7 Level - Ures

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1. (001) The financial management career field life-cycle requirements and a listing of all core tasks

are found in

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d. the career field education and training plan.

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2. (001) What information is provided in Part II of the Career Field Education and Training Plan

(CFETP)?

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b. Duties, tasks, and references.

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3. (001) An initial evaluation is conducted and documented within how many days of a trainee being

assigned to a new duty position, PCS, or PCA?

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b. 60.

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4. (001) The purpose of a utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to

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d. develop a new training standard to accommodate changes in the field.

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5. (002) Which member is required to rotate to a new duty section at the required time?

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a. MSgt assigned to the financial management flight.

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6. (002) Who must approve an extension to allow a member to remain in the same section for an

additional 15 months?

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d. MAJCOM functional manager.

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7. (003) What is the total number of years of experience you must have to obtain your level two

certification; how many years must be in the DOD?

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b. Four; two.

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8. (003) What is the total number of years of experience must you have to obtain your level three

certification; how many years must be in the DOD?

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a. Eight; two.

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9. (004.) Deployed members successfully support the war fighting commanders by resolving

challenges such as

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b. social customs.

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10. (004.) Which item did the Secretary of the Air Force/Financial Management (SAF/FM) and your

major command (MAJCOM) functional area manager create in order to help you determine on

what items to train?

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d. Unit type code (UTC) task listing.

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12. (004.) Silver Flag provides mandatory hands-on advanced paying agent training to

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c. noncommissioned officers.

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13. (005) Standard force packages are identified with a five-character, alphanumeric designator called

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d. MEFPAK.

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14. (005) A designator determining detailed manpower and logistical support requirements that

describes necessary personnel, skill levels, numbers, and equipment required for deployments is

called the

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d. mission capability designator.

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15. (005) What term best describes a standard passenger and equipment movement requirement for

each unit type code (UTC) that is worldwide deployable?

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b. LOGDET.

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16. (005) Which automated reporting system functions as the central registry of all operational units

of the United States Armed Forces?

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d. SORTS.

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17. (005) Air and Space Expeditionary Force unit training code reporting tool (ART) assessments are

based on the capability defined by the

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c. MISCAP.

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18. (006) How many steps are needed to make optimal decisions that lead to successful decision

support?

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d. Eight.

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19. (006) When time is available and appropriate, what is the preferred style for conflict resolution?

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c. Collaborating.

Front 19

20. (006) The human brain processes visual 400,000 times faster than text; when the brain is exposed

to a presentation, how much visual information does it retain?

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c. 55 percent.

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21. (006) When you analyze a typical process, what percentage of activities will you discover are

considered non-value added?

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b. 80.

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11. (004.) Individuals complete the advanced Comptroller Contingency Familiarization Course

(CCFC) when they are

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b. within 90 days of their AEF window.

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22. (007) Air Force members fulfill the trust placed in them by the American people in being

entrusted with public funds by following basic principles of

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a. ethical conduct.

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23. (007) When you follow the core concepts of governmental ethics, you know that you must not use

public office for

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a. private gain.

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24. (007) When you violate the ethics code, you provide grounds to cross train you or

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d. discharge you from military service.

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25. (008) The Quality Assurance Program (QAP) provides the comptroller with reasonable assurance

that assets are effectively managed and

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b. applicable laws, regulations, and policies are followed.

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26. (008) The quality assurance manager (QAM) periodically examines all financial management

activities to determine

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c. the effectiveness of procedures.

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27. (008) What report is compiled monthly and provided to management for review during the

monthly quality assurance (QA) meeting?

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d. Discrepancy tracking.

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28. (008) Who serves as the chairperson during a quality assurance meeting?

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a. Comptroller.

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29. (008) An important element of management controls and the quality assurance program (QAP) is

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a. the ability to cross-feed problem areas.

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30. (008) In the quality assurance program (QAP), duplicated effort can be eliminated by

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b. reviewing cross feed.

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31. (008) Within the financial management and comptroller organization, direct oversight of the fraud

prevention program is the responsibility of the

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a. quality assurance manager (QAM).

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32. (008) Who is responsible for a semiannual audit of pay records of all personnel with access to the

Defense Joint Military Pay System?

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c. Financial service office (FSO).

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33. (009) Before auditing the pay record accessibility roster, what should you obtain for each

individual on the roster?

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a. Leave and earning statement.

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34. (010) Which Air Force management level must maintain adequate documentation of the

managers’ internal program (MICP) activity?

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a. All levels.

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35. (010) A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization’s management control

objectives is

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d. a material weakness.

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36. (011) Under the Air Force Audit Program, auditors do not perform line, staff, or other collateral

duties that

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a. impair their independence.

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37. (011) Under the Air Force Audit Program, who selects an activity for audit?

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c. Air Force Audit Agency (AFAA).

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38. (011) Draft audit reports are

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a. released to management.

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39. (012) What plan was developed to focus on improving processes, controls, and system supporting

information most often used to manage resources?

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d. Financial improvement and audit readiness plan.

Front 40

40. (012) What information is the first priority of the financial improvement and audit readiness

(FIAR) plan?

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c. Budgetary.

Front 41

41. (012) What is conducted to give SAF/FM reasonable assurance financial management internal

controls are met across the Air Force?

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b. Drill.

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42. (013) Who must research items in DEAMS to determine the base responsible for processing a

voucher when it shows on the “NO BASE ASSIGNED” report?

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a. DFAS-IN.

Front 43

43. (013) What was developed to assist bases with tracking payment and collection vouchers

processed in DEAMS throughout the month?

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b. DEAMS military pay voucher balancing report.

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44. (014) What allowance is paid to civilians required to evacuate?

a. Subsistence expense allowance.

