3D1X3 Self Test Questions Vol. 2 Unit 3

Front 1

What is electronic warfare?

Back 1

Any military action involving the use of the EM spectrum to include DE to control the EM spectrum or to
attack an enemy.

Front 2

How does EA prevent or reduce an enemy’s use of the EM spectrum?

Back 2

Detection, denial, disruption, deception, and destruction.

Front 3

What is the key element in preventing jamming by friendly forces?

Back 3

Proper frequency management.

Front 4

Give some examples of EP.

Back 4

Frequency agility in a radio, change pulse repetition frequency on a radar set, electronic and material
shielding for systems, and processes to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion.

Front 5

What taskings do ES respond to?

Back 5

Search for, intercept, identify, and locate sources of intentional and unintentional radiated EM energy for
the purpose of threat recognition.

Front 6

What EW effects are waged throughout the electromagnetic spectrum to secure and maintain
effective control and use?

Back 6

Through the integration of detection, denial, deception, disruption, and destruction.

Front 7

Define EM deception as it applies to EW.

Back 7

The deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection
of EM energy in a manner intended to convey misleading information to an enemy or to enemy EMdependent
weapons, thereby degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combat capability.

Front 8

Define encryption.

Back 8

The process of scrambling information so it is unintelligible to anyone except the intended recipient.

Front 9

What is secure voice?

Back 9

Devices which are designed to provide voice encryption for voice communication over a range of
communication types such as radio, telephone or IP.

Front 10

escribe the difference between symmetric and asymmetric algorithms?

Back 10

Symmetric algorithms use the same key for both encryption and decryption where the decryption key is
derived from encryption key. Asymmetric algorithms use a different key for encryption and decryption, the
decryption key cannot be derived from the encryption key.

Front 11

What permits the encryption key to be public and the decryption key to be private?

Back 11

Asymmetric algorithms permit the encryption key to be public, allowing anyone to encrypt with the key,
but the decryption key is private so only the intended recipient can decrypt the message.

Front 12

Describe the difference between “keyed” and “unkeyed” encryption devices.

Back 12

When an encryption device is appropriately configured with the proper codes, it is considered to be
“keyed.” Absence of this configuration code renders the device useless; it is then considered to be
“unkeyed.”

Front 13

If the operator uses a TOP SECRET code key, what security classification would the device take?

Back 13

If the operator uses a TOP SECRET code key, the device is considered TOP SECRET.

Front 14

How is COMSEC hardware categorized when it is empty and free of codes?

Back 14

Cryptographic controlled item (CCI).

Front 15

Describe the KY–99 encryption device?

Back 15

A self-contained terminal with embedded communication security and is designed to provide secure voice
and/or data communications for military customers.

Front 16

Which encryption device is a general, high-capacity key generator used to encrypt and decrypt
teletypewriter and digital data in both tactical and fixed environments?

Back 16

KG–84.

Front 17

What does the mode switch on a KY–57 do?

Back 17

It allows you to transmit in the clear and secure mode and it controls the loading of encryption codes.

Front 18

When the cryptographic ignition key is removed and not collocated, how should the KIV–7 be
handled?

Back 18

As an UNCLASSIFIED cryptographic controlled item (CCI).

Front 19

How do you operate a KOI–18?

Back 19

Slide the key tape into the reader and pull it out at a moderate rate.

Front 20

How do you verify the presence of a code in a KYK–13?

Back 20

The red indicator light blinks when you press the initiate button in the OFF/CHECK position.

Front 21

What is one advantage of the CYZ–10?

Back 21

You can carry hundreds of fills

Front 22

What is OTAR?

Back 22

Method of changing the encryption keys in a two-way radio system over the radio channel or over the air.

Front 23

What does OTAR give you?

Back 23

A centralized control over encryption keys which reduces procedural, operational, and security problems.

Front 24

What does the FH signal to a receiver that is not synchronized to the transmitter look like?

Back 24

Impulse noise.

Front 25

What type of techniques makes the HAVE QUICK and SINCGARS radios effective against
jamming, compared to older systems?

Back 25

FH techniques.

Front 26

What is the hopping speed of the fast FH mode?

Back 26

More than 1,000 hops/sec.

Front 27

Name the types of spread spectrum systems.

Back 27

Direct sequence, FH, time hopping, pulsed FM (chirp), and hybrid systems.

Front 28

What type of system uses a combination of spread spectrum methods to use the beneficial
properties of the systems used?

Back 28

Hybrid systems.

Front 29

What four properties arise as a result of the pseudorandom code sequence and the wide signal
bandwidth that results from spreading?

Back 29

Selective addressing code, division multiplexing, low probability of intercept, and antijamming.

Front 30

What does the acronym “ICOM” indicate?

Back 30

Integrated COMSEC capability

Front 31

Which section of the RT–1523 is responsible for modulation and demodulation?

Back 31

The RF section.

Front 32

State the purpose of the interleaver during receiver operations.

Back 32

Removal of synchronization and frequency-hopping information that is embedded in the signal.

