rate gyros, accelerometers, and air data

system?

a. Electronic component assembly (ECA).

b. Modular mission computer (MMC).

c. Flight control computer (FLCC).

d. Manual trim panel (MTP).

Back 293

C

Front 294

The amount of control surface movement in relation to the amount of pressure applied to

the side-stick or rudder pedals is called

a. override control.

b. gain scheduling.

c. automatic spin prevention.

d. aileron rudder interconnect.

Back 294

B

Front 295

On F–16s, what is the range of movement for the horizontal stabilizers?

a. 21 degrees up or down from streamline.

b. 23 degrees up or down from streamline.

c. 20 degrees down to 23 degrees up from streamline.

d. 23 degrees down to 20 degrees up from streamline.

Back 295

A

Front 296

On F–16s, the flaperons will be extended 20 degrees down for increased lift when

a. the aircraft is in takeoff or landing configuration.

b. the ALT FLAPS switch is placed to EXTEND.

c. the landing gear handle is positioned to DN.

d. any of the actions identified above occur.

Back 296

D

Front 297

The F–16 rudder moves automatically during coordinated turns as a function of

a. aileron rudder interconnect (ARI).

b. leading edge flaps (LEF.)

c. dynamic pressure.

d. roll rate gyro.

Back 297

A

Front 298

The range of movement of the F–16 rudder is how many degrees left or right of streamline?

a. 20.

b. 30.

c. 25.

d. 35.

Back 298

B

Front 299

On F–16s, the speed brake panels open symmetrically to a maximum of

a. 43 degress each.

b. 50 degrees each.

c. 60 degrees each.

d. to a total of 110 degrees.

Back 299

C

Front 300

On F–16s, what are the three positions on the speed brake switch?

a. 2 degrees, 43 degrees, and hold.

b. 2 degrees, 60 degrees, and hold.

c. Auto, manual, and hold.

d. Extend, retract, and hold.

Back 300

D

Front 301

The F–16 speed brakes receive hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic system?

a. A.

b. B.

c. Both A and B jointly.

d. Both A and B alternately.

Back 301

A

Front 302

Pitch and roll attitude adjustments can be made on the F–16 while either autopilot attitude

(ATT) mode is engaged. What feature enables this adjustment?

a. Heading select (HDG SEL).

b. Relaxed static stability.

c. ALT (altitude) HOLD.

d. Control stick steering.

Back 302

C

Front 303

If an F–16 experienced a “runaway trim” condition, which manual trim panel function

would be used?

a. Yaw trim knob.

b. Roll trim thumb wheel.

c. TRIM/AP DISC switch.

d. Pitch trim thumb wheel.

Back 303

C

Front 304

When hydraulic power is required to drive the F–16 power drive unit (PDU), it is controlled

by which component?

a. Torque shafts.

b. Command servo.

c. Rotary actuators.

d. Asymmetry brakes.

Back 304

B

Front 305

If the F–16 digital flight control computer (DFLCC) commands provide near optimum wing

camber by varying the leading edge flaps (LEF), what position is the LE FLAPS switch

positioned to?

a. LOCK.

b. AUTO.

c. NORM.

d. EXTEND.

Back 305

B

Front 306

If a single failure of the leading edge flap (LEF) command occurs with no adverse effect on

LEF operation noticed, which of the below will be the result?

a. Maintenance fault list (MFL) 007.

b. LEFs will return to the LOCK position.

c. Flight control system warning light will illuminate.

d. LEF LOCK PFL will be displayed on the pilot fault list display.

Back 306

A

Front 307

What does the SAI display and what is the display referenced to?

Back 307

Aircraft pitch and roll are displayed with reference to the miniature aircraft and roll reference scale.

Front 308

How is pitch trim control accomplished on the SAI?

Back 308

By rotating the PULL TO CAGE control to move the miniature aircraft symbol up or down.

Front 309

What does the cage function provide?

Back 309

It locks the attitude drum and internal gyro to zero degrees pitch and roll.

Front 310

What is the range of display for the SAI?

Back 310

A display of 360 in roll and ±90 in pitch from level flight.

Front 311

What is indicated when the OFF flag is in view on the SAI?

Back 311

A loss of 28 vdc electrical power to the indicator.

Front 312

How long will the SAI continue to provide aircraft pitch and roll information if the internal gyro

was erect prior to electrical power loss and with what accuracy?