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a. Subsistence expense allowance.

Front 45

45. (014) What form is used to authorize payment of emergency funds for command and noncommand

sponsored dependents?

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a. DD Form 1337.

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46. (015) What office will normally process the program elements transaction for deceased members?

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a. FSO.

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47. (015) How long does the financial services office (FSO) have to send the completed SF 1174 to

the Defense Finance and Accounting Service–Indianapolis (DFAS–IN)?

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b. Five duty days.

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48. (016) In which area does the comptroller general not issue decisions and opinions?

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d. Public law.

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49. (016) Procedures for requesting advanced comptroller general decisions are found in

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b. DODFMR Vol. 9.

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50. (017) What is included in the doubtful claim transmittal?

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c. Results of research.

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51. (018) What caused a division in the discipline of accounting?

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b. The diversity of interested parties.

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52. (019) What financial system provides a single data point-of-entry?

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b. AFM.

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53. (019) What document is used for funding of operations and maintenance (O&M) of a base?

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c. OBAD.

Front 54

54. (019) Primarily what type of documents are the Operating Budget Authority Document (OBAD)

and the Budget Authority/Allotment Document (BA/AD)?

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a. Control.

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55. (020) Before the issuance of allotments and operating budgets to base level, which of these begin

with the Appropriation Act?

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a. Funding authority, limitations, distribution of funds.

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56. (020) What is the second step you take when interpreting funding guidance?

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d. Closely review the amounts to determine period of availability for those funds.

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57. (020) If reimbursement authority is added to direct authority, the next step is to

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a. load targets.

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58. (020) What is the first thing you look at when interpreting you annual funding?

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d. Operating agency code/operating budget account number.

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59. (020) Which of the three restraints on a funding document contains a floor limitation?

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c. Line item.

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60. (020) The standing and prestige of the United States when extending official courtesies to

dignitaries and foreign countries must be paid by using

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a. official representation of funds (ORF).

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61. (021) What type of contribution does the executive plan (EP) require from personnel at every

organization?

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c. Corporate knowledge and expertise.

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62. (021) Prior-year data in the executive plan (EP) should match expense data recorded in the

accounting records on 30 September and the

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b. actual obligation data.

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63. (021) What is an adjustment made to accounts due to changes in accounting policies or errors?

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d. Prior year.

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64. (022) What is included in the expenses for transportation of people?

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c. Per diem and rental vehicles.

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65. (022) What office prepares the supporting documentation for reimbursement of utilities?

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a. Civil Engineer Squadron (CES).

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66. (022) Which category is not one of three categories of analysis performed in computing the flying

hour program?

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b. CPFH.

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67. (022) The cost of flying hour rates are based on the

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a. AFCAIG.

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68. (023) The process of collecting and reviewing data to identify patterns is called

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a. trend analysis.

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69. (023) When starting a program analysis, the first thing you should do is

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d. decide what is going to be analyzed.

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70. (024) The wing commander is usually the chair during a financial management board (FMB)

meeting, while the briefer and recorder is usually the

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c. Financial analysis officer.

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71. (024) The Financial Working Group (FWG) is responsible for participating in the development of

requirements for the base execution plan and

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a. representing their organizations on matters concerning distribution of quarterly and annual

operating budget targets.

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72. (025) Who is responsible for developing joint doctrine?

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d. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs.

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73. (025) Which objective is used to define FM capabilities and processes that produce

results for combatant commanders?

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b. CONOPS.

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74. (026) What type of control do combatant commanders (CCDR) retain over the forces assigned to

them?

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a. Operational.

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75. (027) What type of support is considered a host nation support (HSN) tool?

a. Acquisition and cross-service agreements (ACSA).

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a. Acquisition and cross-service agreements (ACSA).

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76. (028) You procure foreign currency at the best rate available when

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a. the State Department procedures are not established.

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77. (028) Which statement is correct regarding limited depository account (LDA) checks?

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b. Disbursing officers shall maintain a record of every LDA check issued.

Front 78

78. (029) What statement is correct regarding the management of an Air Force Form 616, Fund Cite

Authorization?

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d. Amounts cited represent targets and are not an administrative subdivision of funds.

Front 79

79. (030) After an organization requests a purchase of services and supplies, then

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c. an order or contract needs to be prepared.

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80. (030) What is done after a call is received from blanket purchase agreement (BPA)?

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c. Match up the call with the corresponding AF Form 9.

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81. (030) Which is not an authorized purchase for the Aviation Into-Plane Reimbursement card?

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b. Lodging services when military facilities are not available.

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82. (030) The disbursing team at Shaw Air Force Base compares the SWIFT code to the

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c. template built in ITS.gov.

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83. (031) What form does the disbursing officer (DO) use to record and report their official

accountability to the Treasury?

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a. SF 1219.

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84. (031) Who is normally in charge of the disbursing office?

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b. DDO.

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85. (031) What form shows collections are netted against disbursements?

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a. SF 1219.

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86. (031) To ensure the designated cashiers are of unquestionable integrity, the disbursing officer

(DO) will

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a. interview the individual.

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87. (032) What form is used as a receipt for cash and vouchers on hand?

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a. DD Form 2665.

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88. (033) Which Department of Defense (DD) form depicts a continuous picture of transactions

affecting liability?

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c. DD Form 2665.

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89. (033) Agents must complete turn-ins of original documents with supporting attachments at least

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c. monthly.

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90. (034) When you provide the available balance and total obligations in a slide presentation, do so

on

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a. one slide.

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91. (035) When performing destruction of funds what items should be destroyed first?

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c. US and foreign cash.

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92. (035) What form is completed when performing destruction of funds?

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a. DD Form 2669.