Front 33

How many different impedance bands are contained in the impedance matching network?

Back 33

4.

Front 34

Which band of the impedance matching network is used if a BNC-type connector is connected to
the RT?

Back 34

The 50-ohm band.

Front 35

State two conditions which will cause the SIDETONE DISABLE line to be set to logic level 1.

Back 35

Temperature exceeding 105° Celsius or VSWR exceeding 5:1.

Front 36

Name the 3 items used to select a frequency from the look-up table during FH mode.

Back 36

The TRANSEC variable, FH sync time (TOD), and net ID number.

Front 37

Where does the control module obtain and execute instructions during remote operation?

Back 37

From the remote I/O module.

Front 38

Which RF section module performs modulation of the carrier?

Back 38

The exciter/power amplifier.

Front 39

State the purpose of HAVE QUICK radios.

Back 39

To prevent unfriendly forces from interfering with our communications.

Front 40

What is the purpose of WOD and TOD?

Back 40

The radios use WOD and TOD to decide which frequency they should be on at any given time.

Front 41

Why isn’t HAVE QUICK considered a means of secure communications?

Back 41

Broadband spectrum analyzers can quickly “see” each frequency as it is being used and thereby “listen” to
the communications. A determined enemy can tune 7,000 receivers to the proper frequencies and listen to
the communications.

Front 42

List two differences between HQI and HQII.

Back 42

HQ1 allows one word to be loaded at a time; the word has no time limit for how long it can be used. HQII
allows up to six words to be loaded at a time and each word expires after 24 hours.

Front 43

Which module of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 controls all activities of the transceiver?

Back 43

The ECCM module.

Front 44

What is the RF output power when in FM mode? [AN/GRC–171B(V)4]

Back 44

50 watts.

Front 45

What happens to the guard receiver when the transceiver is keyed? [AN/GRC–171B(V)4]

Back 45

The guard receiver is disabled.

Front 46

Which module determines frequency selection when in the HAVE QUICK mode? [AN/GRC–171B(V)4]

Back 46

The ECCM processor.

Front 47

What causes all 6s to be displayed on the FREQ/CHAN display?

Back 47

An over temperature condition.

Front 48

What does it mean if the FAULT lamp comes on? [AN/GRC–171B(V)4]

Back 48

It indicates an out-of-tolerance condition exists.

Front 49

What is JTIDS commonly referred to?

Back 49

Link–16.

Front 50

State the principle of operation that eliminates the requirement for a net control station?

Back 50

TDMA eliminates the requirement for a net control station (NCS) by providing nodeless communications
network architecture.

Front 51

What acts as the single time source for time synchronization of all units entering the network?

Back 51

Network Time Reference (NTR).

Front 52

What makes JTIDS resistant to jamming?

Back 52

Spread-spectrum and FH techniques.

Front 53

The JTIDS terminal operates in what frequency band?

Back 53

L-band (between 960 and 1215 MHz.

Front 54

Describe the enhanced position location reporting system.

Back 54

EPLRS is a joint service, software programmable, networking digital radio. It provides secure, jam-resistant
wireless digital connection among battlefield computers; allowing field commander’s to form a joint
network. Also, it provides platform position information independent of GPS. EPLRS aids in fratricide
prevention because it is highly jam resistant and thus allows weapons platforms to see where other EPLRS
are located even in a congested battlefield environment.

Front 55

What are the EPLRS system virtual circuits called?

Back 55

Needlines, to set up communications between EPLRS RSs.

Front 56

Who controls the EPLRS control network, performs all the necessary calculations, routes control
net messages and queries, and graphically displays the positions of all active RSs?

Back 56

EPLRS network manager

Front 57

Name the four features the EPLRS radio sets provide.

Back 57

The radio sets provide the following features:
(1) Display user position location with accuracy of 10 to 30 meters for manpack, surface vehicle, and grid
reference RS and 25 to 100 meters for airborne RS.
(2) Provide automatic reporting of RS position location.
(3) Provide user-to-user digital readout communications.
(4) Provide range and bearing to other RS, designated reference points, or predesignated positions.

Front 58

Describe the situational awareness data link (SADL).

Back 58

SADL integrates modified US Air Force close air support aircraft with the digitized battlefield information
via EPLRS on their heads up display showing where Army/Marine/ground radios are located.

Front 59

What is the ultimate goal for the joint tactical radio system family of radios?

Back 59

To produce a family of interoperable, modular, software-defined radios that operate as nodes in a network
to ensure secure wireless communication and networking services for mobile and fixed forces.

Front 60

What does legacy interoperability deal with?

Back 60

Legacy interoperability deals with the ability for JTR sets to communicate with designated radios currently
fielded and, more specifically, the waveforms associated with each of those radios

Front 61

What can each channel of a JTR capable of executing?

Back 61

Each channel of a JTR is capable (in general) of executing a different waveform (e.g. WNW, EPLRS, etc.)
depending on the mission requirements determined by the operator.

Front 62

How many programmable devices can MBITR hold?

Back 62

Being software-based, MBITR holds seven programmable devices.