Back 312

The gyro will continue to provide aircraft pitch and roll information with an accuracy of ±6 for a minimum

of 9 minutes during gyroscope coast-down.

Front 313

What does the magnetic compass display and what is this display respect to?

Back 313

Aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north.

Front 314

What is the primary use of the magnetic compass?

Back 314

As a standby or backup heading reference in the event of HSI compass card or total INS failure.

Front 315

What does the liquid in the magnetic compass provide?

Back 315

Balance, damping, and smooth rotation of the compass card.

Front 316

How is the magnetic compass graduated?

Back 316

In 5-degree increments with general directions of north (N), east (E), south (S), and west (W) marked at the

cardinal points.

Front 317

What is the purpose of the magnetic compass adjustable magnets?

Back 317

To balance north-south and east-west errors caused by magnetic influences generated by and within the

aircraft.

Front 318

What is in the EGI unit that performs the INS and GPS portion of EGI?

Back 318

A Ring Laser Gyro Inertial Navigation Unit and an Embedded GPS Receiver (EGR).

Front 319

What do the gyros in the EGI unit provide?

Back 319

Inertial stabilization for azimuth, pitch, and roll signals.

Front 320

What switch provides power to both the RLG INU and the EGR and where is the switch located?

Back 320

The INS switch on the avionics power panel (APP).

Front 321

Which component is responsible for the initial processing of received navigation messages?

Back 321

Antenna electronics unit.

Front 322

Which antenna receives signals from satellites for GPS operation on F–16 D-model aircraft only?

Back 322

The fixed reception pattern antenna (FRPA).

Front 323

What EGI mode of alignment is the primary alignment mode used for latitudes at or below 80

and how long does it require to accomplish a full performance ready condition?

Back 323

Normal (NORM) alignment and it requires 4 minutes to align.

Front 324

If you needed a quick reaction takeoff and a full performance ready condition (alignment) in 30

seconds or less which EGI mode of alignment would be used?

Back 324

Stored heading alignment.

Front 325

When would the pilot use the attitude (ATT) alignment?

Back 325

Anytime the RLG platform has dumped and no GPS data is available

Front 326

What is the primary flight mode of operation for the EGI?

Back 326

Navigation (NAV) mode.

Front 327

What is required for INS and GPS data to be stored in non-volatile memory during power down

mode?

Back 327

Primary power to the EGI is required for at least 20 seconds after the power down command is initiated.

Front 328

What does the INS within the EGI unit provide to the attitude director indicator (ADI)?

Back 328

Inputs of aircraft pitch and roll signals and an attitude good validity signal to the attitude director indicator

(ADI).

Front 329

What portion of the EGI unit supplies GPS position, velocity, and time information to the EGI

system?

Back 329

Embedded global receiver (EGR).

Front 330

How many satellites will the embedded global receiver (EGR) simultaneously acquire and track?

Back 330

Four.

Front 331

What data does the EGI unit’s EGR require to achieve optimum operation?

Back 331

GPS almanac data, GPS initialization data, and date), and GPS crypto-variable (keys).

Front 332

What does the almanac data provide to the receiver to allow GPS to quickly locate, acquire, and

track satellites?

Back 332

It provides the satellites positions at a given time.

Front 333

How many navigation solutions does the EGI provide in NAV mode and what are they?

Back 333

There are three and they are: INS-only, GPS-only and GPS/INS (blended).

Front 334

What does the GPS/INS (blended) navigation solution provide?

Back 334

It combines line-of-sight data from the EGR with inertial navigation data to form a navigation solution

superior in accuracy to either the GPS-only or INS-only navigation solutions.

Front 335

If there is a loss of aircraft power, how long will the EGI continue to operate with the EGI

battery?

Back 335

10 seconds.

Front 336

What types of BIT does the EGI unit have?

Back 336

Start up BIT, Periodic BIT, and Initiated BIT.

Front 337

Which type of BIT does the maintenance personnel use to determine if the EGI unit has failed?

Back 337

Initiated BIT.

Front 338

What is the operating range of the nozzle position indicator?

Back 338

From 0 to 100 percent.

Front 339

What is the indicator range of the FTIT indicator?

Back 339

From 200° to 1200°C.

Front 340

Where is the exhaust gas temperature T5.6 thermocouple located?

Back 340

Mounted to the augmenter case at approximately the 6 o’clock position.

Front 341

What is the indicator range of the RPM percent indicator?

Back 341

From 0 to 110 rpm percent.

Front 342

What is the indicator range of the oil pressure indicator?

Back 342

1 to 100 psi range.

Front 343

What is the indicator range of the fuel flow indicator?

Back 343

From 0 to 80,000 pph fuel flow rate.

Front 344

Which hydraulic pressure indicators display the indication for hydraulic system A and B?

Back 344

The left indicator displays hydraulic system A and the right indicator displays system B.

Front 345

What will the pilot see if hydraulic pressure to either switch decreases to less than 1000 (±100)

psi?

Back 345

The HYD/OIL PRESS warning light comes on.

Front 346

What does the fuel quantity measurement system provide?

Back 346

1. An indication of remaining fuel and the location of the fuel on the aircraft.

Front 347

How many internal fuel storage departments are there on the F–16 and what are they used for?

Back 347

Seven internal compartments are located in its fuselage and wings for the purpose of storing/feeding fuel.

Front 348

What internal fuel compartments are used to directly feed the F–16 engine?

Back 348

The forward and aft reservoirs.

Front 349

What are the tank systems found on the F–16 aircraft?

Back 349

The forward and aft tank systems.

Front 350

What F–16 tanks make up the forward tank system?

Back 350

The right wing, F–1, F–2, and forward reservoir tanks. If a right external wing tank is installed it is also part

of this system.

Front 351

What F–16 internal tank is different dependent on whether it is a C-model or D-model aircraft?

Back 351

The F1 fuel tank.

Front 352

What tank stores fuel for transfer to the forward reservoir?

Back 352

The F2 fuel tank.

Front 353

What tanks make up the aft tank system?

Back 353

The left wing, A–1, and aft reservoir tanks. When the left external wing tank is installed, it becomes part of

the aft tank system.

Front 354

What tank system does an external centerline belong to?

Back 354

When installed, the centerline external tank becomes part of both the forward and aft tank systems.

Front 355

What unit of measurement is used for fuel displayed on fuel quantity indicator?

Back 355

In pounds.

Front 356

What are the three indicators found on the fuel quantity indicator?

Back 356

The AL pointer, the FR pointer, and a digital readout.

Front 357

What fuel quantity indication is represented by the digital readout?

Back 357

Total fuel in both tank systems.

Front 358

What indication would you expect to see on the fuel quantity indicator if the forward tank system

had 700 pounds more fuel than the aft?

Back 358

The red portion of the AL pointer would be visible, indicating a fuel imbalance.

Front 359

What switch is used to manually distribute fuel to rebalance the fuel load?

Back 359

The engine feed selector switch.

Front 360

What component is used to select display of fuel quantity for each of the separate fuel tanks?

Back 360

The fuel quantity select panel.

Front 361

What are the positions of the fuel quantity select switch?

Back 361

TEST, NORM, RSVR, INT WING, EXT WING, and EXT CTR.

Front 362

When selecting test on the fuel quantity select switch, what indications would you expect to see?

Back 362

The AL and FR pointers drive to 2,000 (100) pounds. Total fuel readout will display 6,000 (100) pounds.

Front 363

When selecting EXT CTR on the fuel quantity select switch, what indication would you expect to

see?

Back 363

The AL pointer drops to zero and the FR pointer indicates the fuel in the external centerline tank.

Front 364

What component is the heart of the fuel quantity measurement system?

Back 364

The fuel quantity control unit.

Front 365

What is the total number of fuel probes that are used by an F–16 C-model? D-model?

Back 365

Equipped with three external tanks, the C-model has 24 and the D-model has 23.

Front 366

What part of a fuel probe is used to form the plates of a capacitor?

Back 366

Two metal tubes electrically isolated from one another by Teflon spacers

Front 367

When an external tank is empty, what circuit is used to cancel out the capacitance signal to the

control unit?

Back 367

A negator circuit.

Front 368

What voltage is supplied to the fuel quantity measuring system for operation?

Back 368

115 VAC.

Front 369

What characteristic of a fuel probe varies according to the amount of fuel in the tank?

Back 369

Capacitance.

Front 370

What voltage is applied to the fuel probes for excitation?

Back 370

A high frequency 6 kHz excitation voltage.

Front 371

What is used to condition the applied excitation voltage prior to it being fed into the two fuel

probe diodes?

Back 371

The variable tank unit capacitance.

Front 372

Where are the two diode positive and negative half-wave signal outputs fed?

Back 372

Both are fed to the control unit.

Front 373

After filtering the incoming half-wave signals, what do the control unit positive and negative DC

voltages correlate to?

Back 373

Positive DC voltages correlate to fuel levels in either the FR or AL tank systems depending on the tank unit

that produced them. Negative DC voltages correlate to total fuel

Front 374

What does the fuel level sensing system provide?

Back 374

Fuel level sensing and controls the air ejector valves and the fuel-low caution lights.

Front 375

What type of sensors does the fuel level sensing system use and where are they found?

Back 375

Two low-level sensors and two air ejector control sensors that are located on the tank units in the forward

and aft reservoirs.

Front 376

Under what circumstance should an air ejector solenoid valve open?

Back 376

When the ejector control sensor becomes uncovered.

Front 377

What does the opening of the ejector control valve do for the fuel system?

Back 377

It expels air from the reservoir, creating suction that aids in fuel feeding.

Front 378

What is the purpose of the fuel level sensors?

Back 378

To detect when fuel drops below specific levels in the reservoir tanks.

Front 379

At approximately how many pounds of fuel will the reservoir ejector control sensors become

uncovered?

Back 379

440 pounds.

Front 380

For an F–16C and D-model aircraft, at approximately how many pounds will the forward and aft

reservoirs low level sensor become uncovered?

Back 380

The low-level sensor in the forward reservoir will be uncovered with fuel at approximately 400 pounds for

a C-model and 250 pounds for a D-model. The low-level sensor in the aft reservoir will be uncovered with

fuel at approximately 250 pounds for a C-model and 400 pounds for a D-model.

Front 381

What fuel level-sensing component provides for air ejector valve control and operation, fuel low

level indicating, and houses self-test and fault detection circuitry?

Back 381

The fuel level control unit.

Front 382

Where would you find the air ejector valves?

Back 382

In the aerial refuel well.

Front 383

What power is used to operate the fuel level sensing system components and where does it come

from?

Back 383

28 VDC from the FUEL LEVEL SENSING circuit breaker, mounted on the right strake DC power panel.

Front 384

How do you test the fuel level sensing system?

Back 384

By placing the fuel quantity select switch to TEST.

Front 385

What does the fuel level sensing test confirm?

Back 385

The integrity of the control unit and the warning light circuitry.

Front 386

What is the fuel level control unit fault detection circuitry used for?

Back 386

To detect an open sensor circuitry.

Front 387

What indication would you expect with a detected open in the forward ejector sensor circuit?

Back 387

An illuminated FWD FUEL LOW light.

Front 388

How long will the F–16 standby attitude indicator continue to provide aircraft pitch and roll

information when electrical power is lost and with what degree of accuracy?

a. Minimum of six minutes; ±4 degrees.

b. Minimum of nine minutes; ±4 degrees.

c. Minimum of six minutes; ±6 degrees.

d. Minimum of nine minutes; ±6 degrees.

Back 388

D

Front 389

The F–16 magnetic compass displays aircraft heading with respect to magnetic

a. North.

b. South.

c. East.

d. West.

Back 389

A

Front 390

What does the F–16 magnetic compass use to balance north-south and east-west errors

caused by magnetic influences generated by and within the aircraft?

a. Adjustable magnets.

b. Magnetic compensator.

c. Magnetic potentiometer.

d. Non-magnetic set screws.

Back 390

A

Front 391

If there is a loss of aircraft power, the F–16 embedded global positioning system/inertial

navigation system (EGI) will continue to operate using the EGI/inertial navigation unit (INU)

battery for up to how many seconds?

a. 5.

b. 10.

c. 20.

d. 30.

Back 391

B

Front 392

If the F–16 aircraft is going to fly at or below 80 degrees of latitude, what would be the

primary alignment mode for the embedded global positioning system/inertial navigation system

(EGI)?

a. Normal.

b. Attitude.

c. Navigation.

d. Stored heading.

Back 392

A

Front 393

Which F–16 embedded global positioning system/inertial navigation (EGI) mode of

operation is the primary flight mode and is entered from either a ground or in-flight alignment?

a. Normal.

b. Attitude.

c. Navigation.

d. Stored heading

Back 393

C

Front 394

If the F–16 embedded global positioning system/inertial navigation system (EGI) does not

have any GPS almanac data, satellite acquisition can take up to how many minutes?

a. 30.

b. 60.

c. 90.

d. 120.

Back 394

C

Front 395

On the F–16 embedded global positioning system/inertial navigation system (EGI), which

navigation solution is the most accurate and preferred by the pilot?

a. EGI.

b. INS-only.

c. GPS-only.

d. GPS/INS

Back 395

D

Front 396

What is the indication range of the F–16 fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT) indicator?

a. 100° to 600° C.

b. 200° to 1200° C.

c. 300° to 1800° C.

d. 400° to 2400° C.

Back 396

B

Front 397

Which F–16 hydraulic pressure indicators display the indication for hydraulic system A and

B?

a. Left indicators display both A and B systems.

b. Right indicators display both A and B systems.

c. Left indicators display A and right indicators display B.

d. Right indicators display A and left indicators display B.

Back 397

C

Front 398

How many internal fuel tanks does the F–16 have?

a. Six.

b. Seven.

c. Eight.

d. Twelve.

Back 398

B

Front 399

During operation, fuel is supplied directly to an F–16 aircraft engine from the

a. aft reservoir only.

b. forward reservoir only.

c. forward and aft reservoirs alternately.

d. forward and aft reservoirs simultaneously.

Back 399

D

Front 400

On an F–16 D-model, what tank is smaller than the one found on a C-model?

a. F–1.

b. F–2.

c. Aft reservoir.

d. Forward reservoir.

Back 400

A

Front 401

What does the red portion of the fuel quantity indicator pointer disc indicate?

a. No fuel in the external wing tanks.

b. A malfunction of the fuel quantity indicator.

c. A fuel imbalance between the forward and aft reservoirs.

d. A fuel imbalance between the forward and aft fuel systems.

Back 401

D

Front 402

Which indication would you expect to see on the fuel quantity indicator when selecting the

fuel quantity select switch TEST position?

a. Aft left (AL) and front right (FR) pointers read 1,500 (100) pounds; total fuel reads 5,000

(100) pounds.

b. AL and FR pointers read 1,500 (100) pounds; total fuel reads 6,000 (100) pounds.

c. AL and FR pointers read 2,000 (100) pounds; total fuel reads 5,000 (100) pounds.

d. AL and FR pointers read 2,000 (100) pounds; total fuel reads 6,000 (100) pounds.

Back 402

D

Front 403

How many fuel probes are in each externally mounted fuel tank?

a. One in all tanks.

b. Three in all tanks.

c. One in the centerline; three in the wing tanks.

d. Three in the centerline; one in the wing tanks.

Back 403

C

Front 404

What external tank component is used to cancel the capacitance signal to the control unit

when the tank is empty?

a. Probe assembly.

b. Bridge circuit.

c. Diode assembly.

d. Negator circuit.

Back 404

D

Front 405

How are the positive and negative-going DC signals summed by the control unit?

a. Positive for the aft channel; negative for the forward channel.

b. Positive for the forward channel; negative for the aft channel.

c. Positive for the discrete tank channel; negative for the total fuel channel.

d. Positive for the total fuel channel; negative for the discrete tank channel.

Back 405

C

Front 406

Where are the two low-level sensors and two air ejector control sensors found?

a. On the fuel probes of the F–2 and A–1 tanks.

b. On the fuel probes of the F–1 and aft reservoir tanks.

c. On the fuel probes of the forward and aft reservoirs.

d. On the fuel probes of the A–1 and forward reservoir tanks.

Back 406

C

Front 407

For an F–16 block 40 aircraft, at approximately how many pounds of fuel does the ejector

control sensor uncover?

a. 250 pounds.

b. 400 pounds.

c. 440 pounds.

d. 520 pounds.

Back 407

C

Front 408

The F–16 fuel level sensing system uses 28-VDC from the right strake DC power panel for

operation of the air ejector valves,

a. fuel level sensors, and the FWD and AFT FUEL LOW lights only.

b. fuel quantity control unit, and the FWD and AFT FUEL LOW lights only.

c. fuel level sensors, fuel level control unit, and the FWD and AFT FUEL LOW lights.

d. fuel level sensors, fuel quantity control unit, and the FWD and AFT FUEL LOW lights.

Back 408

C